303 Hinkle PrepU Chapter 46: Management of Patients With Gastric and Duodenal Disorders

A client is admitted to the health care facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects the client's stools to have which description?

black and tarry Black, tarry stools are a sign of bleeding high in the GI tract, as from a gastric ulcer, and result from the action of digestive enzymes on the blood. Vomitus associated with upper GI tract bleeding commonly is described as coffee-ground-like. Clay-colored stools are associated with biliary obstruction. Bright red stools indicate lower GI tract bleeding.

The nurse is assessing a client with advanced gastric cancer. The nurse anticipates that the assessment will reveal which finding?

bloating after meals Symptoms of progressive disease include bloating after meals, weight loss, abdominal pain above the umbilicus, loss or decrease in appetite, and nausea or vomiting.

Which of the following clients is at highest risk for peptic ulcer disease?

client with blood type O Clients with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than those with blood types A, B, and AB.

Which medication classification represents a proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitor?

omeprazole Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogen-potassium adenosine triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

The nurse recognizes that the client diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience

pain 2-3 hours after a meal The client with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1 and 2 with pain, and ingestion of food brings relief. Vomiting is uncommon in the client with duodenal ulcer. Hemorrhage is less likely in the client with duodenal ulcer than the client with gastric ulcer. The client with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed?

A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. A Billroth I procedure involves removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach (which contains the cells that secrete gastrin) as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. The remaining segment is anastomosed to the duodenum.

A client with active schizophrenia has developed acute gastritis after ingesting a strongly alkaline solution during a psychotic episode. Which emergency treatments should the nurse anticipate using with the client? Select all that apply.

Diluted lemon juice Diluted vinegar Emergency treatment consists of diluting and neutralizing the offending agent. To neutralize acids, common antacids (e.g., aluminum hydroxide) are used; to neutralize an alkali, diluted lemon juice or diluted vinegar is used. If corrosion is extensive or severe, emetics such as syrup of ipecac and lavage are avoided because of the danger of perforation and damage to the esophagus.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after surgery for peptic ulcer disease. For what potential complications does the nurse know to monitor? Select all that apply.

Hemorrhage Perforation Penetration Pyloric obstruction Potential complications may include hemorrhage, perforation, penetration, and pyloric obstruction. A client who has had surgery for peptic ulcer disease may have a decreased appetite in the immediate postoperative stage, but it is not something the nurse would monitor for and would not cause cachexia. Inability to clear secretions is generally not a complication of peptic ulcer surgery.

The nurse determines that teaching for the client with peptic ulcer disease has been effective when the client makes which statement?

"I have learned some relaxation strategies to decrease my stress" The nurse assists the client to identify stressful or exhausting situations. A hectic lifestyle and an irregular schedule may aggravate symptoms and interfere with regular meals taken in relaxed settings along with the regular administration of medications. The client may benefit from regular rest periods during the day, at least during the acute phase of the disease. Biofeedback, hypnosis, behavior modification, massage, or acupuncture may be helpful.

A nursing student is preparing a teaching plan about peptic ulcer disease. The student knows to include teaching about the percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding. The percentage is

15% Fifteen percent of clients with peptic ulcer experience bleeding.

Peptic ulcer disease occurs more frequently in people with which blood type?

O People with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than those with blood type A, B, or AB.

A client with peptic ulcer disease wants to know nonpharmacologic ways to prevent recurrence. Which of the following measures would the nurse recommend? Select all that apply.

Smoking cessation Substituting decaffeinated products for all forms of coffee Avoidance of alcohol Following a regular schedule for rest, relaxation, and meals The likelihood of recurrence is reduced if the client avoids smoking, coffee (including decaffeinated coffee) and other caffeinated beverages, and alcohol. It is important to counsel the client to eat meals at regular times and in a relaxed setting and to avoid overeating.

A healthcare provider prescribes a combination of drugs to treat reoccurring peptic ulcer disease, and the client asks the nurse the reason for all the medications. What teaching should the nurse review with the client?

The bismuth salts, antibiotics, and proton pump inhibitors will work together to suppress or eradicate H. pylori. The recommended combination of bismuth salts, antibiotics, and proton pump inhibitors will suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Prostaglandin E1 analogs enhance mucosal resistance to injury; they do not suppress or eradicate H. pylori.

The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old client for signs and symptoms of gastric cancer. The nurse differentiates which as a sign/symptom of gastric cancer in the geriatric client, but not in a client under the age of 75?

agitation The nurse understands that agitation, along with confusion and restlessness, may be the only signs/symptoms seen of gastric cancer in the older client. Abdominal mass, hepatomegaly, and ascites may all be signs/symptoms of advanced gastric cancer.

