1.3 Summarize the types of cables and connectors and explain which is the appropriate type for a solution.

Which DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology can adjust its transmission speed based on line conditions? a) HDSL b) IDSL c) RADSL d) VDSL

C. Rate-Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line (RADSL) technology can adjust its rate of transmission based on line conditions. High-bit-rate Digital Subscriber Line (HDSL), Very high-rate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL), and Internet Digital Subscriber Line (IDSL) do not use rate adaptive transmission.

Which of the following are connector types used with coaxial cables? (Choose all that apply.) a) BNC b) F-type c) N-type d) ST e) RJ-11

A, B, C. BNC connectors are used for coaxial Thin Ethernet networks, and N-type connectors with Thick Ethernet. F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable television installations. Straight Tip (ST) connectors are used with fiber-optic cable, and RJ-11 connectors are used for telephone installations.

Which of the following statements about the differences between fiber-optic Angled Physical Contact (APC) and Ultra-Physical Contact (UPC) connectors are true? (Choose all that apply.) a) APCs should only be joined to other APCs. b) APCs generate more insertion loss that UPCs. c) UPCs generate more return loss than APCs. d) UPCs use a green connector boot or body.

A, B, C. Joining an APC to a UPC creates a mismatched connection that generates an extremely high rate of insertion loss (attenuation). APCs do generate more insertion loss than UPCs and less return loss (reflection). It is APCs, not UPCs, that use green boots or bodies on the connectors.

Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling are true? (Choose all that apply.) a) There are two main fiber-optic cable types: single-mode and multimode. b) Fiber-optic cable is typically used to span long distances. c) Fiber-optic cables use IBM Data Connector (IDC) connectors. d) Fiber-optic cables often use Straight Tip (ST) and Subscriber Connector (SC) connectors. e) Single-mode fiber-optic cable uses a laser light source and a glass core. f) Multimode fiber-optic cable uses a Light-Emitting Diode (LED) light source.

A, B, D, E, F. Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: multimode and single-mode. Fiber-optic cables vary in light source (LED or laser), cable grade (glass or plastic), and size of the core conductor. Single-mode uses a higher-grade glass conductor with a laser light source. Multimode fiber uses an LED light source. Both types can use either ST or SC connectors to physically connect end devices to a fiber-optic network. Fiber-optic cable is used to extend networks over long distances. Fiber-optic cables do not use IDC connectors, which are intended for use with Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable.

In the 100Base-TX specification, which of the following are the functions of the Fast Link Pulse (FLP) signals exchanged by switches and network interface adapters? (Choose all that apply.) a) The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection (or link) between the devices. b) The FLP signals enable the devices to negotiate the speed of the link between them. c) The FLP signals indicate when a collision has occurred. d) The devices use FLP signals to detect bad frames.

A, B. FLP signals are an enhancement of the Normal Link Pulse (NLP) signals defined in the 10Base-T standard, which verify the integrity of the link. In 100Base-TX, the FLP signals retain that function, but they also enable multispeed devices to negotiate the speed at which they will operate. FLP signals do not indicate collisions or bad frames.

Which of the following components are typically used only for telephone cable installations, and not for data networking? (Choose all that apply.) a) 66 blocks b) 110 blocks c) 25 pair UTP cables d) 100 pair UTP cables

A, C, D. Voice telephone networks do not have performance requirements as strict as those of data networks, so they are less liable to suffer from crosstalk and other types of interference. As a result, installers often use larger UTP cables for telephone connections. UTP cables are available in configurations containing 25 wire pairs and 100 wire pairs in a single sheath, which enables installers to service multiple users with a single cable. The punchdown blocks for UTP data networks with 8P8C connectors are called 110 blocks. The older standard for punchdown blocks is the 66 block. Rarely used for data networking, 66 blocks are still found in many telephone service installations.

Which two of the following constructs provide roughly the same function? (Choose two that apply.) a) SIP trunk b) CSU/DSU c) VoIP gateway d) Smartjack e) VPN concentrator

A, C. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network. A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) gateway provides a connection between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). Both of these provide a conduit between a subscriber's private network and the network furnished by a service provider. A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that provides a router on a private network with access to a leased line. A smartjack provides signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities to leased line subscribers. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple client systems to access a network from remote locations.

13) Which of the following statements about single-mode and multimode fiber-optic cables are true? a) Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables. b) Single-mode cables are more resistant to electromagnetic interference than multimode cables. c) Single-mode cables are more difficult to install than multimode cables. d) Single-mode cables have a much larger core diameter than multimode cables.

A, C. Single-mode cables are capable of spanning longer distances than multimode because they have a narrower core diameter, reducing signal dispersion rates. Because the core consists of fewer (typically one or two) strands, single-mode cables are less flexible than multimode and cannot bend around corners as easily, making them more difficult to install. Because they use light impulses rather than electricity, all fiber-optic cables are completely immune to electromagnetic interference.

Which of the following are characteristics of an internal cable installation? (Choose all that apply.) a) An internal cable installation uses bulk spools of cabling with no connectors attached for most cable runs. b) An internal cable installation uses only prefabricated cables with connectors attached for all cable runs. c) An internal cable installation uses solid wire conductors for all cable runs, regardless of distance. d) An internal cable installation uses stranded wire conductors for short cable runs and solid core for longer cable runs. e) In an internal cable installation, cables are typically not run through walls or ceilings. f) In an internal cable installation, cables are typically run through walls or ceilings.

A, D, F. The use of bulk cable with no connectors, wall plates, and rack-mounted patch panels are all characteristics of an internal wiring installation. Internal installations typically cover large geographic areas that require cabling through walls, ceilings, and around other obstacles, making the cabling difficult to move. Solid core wiring is used for longer cable runs, whereas shorter cable runs such as connections from node to wall plate use prefabricated stranded core cables with connectors attached.

Which of the following coaxial cable types are still in general use? (Choose all that apply.) a) RG-6 b) RG-8 c) RG-58 d) RG-59

A, D. RG-6 and RG-59 are 75 ohm cables that are still used for cable television and similar connections. RG-8 and RG-58 are 50 ohm cables that were formerly used for Thick Ethernet and Thin Ethernet, respectively, but are no longer in general use.

Which of the following are Ethernet cable types that must be configured in a bus topology? (Choose all that apply.) a) RG-8 b) RG-10 c) RG-14 d) RG-58

A, D. The first version of DIX Ethernet (Version 1) supported RG-8 thick coaxial cable in a bus topology. Version 2 added support for thin coaxial cable (RG-58) but was still limited to a bus topology. RG-10 and RG-14 are not Ethernet cable types.

Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology? a) 10Base2 b) 10Base-T c) 100Base-TX d) 1000Base-T

A. 10Base2 is the physical layer specification for Thin Ethernet, which uses coaxial cable in a bus topology. 10Base-T, 100Base-TX, and 1000Base-T all use twisted pair cable in a star topology.

Which of the following telecommunications components is all but obsolete and is found only in old, analog telephone installations? a) 66 block b) 110 block c) Patch panel d) Smartjack

A. A 66 block is a type of punchdown block for telephone systems that was first introduced in 1962. By the year 2000, nearly all commercial telephone installations had begun using 110 blocks instead; 110 blocks are still in use, as are smartjacks and patch panels.

