070-02 - Special Operational Procedures and Hazards
List the types of de-icing/anti-icing fluids available:
Type I, II, III, IV.
The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:
Under 500m
If the pitot tube becomes blocked during a descent, the airspeed indicator:
Under-reads
A four-engined jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency:
Unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements: 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative.
Which of the following is true concerning an explosive decompression during a flight in FL410?
Unsecured objects near the hole will be sucked out of the aircraft.
How should a fire in a laptop computer with a lithium-ion battery in the passenger cabin be dealt with?
Use an appropriate hand held fire extinguisher.
In case of a cargo compartment fire, the system which should be switched off, is generally the:
Ventilation of the cargo compartment
The type of hydroplaning that is most likely to occur at the touch down area located at both ends of the runway is called:
Viscous
Which parameter will change first, when penetrating a horizontal wind shear?
Indicated airspeed
Which of the following excerpts is a correct presentation of the braking action shown in a SNOWTAM?
...40/40/39...
An aircraft is flying through a windshear of a microburst and initially encounters a maximum headwind of 30 kts. What is the wind speed in the centre?
0 kts
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of: 1) An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices). 2) The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts). 3) The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1
What is the major factor causing wake turbulence? 1) Wing tip vortices. 2) Engines. 3) High lift devices. 4) Size of the landing gear.
1
Which is the highest altitude below which you should not jettison fuel?
1 800 m / 6 000 ft AGL
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: 1) water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2) speed is greater than 127 kts. 3) water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4) speed is greater than 95 kts. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2
CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight fire on: 1) carbonaceous materials. 2) flammable liquids. 3) electrical equipment. 4) metals. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:
1, 2, 3
Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances: 1) When crosswind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2) When the tailwind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3) When the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is: 1) slow. 2) heavy. 3) in a clean configuration. 4) flying with a high thrust. The combination of correct statement is:
1, 2, 3
When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is required to inform: 1) State of the operator. 2) ICAO. 3) State of registration of aircraft. 4) EASA.
1, 2, 3
CO2 can be used on which fires? 1) Paper 2) Hydrocarbons 3) Electrical 4) Wood
1, 2, 3, 4
During the certification flight tests regarding fuel jettisoning it must be shown that: 1) Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard. 2) The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane. 3) Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane. 4) The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.
1, 2, 3, 4
What would be evident during a rapid decompression? 1) Violent rush of gas from lungs. 2) Expansion of body gases. 3) Blast of air to the exterior. 4) Mist in the cabin.
1, 2, 3, 4
Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in accordance with the relevant OPS regulations, are classified as dangerous goods? 1) Fire extinguishers. 2) Self-inflating life jackets. 3) Portable oxygen supplies. 4) First-aid kits. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
A 1211 halon fire extinguisher can be used for: 1) a paper fire. 2) a fabric fire. 3) an electric fire. 4) a wood fire. 5) a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1) The type and intensity of the showers. 2) The ambient temperature. 3) The relative humidity. 4) The direction and speed of the wind. 5) The temperature of the airplane skin. 6) The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1) you increase your approach speed. 2) you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear. 3) you decrease your approach speed. 4) you use systematically all the lift dumper devices. 5) you land as smoothly as possible. 6) you brake energetically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 4
What must be included in the security and training procedures created by the operator? 1) Specific aircraft type checklists. 2) Detection of suspicious package. 3) Removal of suspicious package. 4) Sabotage procedures.
1, 2, 4
What do you do in a microburst? 1) Apply engine power. 2) Retract speed brakes. 3) Retract flaps and gear. 4) Retract all drag devices. 5) Pitch up to stick shaker.
1, 2, 5
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1) H2O 2) CO2 3) dry chemical 4) halon Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
1, 2,, 3, 4
A slow decompression may be caused by: 1) a leak in a door seal during normal pressurised flight. 2) loss of a cabin window. 3) malfunction of all pressurised systems. 4) loss of a door. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to wind shear with a decreasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1) Flies above the intended glide path 2) Flies below the intended glide path 3) Has an increasing true airspeed 4) Has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is:
1, 3
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to wind shear with an increasing headwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1) Flies above the glide path. 2) Flies below the glide path. 3) Has an increasing true airspeed. 4) Has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
1, 3
In accordance to EASA AIR OPS, a runway is considered wet when: 1) it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2) the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3) the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4) it bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3
Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead. The initial indications will be: 1) an increase in headwind. 2) an increase in tailwind. 3) better climb performance. 4) a decrease in climb gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3
On final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong downwash which forces you to go-around. You should apply go-around thrust and: 1) maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps) 2) reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3) gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4) avoid excessive attitude change The combination of correct statements is:
1, 3
State the conditions under which you would be expected to follow a published noise abatement approach procedure: 1) crosswind of 10 kts. 2) ceiling less than 500 ft. 3) visibility greater than 2 000 m. 4) rain in the vicinity of airport, but the runway is dry.