The nurse is providing preoperative care for a client with gastric cancer who is having a resection. What is the nursing management priority for this client?

correcting nutritional deficits Clients with gastric cancer commonly have nutritional deficits and may have cachexia. Therefore, correcting nutritional deficits is a top priority. Discharge planning before surgery is important, but correcting the nutritional deficits is a higher priority. Radiation therapy hasn't been proven effective for gastric cancer, and teaching about it preoperatively wouldn't be appropriate. Preventing DVT isn't a high priority before surgery, but it assumes greater importance after surgery.

Which ulcer is associated with extensive burn injury?

curling ulcer Curling ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum.

Which of the following appears to be a significant factor in the development of gastric cancer?

diet Diet seems to be a significant factor: a diet high in smoked, salted, or pickled foods and low in fruits and vegetables may increase the risk of gastric cancer. The typical patient with gastric cancer is between 50 and 70 years of age. Men have a higher incidence than women. Native Americans, Hispanic Americans, and African Americans are twice as likely as Caucasian Americans to develop gastric cancer.

A health care provider suspects that a client has peptic ulcer disease. With which diagnostic procedure would the nurse most likely prepare to assist?

endoscopy Barium study of the upper GI tract may show an ulcer; however, endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic procedure because it allows direct visualization of inflammatory changes, ulcers, and lesions. Through endoscopy, a biopsy of the gastric mucosa and of any suspicious lesions can be obtained. Endoscopy may reveal lesions that, because of their size or location, are not evident on x-ray studies. Less invasive diagnostic measures for detecting H. pylori include serologic testing for antibodies against the H. pylori antigen, stool antigen test, and urea breath test.

A client reports diarrhea after having bariatric surgery. What nonpharmacologic treatment can the nurse suggest to decrease the incidence of diarrhea?

increase the fiber content in the diet Clients may complain of either diarrhea or constipation postprocedure. Diarrhea is more common an occurrence post bariatric surgery, particularly after malabsorptive procedures (Mechanick et al., 2008). Both may be prevented if the patient consumes a nutritious diet that is high in fiber. Steatorrhea also may occur as a result of rapid gastric emptying, which prevents adequate mixing with pancreatic and biliary secretions. In mild cases, reducing the intake of fat and administering an antimotility medication (e.g., loperamide [Imodium]) may control symptoms.

Which is a true statement regarding the nursing considerations in administration of metronidazole?

it leaves a metallic taste in the mouth Metronidazole leaves a metallic taste in the mouth. It may cause anorexia and should be given with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset. Metronidazole increases the blood-thinning effects of warfarin.

The nurse in the ED admits a client with suspected gastric outlet obstruction. The client's symptoms include nausea and vomiting. The nurse anticipates that the physician will issue which order?

nasogastric tube insertion The nurse anticipates an order for nasogastric tube insertion to decompress the stomach. Pelvic x-ray, oral contrast, and stool specimens are not indicated at this time.

A 66-year-old African-American client has recently visited a physician to confirm a diagnosis of gastric cancer. The client has a history of tobacco use and was diagnosed 10 years ago with pernicious anemia. He and his family are shocked about the possibility of cancer because he was asymptomatic prior to recent complaints of pain and multiple gastrointestinal symptoms. On the basis of knowledge of disease progression, the nurse assumes that organs adjacent to the stomach are also affected. Which of the following organs may be affected? Choose all that apply.

pancreas liver duodenum Most gastric cancers are adenocarcinomas; they can occur anywhere in the stomach. The tumor infiltrates the surrounding mucosa, penetrating the wall of the stomach and adjacent organs and structures. The liver, pancreas, esophagus, and duodenum are often already affected at the time of diagnosis. Metastasis through lymph to the peritoneal cavity occurs later in the disease.

A client is preparing for discharge to home following a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy. Which is the best rationale for the client being taught to lie down for 30 minutes after each meal?

slows gastric emptying Dumping syndrome is a common complication following subtotal gastrectomy. To avoid the rapid emptying of stomach contents, resting after meals can be helpful. Promoting rest after a major surgery is helpful in recovery but not the reason for resting after meals. Following this type of surgery, clients will have a need for vitamin B12 supplementation due to absence of production of intrinsic factor in the stomach. Resting does not increase absorption of B12 or remove tension on suture line.

A nurse is teaching a client with gastritis about the need to avoid the intake of caffeinated beverages. The client asks why this is so important. Which explanation from the nurse would be most accurate?