Which of the following tools do cable installers use to add connectors such as RJ-45 and RJ-11 to twisted pair cabling? a) A crimper b) A splicer c) A pigtail d) A patch

A. A crimper or crimping tool is a jawed device that has a set of dies in it. Installers use a crimper to squeeze the two halves of an RJ-45 or RJ-11 connector together, with the wires inside securing the connector to the cable. Installers use a splicing tool to splice two cable segments together. There is no tool called a pigtail or a patch.

Which of the following twisted pair cable types is rated for both a 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) data rate (using two pairs) and a 100 Mbps data rate (using four pairs)? a) Category 3 (CAT3) b) Category 5 (CAT5) c) Category 5e (CAT5e) d) Category 6 (CAT6)

A. CAT3 cable was originally intended for use in voice-grade telephone networks but was later certified for use in data networks. CAT3 cable can support data transfer rates from 4 Mbps up to 100 Mbps (using the now-deprecated 100Base-T4 and 100VG-AnyLAN standards). Although this type of cable could run at 100 Mbps, it was seldom used at speeds greater than 10 Mbps. CAT5 cable was the primary replacement for CAT3, supporting data rates up to 100 Mbps. CAT5e and CAT6 are rated for data rates up to 1 Gbps, as on Gigabit Ethernet networks. CAT6 can even support 10 Gbps transfer rates over shorter distances.

Ralph has been hired by a client to install cabling to connect two existing networks. The two networks are in different buildings approximately 1000 feet apart. The cable type must support Gigabit Ethernet data rates of 1000 megabits per second (Mbps) and provide a high level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Your client wants the most economical cabling solution that meets their needs. Which of the following cable types best meets the needs of this client? a) Multimode fiber-optic cable b) Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable c) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable d) Thin coaxial cable e) Single-mode fiber-optic cable

A. Multimode fiber-optic cable best meets the client's needs. Fiber-optic cable supports the required 1000 Mbps data rate and can connect networks that are more than 1000 feet apart. Fiber-optic cable is immune to EMI. Although both multimode and single-mode fiber would meet the corporation's general needs, multimode is best in this scenario because it is less expensive than single-mode fiber. Twisted pair wiring (STP or UTP) meets the data rate and cost requirements but does not support connections longer than 100 meters. Thin coaxial cable does not support the data rate or distances longer than 185 meters.

Ralph has been asked to create some new patch cables that will be used to connect patch panel ports to the network switches. He has been told to use the T568B pinout standard for all of the cable connectors. Ralph gathers the materials and the tools needed to complete the task, but he is not sure about the T568B pinout. Which of the following pinouts must Ralph use when creating the patch cables? a) White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown b) White/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown c) White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown d) White/brown, white/green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, green, brown

A. Option A is the T568B pinout that Ralph should use when attaching connectors to the cables. Option B is the T568A pinout, which would also work but that Ralph has been instructed not to use. Options C and D are both incorrect and can result in excessive amounts of crosstalk.

Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) connection technologies uses analog signaling? a) Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) b) Cable television (CATV) c) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) d) Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)

A. PSTN is an analog, circuit-switched network. CATV, DSL, and SONET are all digital networks.

Which of the following is the European equivalent of the Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard in the United States? a) SDH b) OC-3 c) E-3 d) ATM

A. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) is the European equivalent of SONET. Optical carrier 3 (OC-3) is one of the SONET data rates. E-3 is the European equivalent of the T-3 connection in the United States. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell-switched protocol that is designed to carry voice, data, and video traffic by splitting it into uniform 53-byte cells.

Which of the following cable types is used for Thick Ethernet network segments? a) RG-8 b) RG-58 c) RJ-45 d) RJ-11

A. The cable type used for Thick Ethernet segments is a coaxial cable called RG-8. RG-58 is used exclusively on Thin Ethernet segments. RJ-45 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ-11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks.

Which of the following components is responsible for providing a virtualized hardware environment and running virtual machines? a) Hypervisor b) Virtual server c) vSwitch (virtual switch) d) VPN concentrator

A. The hypervisor is the hardware or software component responsible for managing virtual machines and providing the virtualized hardware environment on which they run. Virtual servers and virtual switches are components that are part of the virtual network infrastructure enabled by the hypervisor. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) concentrator is a type of router that enables multiple remote clients to connect to a network; it has nothing to do with virtual networking.

Which of the following best describes the function of the network medium? a) The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers. b) The network medium provides the protocol used to transmit data between end systems. c) The network medium passes data packets between two routers. d) The network medium processes electrical or light signals and converts them to data.

A. The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers. This connection can be made through a copper-based, fiber-optic, or wireless medium. The network medium is not a protocol, and it does not pass data packets; it only carries signals. The network medium does not process electrical or light pulses and convert them to data; it carries only the signals generated by transceivers.

In the punchdown process for Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable, which of the following is the last step that you perform when connecting bulk cables to jacks in wall plates and patch panels? a) Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts. b) Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place. c) Strip some of the insulating sheath off the cable end to expose the wires. d) Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack. e) Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire. f) Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends.

A. You use a punchdown block tool to connect the ends of bulk cable runs to jacks in wall plates and patch panels. The steps of the process are as follows: 1. Strip some of the sheath off the cable end to expose the wires. 2. Separate the twisted wire pairs at the ends. 3. Strip a small amount of insulation off each wire. 4. Insert the wires into the appropriate contacts in the jack. 5. Press the bare wire down between the two metal contacts that hold it in place. 6. Cut off the excess wire that protrudes past the contacts. You must repeat the process of punching down for both ends of your internal cable runs.

Which of the following twisted pair cable types support both 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) and 100 Mbps data rates, using only two pairs? (Choose all that apply.) a) Category 3 (CAT3) b) Category 5 (CAT5) c) Category 5e (CAT5e) d) Category 6 (CAT6)

B, C, D. CAT5 cable was the original cable standard intended for transfer rates up to 100 Mbps. CAT5e and CAT6 support 100 Mbps and are also rated for data rates up to 1000 Mbps. All three of these standards also support the 10 Mbps transfer rate. CAT3 can support both 10 and 100 Mbps, but it requires four pairs for 100 Mbps.

Which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standards for Ethernet support 10-megabit-per-second (Mbps) communications, and what are the correct segment limitations for each standard? (Choose all that apply.) a) 10Base2; segment maximum is 100 meters b) 10Base2; segment maximum is 185 meters c) 10Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters d) 100Base5; segment maximum is 500 meters e) 10Base-T; segment maximum is 100 meters f) 10Base-T segment maximum is 328 meters

B, C, E. The three IEEE 10 Mbps standards for Ethernet are 10Base2, 10Base5, and 10Base-T. 10Base2 is limited to 185-meter segments; 10Base5 is limited to 500-meter segments; and 10Base-T is limited to 100-meter segments. The other options are not valid.

Which of the following connector types are typically associated with Ethernet networks? (Choose all that apply.) a) F-type b) BNC c) RJ-45 d) DB-9 e) N-type

B, C, E. Thin Ethernet networks use BNC connectors. Thick Ethernet networks use N-type connectors. All Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) Ethernet networks use RJ-45 connectors. F-type connectors are used with coaxial cable, typically for cable television installations. DB-9 connectors are commonly used for serial communications ports.

Which of the following are types of circuits offered by frame relay services? (Choose all that apply.) a) SRV b) PVC c) SVC d) UPC

B, C. Frame relay services offer permanent virtual circuits (PVCs) and switched virtual circuits (SVCs). SRV is a resource record type in the Domain Name System (DNS), and an Ultra-Physical Contact (UPC) is a type of fiber-optic cable connector.