1, 3, 4
When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1) An increase in the take-off distance. 2) A decrease of the take-off run. 3) An increase in the stalling speed. 4) A decrease of the stalling speed. 5) A decrease of the climb gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3, 5
Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1) Remain on the runway. 2) Clear the runway using the first available taxiway. 3) Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on. 4) Turn off all systems. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 4
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: 1) water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2) speed is greater than 127 kts. 3) water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4) speed is greater than 108 kts. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 4
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: 1) water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2) speed is greater than 117 kts. 3) water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4) speed is greater than 83 kts. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 4
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing are: 1) legs together and feet flat on the floor. 2) head resting against the back of the front seat. 3) forearms on the armrests. 4) seat belt very tightly fastened. 5) head resting on the forearm. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 4, 5
TOM/kg 4 500 4 500 4 500 7 000 7 000 7 000 kt V1 VR V2 V1 VR V2 F5 129 129 131 129 132 140 F10 126 126 130 126 129 135 F20 121 123 127 119 123 130 F30 118 118 122 116 120 125 An airplane is scheduled to depart at a take-off mass of 7 000 kg on a wet runway. What is the minimum flap setting the pilot should use, when considering a rejected take-off, to avoid hydroplaning if the airplane is fitted with 200 psi tyres?
10
The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10.8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:
113 kts
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 43 000 ft is approximately:
12 seconds
Wake turbulence category HEAVY refers to aircraft which have a maximum certificated take-off mass of:
136 000KG or more
Flying at FL390, before what cabin altitude must the oxygen drop out masks be automatically presented?
15 000ft
According to CS-25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within:
15 minutes
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements:
15 minutes
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
15%
Concerning the transport of dangerous goods, at least how many pieces of the dangerous goods transport document, including copies, must be retained in the aircraft and on the ground?
2
Under what conditions can the choice of runway disregard any noise abatement approach procedures? 1) Crosswind more than 10 kt. 2) Tailwind gusts more than 5 kt. 3) Visibility less than 3 000 m
2
Regarding European air operations some dangerous goods... 1) can only be transported in passenger aircraft. 2) can only be transported in cargo aircraft. 3) are too dangerous to be transported on cargo or passenger aircraft. 4) can be transported on cargo aircraft with a flight duration limitation.
2, 3
In accordance to EASA AIR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25% of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1) a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2) a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3) compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4) ice, including wet ice. 5) moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2, 3, 4
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will: 1) evacuate women and children first. 2) have the passengers embark directly in the life rafts. 3) prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplanes flotation ability. 4) ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2, 3, 4
After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to wind shear with a decreasing headwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1) flies above the climb-out path. 2) flies below the climb-out path. 3) has an increasing true airspeed. 4) has a decreasing true airspeed.
2, 4
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to wind shear with a decreasing headwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1) flies above the glide path. 2) flies below the glide path. 3) has an increasing true airspeed. 4) has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
2, 4
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to wind shear with an increasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1) flies above the glide path. 2) flies below the glide path. 3) has an increasing true airspeed. 4) has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is:
2, 4
In the case of overheating of the brakes following the landing, the appropriate action at the parking position is: 1) set parking brake on. 2) set parking brake off, with chocks in position. 3) spray water on the brakes. 4) ventilate the brakes.
2, 4
According to EASA AIR OPS, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick donning type of mask, in pressurized aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above:
25 000ft
According to the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure 1 (NADP 1), as established in DOC 8168 - OPS Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kts, until reaching:
3 000ft
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?
3 minutes
Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a LIGHT aircraft behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?
3 minutes
Bird hazards are likely to be encountered in some of the following areas: 1. built up area. 2. trees and shrubs. 3. coastal area. 4. ploughed field. 5. noisy environment. 6. rubbish tips and short grass. Which of the following combinations is correct?