"Caffeine stimulates the central nervous system and thus gastric activity and secretions, which need to be minimized to promote recovery." Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant that increases gastric activity and pepsin secretion. Caffeine is a diuretic that causes decreased fluid volume and potential dehydration. It does not lead to hemorrhage and does not interfere with absorption of vitamin B12.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

"It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids." "You may have ingested some irritating foods." "Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin." Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion—the person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. Other causes of acute gastritis include overuse of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), excessive alcohol intake, bile reflux, and radiation therapy. A more severe form of acute gastritis is caused by the ingestion of strong acid or alkali, which may cause the mucosa to become gangrenous or to perforate.

A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is teaching the client about the medications prescribed, including metronidazole, omeprazole, and clarithromycin. Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?

"the medication will kill the bacteria and inhibit acid production" Currently, the most commonly used therapy for peptic ulcers is a combination of antibiotics, proton-pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts that suppress or eradicate H. pylori. Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (e.g., metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton-pump inhibitor (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton-pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol). Research is being conducted to develop a vaccine against H. pylori.

Which of the following is considered an early symptom of gastric cancer?

pain relieved by antacids Symptoms of early disease, such as pain relieved by antacids, resemble those of benign ulcers and are seldom definitive. Symptoms of progressive disease include weight loss, bloating after meals, and dyspepsia.

The nurse is evaluating a client's ulcer symptoms to differentiate ulcer as duodenal or gastric. Which symptom should the nurse at attribute to a duodenal ulcer?

awakening in pain The client with a duodenal ulcer is more likely to awaken with pain during the night than is the client with a gastric ulcer. Vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, and bleeding are symptoms common to both gastric and duodenal ulcers.

The nurse practitioner suspects that a patient may have a gastric ulcer after completing a history and physical exam. Select an indicator that can be used to help establish the distinction between gastric and duodenal ulcers.

the amount of hydrochloric acid production of the stomach A duodenal ulcer is characterized by hypersecretion of stomach acid, whereas a gastric ulcer shows evidence of hyposecretion of stomach acid. The other three choices have similar characteristics in both types of ulcers.

A client is prescribed tetracycline to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which instruction would the nurse give the client?

"Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine" Tetracycline may cause a photosensitivity reaction in clients. The nurse should caution the client to use sunscreen when taking this drug. Dairy products can reduce the effectiveness of tetracycline, so the nurse should not advise him or her to take the medication with milk. GI upset is possible with tetracycline administration. Administration of tetracycline does not necessitate driving restrictions.

After teaching a client who has had a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching?

"I need to drink 8 oz of water before eating" After a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, the client should not drink fluids with meals, withholding fluids for 15 minutes before eating to 90 minutes after eating. Chewing foods slowly and thoroughly, keeping total serving sizes to less than 1 cup, and choosing foods such as breads, cereals, and grains that provide less than 2 g of fiber per serving.

A client with peptic ulcer disease must begin triple medication therapy. For how long will the client follow this regimen?

10-14 days Recommended therapy for 10 to 14 days includes triple therapy with two antibiotics (e.g., metronidazole [Flagyl] or amoxicillin [Amoxil] and clarithromycin [Biaxin]) plus a proton pump inhibitor (e.g., lansoprazole [Prevacid], omeprazole [Prilosec], or rabeprazole [Aciphex]), or quadruple therapy with two antibiotics (metronidazole and tetracycline) plus a proton pump inhibitor and bismuth salts (Pepto-Bismol).

Clients with Type O blood are at higher risk for which of the following GI disorders?

duodenal ulcers Familial tendency also may be a significant predisposing factor. People with blood type O are more susceptible to peptic ulcers than are those with blood type A, B, or AB. Blood type is not a predisposing factor for gastric cancer, esophageal varices, and diverticulitis.

Which of the following are characteristics associated with the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES)? Select all that apply.

Severe peptic ulcers Extreme gastric hyperacidity Gastrin-secreting tumors of the pancreas ZES consists of severe peptic ulcers, extreme gastric hyperacidity, and gastrin-secreting benign or malignant tumors of the pancreas. Diarrhea and steatorrhea may be evident. The client may have co-existing parathyroid adenomas or hyperplasia and may therefore exhibit signs of hypercalcemia.

A client who had a Roux-en-Y bypass procedure for morbid obesity ate a chocolate chip cookie after a meal. After ingestion of the cookie, the client reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation. After having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved. What should the nurse educate the client about regarding this event?

dumping syndrome Dumping syndrome is an unpleasant set of vasomotor and GI symptoms that occur in up to 76% of patients who have had bariatric surgery. Early symptoms include a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. These symptoms resolve once the intestine has been evacuated (i.e., with defecation).