Which of the following remote access connection technologies can support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data traffic over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)? (Choose all that apply.) a) Dial-up modem connection b) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) c) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) d) Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) e) Cable television (CATV) network

B, C. ISDN and DSL are both remote access technologies that enable users to transmit voice and data simultaneously. To do this, DSL splits the lower analog frequency (voice) range from the higher digital frequency (data) range, whereas ISDN provides multiple data channels (called B channels) that allow for both voice and data transmissions. Broadband cable television networks can often support simultaneous voice and data communications, but they use Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) to carry voice traffic over the Internet, not the PSTN. Dial-up connections and SONET do not support the simultaneous transmission of voice and data.

Which of the following statements about single-mode fiber-optic cable are true? (Choose all that apply.) a) Single-mode cables use an LED light source, whereas multimode cables use a laser. b) Single-mode cables can span longer distances than multimode cables. c) Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament than multimode cables. d) Single-mode cables have a smaller bend radius than multimode, making them easier to install. e) Single-mode fiber-optic cables require a ground, whereas multimode cables do not.

B, C. Single-mode cables have a smaller core filament and can span longer distances than multimode cables. Single-mode cables also use a laser light source, have a larger bend radius, and do not require a ground.

What are the two main factors that affect DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) transmission rates? a) Signal termination b) Distance to the nearest central office c) Line conditions d) Line reflection

B, C. There are two factors that affect DSL transmission rates. The first is the distance to the nearest central office, and the second is the condition and quality of the line. For DSL to achieve higher data rates, the site must be close to the central office and use good-quality lines for signal transmission. The other options are not factors relating to DSL transmission.

Which of the following connector types are associated with fiber-optic cables? (Choose all that apply.) a) RJ11 b) ST c) F d) LC e) MT-RJ

B, D, E. Fiber-optic cable connectors all function on the same basic principles, but there are a variety of form factors from which to choose, including Straight Tip (ST), Local Connector (LC), and Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ). RJ-11 is a twisted pair cable connector, and F connectors are for coaxial cable.

Which of the following statements are true about coaxial cable? (Choose all that apply.) a) Coaxial cable has three conductors within the same sheath. b) Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath. c) Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries light pulse signals. d) Coaxial cable has a copper core that carries electrical signals. e) Coaxial cable has an insulating outer sheath made of braided strands. f) Coaxial cable has an insulating sheath made of either PVC or Teflon.

B, D, F. Coaxial cable has two conductors within the same sheath that share a common axis. These conductors are surrounded by an outer insulating sheath of either PVC or Teflon. Copper cables carry electrical signals. Only fiber-optic cables carry light pulse signals.

Which of the following network types are typically wireless? (Choose all that apply.) a) WAN b) PAN c) SAN d) WLAN

B, D. Personal area networks (PANs) connect devices associated with a single person, such as smartphones, and are nearly always wireless. Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) are wireless by definition. Wide Area Networks (WANs) typically span long distances and are typically wired, at least in part. Storage area networks (SANs) require high performance levels and are nearly always wired.

Which of the following cable types are typically used in newly constructed Local Area Network (LAN) installations? (Choose all that apply.) a) Single-mode fiber optic b) Multimode fiber optic c) Coaxial d) Unshielded twisted pair

B, D. The main cable types used in LANs today are multimode fiber optic and unshielded twisted pair. Single-mode fiber optic is used primarily for long-distance Wide Area Network (WAN) connections, and coaxial cable is no longer used for LANs.

Which of the following Ethernet specifications calls for CAT8 UTP cable exclusively? a) 10GBase-T b) 40GBase-T c) 100Base-TX d) 1000Base-SX

B. 40GBase-T is a 40-gigabits-per-second (Gbps) Ethernet specification that calls for 4-pair CAT8 twisted pair cabling for lengths up to 30 meters. 10GBase-T and 100Base-TX do not require CAT8 cable, and 1000Base-SX is a fiber optic standard.

Which of the following is the device that provides the interface between a Local Area Network (LAN) and a Wide Area Network (WAN)? a) QSFP b) CSU/DSU c) SIP trunk d) IDS/IPS

B. A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a device that provides a LAN router on a private network with access to a leased line WAN connection. Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable (QSFP) is a standard for a type of modular transceiver, often used on fiber-optic installations. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk provides a connection between the private and public domains of a unified communications network, such as a LAN and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). An intrusion detection system/intrusion prevention system (IDS/IPS) is a network hardware or software security appliance that detects malicious activity and attempts to block it.

Which of the following best describes the function of a demarcation point or demarc? a) The vertical cross-connect that links horizontal networks together b) The place where an outside service enters the building c) A switch or hub that connects the computers in a particular work area together, forming a horizontal network d) The place in a telecommunications room where a patch panel is located

B. A demarcation point, or demarc, is the place where an outside telecommunications service meets a customer's private network, which is typically where the service enters the building. The demarc is also the place where the responsibility of the network administrator ends. If a problem occurs outside the demarc, it is up to the service provider to fix it. Inside the demarc, it is the network administrator's problem.

Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to evaluate a network design created many years ago, to determine if the design is still viable. The network will support 20 workstations, scattered throughout the building, to run an inventory database application. The two most distant computers are 150 meters apart. The primary goal for the network design is to connect all 20 workstations to a single LAN running at 10 megabits per second (Mbps). The two secondary goals are to provide sufficient fault tolerance for a single cable break to occur without affecting the entire network and to provide resistance to the electromagnetic interference (EMI) generated by machinery in the building. The earlier design calls for a Thin Ethernet LAN with all of the computers connected to a single coaxial cable segment. Which of the following statements about the proposal is true? a) The solution achieves neither the primary goal nor either of the secondary goals. b) The solution achieves the primary goal but neither of the secondary goals. c) The solution achieves the primary goal and one of the secondary goals. d) The solution achieves the primary goal and both of the secondary goals.

B. Although the design calls for an archaic technology, a Thin Ethernet network runs at 10 Mbps and can support 20 workstations over a maximum distance of 185 meters, thus achieving the primary goal. However, Thin Ethernet uses copper-based coaxial cable, which is susceptible to EMI, and it uses a bus topology, which is not tolerant of a cable break. Therefore, the solution does not achieve either of the secondary goals.

Dense Wave Division Multiplexing (DWDM) is a signaling technology that has become a popular choice in the construction of which of the following types of provider links? a) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) b) Metro-optical c) Satellite d) Cable

B. DWDM has become a popular technology in the construction of metro-optical networks because it addresses some of the scalability and cost restrictions of other optical technologies, such as Synchronous Optical Networks (SONETs). DSL, satellite, and cable providers do not typically use DWDM.

Ed has been hired by a private company to connect two remote sites with a Wide Area Network (WAN). Each of these sites has more than 200 users, and they all need to constantly transfer files across the WAN. One of the sites has a customer database that is accessed by both sites at all hours of the day. Access to the database and other information is time sensitive and constant. The company estimates that their aggregate bandwidth needs to be approximately 40 Mbps. Management says that they need to guarantee access to this information and that money is not a factor in the WAN implementation. Which WAN technology should Ed recommend for this scenario? a) A standard modem-to-modem connection b) A T-3 dedicated leased line c) A cable television (CATV) connection d) An ADSL (Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line) connection

B. For this scenario, the best of the options given is a dedicated leased line connection. This is because the bandwidth requirements are constant, and the data transfer rates are high. To support the 40 Mbps data rate, Ed should recommend a T-3 dedicated leased line, running at 44.735 Mbps. Standard modem connections, CATV, and ADSL connections are all too slow

Which of the following technologies can replace leased lines, such as T-1s, by multiplexing signals as packets switched through virtual circuits in a cloud? a) E-1s b) Frame relay c) ATM d) PPP

B. Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud. The service can create virtual circuits connecting the subscriber's network to multiple destinations, eliminating the need for a dedicated leased line to each remote site. An E-1 is the European equivalent to a T-1 leased line, which does not replace multiple T-1s. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell-switching WAN technology, and Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a protocol that provides a data link layer connection between two end systems. Neither is a replacement for multiple T-1s.