3, 4, 6
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter-demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
32 000ft
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway (Light following a Medium), or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:
5NM
In a microburst downdraughts in the order of 3 000 to 4 000 ft/min can produce vector changes in horizontal wind of:
60 to 80 kts.
Wake turbulence category 'L' refers to aircraft which have a maximum certificated take-off mass of:
7 000 kg or less.
In case of a hijack, the squawk code to be used is:
7500
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
8 hours
According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure 2 (NADP 2) established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:
800ft
According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is not to be initiated at less than:
800ft above aerodrome elevation
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a MEDIUM aeroplane (less than 136 000 kg and more than 7 000 kg) is following directly behind a HEAVY aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.
An acceptable timescale for submitting the amended MEL to the competent authority is ___ from the effective date specified in the approved change to the MMEL.
90 days
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in:
90 seconds
What do you use for a security search procedure during flight?
A checklist
Frost is...
A crystalline formation on surfaces with a temperature of 0°C or less.
Choose the correct statement if icing conditions are encountered:
A decrease of lift by 30%
Define "frost":
A deposit of ice, respectively crystallized water vapour, having a crystalline appearance, generally assuming the form of scales, needles or fans.
When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the left side, you adopt, whenever possible:
A different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and above its path.
When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the right side, you adopt, whenever possible:
A different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and above its path.
Which of the following is problematic with regards to a bird strike risk if located close to an airfield?
A food garbage disposal
A bird strike most likely occurs close-by:
A garbage place.
When landing behind a large aircraft the effect of wake turbulence are likely to be worst in conditions of:
A light crosswind
According to the EASA AIR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
A locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
What is the vertical windshear definition?
A rapid change of wind with vertical height, 2 anenometers placed at different heights.
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:
A rapid depressurization
When flying in straight and level flight at FL290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurization, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
A rate of climb
Engine fire warnings include:
A red light that can not be cancelled and an audio warning that can be cancelled.
Which of the following may force an aircraft in flight into a ditching situation?
A smoke, fire or fumes situation, that becomes uncontrolled.
Wind shear is:
A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction variation over a short distance.
Noise abatement procedures for aeroplanes can be found in AIP section:
AD 2
Where would you find information on bird migration areas/routes?
AIP ENR 5.6
Where can you find information about Noise Abatement Procedures (NAP) when flying within Greece?
AIP Part AD
Where is it best to carry out fuel jettison?
Above FL60
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:
Above and upwind from the larger aircraft.
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they:
Act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
What does the abbreviation "AIS" mean?
Aeronautical Information Service
When taking off after a wide body aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
After passing the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:
Air operator certificate
Which of the following runways would you choose according the braking action? A)XXXX B)12060720 C)27L D)2600 E)50LR F)4/5/4 G)10/10/10 H)30/35/30MUM J)30/5L K)YES L L)TOTAL M)0900 P)YES 12 S)11070920 T)FIRST 300M RWY 10 COVERED BY 50 MM SNOW, RWY CONTAMINATION 100% A)XXXX B)12060720 C)27C D)2600 E)50LR F)4/5/4 G)10/10/10 H)35/35/35MUM J)30/5L K)YES L L)TOTAL M)0900 P)YES 12 S)11070920 T)FIRST 300M RWY 10 COVERED BY 50 MM SNOW, RWY CONTAMINATION 100% A)XXXX B)12060720 C)27R D)2600 E)50LR F)4/5/4 G)10/10/10 H)35/30/30MUM J)30/5L K)YES L L)TOTAL M)0900 P)YES 12 S)11070920 T)FIRST 300M RWY 10 COVERED BY 50 MM SNOW, RWY CONTAMINATION 100%
All RWYs
Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
All available extinguishers simultaneously.
The most significant factor that affects the time of useful consciousness (TUC) for each flight crew member is...
Altitude
The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface.
What is an 'aircraft security check'?
An inspection of those parts of the interior of the aircraft to which passengers may have had access, together with an inspection of the hold of the aircraft in order to detect prohibited articles and unlawful interferences with the aircraft.
Definition of "Security" in accordance with ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures:
And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference.
What is the ICAO annex and doc number for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air?
