Virology Final - MC Practice
E3-Q40 Ebolavirus is named after which of the following? a. A river in Africa b. A country in Africa c. A town in Africa d. A town in Germany e. A mountain in Africa
a. A river in Africa
E2-Q38 In addition to jaundice, which of the following. Low-cost enzymatic assays may be useful for evaluating liver function in patients with hepatitis: a. ALT and/or AST b. creatine phosphokinase (CPK) or creatine kinase (CK) c. both of them d. neither of them
a. ALT and/or AST
E2-Q30 Which of the following hepatitis viruses does not cause chronic infection? a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis delta
a. Hepatitis A
E3-Q45 Polio is mainly transmitted by a. Oral route b. Blood c. Respiratory track d. Mother-to-child
a. Oral route
E1-42 Protein antigens have to be degraded into short peptides before they can be presented to T cells. a. True b. False
a. True
E2-Q18 Alternative splicing is common during adenovirus gene expression. a. True b. False
a. True
E3-Q11 Both retinoblastoma protein (pRb) and p53 are cellular tumor suppressors that are the frequent targets for inactivation during viral oncogenesis. a. True b. False
a. True
E3-Q4 Most of the currently available antiviral drugs target viral genome replication. a. True b. False
a. True
E2-Q47 There is a FDA-approved vaccine for which of the following herpesviruses? a. Varicella-zoster virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Human herpes virus 8
a. Varicella-zoster virus
E2-Q6 Which of the following viruses can act as a helper for lytic AAV infection? a. VZV b. Adenovirus c. CMV d. Vaccinia virus e. EBV
b. Adenovirus
E1-Q4 Viruses are metabolically active outside of their host cells. a. True b. False
b. False
E1-Q33 The binding of an antibody to a virus particle allows it to be phagocytosed by a macrophage. Which of the following describes the mechanism by which this occurs? a. The antibody makes the virus particle large enough to be detected by the macrophage. b. The macrophage has a receptor that binds to the constant region of the antibody. c. The antibody causes the virus particle to be lysed in the endosome. d. The antibody causes the virus particle to bind to MHC-I
b. The macrophage has a receptor that binds to the constant region of the antibody.
E3-Q14 The mandatory quarantine time for people potentially exposed to Ebolavirus is: a. 7 days b. 28 days c. 21 days d. Up to 2 months
c. 21 days
E1-Q45 The lipid membrane that surrounds the nucleocapsid of some virus particles is called: a. matrix b. tegument c. capsid d. envelope e. glycoprotein
d. envelope
E2-Q3 In addition to humans, what other animals do West Nile virus also frequently infect in North America? a. Pig b. Bird c. Dog d. Mouse
b. Bird
E2-Q36 Which herpesvirus exhibits natural transplacental transmission? a. Varicella-zoster virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Human herpes virus 8
b. Cytomegalovirus
E2-Q13 Which viral gene is usually deleted for constructing adenoviral gene delivery vectors? a. E1B b. E1A c. E3 d. E2
b. E1A
E1-Q19 Mammalian cells contain some unique enzymes such as RNA-dependent-RNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase for RNA viruses or retroviruses replication. a. True b. False
b. False
E1-Q2 Which human viral disease has been eliminated due to the effort of vaccination? a. Polio b. Smallpox c. Measles d. Mumps e. Rinderpest
b. Smallpox
E2-Q48 E1A of adenovirus drives nondividing cells into cycling by - a. binding to p53 b. binding to retinoblastoma protein c. binding to Cdk d. binding to E2F
b. binding to retinoblastoma protein
E2-Q11 The receptor for SARS-CoV-2 infection has been identified as: a. P53 b. CD4 c. ACE2 d. Spike protein e. CCR5
c. ACE2
E3-Q6 In order to prepare retroviral or lentiviral vectors, which gene(s) needs to be provided in trans? a. Gag b. Pol c. Env d. All of them e. Gag and Pol
d. All of them
E1-Q16 Several innate immune cells function through ADCC. ADCC stands for - a. Antigen-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity b. Allergen- dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity c. Antibody-dependent caspase-mediated cytotoxicity d. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
d. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
E1-Q38 The gathering of viral proteins to form the capsid and subsequent packaging of the viral genome into the capsid occurs during: a. Release b. Maturation c. Attachment d. Assembly e. Uncoating
d. Assembly
E3-Q1 Which of the following viral infections is suspected to cause Burkitt's lymphoma? a. adenovirus b. papillomavirus c. polyomavirus d. Epstein Barr virus
d. Epstein Barr virus
E3-Q30 The FDA approved Isentress in 2007 to treat infection with HIV. Which of the HIV-encoded enzymes does Isentress inhibit? a. DNA polymerase b. Protein kinase c. Reverse transcriptase d. Integrase e. Protease
d. Integrase
E2-Q20 Which of HPV gene products are used to assemble the viral capsid? a. E1 and E2 b. E4 and E5 c. E6 and E7 d. L1 and L2
d. L1 and L2
E2-Q9 In addition to jaundice, which of the following. Low-cost enzymatic assays may be useful for evaluating liver function in patients with hepatitis: a. ALT and/or AST b. creatine phosphokinase (CPK) or creatine c. kinase (CK) d. both of them e. neither of them
a. ALT and/or AST
E1-Q36 Type I interferons exhibit antiviral activity by - a. Binding to a cell surface receptor and inducing the expression of cellular genes such as PKR and/or RNAseL. b. Binding to a viral peptide and presents it to the cytotoxic T lymphocytes. c. Binding to the surface of a virion and prevents it from attaching to the host cell. d. Directly phosphorylating proteins, like eIF2-alpha, and inhibits translation of mRNAs.
a. Binding to a cell surface receptor and inducing the expression of cellular genes such as PKR and/or RNAseL.
E3-Q48 Which of the following cell types facilitates the initial infection of HIV and helps to carry the virus across distance to CD4+ cells? a. Dendritic cells b. CD4-positive T lymphocytes c. CD8-positive T lymphocytes d. B lymphocytes e. Neutrophils
a. Dendritic cells
E2-Q32 Which of the following describes the structure of the vaccinia virus genome? a. Double-stranded DNA with covalently closed ends b. Double-stranded DNA with free ends c. Double-stranded DNA with protein-bound ends d. Multiple double-stranded DNA segments
a. Double-stranded DNA with covalently closed ends
E2-Q50 Which of the following herpesviruses establish latent infection in sensory neurons? a. Herpes simplex virus b. Epstein Barr virus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Human herpes virus 8 e. All of them
a. Herpes simplex virus
E3-Q7 The loss of CD4 positive T cells as a result of infection with HIV eventually causes which of the following to happen in an HIV infected person? a. Loss of immune competency and an increase in opportunistic infections b. An increase in the number of T cells leading to leukemia c. An over activation of the immune system and autoimmune diseases. d. An increase in the production of cytokines, leading to a "cytokine storm" e. B cell lymphomas as a direct result of infection of B cells with HIV
a. Loss of immune competency and an increase in opportunistic infections
E3-Q47 Who has been credited to have originally isolated HIV? a. Luc Montagnier b. Robert Gallo c. Harald zur Hausen d. Frank Fenner
a. Luc Montagnier
E3-Q32 Which serotype(s) of poliovirus is the most commonly encountered form and also the one most closely associated with paralysis? a. Poliovirus type 1 (PV1) b. Poliovirus type 2 (PV2) c. Poliovirus type 3 (PV3) d. All poliovirus serotypes are equally encountered and have the same ability in causing paralysis
a. Poliovirus type 1 (PV1)
E1-Q28 All viruses that have a negative-sense RNA genome must package which of the following enzymes in their virion particles? a. RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase b. Reverse transcriptase c. RNA helicase d. RNA methylase e. Ribonucleotide reductase
a. RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase
E2-26 Which of the following describes the structures found at the ends of the AAV genome? a. Self-complementary hairpin structures b. 5' cap structures and 3' poly(A) tails 5' triphosphate c. Covalently attached proteins d. The genome is circular so it has no ends
a. Self-complementary hairpin structures