On an unmanaged network, which of the following virtual networking components have media access control (MAC) addresses assigned to them? a) Virtual switches b) Virtual NICs c) Hypervisors d) Virtual firewalls

B. Just like physical network interface cards (NICs), virtual NICs have 6 byte MAC addresses assigned to them, which enable them to be identified by data link layer protocols. Unlike physical NICs, however, it is typically an easy matter to modify a MAC address on a virtual NIC. Virtual switches, like physical switches, are not addressable devices, so they do not have MAC addresses on an unmanaged network. The hypervisor is the component on a host server that makes virtualization possible, so it does not require a MAC address. Virtual firewalls operate at the application layer, so they do not require data link layer MAC addresses. On a managed network, these devices have a MAC address to communicate with the management console, but addresses are not needed on an unmanaged network.

Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is sometimes said to operate between two layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. Between which two layers is it usually said to function? a) Physical and data link b) Data link and network c) Network and transport d) Transport and Session

B. MPLS is a data-carrying service that is often said to operate between the data link layer and the network layer. It is therefore sometimes called a layer 2.5 protocol. MPLS can be used to carry IP datagrams as well as Ethernet, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), and Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) traffic.

Which of the following is a wide area networking mechanism that assigns labels to packets and forwards them based on those labels, rather than addresses? a) Frame relay b) MPLS c) ATM d) PPPoE e) SDWAN

B. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a data transfer mechanism that assigns labels to individual packets, and then routes the packets based on those labels. Frame relay, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE), and a Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SDWAN) do not assign labels to packets.

Which of the following cable types is used for Thin Ethernet network segments? a) RG-8 b) RG-58 c) RJ-45 d) RJ-11

B. RG-58 coaxial cable is used exclusively for Thin Ethernet segments. RG-8 cable is used for Thick Ethernet segments. RJ-45 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for data networks. RJ-11 is a connector type used in twisted pair cabling for telecommunications networks.

Which of the following 10 Gigabit Ethernet specifications calls for the use of copper cable? a) 10GBase-LR b) 10GBase-CX4 c) 10GBase-ER d) 10GBase-LX4 e) 10GBase-SR

B. The 10GBase-CX4 specification calls for the use of a twinaxial copper cable with segments no longer than 15 meters. The10GBase-LR, 10GBase-ER, 10GBase-LX4, and 10GBase-SR specifications all call for fiber-optic cable.

Which of the following is not one of the primary components of the Network Function Virtualization (NFV) framework? a) VNF b) NFV ISG c) NFVI d) NFV-MANO

B. The NFV specification, published by the European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI), calls for three main components: virtualized network functions (VNFs), which are software-based implementations of standard network services, such as firewalls and load balancers; a Network Functions Virtualization Infrastructure (NFVI), which is the hardware/software environment that hosts the VNFs; and a Network Functions Virtualization-Management And Orchestration (NFV-MANO) framework, which includes the elements required to deploy and administer the NFVI and the VNFs. The Network Functions Virtualization Industry Specification Group (NFV ISG) is the group within ETSI that develops the NFV specifications; it is not one of the three components.

Which of the following is the U.S. standard for synchronous data transmissions that defines data rates designated by optical carrier levels, such as OC-3, OC-12, OC-48, and OC-192? a) SDH b) SONET c) ISDN d) DSL

B. The Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard defines a base data transfer rate of 51.84 Mbps, which is multiplied at the various optical carrier levels. An OC-3 connection therefore runs at 155.52 Mbps, an OC-12 at 622.08 Mbps and so forth. The Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) is the European equivalent of SONET. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a service that combines voice and data services using the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN), and Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a remote access technology that enables users to transmit voice and data simultaneously.

It is Ralph's first day working for a consultancy that does network cable installations. His new boss hands him a spool of Category 6 cable, a large plier-like device, and a bag of little clear plastic components and tells him to "get started on fives and tens." What is Ralph expected to do? a) Pull cable runs b) Create patch cables c) Attach keystone connectors d) Install a patch panel

B. The plier-like device is a crimper, which cable installers use to attach RJ45 connectors, like those in the bag, to lengths of bulk cable. This is the process of creating patch cables, which are used to connect computers to wall plates and patch panels to switches. The boss is telling Ralph to start making patch cables in 5-foot and 10-foot lengths. You do not use a crimper to attach keystone connectors, and the boss has not given Ralph the tools and components needed to pull cable runs or install a patch panel.

Which of the following broadband WAN services provides equal amounts of upstream and downstream bandwidth? a) ADSL b) SDSL c) Satellite d) Cable

B. The word _symmetric_ in Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) means that the service provides equal amounts of bandwidth in both directions. The _asymmetric_ in Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) means that the service provides more downstream bandwidth than upstream. Cable and satellite services are also asymmetric, providing more bandwidth downstream than upstream.

Which of the following cable types is typically configured in a star topology, uses eight copper conductors arranged in four pairs, and uses RJ-45 connectors? a) RG-8 b) Twisted pair c) RG-58 d) Fiber optic

B. There are two main types of twisted pair wiring used for data communications: Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted Pair (STP). Both types can be used in a star topology. UTP and STP cables contain eight copper conductors twisted in four pairs. UTP and STP cables use RJ-45 connectors to connect end systems to switches, patch panels, and wall plates. RG-8 and RG-58 coaxial cable can only be used in a bus topology. Fiber-optic cable can be used in a star topology, but it uses either glass or plastic conductors and does not use RJ-45 connectors.

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between Type I and Type II virtualization? a) Type II virtualization requires the host computer to have a processor that supports hardware virtualization assistance; Type I virtualization does not. b) In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the physical computer hardware, whereas in Type II virtualization, a host operating system runs on the computer hardware and the hypervisor runs on top of the host OS. c) Type I virtualization supports up to 256 virtual machines, whereas Type II virtualization supports only 8. d) Type I virtualization requires a separate processor for each virtual machine, whereas in Type II virtualization, the VMs all share a single processor.

B. Type I virtualization does not require a host OS, whereas Type II virtualization does. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can use processors with hardware virtualization assistance, but only Type I requires it. The type of virtualization does not impose any limit on the number of virtual machines supported; any limitations are left to the individual implementation. Both Type I and Type II virtualization can share a single processor among virtual machines.

On which of the following virtual networking components can you create VLANs? a) Virtual NIC b) Virtual switch c) Virtual router d) Virtual firewall

B. You can create Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) on a virtual switch, just as you can create them on many physical switches. In most cases, virtual components function just like their physical counterparts. Virtual NICs are components of virtual machines and therefore do not provide functions spanning entire networks. Virtual routers function at the network layer and virtual firewalls at the application layer, so neither of these can host VLANs, which operate at the data link layer.