Annex 18 and Doc 9284
Landing Mass 35 000 kg Flaps VREF 15 140 kt 30 135 kt 45 130 kt An airplane is planned to land with a landing mass of 35 000 kg and it is fitted with 200 psi tyres. What is the minimum recommended flap setting on a wet runway usable in order to minimize the risk of hydroplaning?
Any flaps speed is above the hydroplaning speed
On encountering wind shear what do you do?
Apply take-off power and pull to the stick shaker.
Given: Departure airport: Halifax (Canada) OAT: -25°C Weather: light snow falling Should the commander of the flight take any precautions before departure and if yes, which one?
Apply the clean aircraft concept (according ICAO Doc 9640).
During a flight it is necessary to use hand held fire extinguishers for fighting a small localized fire in the passenger cabin. The crew members know that the most effective method for discharging the extinguishing agent is by holding the extinguisher:
Approximately 1.5 - 2.5 m from the source of the fire.
When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?
At PIC's discretion where safety is an issue.
When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?
At brake release for take off.
During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
What is meant by the term 'unidentified baggage' when referring to (EC) No 300/2008) or ICAO Annex 17?
Baggage at an airport, with or without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger.
The highest risk of bird strikes occurs at (ft):
Below 2 500ft
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander shall submit a report to:
Both the designated local authority and the Authority in the State of the operator.
Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in meters. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported:
By a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in meters
Which are the best conditions for wake turbulence to move to a nearby runway:
Calm wind, calm crosswind and light tailwind.
In case of an engine exhaust pipe (tailpipe) fire while on the ground, you should abort the starting procedure and:
Carry out a dry cranking
After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The correct action is to:
Carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure.
What transponder code should be used by the commander of an aircraft to provide recognition that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijack)?
Code 7500
A runway covered with water 4 mm deep, is considered to be:
Contaminated
Just after passing V1 during a take-off ground roll, but before rotating, you suddenly hear a fire warning bell and notice the illumination of left engine fire warning light of your twin-engine airplane. You first action is to...
Continue the take-off, stabilize the aircraft and climb.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will:
Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred.
According to ICAO Annex 17, following an act of unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued?
Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs.
In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is to:
De-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid.
When experiencing a downdraft, what effect does this have on a aircraft during approach?
Decreased angle of attack
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:
Decreases
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice buildup, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a:
Decreasing speed
A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05, an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?
Depart runway 09 with a tailwind.
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
Depth of standing water on the runway
What is meant by the term 'screening' when referring to (EC) No 300/2008) or ICAO Annex 17?
Detecting weapons and explosives which could be used to commit hijacks and other acts of unlawful interference.
Senior cabin crew member notices traces of smoke in the passenger cabin but can not positively identify its source of origin. The aircraft commander is notified and after the relevant abnormal checklist has been completed, his/her action will normally be to:
Divert to the nearest aerodrome
A cabin crew member notices a slow decompression is occurring. What is the first course of action?
Don oxygen mask
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by the flight deck crew is to:
Don oxygen masks and goggles.
The best extinguishing product for a wheel fire is:
Dry Powder
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:
Dry powder
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably:
During strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast / propeller blast.
In what AIP section would you find information about bird migration?
ENR
When establishing security at an airport, which are the objectives (general principles) with regard to ICAO Annex 17?
Each Contracting State shall have as its primary objective the safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public in all matters related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation.
Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear:
Either from the front or the rear.
Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language?
English
The language(s) used for dangerous goods documentations is/are:
English and any other required language
As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you:
Ensure that arrangements are made for its removal.
In establishing a noise abatement procedure, an operator should:
Ensure that safety has priority over noise requirements and that the procedure does not significantly increase the pilots workload.
You encounter an engine failure with your single engine airplane overhead a dense forest. Choose the best configuration for an emergency landing:
Flaps down, gear up and aim for low trees.
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?
Freezing rain.
When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?
From the start of the anti-icing procedure.
You have just applied anti ice / de ice on your aircraft. The temperature is +1°C and there is light snow. A Boeing 747 is in front of you and using high thrust. The co-pilot notices that snow is starting to appear on the windshield. Type 1 fluid (iso) is used. What should the crew do?
Go back and apply anti and de-icing fluid
A braking action of 0.4 reported on a SNOWTAM is:
Good
Referring to the following SNOWTAM, what is the braking action for runway 01? SNOWTAM A) ESOW B) 11281536 C) 01 F) 3/3/3 G) XX/XX/XX H) 5/5/5 N) 37/MED R) 37/MED T) RWY CONTAMINATION 100 PER CENT RIME. RWY SANDED
Good
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
Greater than the actual.