E2-Q43 The mRNA vaccines developed by Moderna and Pfizer and subsequently approved by the FDA for large scale vaccination contains which one of the following viral coding sequences? a. Spike or a portion of it b. Envelop protein (E) c. The entire SARS-CoV-2 genome d. Membrane protein (M) e. Nucleoprotein (N)
a. Spike or a portion of it
E2-Q22 Which of the following is a likely purpose for the noninfectious particles produced by hepatitis B virus? a. They bind to antibodies allowing the virus to evade the immune system b. They bind to the host cell receptor, improving entry of virus particles c. They stimulate cytotoxic T lymphocytes d. They bind to liver cells and stimulate them to replicate d. They are just packaging mistakes that occur in some cells and they serve no purpose
a. They bind to antibodies allowing the virus to evade the immune system
E2-Q44 HSV genome has more than one isoform and the different isoforms are always in an approximately equal molar ratio from any virus preparation. a. True b. False
a. True
E2-Q12 Smallpox was caused by which poxvirus? a. Variola b. Vaccinia c. Molluscum d. All of them e. None of them
a. Variola
E3-Q44 The RNA genome of HIV is reversely transcribed into double-stranded DNA a. in cytoplasm b. in nucleus c. during virus maturation d. during virus release
a. in cytoplasm
E1-Q18 Which of the following biological molecules make up the bulk of the plasma membrane? a. phospholipids b. carbohydrates c. water d. proteins e. starches
a. phospholipids
E1-Q10 Which of the following is a description of a virus plaque? a. A viral particle as seen by electron microscopy b. A region of dead cells in a monolayer of infected cells c. A skin lesion caused by virus infection in an animal d. A button of red blood cells seen in a hemagglutination assay
b. A region of dead cells in a monolayer of infected cells
E1-Q39 Neutralizing antibody abolishes virus infection mainly by - a. Binding to the cellular receptors used by the virus for entry b. Binding to the receptor-binding domain of viral envelope or capsid proteins to stop viral infection c. Binding to viral genome to prevent its replication d. All above e. None of above
b. Binding to the receptor-binding domain of viral envelope or capsid proteins to stop viral infection
E1-Q9 Helper T cells express which of the following molecules on the cell surface? a. CD2 b. CD4 c. CD6 d. CD8 e. CD10
b. CD4
E1-Q46 Which of the following cells can function as professional antigen presenting cells? a. NK cells b. Dendritic cells c. Neutrophils d. All of above e. None of above
b. Dendritic cells
E2-25 Which of the following herpesviruses is known to cause mononucleosis? a. Varicella-zoster virus b. EBV c. Herpes simplex virus d. Human herpes virus 8
b. EBV
E1-Q34 Viral envelopes often have very different lipid compositions than the cellular membranes that they originate from. a. True b. False
b. False
E1-Q41 The binding specificity of immunoglobulin is mainly determined by the heavy chain. a. True b. False
b. False
E1-Q6 As viral antigen can always be detected during virus infection, it is an important and widely used diagnostic detection target regardless of disease stages. a. True b. False
b. False
E2-23 The source of the origin of SARS-CoV-2 has been identified. a. True b. False
b. False
E2-27 Chickenpox and shingles are caused by two different members of herpesvirus family. a. True b. False
b. False
E2-Q33 SARS, MERS and COVID-19 are the only known human diseases caused by infection of coronaviruses. a. True b. False
b. False
E2-Q39 Like many viruses in other families, poxviruses have a typical icosahedral symmetric structure. a. True b. False
b. False
E2-Q45 SARS-CoV-1 has become endemic in China and pandemics have occurred frequently since its outbreak in 2003. a. True b. False
b. False
E2-Q49 During HSV latent infection, the viral genome is integrated into cellular chromosomes. a. True b. False
b. False
E3-Q29 Many seasonal outbreaks of human influenza are caused by influenza B virus. a. True b. False
b. False
E3-Q33 The likelihood of developing paralytic polio is age related and children are more likely to develop paralytic symptoms. a. True b. False
b. False