Which of the following types of Wide Area Network (WAN) connections commonly use Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)? (Choose all that apply.) a) Leased lines b) SONET c) Cable broadband d) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

C, D. Cable broadband and DSL subscribers typically connect to ISP networks that run Ethernet, but Ethernet has no built-in authentication or encryption mechanisms. PPP has the ability to use external authentication and encryption protocols, so by encapsulating PPP within Ethernet frames, users are able to log on to the ISP network securely. Leased lines, such as T-1s, and Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) connections do not use Ethernet connections, so they have no need for PPPoE.

Which of the following cable connector types have been rendered nearly obsolete by Universal Serial Bus (USB) connections? (Choose all that apply.) a) BNC b) RJ-11 c) DB-9 d) DB-25

C, D. The DB-9 and DB-25 connectors were at one time ubiquitous on personal computers, providing peripheral connections to modems, printers, and other devices. They have since been largely eliminated in favor of USB. BNC connectors were used for Thin Ethernet networking, but they have been replaced by Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable with RJ-45 connectors. RJ-11 connectors are used for telephone connections.

Ralph is a network consultant with a client who wants him to design the Local Area Network (LAN) for his company's new branch office. The site consists of a building with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable already installed, which the client considered a major selling point when selecting the property. He wants Ralph to install the fastest possible LAN using the existing cable. After examining the site, Ralph notes that the cable is Category 5 (CAT5), installed using a star topology, and that the individual cable runs are all less than 100 meters long. Which of the following Ethernet physical layer specifications can Ralph use for the new network to provide the fastest transmission speeds without replacing the cable? a) 10GBase-T b) 100Base-TX c) 1000Base-T d) 1000Base-LX e) 1000Base-SX

C. 1000Base-T is the fastest Ethernet specification that can run on CAT5 UTP cable. 10GBase-T requires at least Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6) UTP cable. 100Base-TX can use CAT5 cable, but it runs at one-tenth the speed of 1000Base-T. 1000Base-LX and 1000Base-SX are fiber-optic specifications that cannot run on CAT5 UTP or any copper cable.

A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of how many T-1 connections? a) 7 b) 14 c) 28 d) 112

C. A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24), for an overall transfer rate of 44.736 Mbps.

Which of the following is the proper term for a computer with a hypervisor on which you can create virtual machines and other virtual components? a) Guest b) NAS c) Host d) SAN

C. A computer with a hypervisor, on which you can create virtual machines, is referred to as a host. The virtual machines themselves are called guests. Network Attached Storage (NAS) refers to a device containing shared drives that is connected to a network. A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a separate network dedicated to shared storage devices.

Which of the following statements is true about the differences between a peer-to-peer network and a client-server network? a) Peer-to-peer networks are inherently less secure than client-server networks. b) Peer-to-peer networks are illegal, while client-server networks are legal. c) On peer-to-peer networks, every workstation is capable of authenticating users. d) On a peer-to-peer network, all workstations must share their resources.

C. A peer-to-peer network calls for each workstation to maintain accounts for authenticating users that access their shared resources. On a client-server network, authentication is centralized. Peer-to-peer networks can be more difficult to administer than client-server networks, but they are not inherently less secure. Peer networks sharing copyrighted content on the Internet are illegal, but it is not illegal to share private resources on a peer-to-peer network. Workstations on a peer-to-peer network are not required to share their resources, but they are capable of it.

Which of the following devices often provides diagnostic testing capabilities at the demarcation point of a leased line Wide Area Network (WAN) service? a) SIP trunk b) Media converter c) Smartjack d) AAAA server

C. A smartjack is a device located at the demarcation point of a leased line that can provide additional functions, such as signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities. A Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) trunk is a connection to a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) service provider. A media converter is a local area networking device that connects different cable types to the same network. An AAAA server provides authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing services for remote access servers.

Alice has been hired by a corporation to design the cabling for their network. The corporation just moved into two different floors of an older building: a retail space on the ground floor and an office space on the 43rd floor. The building has existing Category 5 (CAT5) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable. Alice's client wants two separate Local Area Networks (LANs), one on each of the two floors, with a backbone network connecting them. They want a 1 gigabit-per-second (Gbps) data rate for each LAN but plan on migrating to 10 Gbps in the future. The two networks are approximately 200 meters apart. Which of the following solutions best meets the client's needs? a) Install Category 6 (CAT6) or Category 6a (CAT6a) UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use twisted pair cable for the backbone network. b) Use the existing CAT5 cabling for the LANs, since CAT5 runs at 1 Gbps. Use thick coaxial cable for the backbone network. c) Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use multimode fiber-optic cable for the backbone network. d) Install CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable for the LANs. These cables run at 1 Gbps and provide a migration path to 10 Gbps. Use the existing CAT5 cable for the backbone network.

C. Either CAT6 or CAT6a UTP cable will provide the currently required 1 Gbps data rate, with a migration path to 10 Gbps in the future. The backbone cabling connecting the two LANs needs to be fiber optic, since it exceeds the distance limitations of twisted pair and coaxial cable. CAT5 cable conceivably runs at 1 Gbps; however, it does not run at 10 Gbps.

To which of the following Internet connection types does a specification called DOCSIS apply? a) Dial-up modem b) DSL c) Cable broadband d) ISDN

C. The Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) is a telecommunications standard that defines the manner in which data is to be transmitted over a cable television system. DOCSIS does not apply to dial-up modem, Digital Subscriber Line (DSL), or Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connections.

Which of the following physical layer transceiver module standards is the oldest and therefore the most obsolete? a) SFP b) SFP+ c) GBIC d) QSFP e) QSFP+

C. The Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) transceiver standard was first published in 1995 and defines a maximum data transfer rate of 1.25 Gbps. It was rendered all but obsolete by the Small Form-factor Pluggable (SFP) standard, introduced in 2001, which ran at the same maximum speed but was smaller in size. Subsequent variations on the standard, such as SFP+, Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable (QSFP), and QSFP+, defined devices with faster transfer rates.

Which of the following is a common European alternative to the 110 punchdown block used in U.S. telecommunications installations? a) 66 block b) mGRE c) Krone LSA-Plus d) BIX

C. The Krone LSA-Plus is a proprietary telecommunications connector type commonly used in European installations. The 66 block is an outdated type of punchdown block for U.S. telephone systems. Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (mGRE) is a technique for encapsulating network layer protocols; it is not a type of punchdown block. BIX (Building Industry Cross-connect) is a proprietary U.S. telecommunications connection system.

Which of the following statements explains the purpose of the twists in twisted pair cabling? a) The twists prevent collisions. b) The twists completely eliminate crosstalk and electromagnetic interference (EMI) in adjacent wire pairs. c) The twists prevent crosstalk in adjacent wire pairs and limit the effects of EMI on the signals carried over the cable. d) The twists extend the bend radius allowance of the cable.

C. The twists in a twisted pair cable prevent the signals on the different wires from interfering with each other (which is called crosstalk) and also provide resistance to outside electromagnetic interference. The twists have no effect on collisions. The twists cannot completely eliminate the effects of EMI. Twists have nothing to do with the bend radius allowance for the cable.

Which of the following combinations of attributes describes the cable used for a Thin Ethernet network? a) RJ-45, 50-ohm, 0.270-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors b) RG-59, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with F connectors c) RG-58, 50-ohm, 0.195-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors d) RG-8, 50-ohm, 0.405-inch, coaxial cable with N connectors e) RJ-6, 75-ohm, 0.242-inch, coaxial cable with BNC connectors

C. Thin Ethernet networks use a type of 50-ohm coaxial cable called RG-58, which is 0.195 inches in diameter and uses BNC connectors. 75-ohm coaxial cable with F connectors is used for cable television networks, and RG-8 coaxial is the cable that Thick Ethernet networks use.

