Week 2 quiz Chapter 10

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury? a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Graves' disease c. Erythroblastosis fetalis d. Seasonal allergic rhinitis

a. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells. These proteins are called proteins. a. complement b. antibody receptor c. HLA or MHC d. TCR or BCR

c. HLA or MHC

A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type hypersensitivity reaction. a. I b. II c. III d. IV

c. III

Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease? a. HIV/AIDS b. Malnutrition immunodeficiency c. Cancer immunodeficiency d. Radiation immunodeficiency

a. HIV/AIDS

Anaphylaxis may occur in which types of hypersensitivity reactions? (Select all that apply.) a. I b. II c. III d. IV

a. I b. II

Autoimmune diseases result from which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Overactive immune function b. Increase in self-tolerance c. Failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules d. Communicable infections e. Environmental toxin exposure

a. Overactive immune function c. Failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules e. Environmental toxin exposure

Which diseases are due to type IV hypersensitivity? (Select all that apply.) a. Tuberculosis b. System lupus erythematosus c. Leprosy d. Goodpasture syndrome e. Brucellosis

a. Tuberculosis c. Leprosy e. Brucellosis

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n) a. deficient immune response. b. excessive immune response. c. primary acquired immunodeficiency. d. hypersensitivity reaction.

a. deficient immune response.

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves a. impaired muscle function. b. symptoms of hyperthyroidism. c. symptoms of arthritis or polyarthralgia. d. symptoms of glomerular disease.

a. impaired muscle function.

The effects of histamine release include a. vasoconstriction. b. bronchodilation. c. increased vascular permeability. d. decreased gut permeability.

c. increased vascular permeability.

The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV

d. IV

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is a. IgA. b. IgG. c. IgM. d. IgE.

d. IgE.

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they a. run high fevers. b. have unusually high WBC counts. c. develop brain infections. d. develop recurrent infections.

d. develop recurrent infections.

An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is a. complement. b. antigen-antibody immune complexes. c. T cells. d. histamine

d. histamine

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because a. massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation. b. toxins released into the blood interfere with cardiac function. c. anaphylaxis results in large volume losses secondary to sweating. d. hypoxia resulting from bronchoconstriction impairs cardiac function.

a. massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.

A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is a. monocytes. b. mast cells. c. neutrophils. d. cytotoxic cells.

b. mast cells.

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by a. donor antigens. b. recipient antibodies. c. donor T cells. d. recipient T cells.

b. recipient antibodies.

RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent a. the formation of Rh-positive antibodies. b. the primary immunodeficiency of the newborn. c. a type III hypersensitivity disorder. d. anaphylactic response of the mother.

c. a type III hypersensitivity disorder.

The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is a. DiGeorge. b. Bruton agammaglobulinemia. c. Wiskott-Aldrich. d. selective IgA.

d. selective IgA.