E3-Q5 A laboratory designated for Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) is allowed to handle with live ebolaviruses. a. True b. False
b. False
E2-Q7 The hepatitis B genome inside the virion has an unusual structure. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the virion genome? a. It has a gap in one of the DNA strands b. It has an RNA-DNA hybrid genome c. One strand is shorter than the other strand d. It has a protein (polymerase) covalently attached to the 5â end of the genome
b. It has an RNA-DNA hybrid genome
E3-Q13 What is the main function of neuraminidase during influenza virus infection? a. It binds to sialic acid and helps the virus enter the host cell b. It helps the complete release of the assembled viral particles from virus-producing cells c. It is involved in the cleavage of HA0 into HA1 and HA2 d. It helps the virus evade the immune system
b. It helps the complete release of the assembled viral particles from virus-producing cells
E3-Q49 Which serotype(s) of poliovirus has been eradicated in the wild? a. Poliovirus type 1 (PV1) b. Poliovirus type 2 (PV2) c. Poliovirus type 3 (PV3) d. PV1 and PV2 e. PV2 and PV3
b. Poliovirus type 2 (PV2)
E1-Q35 Some RNA viruses can encode multiple proteins from a single positive strand RNA genome by employing one of the following mechanisms - a. Multiple enhancers b. Polyprotein followed by a series of cleavage by proteases c. Multiple promoters d. Multiple poly(A) tails e. Frameshifting
b. Polyprotein followed by a series of cleavage by proteases
E3-Q18 Which of the following is NOT an objective of modifying viruses as therapeutic agents? a. As anticancer agents that specifically kill tumor cells b. To genetically modify embryos for correcting genetic defects c. To vaccinate animals and humans against specific diseases d. To provide functional genes in people with genetic diseases
b. To genetically modify embryos for correcting genetic defects
E1-Q40 Single chain antibody derives from which part of an immunoglobulin? a. CH2 region b. Variable (V) region c. Hinge region d. Fc region e. CH3 region
b. Variable (V) region
E2-Q19 Microcephaly can be the result of which of the following virus infections? a. West Nile virus b. Zika virus c. Dengue virus d. Marburg virus
b. Zika virus
E3-Q31 Which of the following animals appears to be the reservoir for Ebolaviruses? a. monkeys and primates b. bats c. racoons d. domestic livestock e. insects
b. bats
E1-Q1 Human immunoglobulin classes are determined by - a. light chain b. heavy chain c. Fab d. all of above e. none of the above
b. heavy chain
E2-Q28 The Omicron mutants currently in circulation in the population has: a. A lower binding affinity to the receptor as the original SARS-CoV-2 b. The same binding affinity to the receptor as the original SARS-CoV-2 c. A higher binding affinity to the receptor as the original SARS-CoV-2 d. Higher pathogenicity as the original SARS-CoV-2
c. A higher binding affinity to the receptor as the original SARS-CoV-2
E1-Q27 Which of the following immunity is a prophylactic vaccine designed to stimulate? a. Innate immunity â humoral b. Innate immunity â cellular c. Adaptive immunity â humoral d. Adaptive immunity - cellular
c. Adaptive immunity â humoral
E3-Q38 Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV? a. Sexual contact. b. Mother to child. c. Aerosoled particles d. Blood transfusions e. Contaminated needles
c. Aerosoled particles
E1-Q25 Which of the following molecules are a well-characterized co-stimulatory molecule pair for generating adaptive immune responses? a. TAP transporter b. Importin c. B7-CD28 d. Fc receptor
c. B7-CD28
E2-Q2 Which of the following describes the process of variolation, which was an early method to prevent smallpox infections? a. Quarantine of smallpox victims for 40 days b. Use of plant extracts to prevent smallpox infection c. Blowing powdered pock scabs into the nose d. Exposure of young children to people with an active smallpox infection
c. Blowing powdered pock scabs into the nose
E3-Q28 The high specificity of antiviral prodrug acyclovir for HSV is the result of - a. Preferential phosphorylation by virus-encoded thymidine kinase b. Preferential incorporation by virus-encoded DNA-dependent-DNA polymerase c. Both A and B d. None of A and B
