200-301 SS1

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24

172.28.0.0/16

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two) A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel. B. Administratively shut down the ports C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99 D. Configure the ports as trunk ports E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Administratively shut down the ports Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure the version of SSH B. Configure VTY access. C. Create a user with a password. D. Assign a DNS domain name

Assign a DNS domain name

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control? A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks? A. Enable dynamic ARP inspection B. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID D. Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address? A. ARP B. DNS C. CDP D. DHCP

DHCP

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2

FF02::1 FF02::2

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? A. Exchange B. 2-way C. Full D. Init

Full

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged B. It drops the traffic C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address? A. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1. B. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1. C. It drops the frame immediately. D. It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two) A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding D. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections E. The data can pass through the cladding

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber The glass core component is encased in a cladding

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state? A. BPDUfilter B. PortFast C. Backbonefast D. BPDUguard

PortFast

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+? A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol B. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol C. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol D. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for the delivery of packets? A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgment and retransmits data if lost. C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only. B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only. C. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only. D. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function? A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port B. Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table. C. The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses D. It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two) A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses B. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses C. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically. E. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails? A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup B. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary. C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup D. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable What is the result of this configuration? A. The link is in a down state. B. The link is in an error disables state C. The link is becomes an access port. D. The link becomes a trunk port.

The link becomes a trunk port.

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image B. The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch D. A console password must be configured on the switch E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two) A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them. D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding D. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

What is a DHCP client? A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts. D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server? A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool B. a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names C. usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain D. a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols. A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count

administrative distance

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network? A. serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network B. support standalone or controller-based architectures C. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network D. provide secure user logins to devices on the network

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically? A. enable dynamic MAC address learning B. implement static MAC addressing. C. enable sticky MAC addressing D. implement auto MAC address learning

enable sticky MAC addressing

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two) A. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations B. encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default C. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address E. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through? A. firewall B. wireless access point C. router D. wireless LAN controller

firewall

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled? A. learning B. forwarding C. blocking D. listening

forwarding

which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address? A. global unicast B. link-local C. unique local D. multicast

global unicast

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay? A. ip helper-address B. ip address dhcp C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp relay

ip helper-address

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet? A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1 B. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

A corporate office uses four floors in a building * Floor 1 has 24 users * Floor 2 has 29 users * Floor 3 has 28 users *Floor 4 has 22 users Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor D. l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers? A. autonomous B. lightweight C. bridge D. mobility express

lightweight

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process? A. local port ID B. lowest path cost to the root bridge C. lowest neighbor's bridge ID D. lowest neighbor's port ID

lowest path cost to the root bridge

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? A. cost B. adminstrative distance C. metric D. as-path

metric

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server? A. ntp authenticate B. ntp server C. ntp peer D. ntp master

ntp master

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? A. on B. auto C. active D. desirable

on

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person? A. intrusion detection B. user awareness C. physical access control D. network authorization

physical access control

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration? A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration B. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established C. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords D. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed? A. route with the lowest cost B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP C. route with the shortest prefix length D. route with the lowest administrative distance

route with the lowest administrative distance

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets? A. backup B. standby C. listening D. forwarding

standby

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used? A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 B. switchport trunk native vlan 10 C. switchport mode trunk D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport trunk native vlan 10

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two) A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails D. to support load balancing via static routing E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place? A. Physical access control B. Social engineering attack C. brute force attack D. user awareness

user awareness

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point? A. TACACS server B. wireless access point C. RADIUS server D. wireless LAN controller

wireless LAN controller