You are planning a flight from LGTS (Thessaloniki) airport to LGKV (Kavala) airport. In which document/publication you can find information related to the Noise Abatement Procedures of LGTS airport?
Greek AIP/LGTS-AD2 PUBLICATION
Consider the typical characteristics of wake turbulence vortex circulation. As the vortices descend toward the ground surface their vertical velocity decreases and, with no or little wind, they begin to travel horizontally over the ground away from each other at a height of approximately:
Half the wingspan of the generating aircraft.
The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection systems is:
Halon
Which of the following fire extinguisher types can be used for the given classes of fire?
Halon / BCF for classes A, B, and C.
Your aircraft has just arrived and is on a quick turn-around, during the walkaround you notice ice on the ground and freezing rain on the windshield, you:
Have the aircraft inspected as the flight control surfaces might be jammed by frozen water residues in the tracks.
At a given configuration, the wake turbulence of an aeroplane is greater when the aeroplane is:
Heavy at low airspeed
The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:
IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System).
Who is responsible for defining what is a dangerous good and providing updated instructions on how they should be handled?
ICAO
Which ICAO document do you follow for noise abatement procedures?
ICAO Doc 8168
The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:
ICAO annex 18
On a flight from Cape Town (South Africa) to Frankfurt (Germany), the significant weather chart shows crossing the ITCZ with CB forecast up to FL450. The crew can expect to encounter:
Icing on the AoA vanes giving wrong angle of attack indications.
The actions required by the cabin crew on encountering smoke in the passenger cabin include:
Identify source of smoke, isolate any appropriate electrical and/or galley equipment, if possible move passengers away from the source, dispense wet towels if available.
When would reduced take-off thrust not be used?
If windshear could be expected
If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
In a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
Which of the statements is correct when considering a ditching situation?
In case of strong winds you will try to land into the wind which may put you in a position slightly across the waves.
The holdover time associated with anti-icing and de-icing procedures varies, depending on the prevailing weather conditions and temperatures. The time of the protection will be shortened...
In heavy weather conditions
How is the uncleared part of a contaminated runway reported in a SNOWTAM?
In plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM.
Who is responsible for initiating the procedures outlined in the Operations Manual in the event of an emergency?
In the air the aircraft commander, on the ground the flight dispatcher.
What might be noticeable during a SLOW decompression?
Increase in cabin altitude
In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:
Increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle.
You are on an approach and stabilized on the glide-path. There is a microburst in front of you to the right. What effects does the aeroplane experience?
Increased indicated airspeed, decreased descent gradient and left drift.
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed:
Increases steadily
The engine fire warning system on a multi-engine aircraft consists of:
Individual warning lights, common bell.
Which of the following dangerous goods are not accepted for the carriage on board of an aircraft, unless adequate authorization is obtained from the appropriate authority?
Infected live animals.
Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:
Inform the local ATS unit as soon as flight crew workload allows.
What do you do after ditching when the aircraft comes to stop?
Initiate evacuation
Horizontal wind shear is measured:
Is measured on a mast at the same height and on different places along runway.
Vertical wind shear is measured:
Is measured on a mast in different heights along runway.
According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicate that the procedure which results in the biggest noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:
Is procedure 1
There is smoke in the cockpit and the crew manages to locate its source. What should they do?
Isolate the fire by cutting power off by using circuit breakers.
In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance.
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be free of anti-icing fluid at the latest when:
It is rotating (before lifting-off).
In accordance to EASA AIR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft).
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
A commercial jet airplane is experiencing a fuel leak while crossing the North-Atlantic. Th pilots are forced to ditch the aircraft. Which of the following configurations is most appropriate, unless the aircraft flight or operations manual state otherwise?
Landing gear up and maximum flaps
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration.
The application of a Type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a:
Limited holdover time depending on outside air temperature.
The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a:
Limited time of protection, dependent on the outside temperature, precipitations and fluid mixture.
The ICAO rules governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:
Limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.
If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aircraft operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:
Locked from within the compartment?
Which of the following might be a noticeable effect clearly indicating a rapid decompression has just occurred during level flight?