A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:

alcohol abuse and smoking The nurse should mention that risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress. A sedentary lifestyle and a history of hemorrhoids aren't risk factors for peptic ulcers. Chronic renal failure, not acute renal failure, is associated with duodenal ulcers.

A nurse is caring for a client with active upper GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this client during the first 24 hours after admission?

nothing by mouth Shock and bleeding must be controlled before oral intake, so the client should receive nothing by mouth. When the bleeding is controlled, the diet is gradually increased, starting with ice chips and then clear liquids. Skim milk shouldn't be given because it increases gastric acid production, which could prolong bleeding. A clear liquid diet is the first diet offered after bleeding and shock are controlled.

Which is an accurate statement regarding gastric cancer?

the incidence of stomach cancer continues to decrease in the united states While the incidence in the United States continues to decrease, gastric cancer still accounts for 10,700 deaths annually. While gastric cancer deaths occasionally occur in younger people, most occur in people older than 40 years of age. Males have a higher incidence of gastric cancers than females. More accurately, a diet high in smoked foods and low in fruits and vegetables may increase the risk of gastric cancer.

The nursing student approaches his instructor to discuss the plan of care for his client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The student asks what is the most common site for peptic ulcer formation? The instructor would state which one of the following?

duodenum Peptic ulcers occur mainly in the gastroduodenal mucosa because this tissue cannot withstand the digestive action of gastric acid (HCl) and pepsin.

Rebleeding may occur from a peptic ulcer and often warrants surgical interventions. Signs of bleeding include which of the following?

mental confusion Signs of bleeding include tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, mental confusion, thirst, and oliguria.

The nurse is teaching a client with peptic ulcer disease who has been prescribed misoprostol. What information from the nurse would be most accurate about misoprostol?

prevents ulceration in clients taking NSAIDs Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a synthetic prostaglandin that protects the gastric mucosa against ulceration and is used in clients who take NSAIDs. Misoprostol should be taken with food. It does not improve emptying of the stomach, and it increases (not decreases) mucus production.

The nurse advises the patient who has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis to:

refrain from food until the GI symptoms subside It usually takes 24 to 48 hours for the stomach to recover from an attack. Refraining from food until symptoms subside is recommended, but liquids should be taken in moderation. Emetics and vomiting can cause damage to the esophagus.

A client has been taking famotidine at home. What teaching should the nurse include with the client?

famotidine will inhibit gastric acid secretions Famotidine is useful for treating and preventing ulcers and managing gastroesophageal reflux disease. It functions by inhibiting the action of histamine at the H-2 receptor site located in the gastric parietal cells, thus inhibiting gastric acid secretion. Famotidine will not neutralize acid in the stomach, but inhibits acid secretion. Famotidine will not shorten digestion time and will not improve food mixing with gastric secretions.

The nurse is conducting a community education program on peptic ulcer disease prevention. The nurse includes that the most common cause of peptic ulcers is:

gram negative bacteria The nurse should include that the most common cause of peptic ulcers is gram-negative bacteria (Helicobacter pylori).

The nurse is assessing a client with an ulcer for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage. The nurse interprets which condition as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage?

hematemesis The nurse interprets hematemesis as a sign/symptom of possible hemorrhage from the ulcer. Other signs that can indicate hemorrhage include tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria/anuria.

Which of the following is the most common complication associated with peptic ulcer?

hemorrhage Hemorrhage, the most common complication, occurs in 28% to 59% of patients with peptic ulcers. Vomiting, elevated temperature, and abdominal pain are not the most common complications of a peptic ulcer.

Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer?

removal of the tumor There is no successful treatment for gastric carcinoma except removal of the tumor. If the tumor can be removed while it is still localized to the stomach, the patient may be cured. If the tumor has spread beyond the area that can be excised, cure is less likely.

The nurse is conducting a community education class on gastritis. The nurse includes that chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in which disease/condition?

peptic ulcers Chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in the development of peptic ulcers. Chronic gastritis is sometimes associated with autoimmune disease, such as pernicious anemia, but not as a cause of the anemia. Chronic gastritis is not implicated in system infections and/or colostomies.

When caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of a peptic ulcer, the nurse finds the client doubled up in bed with severe pain in the right shoulder. What is the initial appropriate action by the nurse?

assess the client's abdomen and vital signs Signs and symptoms of perforation includes sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity); pain may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm. The nurse should assess the vital signs and abdomen prior to notifying the physician. Irrigation of the NG tube should not be performed because the additional fluid may be spilled into the peritoneal cavity, and the client should be placed in a position of comfort, usually on the side with the head slightly elevated.

A client is recovering from gastric surgery. What is the correct position for the nurse to place this client?

fowlers Placing the client in the Fowler's position after gastric surgery promotes comfort and allows emptying of the stomach.

A client is in the hospital for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The client reports vomiting and a sudden severe pain in the abdomen. The nurse then assesses a board-like abdomen. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate?

perforation of the peptic ulcer Signs and symptoms of perforation include the following: Sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity), which may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm; vomiting; collapse (fainting); extremely tender and rigid (board-like) abdomen; and hypotension and tachycardia, indicating shock.

A nurse practitioner prescribes drug therapy for a patient with peptic ulcer disease. Choose the drug that can be used for 4 weeks and has a 90% chance of healing the ulcer.

omeprazole Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor that, if used according to the health care provider's directions, will result in healing in 90% of patients. The other drugs are H2 receptor antagonists that need to be used for 6 weeks.

A nurse is caring for a client who is undergoing a diagnostic workup for a suspected gastrointestinal problem. The client reports gnawing epigastric pain following meals and heartburn. What would the nurse suspect this client has?

peptic ulcer disease Peptic ulcer disease is characterized by dull, gnawing pain in the midepigastrium or the back that worsens with eating. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by exacerbations and remissions of severe bloody diarrhea. Appendicitis is characterized by epigastric or umbilical pain along with nausea, vomiting, and low-grade fever. Pain caused by diverticulitis is in the left lower quadrant and has a moderate onset. It's accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, and chills.

A nurse is performing discharge teaching with a client who had a total gastrectomy. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?

I will have to take vitamin b12 shots up to 1 year after surgery After a total gastrectomy, a client will need to take vitamin B12 shots for life. Dietary B12 is absorbed in the stomach, and the inability to absorb it could lead to pernicious anemia. Visiting clergy for emotional support is normal after receiving a cancer diagnosis. This action should be encouraged by the nurse. It's appropriate for the client to call the physician if he experiences signs and symptoms of intestinal blockage or obstruction, such as abdominal pain. Because a client with a total gastrectomy will receive enteral feedings or parenteral feedings, he should weigh himself each day and keep a record of the weights.

A client comes to the clinic after developing a headache, abdominal pain, nausea, hiccupping, and fatigue about 2 hours ago. The client tells the nurse that the last food was buffalo chicken wings and beer. Which medical condition does the nurse find to be most consistent with the client's presenting problems?

acute gastritis A client with acute gastritis may have a rapid onset of symptoms, including abdominal discomfort, headache, lassitude, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and hiccupping, which can last from a few hours to a few days. Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion-a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms. A client with a duodenal ulcer will present with heartburn, nausea, excessive gas and vomiting. A client with gastric cancer will have persistent symptoms of nausea and vomiting, not sudden symptoms. A client with a gastric ulcer will have bloating, nausea, and vomiting, but not necessarily hiccups.

A client sustained second- and third-degree burns over 30% of the body surface area approximately 72 hours ago. What type of ulcer should the nurse be alert for while caring for this client?

curling's ulcer Curling's ulcer is frequently observed about 72 hours after extensive burns and involves the antrum of the stomach or the duodenum. Peptic, esophageal, and Meckel's ulcers are not related to burn injuries.

A client with severe peptic ulcer disease has undergone surgery and is several hours postoperative. During assessment, the nurse notes that the client has developed cool skin, tachycardia, labored breathing, and appears to be confused. Which complication has the client most likely developed?

hemorrhage Signs of hemorrhage following surgery include cool skin, confusion, increased heart rate, labored breathing, and blood in the stool. Signs of penetration and perforation are severe abdominal pain, rigid and tender abdomen, vomiting, elevated temperature, and increased heart rate. Indicators of pyloric obstruction are nausea, vomiting, distended abdomen, and abdominal pain.

A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Toward what goal should the nurse progress the client's enteral intake?

six small meals daily with 120 ml fluid in between meals After the return of bowel sounds and removal of the nasogastric tube, the nurse may give fluids, followed by food in small portions. Foods are gradually added until the client can eat six small meals a day and drink 120 mL of fluid between meals.

A client is prescribed a histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist. The nurse understands that this might include which medication(s)? Select all that apply.

Nizatidine Famotidine Cimetidine H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of peptic ulcer disease. These medications also suppress gastric acid secretions and are used in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton-pump inhibitors.

Which medication is classified as a histamine-2 receptor antagonist?

famotidine Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. Lansoprazole and esomeprazole are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). Metronidazole is an antibiotic.