c. Both A and B
E1-Q11 Which diagnostic method(s) can be used for detecting an early-stage virus infection (e.g., within five days of the first symptom)? a. Viral antigen detection b. Viral genome detection c. Both of them d. Neither of them
c. Both of them
E3-Q17 Which rare disease(s) is(are) known to be frequently associated with HIV infection? a. Pneumocystis carinii (jiroveci) b. Kaposi's sarcoma c. Both of them d. None of them
c. Both of them
E3-Q39 Which of the following is the primary host cell receptor for HIV infection? a. DC-SIGN b. CD8 c. CD4 d. gp120 e. gp41
c. CD4
E2-Q16 HPV genome is: a. Linear double-strand DNA b. Linear single-strand DNA c. Circle double-strand DNA d. Circle single-strand DNA
c. Circle double-strand DNA
E2-Q42 Which HPV genes are most likely to be detected from cervical cancer tissues by PCR? a. E1 and E2 b. E4 and E5 c. E6 and E7 d. L1 and L2
c. E6 and E7
E1-Q29 Which of the following is a method of cell entry that cannot be used by non-enveloped viruses? a. Caveolae b. Receptor-mediated endocytosis c. Fusion d. Clathrin-coated pits
c. Fusion
E1-Q12 A typical enveloped viral particle contains - a. Genetic materials only b. Genetic materials packaged into protein capsid c. Genetic materials packaged into a protein capsid surrounded by a lipid bilayer d. A protein coat surrounded by a lipid bilayer e. Genetic materials wrapped with a lipid bilayer
c. Genetic materials packaged into a protein capsid surrounded by a lipid bilayer
E1-Q26 Many viruses use a spherical shaped capsid to arrange their capsid proteins with which of the following symmetries? a. Cubic b. Tetrahedral c. Icosahedral d. Dodecagon e. Helical
c. Icosahedral
E1-Q49 Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant one in the bloodstream? a. IgM b. IgE c. IgG d. IgA
c. IgG
E2-Q40 West Nile virus is - a. Tick-borne virus b. Air-borne virus c. Mosquito-borne virus d. Water-borne virus
c. Mosquito-borne virus
E1-Q31 Which of the following cells can produce antibodies? a. NK cells b. Mast cells c. Plasma cells d. Neutrophils e. Macrophages
c. Plasma cells
E1-Q23 Prions are unconventional infectious agents. They contain - a. RNA only b. DNA only c. Protein only d. Both RNA and protein e. Both DNA and protein
c. Protein only
E3-Q35 Reverse transcriptase is needed for HIV replication. It is an - a. DNA-dependent DNA polymerases b. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase c. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase d. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
E3-Q27 During the process of viral vector construction, pseudotyping means: a. Packaging a RNA viral genome into a DNA virus particle b. Packaging a DNA viral genome into a RNA virus particle c. Replacing the surface glycoprotein with the one from a different virus d. Any of the above e. None of the above
c. Replacing the surface glycoprotein with the one from a different virus
E3-Q10 If long-term gene expression is desirable, which of the following viral vector would be preferentially chosen as the delivery vehicle? a. Adenoviral vector b. Vaccinia virus -based vector c. Retroviral vector d. All of them e. None of them
c. Retroviral vector
E1-Q24 What type of enzyme is responsible for creating DNA from an RNA template? a. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase b. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase c. Reverse transcriptase d. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase e. None of the above
c. Reverse transcriptase
E3-Q43 During influenza virus infection, the hemagglutinin binds to which of the following cellular receptors to initiate the entry process? a. CD4 b. CCR5 c. Sialic acid d. CAR
c. Sialic acid
E1-Q48 What is an mRNA vaccine? a. The vaccine contains mRNA that can stimulate endogenous viral antigen expression b. The vaccine contains viral antigen in protein form associated with a piece of mRNA c. The vaccine contains mRNA that encodes for the desirable antigen d. The vaccine contains the antigenic DNA sequence that can be subsequently transcribed into mRNA for antigen production.