Loud bang or similar noise.
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
Low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136 000 kg but greater than 7 000 kg:`
M
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of wind shears in final phase. He must:
Maintain aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
According to the following SNOWTAM, what is the estimated braking action for ENAT and runway 11? ENAT/ALTA SNOWTAM 0504 A) ENAT B) 03280731 C) 11 F) 47/47/47 G) 8/8/8 H) 3/3/3 N) A B E/CLSD ALL REMAINING TWYS/47 R) APRON GA EAST/CLSD ALL REMAINING APRONS/47 T) CONTAMINATION/100/100/100/PERCENT
Medium
A braking action of 0.29 - 0.26 reported on a SNOWTAM is:
Medium to poor
A downdraft is observed, lasting for around 2-3 minutes and approximately 4 km in size. The weather phenomena is called:
Microburst
A wind blowing over an area with a diameter of 4 km for about 1 to 5 minutes is called:
Microburst
Following a fire in the passenger cabin, the cabin crew should first...
Move passengers away from the source of the fire.
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
Must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.
Noise abatement procedure type 1 (NADP 1) is used for noise reduction:
Near the airfield
In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:
No turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.
Which document do you refer to when unlawful interference takes place over the Atlantic?
OPS manual Part A
Where can you find information about flying in known icing conditions of your complex motor-powered aircraft?
OPS manual Part B
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The firefighters should approach the landing gear tyres:
Only from front or rear side
After the engine has started, a carburettor fire develops. What is the correct action?
Open the throttle fully and close the mixture.
According to EASA AIR OPS, the Minimum Equipment List of an aircraft is found in the:
Operations manual
Who is responsible for providing a training for unlawful interference?
Operator
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
Over-read
In which chapter (part) of the Operations Manual would you find information on general operational policies and procedures?
Part A
In which part of the 'OPS Manual' would you find information regarding search and rescue procedures?
Part A
In which part of the operations manual would you find information regarding dangerous goods?
Part A
In which part of the operations manual would you find information regarding the companies fuel policy?
Part A
Refer to commercial aircraft operations. In what part of the operations manual would you find general de-icing procedures about the company?
Part A
Refer to commercial aircraft operations. In which part of the operations manual would you find information about the policy and procedures for the use of TCAS and ACAS?
Part A
Where do you find information related to the use of MEL and CDL in the OPS manual?
Part A
Where in the operations manual can you find information about incident reports of your company if you are acting as a captain under AOC?
Part A
In which part of the OPS manual would you find information regarding mass and balance?
Part A and B
In which part of the operations manual would you find information regarding technical procedures of your aircraft?
Part A and B
In which part of the operations manual would you find information about training matters?
Part A and D
In what part of the operations manual can you find type specific information regarding contaminated runways?
Part B
In which chapter (part) of the Operations Manual would you find information on performance data?
Part B
In which part of the operations manual would you find information regarding emergency evacuation procedures?
Part B
In which part of the operations manual would you find information regarding flight planning ?
Part B
Refer to commercial aircraft operations. In what part of the operations manual would you find type specific information?
Part B
Where in the operations manual can you find information about abnormal and emergency procedures if you're acting as a captain under AOC?
Part B
In which chapter (part) of the Operations Manual would you find information about noise abatement procedures (NAP)?
Part B and C
A pilot flies for an AOC holder. Where will he find information on the AOC holders authorised areas of operation, aerodromes and route structure?
Part C
In which part of the operations manual would you find information regarding company routes and instructions?
Part C
What is the correct action if a pilot encounters wind shear during take-off?
Pitch up quickly until the stick shaker but without activating it.
Reference shall be made to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for equipment found unserviceable at any time:
Prior to the flight time stage
What should a pilot do if his/her aircraft is subject to an act of unlawful interference and contact to an ATS unit cannot be established?
Proceed in accordance with applicable special procedures for in-flight contingencies, where such procedures have been established and promulgated in the Regional Supplementary Procedures (Doc 7030).
Which of the following statements correctly describes the operation of an engine fire handle?
Pulling the handle cuts off the fuel, twisting it fires the extinguisher.
The actions required by the cockpit crew on experiencing smoke in the cockpit are:
Put on oxygen masks and goggles, select 100% oxygen, identify cause of smoke, isolate electrical equipment as appropriate, continue with emergency checklist.