What are the characteristics of Cat 5 cable?

Category 5 (Cat 5) cable is commonly used in Ethernet 100BASE-TX networks, which carry data at a rate of 100Mbps.

Ralph has been contracted to consult for a company that wants to update its legacy Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. On examining the site, he discovers that the network is still using coaxial-based Thin Ethernet. What change in network topology must occur to upgrade the existing network to Gigabit Ethernet using Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable? a) Bus to Ring b) Ring to Star c) Star to Bus d) Bus to Star e) Star to Ring

D. All coaxial-based Ethernet networks, including Thin Ethernet, use a bus topology. All UTP-based Gigabit Ethernet networks use a star topology. Therefore, an upgrade from coaxial to UTP cable must include a change in topology from bus to star.

Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) services provides the fastest transfer rate? a) T-1 b) E-1 c) T-3 d) OC-1

D. An OC-1 connection provides the fastest transfer rate at 51.84 Mbps. An E-1 connection is 2.048 Mbps. A T-3 is 44.736 Mbps, and a T-1 is 1.544 Mbps.

Which of the following twisted pair cable types can you use to construct a 10GBase-T network with 100-meter segments? (Choose all that apply.) a) CAT5 b) CAT5e c) CAT6 d) CAT6a e) CAT7 f) CAT8

D, E, F. Category 6a (CAT6a) twisted pair cable is a variant on CAT6 that enables you to create 10GBase-T networks with segments up to 100 meters long. Category 7 (CAT7) cable adds shielding both to the individual wire pairs and to the entire cable, for even greater resistance to crosstalk and noise. CAT7 supports 100-meter 10GBase-T segments as well. CAT8 cable supports bandwidth up to 2 GHz, making it even more suitable for 10GBase-T networks than CAT6a (500 MHz) or CAT7 (600 MHz). CAT5 and CAT5e are not suitable for use with 10GBase-T. You can use CAT6 for 10GBase-T, but it is limited to 55-meter segments.

Which of the following terms describes a leased line subscription that provides access to only part of a T-1? a) E-1 b) B channel c) OC-1 d) Fractional T-1

D. A subscription to part of the T-1 leased line is called a fractional T-1 service. This service enables you to purchase some of the 24 DS0 channels in a T-1 connection. An E-1 is the European version of a T-1. A B channel is part of an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) service, not a T-1. An OC-1 is a fiber-optic connection on the Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) service.

Which of the following is not a type of fiber-optic connector? a) SC b) MTRJ c) ST d) BNC

D. Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) is a type of connector used with coaxial cable. Subscriber Connector (SC), Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ), and Straight Tip (ST) are all types of fiber-optic connectors.

Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) technologies uses broadband signaling? a) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) b) Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) c) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) d) Cable television (CATV)

D. CATV networks use broadband signaling, which enables many signals to occupy the same channel. DSL and ISDN do not use broadband signaling. SONET is a physical layer standard that defines fiber-optic connections.

Which of the following signal types is carried by copper cable? a) Fiber optic b) Microwave c) Infrared d) Electrical

D. Copper cables use electrical signals to transmit data. Fiber optic is a cable type, not a signal type. Microwave signals cannot be transmitted over copper cable. Infrared signals are used only for wireless networks.

Why does DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology support faster data transmissions than a standard Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) modem connection? a) DSL uses a separate control circuit that provides clear channels for data. b) DSL does not perform Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) functions and therefore has less overhead. c) DSL performs only a single analog-to-digital conversion. d) DSL uses a higher frequency range.

D. DSL technology provides higher data rates because it uses frequency ranges that are higher than the standard voice spectrum. DSL connections use 10 kHz and above, whereas the standard voice spectrum uses 300 Hz to 4 kHz. DSL does not use separate control circuits and does not perform CRC functions. Also, DSL technology is strictly digital and does not require an analog-to-digital conversion.

Ed is a network consultant who has been contracted to design the network for a new manufacturing plant. The plant consists of two buildings 150 meters apart: an office with 20 computers and a manufacturing facility that has 30 computers. The two most distant computers at the site are 225 meters apart. Ed's design calls for a Gigabit Ethernet network using fiber-optic cable. On receiving the proposal, the client asks Ed to justify the additional labor and expense of installing fiber-optic cable instead of Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP). Which of the following is not a valid reason for choosing fiber optic over UTP for this project? a) The 225-meter distance between the two most distant computers exceeds Ethernet's maximum cable segment length for UTP. b) Only fiber-optic cable can keep the two buildings electrically isolated. c) Fiber-optic cable is completely resistant to any electromagnetic interference generated by the equipment in the manufacturing plant. d) Fiber-optic cable provides a greater degree of tolerance to cable breaks than UTP.

D. Fiber-optic cable is not more tolerant of cable breaks than UTP. Some fiber-optic networks are fault tolerant, but the Ethernet fiber-optic specifications are not. UTP cables connecting a computer to a switch can be no longer than 100 meters, making 200 meters the maximum distance between two computers. Connecting two buildings with a copper-based cable creates an electrical connection between them, which can be hazardous. Fiber-optic cable does not create an electrical connection. Fiber-optic cable is also unaffected by the EMI generated by manufacturing equipment.

Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) services typically uses a switched fabric that was called a _cloud_ long before the term came into general use? a) ATM b) Fractional T-1 c) SONET d) Frame relay

D. Frame relay is a packet switching service that uses a single leased line to replace multiple leased lines by multiplexing traffic through a cloud. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) uses a switched fabric, but it is not referred to as a _cloud_. A fractional T-1 is part of a leased line that connects two points, so there is no switching involved and no cloud. SONET is a physical layer standard that defines fiber-optic connections; it does not call for switching or use the term _cloud_.

If you want to allow both voice and data traffic to be transmitted across the same Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connection, what type of device is required at the customer site? a) A signal terminator b) A Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) c) A coder/decoder (CODEC) device d) A splitter

D. In a DSL connection, a signal splitter is needed at the customer site to separate the lower frequency voice range from the higher frequencies used by data traffic. The higher frequency signals are handled at the central office by a DSLAM device. Lower frequency signals carrying voice traffic are handled at the central office by a CODEC device. A signal terminator is not required by DSL.

Which of the following best describes the function of a vSwitch (or virtual switch)? a) A vSwitch is a software product that enables a computer with multiple network adapters to function as a switch. b) A vSwitch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on the same switch to communicate with each other. c) A vSwitch is a feature in layer 3 switches that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate with each other. d) A vSwitch enables virtual machines (VMs) running on the same hypervisor to communicate with each other internally.

D. In most virtualization products, when you create multiple virtual machines on one host computer, they can communicate with each other internally using a built-in virtual switching capability. A computer with multiple network adapters can function as a router, but not as a switch. Layer 3 switches can provide virtual routers that connect VLANs together, but not virtual switches. The function that enables VLANs on different switches to communicate is called trunking, not virtual switching.

Ralph is an employee of a company that offers the option to telecommute from home. As a telecommuting employee, he needs to connect to the company network to access client information, transfer files, and send email through a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection. Ralph is investigating the different Wide Area Network (WAN) services available for the remote connection before he implements one. His home is over 30 years old; the existing telephone wiring was not run through conduit, and the wiring seems to be deteriorating. Ralph has cable television (CATV) service, and his home is also approximately 20,000 feet from the nearest telephone central office. He wants to implement the fastest remote connection service possible, but cost is a factor in the decision. Which WAN technology should Ralph implement? a) A dedicated leased line (fractional T-1) b) A standard modem-to-modem connection c) A DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) connection d) A broadband CATV connection

D. In this scenario, the best solution is for Ralph to use his existing CATV service for the remote connection. CATV offers faster data rates than standard modem-to-modem service and supports VPN connections. A dedicated fractional T-1 line is expensive and is not typically used for remote user connections. Since Ralph's telephone lines are not run through conduit and the distance to the central office is more than 18,000 feet, he probably cannot use DSL technology, because it requires good-quality lines and close proximity to a central office.

Which of the following tools do cable installers use to connect bulk cable runs to wall plates and patch panels? a) A crimper b) A splicer c) A pigtail d) A punchdown block tool

D. Installers use a punchdown block tool to connect the ends of bulk cable runs to jacks in wall plates and patch panels. A crimper or crimping tool is a jawed device that enables installers to squeeze the two halves of an RJ-45 or RJ-11 connector together, securing the connector to the cable. Installers use a splicing tool to splice two cable segments together. There is no tool called a pigtail.

Which of the following is not a protocol that uses tunneling to establish secured links between TCP/IP systems? a) L2TP b) IPsec c) MGRE d) NAT

D. Network Address Translation (NAT) enables workstations on private networks to access the Internet by substituting a public IP address in packets generated with private addresses. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP), IPsec, and Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (MGRE) are all protocols that encapsulate packets in an encrypted form within another protocol to secure the contents.

Which of the following cable connector types is not used with fiber-optic cable? a) Straight Tip (ST) b) Subscriber Connector (SC) c) Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack (MT-RJ) d) F-type e) Fiber Local Connector (LC)

D. ST, SC, fiber LC, and MT-RJ are all connectors used with fiber-optic cables. F-type connectors are used with coaxial cables.

A maintenance worker, while replacing a light fixture in an office building, accidentally severs a network cable in the drop ceiling. The tenants use a variety of Local Area Network (LAN) technologies throughout the structure, but on that particular floor, there are three separate LANs: a 10-node Thin Ethernet LAN using coaxial cable in a bus topology, a 25-node Gigabit Ethernet LAN using twisted pair cable in a star topology, and a 5-node Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) LAN using multimode fiber-optic cable in a double ring topology. Without knowing which of the LANs the severed cable belongs to, what is the maximum number of computers that could be directly affected by the cable break? a) 0 b) 1 c) 5 d) 10 e) 25 f) 40

D. The Thin Ethernet LAN is the network most endangered by the cable break. If a bus network is severed, all of the workstations on it are affected because the cable segments are no longer terminated at one end. The Gigabit Ethernet network uses a star topology, which means that only the one computer using the severed cable could be disconnected from the network. A FDDI double ring network can survive a single cable break without any workstations being affected.

Ed has been hired by a company to upgrade its network infrastructure. The current network is 10 Mbps Ethernet running on Category 5 (CAT5) twisted pair cable. There are 100 computers on the network, all of which have 10/100/1000 multispeed network interface adapters. The computers are all connected to hubs. Users are complaining that the network is too slow, and connections are sometimes dropped. Management wants to upgrade to the fastest Ethernet standard possible, using the existing cabling, and still keep costs to a minimum. Which of the following implementations should Ed recommend to the client? a) Upgrade to 100Base-TX and keep the existing hubs. b) Upgrade to 1000Base-T and keep the existing hubs. c) Upgrade to 100Base-FX and replace all of the hubs with switches. d) Upgrade to 1000Base-T and replace all of the hubs with switches. e) Upgrade to 100Base-SX and replace all of the hubs with switches.

D. The best solution in this scenario is to upgrade to 1000Base-T and replace the existing hubs with switches. 1000Base-T provides the fastest transfer speeds supported by the existing cable. Since users are complaining that the network is slow with the existing hubs, it makes sense to replace the shared hub environment with switches that offer dedicated bandwidth on each port. Any solution that does not replace the hubs would not address the users' complaints. 100Base-TX would provide a speed increase, but it runs at ~1/10 the speed of 1000Base-TX. Upgrading to 100Base-FX or 100Base-SX would require the cabling to be replaced with fiber optic, which would be very expensive.

Which of the following cable types and connectors are used to attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network? a) A fiber-optic cable and a Straight Tip (ST) connector b) A coaxial cable and a Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector c) A twisted pair cable and an RJ-45 connector d) A coaxial cable and an F-type connector e) An AUI cable and a vampire tap connector f) A twinaxial cable and a Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector

D. The cable type and connector used to attach a television set to a CATV network is a coaxial cable with a screw-on F-type connector. Although CATV networks typically use fiber-optic cables and ST connectors for outdoor connections, they do not use fiber for internal connections to television sets. Coaxial cables with BNC connectors are most commonly used for Thin Ethernet LANs, not CATV network connections. Twisted pair cables and RJ-45 connectors are used for Ethernet LANs and telephone networks, but not CATV networks. AUI cables and vampire tap connectors are used for Thick Ethernet networks. Twinaxial cables are used for SATA 3.0 device and 100 Gbit Ethernet connections, but not for CATV connections.

In an internal UTP cable installation, each horizontal cable run connects a wall plate in the work area to a centralized cabling nexus in a telecommunications room. Which of the following is the correct term for this cabling nexus? a) Telepole b) Demarc c) Backbone d) Patch panel e) Fiber distribution panel

D. The cabling nexus in a telecommunications room is called a patch panel. A telepole is a tool used for installing cables. A backbone is a network that connects other Local Area Networks (LANs) together. A demarcation point, or demarc, is the location at which a telecommunication provider's service meets the customer's private network. A fiber distribution panel is used for fiber optic cable, not Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), connections.

A company is moving their entire operation to a new building, and part of the plan is to increase the speed of their Internet access by installing a leased T-3 line to replace their existing broadband connection. The service provider they have selected sends a technician to install the leased line. Which of the following is the correct term for the location in the new building where the technician will terminate the T-3? a) Patch panel b) Switch c) Firewall d) Demarc

D. The demarc, or demarcation point, is the place where a service enters the building, and where the service provider's physical layer responsibility ends. The patch panel, the switch, and the firewall are all inside the network, and they are the responsibility of the subscriber.

Alice is a network consultant who has been contracted to upgrade an existing Ethernet network to Gigabit Ethernet. The network consists of 20 workstations with integrated 10Base-T/100Base-TX/1000Base-T network interface adapters. The network cabling is Category 5 (CAT5) Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP), installed when the building was constructed. All of the workstations are connected to a single 100Base-TX switch. Which of the following options would Alice find to be a valid upgrade path to Gigabit Ethernet? a) Replace the CAT5 cable with at least Category 5e (CAT5e) or Category 6 (CAT6), and leave the existing network interface adapters and switch in place. b) Install a 1000Base-T network interface card in each computer, and leave the existing cables and switch in place. c) Replace the CAT5 cable with at least CAT5e or CAT6, and replace the 100Base-T switch with a 1000Base-T switch. d) Replace the 100Base-TX switch with a 1000Base-T switch, and leave the existing cables and network interface adapters in place.