c. The vaccine contains mRNA that encodes for the desirable antigen
E3-Q24 What is the purpose of gene replacement therapy? a. To increase the gene copy number in the targeted cell b. To give animals useful traits c. To treat diseases caused by an inherited mutation d. To produce adult stem cells for medical treatments e. To produce proteins to be used as drug treatments
c. To treat diseases caused by an inherited mutation
E1-Q21 Toll-like receptors (TLRs) detect virus infection by recognizing: a. A specific virus-encoded surface antigen b. A specific virus-encoded matrix protein c. Virus-associated patterns such as double-stranded RNA genome d. All above e. None of above
c. Virus-associated patterns such as double-stranded RNA genome
E3-Q3 Unlike many other members of retroviruses, the HIV genome - a. is segmented b. is significantly shorter c. encodes additional gene products d. encodes less gene products
c. encodes additional gene products
E2-Q21 When helper virus is not present, AAV infection usually ends up in latent infection by: a. staying episomally as a free form in the nucleus b. staying in the cytosol c. integrating its genome into the cellular chromosome d. staying in the nucleus by forming a complex with the Rb protein
c. integrating its genome into the cellular chromosome
E2-Q46 Which adenovirus structure protein engages with cellular receptor during virus infection? a. penton base b. hexon c. knobbed fibers d. terminal protein
c. knobbed fibers
E3-Q20 Inhibition of the M2 protein of influenza with the drug amantadine blocks which step of virus entry? a. movement of the RNA genome segments through the nuclear pore b. the conformational change that the HA proteins exhibit in response to the drop in pH c. the fusion of the viral envelope with the endosome membrane release of the viral contents into cytosols d. binding to sialic acid on the surface of the host cell
c. the fusion of the viral envelope with the endosome membrane release of the viral contents into cytosols
E3-Q41 Cancers develop from cells that have undergone changes known as: a. transcription b. transduction c. transformation d. translation e. transportation
c. transformation
E3-Q16 What percentage of people infected with poliovirus are likely to become paralyzed? a. 90% b. 50% c. 10% d. 1%
d. 1%
E2-Q10 Which HPV serotypes are the frequent cause of cervical cancer? a. 2 and 4 b. 13 and 32 c. 6 and 11 d. 16 and 18
d. 16 and 18
E3-Q25 During an outbreak of Ebola virus, which of the following has NOT been shown to be a major source of transmission between individuals? a. Preparation of bodies for burial b. Reuse of needles and syringes c. Sexual transmission d. Aerosol droplets e. Contact with contaminated blood
d. Aerosol droplets
E1-Q14 In which form does BCR engage with its cognate immunogens? a. Viral proteins b. Viral particles c. Infected cells d. All above e. None above
d. All above
E1-Q44 Innate immunity can be summarized as: a. No memory b. Not antigen specific c. No significant time lagging d. All above e. None of above
d. All above
E2-41 Which of the following poxviruses has humans as the primary host? a. Variola b. Vaccinia c. Molluscum d. All of above e. None of above
d. All of above
E1-Q8 According to ICTV, viruses are classified by taking the following into consideration - a. Nature of the nucleic acid they contain b. Presence or absence of an envelope c. Symmetry of the capsid shape d. All of them e. None of them
d. All of them
E3-Q22 Which of the following strategy has been used for oncolytic virus construction? a. Modification of viral glycoproteins for selective entry into tumor cells b. Deletion of viral genes for selective replication in tumor cells c. Using tumor-specific promoters to drive an essential viral gene expression d. All of them e. None of them
d. All of them
E1-Q5 Viremia occurs when a virus gets into - a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Endothelial cells of blood vessels d. Bloodstream e. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Bloodstream
E3-Q36 People who have a natural mutation in which of the following genes are found to be resistant to HIV infection - a. CD8 b. Interferon I c. p53 d. CCR5 e. EGFR
d. CCR5
E1-Q22 Cytotoxic T cells are characterized by the presence on cell surface of - a. CD2 b. CD4 c. CD6 d. CD8 e. CD10
d. CD8
E3-Q15 Under certain circumstance, a live polio vaccine is preferred over an inactivated one. What could be the possible reason for such a preference? a. Is more stable b. Is more convenient for storage c. Has fewer side effects d. Can spread in a community if enough people are vaccinated
d. Can spread in a community if enough people are vaccinated
E1-Q7 Which of the following is NOT a component of the adaptive immune response system? a. B lymphocytes b. Helper T lymphocytes c. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes d. Complement system e. Antibodies
d. Complement system
E3-Q9 The antiviral drug ganciclovir was mainly recommended for treating which of the following virus infection? a. HIV b. EBV c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Cytomegalovirus e. Vaccinia virus
d. Cytomegalovirus
E1-Q37 To determine if somebody has once been infected by a virus, which of the following detection may provide useful information? a. Detection of viral antigen b. Cell culture for live virus c. Detection of viral genome d. Detection of virus-specific IgG antibody
d. Detection of virus-specific IgG antibody
E1-Q32 Which of the following methods provides good quantitative diagnostic value at measuring antibodies during virus infection - a. Electron microscopy b. Immunofluorescent assay c. Immunoperoxidase staining d. ELISA
d. ELISA
E2-Q5 Coronavirus assembly involves which of the following cellular compartments? a. Nucleus b. Endosome c. Lysosome d. Endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment
d. Endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment
E2-Q4 Among the different forms of viral particles assembled from poxvirus infected cells, which of them is thought to play a major role in virus cell-cell spread? a. Mature virion (MV) b. Wrapped virion (WV) c. Immature virion (IV) d. Enveloped virion (EV)
d. Enveloped virion (EV)
E2-Q14 Most virus infections affect developing countries more profoundly than the developed nations. However, on rare occasions, certain viruses can affect both developing and developed countries almost equally. Can you name one of such viruses from the following list? a. Polioviruses b. Hepatitis A virus c. Hepatitis B virus d. Hepatitis C virus
d. Hepatitis C virus
E3-Q23 Which of the following statement is NOT correct regarding the naming of this influenza virus: A/Perth/16/2009 (H3N2)? a. It gives the information about the virus subtype b. It gives the information about the virus strain number c. It gives the information about the virus year of isolation d. It gives the information about the virus year of pandemic e. It tells the virus' geographic origin is Perth
d. It gives the information about the virus year of pandemic
E3-Q8 To which of the following subgroups of retroviruses is HIV classified? a. Acute transforming retroviruses b. Nontransforming retroviruses c. Alpharetroviruses d. Lentiviruses e. Spumaviruses
d. Lentiviruses
E1-Q47 During the subsequent infection or repeated vaccination, the immune cells that can be recalled immediately for generating antigen specific CTLs are: a. Naïve T cells b. NK cells c. Effector T cells d. Memory T cells
d. Memory T cells
E2-Q37 One of the FDA approved antiviral drugs for the treatment of COVID-19 is: a. Acyclovir b. Hydroxychloroquine c. Ombitasvir d. Paxlovid
d. Paxlovid
E2-Q35 Which of the following DNA viruses replicates in the cytoplasm instead of in the nucleus? a. Herpesvirus b. Adenovirus c. Hepatitis B virus d. Poxvirus e. Papillomavirus
d. Poxvirus
E2-Q15 The most widely used diagnostic tool during the COVID-19 pandemic is: a. Virus culture and isolation b. ELISA for IgM antibody detection c. ELISA for IgG antibody detection d. RT-PCR detection for viral genome
d. RT-PCR detection for viral genome
E3-Q37 Which of the following viral components is usually retained during viral vector construction? a. Immediate early genes b. Structural genes c. Potent viral promoters d. Replication origin and package signal
d. Replication origin and package signal
E2-Q31 HSV establishes latent infections in: a. Endothelial cells b. Epithelial cells c. B lymphocytes d. Sensory neurons e. Motor neurons
d. Sensory neurons
E2-Q29 Gardasil is a - a. DNA vaccine b. Attenuated virus vaccine c. Recombinant virus vaccine d. Subunit vaccine that can form virus-like particles
d. Subunit vaccine that can form virus-like particles
E1-Q17 During target cell recognition by cytotoxic T lymphocytes, T cell receptors (TCRs) bind to - a. The polymorphic MHC molecules-either MHC-I or MHC-II b. Antigenic molecules as a protein form c. Co-stimulatory molecules d. The complex of MHC-antigenic peptide
d. The complex of MHC-antigenic peptide
E3-Q21 Why are reassorted influenza viruses usually more likely to cause a severe worldwide pandemic? a. They have gained additional genome segments b. They contain new segments that produce more toxic proteins c. They gain the ability to infect neurons d. They have acquired new glycoproteins for which there is less or no prior immunity
d. They have acquired new glycoproteins for which there is less or no prior immunity
E2-Q1 Productive infections with human papillomaviruses have been difficult to study in cultured cells. Which of the following explains why? a. They rarely infect human cells in culture b. They only produce a few virions per infectious cycle c. The viral particles are difficult to purify d. They only produce virions in layered differentiating keratinocytes e. They induce a strong interferon response in infected cells
d. They only produce virions in layered differentiating keratinocytes
E1-Q20 The breakdown of the viral capsid and subsequent (or simultaneous) release of the viral genome into the cell occurs during: a. Release b. Maturation c. Assembly d. Uncoating e. Penetration
d. Uncoating
E3-Q26 Highly-active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for HIV is - a. using a highly effective anti-HIV drug that targets reverse transcriptase b. using a highly effective anti-HIV drug that targets integrase c. using a highly effective anti-HIV drug that targets proteinase d. a cocktail of several antiviral drugs targeting different viral enzymes or infection steps
d. a cocktail of several antiviral drugs targeting different viral enzymes or infection steps
E1-Q15 Which of the following is most likely to be a cell surface receptor for a virus? a. a nuclear protein b. a cytoplasmic protein c. an endocytosed protein d. a membrane protein
d. a membrane protein
E2-Q8 The body areas that HSV infection frequently affects include: a. genital area b. facial area c. eyes d. all above e. none of above
d. all above
E2-24 HPV is mainly transmitted by? a. blood transfusion b. aerosol c. vertical (mother to child) d. direct contact
d. direct contact
E3-Q34 Some retroviral oncogenes are derived from cellular genes known as: a. pre-oncogenes b. pro-oncogenes c. proper-oncogenes d. proto-oncogenes e. prototype-oncogenes
d. proto-oncogenes
E3-Q50 The ebolavirus vaccine that has received the FDA approval is based on the following vaccine platform a. DNA vaccine b. mRNA vaccine c. live attenuated vaccine d. recombinant vaccine using VSV as the vector e. protein subunit vaccine
d. recombinant vaccine using VSV as the vector
E1-Q30 Which of the following organelles is the site for protein translation? a. lysosome b. rough endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi complex d. ribosome e. mitochondrion
d. ribosome
E3-Q12 The quadrivalent influenza vaccine usually contains: a. two influenza A viruses and each of B and C virus b. three type A and one type B viruses c. three type A and one type C viruses d. two type A and two type B viruses
d. two type A and two type B viruses
E1-Q50 Which are the common vaccine types that have been approved for human use? a. Attenuated virus vaccine b. Protein vaccine c. Recombinant vaccine d. mRNA vaccine e. All above
e. All above
E3-Q2 Which of the following enzymes encoded by viruses have been selected as targets for antiviral drug design? a. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase b. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase) c. Protease d. Integrase e. All of them
e. All of them
E2-Q17 The disappearance of SARS-CoV-1 after the original outbreak was probably due to: a. Effective vaccine and large-scale vaccination b. Successful prevention of fresh animal-to-human transmission c. Failure of the virus to establish humans as a reservoir d. A and B e. B and C
e. B and C
E1-Q3 Cytotoxic T lymphocytes release which of the following molecules to kill their target cells? a. Perforins b. Complements c. Granzymes d. Both A and B e. Both A and C
e. Both A and C
E3-Q19 Influenza A viruses have - a. Single copy of RNA genome b. Single copy of DNA genome c. Four segmented RNA genomes d. Seven segmented RNA genomes e. Eight segmented RNA genomes
e. Eight segmented RNA genomes
E2-Q34 Which of the following viruses is known to cause Kaposi's sarcoma? a. VZV b. CMV c. EBV d. HHV-6 e. HHV-8
e. HHV-8
E1-Q43 Which of the following methods is the most sensitive diagnostic assay during virus infection? a. Electron microscopy b. Immunofluorescent assay c. Immunoperoxidase staining d. Viral culture e. PCR
e. PCR
E3-Q42 Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly encountered in patients infected with ebolavirus a. Liver damage b. Infection of macrophages and monocytes c. Increased endothelial permeability d. Induction of cytokine release and the associated symptoms e. Problems with motor neurons and movement
e. Problems with motor neurons and movement
E1-Q13 Which of the following form of genetic materials would NOT be normally found inside a virion particle? a. dsDNA b. ssDNA c. dsRNA d. ssRNA e. RNA:DNA hybrid
e. RNA:DNA hybrid
E3-Q46 If an HIV-1 strain has developed resistance to AZT, which viral gene may have been mutated? a. CA (capsid) b. IN (integrase) c. NC (nucleocapsid) d. PR (protease) e. RT (reverse transcriptase)
e. RT (reverse transcriptase)