Given: SNOWTAM 0183 A) ESSA B) 01230720 C) 01L F) 5/5/5 G) 02/02/02 H) 4/3/3 N) 25/MEDIUM 02MM CONTAMINATION 50 PERCENT C) 01R F) 5/5/5 G) 01/02/02 H) 5/5/4 N) 25/MEDIUM 02MM CONTAMINATION 50 PERCENT C) 08 F) 6/6/5 G) 01/01/01 H) 4/4/4 N) 25/MEDIUM 01MM CONTAMINATION 25 PERCENT R) 25/POOR 08MM CONTAMINATION 100 PERCENT T) DE ICING FLUIDS ON RWY 01L 01R AND 08 Which landing runway provides the best estimated surface friction?
RWY 01R
Which of the following runways is/are covered with slush? A)XXXX B)12060720 C)27L D)2600 E)50LR F)4/5/4 G)10/10/10 H)9/9/9MUM J)30/5L K)YES L L)TOTAL M)0900 P)YES 12 S)11070920... A)XXXX B)12060720 C)27C D)2600 E)50LR F)4/5/4 G)10/10/10 H)45/45/40MUM J)30/5L K)YES L L)TOTAL M)0900 P)YES 12 S)11070920... A)XXXX B)12060720 C)27R D)2600 E)50LR F)4/5/4 G)10/10/10 H)35/30/30MUM J)30/5L K)YES L L)TOTAL M)0900 P)YES 12 S)11070920...
RWY 27L
What conditions would describe some of the typical reasons for a precautionary landing?
Rapidly approaching darkness; deteriorating weather; passenger incapacitation
A blocked pitot head with a clear static source causes the airspeed indicator to:
React like an altimeter
What happens when the static pressure supply, to a Vertical Speed Indicator, becomes blocked during a descent?
Reading gradually reduces to zero.
Refer to the transportation of radioactive goods. Attention should be paid to the following:
Regulated separation distances from packages of radioactive material to passengers on board.
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:
Release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
The objective of aviation security is to:
Safeguard international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference.
ICAO Annex 18 is a document dealing with the:
Safety of the air transport of dangerous goods.
What action is correct when a pilot of a different aircraft gives a warning about a microburst during a final approach?
Set a higher approach speed.
Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander:
Shall inform the air traffic service (ATS) unit as soon as flight crew workload allows.
From the described situations below, choose the one where a twin-engine jet is most likely forced to do an emergency landing:
Shortly after take-off the airplane encounters several bird strikes which cause an engine failure and strong vibrations in the remaining engine.
According to ICAO noise abatement procedures during landing:
Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse.
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:
Shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment.
Which items are allowed to be carried on board?
Spare lithium battery, small oxygen bottle, avalanche rescue backpack.
You are carrying out an approach, you are on glideslope to land, and you encounter a microburst on your flight path and to the right. What effects does the aircraft suffer?
Speed increase, drift left, slightly above the glideslope.
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
Speed is greater than 98 kts.
The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces, amongst other serious consequences, an increase in the:
Stalling speed
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the Operator and ICAO.
The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
The Operator
If undeclared dangerous goods are found in passenger or crew baggage, the operator should...
Submit a report to the competent authority without delay and to the corresponding authority of the state of occurence.
Some dangerous goods, if in contact with each other, are able to react. The following about those goods is true:
Such goods should not be stowed next to each other.
An airplane is taxing and the ATC controller tells the pilot to stop the aircraft and hold due to an emergency of another plane. The holdover time is expired by 2 minutes. What is the correct action?
Taxi back, de-ice and anti-ice the aircraft again.
After going to the de-ice/anti-ice area before take off the ground crew ONLY de-iced ONE side of the aircraft and for some reason, the other was forgotten. Supposing the aircraft is Taking-Off and the situation is detected on time, who is to blame for this mistake?
The Commander
The operator shall include in the operations manual a Minimum Equipment List which shall be approved by the Authority of:
The Country of The Operator
An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out of service if this is provided for in:
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL).
If a piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft becomes inoperative while you are still parked at the gate the reference document you should use before making the decision to proceed is:
The Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".
The MEL (Minimum Equipment List) can be changed by:
The Operator
Who shall amend the MEL after any applicable change to the MMEL within the acceptable timescales?
The Operator
According to EASA AIR OPS, an operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions unless:
The aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in icing conditions.
