Venue Test
A _____________________ is a public assembly venue with exhibit space, meeting rooms, and banquet areas. A. Convention Centre B. Theater C. Special event venue D. Amphitheatre E. Bowling alley
A
A disadvantage of general admission seating is that: A. Safety and crowd control issues may occur B. The promoter may want to count fans manually C. Overall ticket revenues are always lower than with reserved seating D. Roll tickets typically must be used E. Venue capacity for the event often increases
A
A/An ___________________ rental deal requires that the promoter pay a specified amount, which normally would include venue rental and staffing into one fee. A. All-in B. One off C. Last minute D. Contra E. Casual
A
Based on a tentative hold to by the booking manager and the promoter, the promoter can assume all of the following to be true EXCEPT: A. The contract has been issued and event will be confirmed when the signed contract is returned B. The date(s) will remain on hold for a predetermined time C. The event can occur on that day D. The venue can host the event E. There are no scheduling conflicts
A
CVB stands for? A. Convention and visitors bureau B. Convention visitor bus C. Co-ordinated visitor buyout D. Computed variation booking E. Convention via business
A
Copy of While the production rider clearly determines the number of stagehands, riggers, loaders, and other back-of-house event personnel, the front of house event staffing levels are ultimately determined by the: A. Venue manager B. Box office manager C. Promoter D. Event owner E. Fire marshall
A
From the following list identify any areas that The Disability Discrimination Act does not apply to?: A. All of the Above B. Employment C. Provision of Goods Services & Facilities D. Administration of Commonwealth Government Laws and Programs E. Education F. Activities of Clubs and Associations G. Sport H. Accommodation I. Buying Land J. Access to premises
A
In a standard flat rental deal, which one of the following is responsible for paying the rental fee and bears the bulk of the financial risk when an event is held in a public assembly venue? A. Promoter B. Performer C. Manager D. Agent E. General manager
A
In all the major professional sport leagues (MLB, MLS, NBA, NHL, and NFL) what is the most common ownership/management structure for the venues in which they play? A. Public ownership/team management B. Other C. Public ownership/private management D. Public ownership/public management E. Team ownership/team management
A
Public assembly venues are selling __________ and ______________ to their clients. A. Time and space B. Audience and carparking C. Carparking and networking opportunities D. All of these answers are correct E. None of these answers are correct
A
RFP stands for: A. Request for proposals B. Requirements for promoters C. Rider for production D. Request for parking E. Revenue from premiums
A
The "drop count" refers to which of the following: A. Number of tickets that were torn/scanned as guests entered the building B. Number of tickets sold C. None of these answers are correct. D. Number of tickets dropped off at the ticket office to be picked up later E. Total number of people in the venue (guests and staff)
A
The __________________________ refers to the maximum number of people allowed by code in any given venue or area of the venue A. Capacity rating B. Festival limit C. None of these answers are correct. D. Ticket manifest E. All of these answers are correct
A
The analysis that divides the total concession sales by the number of event attendees in order to determine the average per attending spending is: A. Per cap B. Economic impact C. None of these answers are correct. D. Return-on-investment E. Feasibility study
A
The most important tool used to determine whether or not to build a public assembly venue, as well as the type and size of the venue to build is a: A. Feasibility study B. Census C. Parking, traffic and transportation study D. None of these answers E. Economic impact study
A
What is the typical split between the event and the venue on a merchandise contract? A. 25% to the venue/75% to the event B. 80% to the venue/20% to the event C. 25% to the event/75% to the venue D. 40% to the venue/60% to the event E. 50% to the event/50% to the venue
A
Which of the following is NOT part of the IAVM Code of Ethics? A. Maintain the highest levels of service by fulfilling all client requests. B. Maintain the principle of fairness to all. C. Exercise fair and impartial judgement in all professional business dealings. D. Refrain from any activity that may be in conflict with the interest of the employer. E. Maintain the highest ideals of honor and integrity.
A
Which of the following methods may be used to secure the necessary event personnel for a public assembly venue? A. All of these answers are correct and may be used to secure personnel. B. Contract out C. Run in-house D. Use a local union
A
Which of the following personnel requirements is NOT addressed in a client's rider? A. Ushers B. Equipment operators C. All of these personnel requirements are addressed by the rider D. Riggers E. Stagehands
A
Which of the following venues could host a music concert? A. All of these answers B. Arena C. Amphitheatre D. Stadium E. Theater
A
__________________ is often a strategy for reducing expenses and while it may reduce short-term operating costs, it will most likely result in higher long-term costs to repair or replace neglected equipment. A. Deferred maintenance B. Engineering C. Housekeeping D. Preventative maintenance E. Casual maintenance staff contracts
A
______________________ is responsible for the activities associated with the management of the venue's mechanical systems environment. A. Engineering B. Housekeeping C. Maintenance D. Production E. Operations
A
_______________________ pricing is a strategy whereby sports teams and event promoters change the prices of their tickets based on customer demand as it is impacted by characteristics of the event (ie a star opponent or rain in the forecast). A. Dynamic B. Scalping C. Promotional ticket D. Ticket scaling E. Scaled ticketing
A
_________________________ is a document that provides venue personnel with an hour-by-hour detailed description of items happening on the day of an event. A. Timeline B. Rider C. Banquet event order D. Event contract E. Performance operations list
A
Please select the 2 key standards and legislation for Accessibility that you will be required to adhere to when practicing as a venue and event management professional: A. Disability (Access to Premises - Buildings) Standards, 2010 B. National Arts and Disability Strategy C. Disability Discrimination Act, 1992 D. Australian Human Rights Commision E. Accessible Arts
A, C
All of the following are arguements used to support the construction and financing of public assembly venues except: A. The venues help attract businesses that can stimulate the local economy. B. The venues always generate a great deal of revenue for the owner. C. The venues are an asset necessary to remain competitive with rival cities and towns. D. The venues are necessary to attract or retain professional sports franchises, major touring concerts, conventions, meetings, and trade shows. E. The venues represent an opportunity to enhance the community's quality of life.
B
All of the following are benefits of a prime tenant, EXCEPT: A. Enhances the value of certain commercial rights B. Provides for increased flexibility of the venue's event calendar C. Guaranteed numbers of events each year D. Reliable driver of ancillary event revenues E. Generates media coverage and exposure for the venue
B
At which point in the booking process should the venue manager place an event on sale? A. None of these answers is correct B. Contracted C. Qualified D. Tentative E. Confirmed
B
There are generally two different types of marketing within the public assembly venue management industry, and they are: A. Event marketing and group sales B. Event and venue marketing C. Artist and agent marketing D. Client and customer marketing E. Radio and television marketing
B
What are two primary considerations when determining the duration of an event advertising campaign? A. Budget and average attendance at the venue's events B. Budget and event sales history C. Budget and number of personnel in the marketing department D. Budget and target audience E. None of these answers are correct
B
Which of the following categories does not fit in the definition of commercial rights? A. Advertising rights B. Broadcasting rights C. Venue sponsorship rights D. Naming rights E. Pouring rights
B
Which of the following is NOT considered promoter-generated ancillary revenue for a public assembly venue? A. In-house marketing and advertising agency fees B. Parking, traffic, and transportation services C. Television production fees D. Utility fees E. Space rental
B
Which of the following would NOT be considered a life safety device? A. Automatic external defibrillator B. ATM C. Portable fire extinguisher D. Walkie-talkie E. Megaphone
B
ADA stands for: A. Americans with distinguished access B. None of these answers are correct. C. Americans with Disabilities Act D. Archtiectural determined accessories E. Advertising demographic audit
C
General admission seating in a venue for an event refers to: A. Tickets sold on a commercial ticket system without the print-at-home feature B. Ticket pricing with no discounting C. Tickets sold for an event where guests sit/stand based on a first-come, first served basis D. Seating sold without regard to date of admission (seats are good for 'any day) E. Open space in a venue with no chairs
C
HVAC stands for: A. Heating, Ventilation, Air Compression B. House Vendor Accessibility Compliance C. Heating, Ventilation, Air Conditioning D. Housekeeping, Vapour, Air Circulation E. Heating, Vapour, Air Compliance
C
Legislation, regulations and compliance in Risk, Safety and Security vary across Australia. Identify the relevant Act (legal framework) for risk management and safety in NSW: A. ISO 3100:2009 Risk Management - Principles and Guidelines B. NSW Industrial Relations Act 1996 C. NSW WHS Act 2011 D. NSW Employment Protection Act 1996
C
The primary commodities of any public assembly venue are ________________ and _____________________. A. Events and ancillary services B. Tickets and merchandise C. Time and space D. Events and tickets E. Tickets and ancillary services
C
When negotiating a contract with a private management company to handle the day-to-day operations of a venue, the venue owner must ensure that they retain control of all major areas of responsibility including at least approval of all the following except: A. Annual operating and capital budgets B. Booking policies and rental rates C. Event staff uniforms D. co-promotion and/or in-house promotions that involve financial risk E. Venue manager candidate
C
Which employee would not be considered part of the venue's front of house team? A. Ticket takers B. Ticket sellers C. Stagehands D. Ushers E. First aid
C
Which is NOT one of the areas that a public assembly venue manager relies on to anticipate crowd behaviour? A. The type of event B. The type of venue C. The time of the year D. The size of the crowd E. Research and communication with other facilities
C
Which of the following is a key skill necessary for the successful venue manager? A. Entrepreneurial instincts B. Ability to negotiate C. All of these answers D. Ability to communicate E. Team-building abilities
C
Which of the following statements about crowd management is NOT accurate? A. Crowd management plans are created through the analysis of known factors and identification of potential issues. B. Crowd management is a proactive organisational strategy which guides venue personnel in providing and maintaining the desired event environment. C. Crowd management is a reactive measure employed to control crowds through both human and physical elements. D. Crowd management is a component of an event risk management plan. E. Crowd management plans may be created by venue personnel or with the assistance of an outside expert.
C
While the _______________ type of manufacturing contract is the most commonly agreed-upon structure, it requires an additional supervision, control systems, and marketing knowledge from the venue staff and retailer. A. Flat rate fee B. None of these answers are correct. C. Percentage of sales fee D. Per person fee E. Premium merchandise fee
C
______________________ is the generic term for all personnel working backstage in a production. A. Road Crew B. Runner C. Stagehand D. Stage Manager E. Custodian
C
________________________ is, simply put, the process of reselling a ticket for more than face value. A. Scaled ticketing B. Roll ticketing C. Scalping D. Capacity ticketing E. Upselling
C
_________________________ is defined as the process of identification of risk, analysis of risk as to its likelihood, frequency and severity, risk reduction/elimination and transfer, to the extent possible of the remaining risk. A. Liability B. Crisis planning C. Risk Management D. Parking management E. Crowd management
C
BEO stands for: A. Business ethics options B. Broadcast event operation C. Break even opportunity D. Banquet event order E. Bolster event outcomes
D
If a particular event "fits" in regard to booking it means which of the following? A. Physically fits in the venue B. None of these answers are correct C. Fits into the mission and purpose of the venue D. All of these answers E. Fits on the event calendar
D
LEED stands for: A. Logistics Entertainment Experience Directives B. Leadership in Emergency Event Disasters C. Limited Engagement Expense Document D. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design E. Logo Exceeds Extended Deadline
D
The first domed stadium in the USA was the _______________________________ which opened in 1965. A. Metrodome B. Toronto Skydome C. Georgia Dome D. Houston Astrodome E. New Orleans Superdome
D
There are five basic methods for dealing with risk. Which of the following is utilised when the maximum severity of loss is relatively low and the chance of loss is also low? A. Risk transfer B. Loss reduction C. Loss prevention D. Risk assumption E. Risk avoidance
D
There are five basic methods of dealing with risk. Which of the following is utilised for those risks when the chance of loss is high and loss severity is also high? A. Risk assumption B. Loss Prevention C. Risk transfer D. Risk avoidance E. Loss reduction
D
What is the document which is developed by the act/event explaining in detail each of the elements required by the production in order to produce a quality performance? A. Event resume B. Ticket manifest C. Promoter information packet D. Production rider E. Promotional production procedures
D
Which is not considered a risk management responsibility of the venue manager as they seek to minimize the risks in the event environment of their venue? A. Proper contract administration B. Alcohol management C. Event certificate of insurance D. Merchandise copyright insurance E. Emergency and crisis management planning
D
Which of the following core functions includes the management of the concessions and catering operations? A. None of these answers B. Event management C. Operations management D. Management of ancillary revenue sources E. Sales and marketing
D
Which of the following does NOT appear in a typical risk management assessment model for a public assembly venue? A. Threat assessment B. Asset assessment C. Vulnerability assessment D. Environmental assessment E. Risk assessment
D
Which of the following is a typical responsibility of a venue's managing authority or commission? A. Approving tenant lease agreements B. Hiring and firing of the venue manager C. Annual operating and capital budget approval D. All of these answers E. Setting booking and usage policies
D
Which of the following refers to the work performed by the event staff and venue management to provide safety and security for guests attending events? A. Risk management B. Crowd control C. None of these answers is correct D. Crowd management E. Parking management
D
Based on the IAVM 2012 Sustainability study, approximately __________________ of venues responding have some form of recycling program. A. 15% B. 22% C. 54% D. 78% E. 99%
E
Governmental entities may decide to privatise the management of their venue for a number of reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. Decrease financial losses B. The need for investment dollars C. Remove bureaucratic controls D. Increase event bookings E. Increase staff size
E
If a venue manager charges a promoter $500 for the right for the concert artist to sell merchandise, it would be considered a ______________ contract. A. Bootleg B. Casual C. Contra D. Non-formal E. Flat rate fee
E
In the USA _________________ specify that commercial establishments can be held liable if an employee sells alcohol to a visibly intoxicated person who later is involved in an accident or injures third parties. A. T.E.A.M. laws B. Civil laws C. Server-patron connection laws D. Third-party negligence laws E. Dram shop laws
E
In the context of a public assembly venue, PSL stands for: A. Public service laws B. Promoter standard liability C. Preliminary site list D. Planning strategic labour E. Personal seat licence
E
One of the most important aspects of the booking process is determining the viability of an event , which is referred to as: A. Qualifying the promoter B. Qualifying the agent C. Quantifying the promoter D. Quantifying the event E. Qualifying the event
E
Select the key treatment options for risks as identified in a Register or Matrix: A. Accept Risk B. Avoid Risk C. Transfer Risk D. Treat (Reduce the Likelihood or Consequence) E. All of the above
E
Selling food and beverage items in the venue seating sections during the event is referred to as: A. Branding B. Bootlegging C. Maximising D. Marketing E. Hawking
E
The ____________________ provides a basis for the governing body when making policy decisions regarding booking priorities, tenant oversight, reporting, and budget developments. A. Operating budget. B. Capital improvements. C. None of these answers D. Organisational chart E. Mission statement.
E
The most common type of ownership/management structure for public assembly venues is: A. Private ownership/private sports team B. Private ownership/non-profit management C. None of these answers D. Public ownership/private management E. Public ownership/public management
E
The security feature on all e-tickets that ensures authenticity is: A. Colour of the ink B. Date and time recorded when the ticket is printed C. Size of the paper D. Serial code E. Bar code
E
Venue date protection policies: A. Are necessary in a venue with a prime tenant to prevent double booking B. Protect NBA facilities during a lockout or strike C. Allow a promoter to hold a date unless challenged. D. Allow a venue to schedule "dark days" for building maintenance, employee holidays etc. E. Provide scheduling criteria requiring a reasonable degree of separation between similar attractions.
E
Which employee would not be considered part of the venue's back of house staff? A. Carpenters B. Custodians C. Engineers D. Stagehands E. Ushers
E
Which of the following determines how a particular venue is organised? (ie. management and structure)? A. Venue type B. Mission C. Ownership D. Purpose E. All of these answers
E
Which of the following is NOT considered a venue life-safety system? A. Fire suppression systems B. HVAC systems C. Public address systems D. Emergency power source E. Access management system
E
Which of the following is an example of a commercial right within a public assembly venue? A. Pouring rights B. Naming rights C. Sponsorship D. None of these answers are correct E. All of these answers are correct
E
While the production rider clearly determines the number of stagehands, riggers, loaders, and other back-of-house event personnel, the front of house event staffing levels are ultimately determined by the: A. Box office manager B. Promoter C. Event owner D. Fire marshall E. Venue manager
E
A challenge may be issued against a tentative hold or a confirmed hold. True False
False
A risk management plan is a register of risks against which consequences and likelihoods are rated with treatment options identified and controls are put in place. True False
False
A straight rental/lease model is the most popular with venue managers because it represents the greatest opportunity to make the most money. True False
False
A venue's ancillary revenue sources are insignificant and should not require much attention by management. True False
False
As your attendance figures increase, your liabilities decrease. True False
False
Crowd management and customer service are two separate and distinct areas of event management and therefore should be delegated and split between the front-of-house and back-of-house personnel. True False
False
Date protection policies refer to procedures put in place to ensure the venue does not book too many events within a specific time frame. True False
False
Event managers only need to research hard rock concerts and major sporting events True False
False
Event producers always make a profit when booking a concert in a large arena True False
False
In order to properly take care of promoters and agents, it is best for facilities to have at least three different people booking and scheduling the venue. True False
False
In order to save money, the venue manager should allow promoters the opportunity to determine front of house staffing levels. True False
False
It is illegal to scalp a ticket for any event at any venue in the United States. True False
False
Most public assembly venues are built with private money True False
False
One of the primary characteristics of an arena is a sloping floor. True or False? True False
False
Preventative maintenance is only important for venues over 12 years old. True False
False
Promoters expect to pay a fee to access the venue's customer database to promote their even True False
False
Public perception is not an important factor when determining the level of success of a public assembly venue. True False
False
Publicity is paid, non-personal communication through various media by an organisation identified in the message with True False
False
Scalping is the term used to describe the sale of unauthorised merchandise sold in connection with an event at a public assembly venue. True False
False
Significant venue safety and security procedures were already in place in most venues and therefore policies and procedures were not drastically altered by the events of September 11, 2001. True False
False
Since any volunteers working as part of your event staff are not paid, then venue management is not responsible for their training or safety. True False
False
Since venues do not receive a percentage, merchandise sales are not generally considered an ancillary revenue source in a public assembly venue. True False
False
The Australian/New Zealand Standard for Risk management - Principles and Guidelines is AS/NZS 4360-2004 True False
False
The majority of maintenance personnel are salaried workers and not eligible for overtime. True False
False
The most common form of an annual food and beverage contract is where the venue receives a percentage of net sales. True False
False
The number and location of concession stands in a public assembly venue are not important if the prices are inexpensive. True False
False
Typically the venue marketing department establishes the promoter's advertising budget for each event. True False
False
Under U.S. Law it is illegal for public assembly venue management to negotiate an exclusive vending agreement with liquor manufacturers and distributors, but they are permitted to have exclusive vending agreements for beer and wine manufacturers and distributors. True False
False
Venue ownership by non-profit organizations is more likely to occur in multi-purpose arenas. True False
False
"Challenging a hold date" enables the requesting promoter to immediately gain top priority if the other promoter, with the first hold, releases it or fails to meet agreed-upon deadlines. True False
True
A 'Risk register' is also known as a 'Risk Matrix' and is one component of a Risk Management Plan which categorises, identifies and records risks, their likelihood and consequences and identifies treatment options and controls. True False
True
A 'person conducting a business or undertaking' (PCBU) is a legal term under WHS laws for individuals, businesses or organisations that are conducting business. A person who performs work for a PCBU is considered a worker. True False
True
A ticket is a limited contract between a guest and the venue. True False
True
A venue's two most important commodities are time and space. True False
True
An agreement for a private management company to manage a venue usually includes the potential for earning incentive income if the company exceeds pre-determined financial and operational benchmarks. True False
True
Auditoriums and theaters are considered similar types of public assembly venues with similar types of events, True or False? True False
True
Based upon the nature of the event, seating configuration, production rider requirements, and the venue, the event may utilise one or a combination of seating types. True False
True
Crowd management is a proactive organisational strategy which guides venue personnel in providing and maintaining the desired event environment. True False
True
Effective venue marketing and event marketing require different strategic approaches and therefore require separate and distinct strategic marketing plans. True False
True
Every employee is a member of the risk management team and must be constantly vigilant in recognising and reporting all potential risks. True False
True
Food and beverage per caps are calculated by dividing the total food and beverage sales by the number of tickets sold. True False
True
If the promoter/team is giving away complimentary tickets, it is imperative that the tickets reflect a $0/zero value, which would indicate they are not eligible for a refund if the event were to be cancelled. True False
True
If your US venue is a "union shop" then you are permitted to hire anyone, but they must join the union within a specified amount of time and pay dues. True False
True
In publicly owned venues with multiple jurisdictional governing bodes, each constituent jurisdictional governing body will have a proportional number of appointments to an authority or commission. True False
True
In the USA a growing trend has been for professional sports teams to manage the sports arenas and stadiums in which they are the prime tenant True False
True
It is unlikely that a public assembly venue can be financially successful if its manager is required to adhere to all typical government policies and procedures. True or False?
True
Marketing is defined as the concept of packaging a product and services in the right way, at the right price, and in the right environment to encourage individuals to buy. True False
True
OSHA is a government organisation that specifically seeks to protect the safety and health of US workers. True False
True
One of the interesting dynamics about event bookings is that the venue normally does not have a contract with the performer. True False
True
One of the primary objectives of event management/planning is a concerted effort to minimise problems. True False
True
Reserved seating in a venue establishes a separate ticket for every seat at the event True False
True
Risk management focuses on two major issues: identifying risks and then eliminating or reducing those risks. True False
True
Risks left unmanaged may become a threat. True False
True
Slips-and-falls is the number-one risk management issue facing venue managers. True False
True
Snow load is a consideration when determining how much rigging can be hung from the ceiling of a public assembly venue. True False
True
Some artists/performers make decisions regarding where to perform based on the venue's environmental practices. True False
True
The accounting and auditing aspects of revenue-generating activities normally come under the direct supervision of the business office True False
True
The load capacity refers to how much weight the rigging system can support. True False
True
The practice of dynamic pricing involves the manipulation of prices in order to price tickets and seating locations differently based on customer demand. True False
True
The purpose of a venue marketing plan is to guide the establishment of the venue's market position to achieve stated objectives in concert with the venue's purpose and mission statements. True False
True
The secondary ticket market was developed as a residual of the re-sale or scalping of tickets by people who originally purchased the tickets from a primary, authorised ticket sales organisation. True False
True
The venue engineer would be considered a back of house employee. True False
True
The venue owner has to determine if the return for the expenditure necessary to contract private management is cost effective in terms of dollars, programming and fulfilling the venue's public purpose. True False
True
The venue's production team is directly responsible for assisting the client or tenant with producing the physical and technical environment required to achieve the desired objectives. True False
True
There is no standard, single form of organizational structure within the public assembly venue management industry True False
True
Thinking about access at the very earliest planning stages of an event or venue means thinking about the access requirements of staff, public and artists or performers who may have a disability True False
True
Ultimately, the key to a venue's success is the ability for the venue manager to effectively identify and book events as expected by venue ownership and desired by the marketplace. True False
True
Unmanaged risks are a threat to the venue. True False
True