D. The multispeed network interface adapters in the computers can run at 1 Gbps speed using the existing CAT5 cable, but the 100Base-T switch must be replaced with a 1000Base-T switch. While the network might run better with a cable upgrade, it is not immediately necessary. Replacing the network interface adapters is not necessary because the existing multispeed adapters can run at 1 Gbps if they are connected to a 1000Base-T switch.

Which of the following hardware components is typically found at the demarcation point of a leased line, such as a T-1 or T-3? a) Terminator b) Punchdown block c) 110 block d) Smartjack e) CSU/DSU

D. The network interface device (NID) at the demarcation point of a leased line can be a simple RJ-45 jack, but many service providers install smartjacks, which can also provide signal conversion, diagnostic testing, and other capabilities. Punchdown blocks, 110 blocks, and Channel Service Unit/Data Service Units (CSU/DSUs) are all telecommunications components located inside the demarc, on the subscriber's private network.

Wavelength division multiplexing is a fiber-optic technique for carrying multiple signals on a single network medium. There are several types of this technique, including Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM), Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM), and Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BWDM, or just WDM). Which of the following is not one of the ways in which these types of multiplexing differ? a) They use different wavelength spacings. b) They carry different numbers of channels on a single medium. c) They provide different amounts of signal amplification. d) None of the above.

D. The types of wavelength division multiplexing use different spacing of the wavelengths they carry, which enables them to fit different numbers of channels on a single medium. WDM (or BWDM) carries two wavelengths for bidirectional communication. CWDM can carry up to 16 channels and DWDM 40 or 80 (depending on the spacing used). Various amplification technologies (including EFDA and Raman) can expand the amounts of usable wavelength in each type.

Which of the following connector types was typically associated with a T-connector attached to the computer? a) RJ45 b) MT-RJ c) 8P8C d) BNC e) F

D. Thin Ethernet networks use a type of coaxial cable that runs from each computer to the next one, forming a bus topology. To connect the cable to the network computers, each network interface adapter has a T-connector attached to it, with two additional male BNC connectors, to which you connect two lengths of network cabling.

A T-3 leased line connection runs at 44.736 megabits per second (Mbps). How many separate channels does a T-3 provide? a) 24 b) 64 c) 128 d) 512 e) 672

E. A T-3 leased line connection is the equivalent of 28 T-1 connections. Each T-1 consists of 24 channels, so a T-3 has a total of 672 channels (28 × 24).

In which of the following components can a virtual firewall be implemented? a) On a host operating system b) On a guest operating system c) In a dedicated virtual machine d) In a virtual switch e) All of the above

E. A virtual firewall is a service or appliance that performs the same functions as a physical network firewall: packet filtering and monitoring. In a virtual environment, firewalls can take the form of software components installed on a guest virtual machine or a hypervisor host system. A firewall can also be incorporated into a virtual switch.

Ed has been hired to install network cabling for a small private company with 15 employees who need to share files and printers. All of the employees are physically located within the same building in two separate office spaces directly adjacent to each other, sharing a common wall and door for access. Both offices have drop ceilings. The client wants a simple Gigabit Ethernet installation that is easy to troubleshoot. In addition, Ed's client wants to keep installation costs to a minimum. Which of the following combinations of topology, cable type, and installation method would best meet the needs of Ed's client? a) Star topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation b) Bus topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation c) Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation d) Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation e) Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation

E. Because the company has few employees, a single location, and cost restrictions, the best solution is a star topology with prefabricated twisted pair cabling and an external installation method. The star topology uses a central switch. Prefabricated twisted pair cabling, with the connectors already attached, will keep the cost to a minimum. Since the employees are all located in the same building, with a common wall and a drop ceiling, the external installation method is the best choice. It is not possible to use a bus topology or coaxial cable for Gigabit Ethernet. Ed could use fiber-optic cable in a star topology for Gigabit Ethernet, but it is more difficult and expensive to install. An internal installation, which uses a combination of bulk cable and prefabricated cables, is more expensive than an external installation and is typically used for larger networks.

Ralph has been hired to connect three Local Area Networks (LANs) together with redundant paths that form a fault-tolerant backbone. The LANs reside on different floors in the same building and are approximately 600 meters apart. Each LAN is currently configured in a star topology using twisted pair cabling. Each LAN includes wall plates and rack-mounted patch panels and switches. Building and fire codes allow cables to run through existing risers, ceilings, and walls, but a 50,000-watt radio station occupies one of the floors between the LANs. Which topology, cable type, and installation method are best suited for this network? a) Star topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation b) Star topology, coaxial cabling, and external installation c) Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and external installation d) Bus topology, twisted pair cabling, and internal installation e) Mesh topology, fiber-optic cabling, and internal installation f) Star topology, twisted pair cabling, and external installation

E. Ralph should use a mesh topology with redundant fiber-optic cable runs and an internal installation method. This will meet the requirements for connecting the LANs and providing redundancy and fault tolerance. Fiber-optic cable is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and can span long distances. The internal installation method is most often used in larger networks, where end systems are geographically distant. The star topology will not fulfill the requirements since it provides no redundancy. Twisted pair cable cannot span distances more than 100 meters, and it is highly susceptible to EMI. Coaxial cable cannot span distances more than 500 meters, and it is also susceptible to EMI. The bus topology cannot use twisted pair cabling and does not support cable runs longer than 500 meters.

Identify the organizations that developed the general cable type standards for voice and data communications that are currently in use and identify the document name. a) ANSI/TVA, document C568 b) TWA/ANSI/EIA, document T530-A c) EIA/ANSI/TWA, document 802.2 d) TDA/EIA/TIA, document 802.11 e) ANSI/TIA/EIA, document T568b

E. The three organizations that collectively developed the T568b document, which defines the standard for a structured cabling system for voice and data communications, are the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA), and the Electronic Industries Association (EIA). All of the other options are not standards organizations or cabling standards.

Which of the following types of cable, when installed, sometimes employed a device called a vampire tap? a) Unshielded twisted pair b) Shielded twisted pair c) Multimode fiber optic d) Single-mode fiber optic e) Coaxial

E. Thick Ethernet installations used a type of coaxial cable called RG-8. To connect a node to the network, installers ran a separate cable called an Attachment Unit Interface (AUI) cable from the computer to the RG-8 and connected it using a device called a vampire tap that pierced the sheathing to make contact with the conductors within. All of the other cable types listed use different types of connectors.

Which of the following twisted pair cable types are rated for 1000 megabit-per-second (Mbps) Gigabit Ethernet using two wire pairs? (Choose all that apply.) a) Category 3 (CAT3) b) Category 5 (CAT5) c) Category 5e (CAT5e) d) Category 6 (CAT6) e) Category 6a (CAT6a) f) None of the above

F. All twisted pair Gigabit Ethernet implementations require all four wire pairs to achieve 1000 Mbps transfer rates.

In which of the following ways does a vSwitch (virtual switch) differ from a physical switch? a) Virtual switches have an unlimited number of ports, whereas physical switches have a specific number. b) Physical switches typically support the creation of VLANs, whereas virtual switches do not. c) Virtual switches cannot forward traffic to the host server running them, whereas physical switches can forward traffic to all connected computers. d) Physical switches always include layer 3 functionality, whereas virtual switches do not.

It is true that virtual switches can have unlimited ports, whereas physical switches are limited to the number of physical ports in the device. Both virtual and physical switches can support Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). Virtual switches can forward traffic to the host server. Physical switches do not always include layer 3 (routing) functionality.