In winter, an airplane is parked outside overnight and when arriving to conduct an early morning flight the pilots notice ice on the wings which is translucent, what procedure is to be applied?
The aircraft must be de-iced with de-icing fluid.
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
The aircraft operator and approved by the authority.
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight in icing conditions?
The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems.
During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:
The aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type.
Which of the following is part of the 'security restricted area'? (ICAO Annex 17 / (EC) No 300/2 008)
The airside catering and aircraft cleaning premises.
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
The anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.
Ice blocks the pressure sensors in cruise...
The autothrottle receives erroneous information and may demand less thrust.
Upon departure from London, the flight encounters a problem which requires a return to the airport for landing and the crew declares an urgency. The aircraft is above its maximum landing mass. To reduce the mass for a safe landing:
The crew should advice ATC and obtain clearance to an area and a sufficient altitude before starting dumping fuel.
On passing through a shear line, why does the IAS change?
The inertia of the aircraft will initially keep it at its original speed in relation to the ground.
Refer to a precautionary landing:
The landing site will be at the earliest opportunity.
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:
The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority.
The Master Minimum Equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
The manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.
What is the relationship between MEL and MMEL?
The master minimum equipment list can be less restricting than the minimum equipment list.
Aeroplane wake turbulence during take-off starts when:
The nose wheel lifts off the runway.
Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 / EASA AIR OPS?
The operator
Who is responsible for providing information to passengers and cargo shippers regarding dangerous goods?
The operator
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. The MEL is drawn up by:
The operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL).
Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
The operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284).
In which way should an operator establish noise abatement procedures?
The operator should establish its own NADPs by complying with the NADPs published by the authority.
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
The operator, and it is inserted in the Operations Manual.
What action should be taken when following an engine failure procedure after take-off whilst following NADP 1?
The pilot has authority to disregard the noise abatement procedure.
In a 5 kts right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be:
The same for all airports for the same airplane type.
In regards to ICAO Annex 18, when offering dangerous goods for transportation by air, who initially is responsible for compliance with the regulations?
The shipper
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by the:
The shipper
Who is responsible for assuring that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?
The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
The technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
If the static ports are completely clogged up by ice during a climb...
The vertical speed indicator will indicate zero.
How do wing tip vortices look if seen from behind?
These vortices are two counter-rotating cylindrical air masses trailing aft from the aircraft and rotate clockwise on the left side and rotate counter-clockwise on the right side.
How do the vortices from an aeroplane wing act?
They go from wing tip upwards around the wing tips.
How do the vortices from an aeroplane wing act? (from wing tip)
They go from wing tip upwards around the wing tips.
With reference to the Clean Aircraft Concept, an aircraft may take-off in the following condition:
Thin layer of hoar frost on the fuselage.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
To LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less than 760 m.
When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tailwind gust the aircraft tends:
To descend
What is the reason for dumping fuel during an emergency after take-off?
To get below Maximum Landing Mass (MLM)
Collect snow and forming it into a ball where it keeps its shape as a snowball. This refers to:
Wet snow
Wake turbulence risk is highest:
When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:
When exiting the aicraft
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated:
When leaving the aircraft
When does the engine fire warning light go out?
When the fire has been extinguished
Prior to take-off, a microburst is reported in your climb path. You...
Will delay the take-off.
Dry snow is snow which:
Will fall apart again if compacted by hand.
While approaching the outer marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You will expect to encounter:
Wind shears
When would a pilot consider making a precautionary landing?
With low fuel, when feeling tired or with the onset of night time.
An aircraft experiences a bird strike that results in significant damage. What shall be done by the commander after landing?
Write a bird strike report
Can reverse thrust be used at 23:59 UTC if noise abatement hours are from 22:00 - 03:00 UTC?
Yes, there is no restriction to reverse thrust.
You are a commander of a flight, where an anti-icing and de-icing procedure has been applied. While taxiing for take-off there is a delay, because you have to use a different runway for take-off, but the holdover time is not yet exceeded. What is your next action?
You continue to the take-off position and take-off, provided the holdover time is not exceeded.
During cruise you encounter an engine fire indication. What is your first action?
You follow the engine shut down procedures in Operations Manual Part B.
In general, what is one of your initial actions after a high-speed aborted take-off with overheated brakes?
You give consideration to appropriate parking area.
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:
from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing