7-13

Are characteristics of an ideal fluorochrome as a probe, except a. can be distinguished easily from background fluorescence b. should exhibit high intensity c. should remain stable d. can absorb energy from an incident light source and convert that energy into light of a shorter wavelength and lower energy as the excited electrons return to the ground state

D. can absorb energy from an incident light source and convert that energy into light of a shorter wavelength and lower energy as the excited electrons return to the ground state

a ↓ in this cell population is the hallmark of HIV infection a. CD4+ T helper cells c. CD8+ T helper cells b. Activated plasma cells d. dendritic cells e. NK T cells

a. CD4+ T helper cells

Upon a thorough medical history taking El a hepatitis A patient stated that he was unable to receive vaccination for Hepatitis A and visited a slum area where he accidentally drank water with a questionable potability and cleanliness. The patient underwent laboratory tests, and his pertinent results as told by his physician was that he was (+) for total anti-HAV, and (-) for IgM anti-HAV, this setting means that patient a. has already developed viral immunity through natural infection b. has managed to benefit from vaccination thus immunity was developed c. has been manifesting a very early infection of the virus d. none of the choices

a. has already developed viral immunity through natural infection

Which of the following is not associated with the hepatitis B surface Ag/HBsAg? a. indicates recovery from HBV infection b. an indicator of active infection and is an important marker in detecting initial infection c. detectable within 2 to 10 weeks post-exposure to HBV d. an important marker in detecting initial infection, monitoring the course of infection and progression to chronic disease, and screening of donor blood

a. indicates recovery from HBV infection

A 29-year-old female after a check-up from her physician was found to have a slowly-enlarging painless mass in her front neck. This mass had grown over a 4-year period. She manifests fine tremor of the hands or fingers, lack of concentration and is irritable, and easily feel fatigue. ECG was normal. Thyroid Ultrasound results were not yet released. Admission thyroid function tests showed TSH 0.021 μIU/mL (normal 0.35-4.94 μIU/mL), T3 2.97 pg/ml (2.97-4.47 pg/ml), Free T4 1.94 ng/dL (normal 0.79-1.34 ng/dL), Thyroid Peroxidase Antibody (TPOAb) was positive 554.7 IU/ml (normal Negative IU/ml). Thyroglobulin Antibody (TgAb) 507 IU/ml (normal 0-40 IU/ml). The disease that inflicted this lady can be defined by which of the following choices below? a. is a syndrome that may consist of hyperthyroidism, goiter, thyroid eye disease (orbitopathy), and occasionally a dermopathy referred to as pretibial or localized myxedema (PTM) b. is a form of anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, in which autoantibodies bind to α3(IV) collagen in GBM causing rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage c. is an autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) caused by antibodies that attack components of the postsynaptic membrane, impair neuromuscular transmission, and lead to weakness and fatigue of skeletal muscle d. is an immune-mediated inflammatory disease that attacks myelinated axons in the central nervous system, destroying the myelin and the axon

a. is a syndrome that may consist of hyperthyroidism, goiter, thyroid eye disease (orbitopathy), and occasionally a dermopathy referred to as pretibial or localized myxedema (PTM)

A mutation of this gene gives rise to a stable mutant protein whose accumulation is regarded as a hallmark of cancer cells a. p53 c.Rb b. c-myc d. src e. sis

a. p53

an agglutination inhibition, a negative test is when there is the a. presence of agglutination c. absence of agglutination b. presence of patient antigen d. presence of AHG-coated latex particles

a. presence of agglutination

Which one is improperly paired? a. subunit vaccines: are intact, killed and non-living b. live attenuated vaccines: are weakened viruses or bacteria) need refrigeration c. killed vaccine: safer than the attenuated vaccine, yet it is less effective d. conjugate vaccines: are efficient in Ab induction to carbohydrate

a. subunit vaccines: are intact, killed and non-living

utilized largely for the diagnosis of ovarian cancer a. CEA c.AFP b. CA 125 d. prostate acid phosphatase

b. CA 125

A type of hypersensitivity reaction wherein cytokines are not involved a. Immediate hypersensitivity c. delayed hypersensitivity b. Cytotoxic d. immune-mediated hypersensitivity

b. Cytotoxic

B cells that encounter self-antigens in peripheral tissues become: I. Anergic II. Transform into plasma cells III. Apoptotic IV. Secrete massive amounts of cytokines a. I, II, III, IV b. II, III c. I, III d. III, IV

b. II, III

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a prototypic autoimmune disease characterized by the production of antibodies to components of the cell nucleus in association with a diverse array of clinical manifestations. As a type III hypersensitivity reaction, what is the immune mechanism that underlies this disease? a. Inflammation, cellular infiltration c. Target cell lysis; cell-mediated cytotoxicity b. Immune complex deposition, inflammation d. Allergic and anaphylactic reactions

b. Immune complex deposition, inflammation

Which is not correctly matched? a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine: for cervical cancer b. Influenza vaccine: doesn't need a yearly administration c. trivalent oral polio vaccine (TOPV) can be given at birth d. Bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine: for tuberculosis

b. Influenza vaccine: doesn't need a yearly administration

is the most frequently used bacteria in coagglutination a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Vibrio cholera 0139 b. Staphylococcus aureus d. Haemophilus influenzae

b. Staphylococcus aureus

Non-treponemal tests are exemplified in the following methodologies, except; a. Utilization of an Ag with a similarity to the VDRL Ag with the addition of EDTA, thimerosal, and choline chloride b. Usage of an extract of nonpathogenic treponemes (Reiter strain) sorbent: which removes cross-reactivity with Treponemes other than T. pallidum c. Is a serum qualitative and quantitative slide flocculation test and uses an Ag in an alcoholic solution of 0.03 %cardiolipin, 0.9 % cholesterol, and 0.21% lecithin d. Usage of red particles to visualize the reaction

b. Usage of an extract of nonpathogenic treponemes (Reiter strain) sorbent: which removes cross-reactivity with Treponemes other than T. pallidum

Is the traditional test performed on spinal fluid, and is highly specific indicator of neurosyphilis a. RPR c. TRUST b. VDRL d. EIA e. MHA-TP

b. VDRL

Emmanuel a highly sexually active college student was experiencing flu-like or IM-like symptoms, such as fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, arthralgia, myalgia, fatigue, rash, and weight loss, it is more likely for us to deduce that he is on a. a period of clinical latency c. final stage of HIV infection b. a primary, or acute infection d. none of the choices

b. a primary, or acute infection

A variety of foreign and endogenous substances can act as adjuvants, which one of the given choices is routinely used in clinical practice? a. ISCOMs (immune-stimulating complexes) c. beryllium hydroxide b. aluminum hydroxide d. muramyl dipeptide (MDP) e. IFNγ

b. aluminum hydroxide

This test is used to measure total IgE by capturing the antibody with solid-phase anti-IgE. a. Radio allergo-sorbent test (RAST) c. indirect Coombs' test b. competitive radio immunosorbent test (RIST) d. patch test

b. competitive radio immunosorbent test (RIST)

There are multiple ways of representing flow cytometric data graphics: if it can show two parameters, one on each axis, that are plotted against each other, where each dot represents an individual cell or event, this is known as? a. single-parameter histogram c. septuple -parameter histogram b. dual-parameter dot plot / bivariant histogram d. Duodecuple-parameter histogram

b. dual-parameter dot plot / bivariant histogram

A fourfold ↓ in titer in candidiasis Latex Agglutination (LA) signifies: a. presumptive of invasive infection c. conversion from a (-) to a (+) test b. indicates a successful therapy d. suggestive of an early infection, colonization, or a nonspecific reaction

b. indicates a successful therapy

True about hypersensitivity except a. its traditional classification is based on the time after exposure to an offending Ag b. is an abnormal but exaggerated or uncontrolled immune response to an Ag that can result in cell destruction, Inflammation, or tissue injury c. is divided into 4 major types d. a heightened state of immune responsiveness to a harmless Ag e. none of the above

b. is an abnormal but exaggerated or uncontrolled immune response to an Ag that can result in cell destruction, inflammation, or tissue injury

Which of the following is false about Candida albicans? a. is the most common cause of all serious fungal diseases b. is an abnormal endogenous inhabitant of the alimentary tract and the mucocutaneous regions c. an opportunistic pathogen in debilitated and immunocompromised patients d. systemic involvement (though rare) happens when large numbers of the yeasts are seeded into the body

b. is an abnormal endogenous inhabitant of the alimentary tract and the mucocutaneous regions

Are the principal effector cells of immediate hypersensitivity reactions a. basophils c. T lymphocytes b. mast cells d. eosinophils

b. mast cells

The clinical signs and symptoms of SLE are non-specific and extremely diverse and includes the following, except one a. polyarthralgia or arthritis c. diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) b. positive for the presence of atypical lymphocytes d. classic butterfly rash

b. positive for the presence of atypical lymphocytes

The presence of Abs to streptolysin O indicates: a. High specificity for group A streptococcal sequelae b. recent streptococcal infection in patients suspected of having ARF or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis following a throat infection c. a long-standing streptococcal infection in patients suspected of having ARF or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis following a throat infection d. a latent streptococcal infection e. none of the choices

b. recent streptococcal infection in patients suspected of having ARF or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis following a throat infection

Are potential safety problems associated with killed vaccines, except a. vaccine not killed c. contamination with endotoxin b. reversion to wild type d. yeast contaminant

b. reversion to wild type

The reagents move through the gel medium under the influence of an applied field/voltage a. single Radial Immunodiffusion c. single linear immunodiffusion b. voltage facilitated single immunodiffusion d. Fahey and McKelvey: kinetic method

b. voltage facilitated single immunodiffusion

Type II hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all the following except: a. Hemolytic disease of newborn c. Arthus reaction b. Thrombocytopenia d. Transfusion reactions e. none of the choices

c. Arthus reaction

. The figure on the left-hand side illustrates what type of ELISA format? a. Direct b. Indirect c. Capture d. Detuned

c. Capture

Which of the following scenarios will predispose Mm not to contract hepatitis B, instead he will likely get infected with another hepatitis virus? a. After getting heavily drunk Mm made love to a random girl in the club, whom he had intimate contact with her body fluids (vaginal secretions and saliva) b. Mm lost track with his life and resorted to abusing drugs wherein he shared needles and syringes with his co-IV drug users. c. Mm being homeless ingested whatever is present of the contaminated food and water in the alleys. d. Mm being a hopeless romantic and unable to move on, desired to get a tattoo of her ex-girlfriend's name.

c. Mm being homeless ingested whatever is present of the contaminated food and water in the alleys.

In a method based on the diffusion of 3 reagents within an agarose or agar medium in a petri dish, observing a result similar to the figure on the left-hand side entails? a. a pattern of partial identity b. a pattern of non-identity c. a pattern of identity d. a pattern of cross-reactive identity

c. a pattern of identity

Other than inducing Ab responses, by what means might you identify Ags that could be used as vaccines? a. antigens that can mediate immunological responses if delivered intrathecally b. antigens that can lead to hypersensitivity states c. antigens that induce T cell immunity d. all of the above

c. antigens that induce T cell immunity

For a vaccine to be approved by the US FDA, it has not to meet which one of the following requirements? a. shelf life has got to be stable c. be very strongly immunogenic b. able to generate protective immunity d. side effects are minimal

c. be very strongly immunogenic

A detection strategy for ELISA that can provide the most sensitive type of detection a. fluorescence c. chemilluminescence b. colorimetric/chromogenic d. none of the choices

c. chemilluminescence

A type of hypersensitivity reaction in which the prime immune mediator is not an antibody a. Immediate hypersensitivity c. delayed hypersensitivity b. Cytotoxic d. immune-mediated hypersensitivity

c. delayed hypersensitivity

The mixed lymphocyte reaction (MLR) is an in vitro assay in which leukocytes, from two genetically distinct individuals of the same species, are cocultured resulting in cell blast transformation, DNA synthesis and proliferation. Generation of the MLR occurs as a consequence of the incompatibility of the allogeneic determinants which are expressed on the surface of cell populations and which are encoded by the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) (1). What distinct mechanism in which the recipient immune system recognizes foreign HLA proteins in this setting? a. indirect allorecognition c. direct allorecognition b. acute cellular rejection d. chronic rejection

c. direct allorecognition

In the precipitin curve, the zone of Ag excess is characterized by which of the following? a. large immune complexes can be formed due to Ag insufficiency b. the number of multi-valent sites of Ag and Ab is approximately equal c. free Ag present in the solution d. this is the early part of the curve

c. free Ag present in the solution

Homogeneous enzyme immunoassays are not characterized by which one of the following: a. sensitivity is reported in micrograms per milliliter, which is lesser than heterogenous assays b. frequently use the enzymes malate dehydrogenase and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase c. requires a separation step and also a washing step d. chief utility lies in the determination of low-molecular-weight analytes such as hormones, therapeutic drugs, and drugs of abuse

c. requires a separation step and also a washing step

Refers to the light measured at an approximately 90° angle to the excitation line a. forward scatter (FSC) channel c. side scatter (SSC) channel b. emission d. absorption

c. side scatter (SSC) channel

in inducing lattice formation, IgG is /can a. is a strong agglutinin because of its diameter: about 35 nm b. agglutinate best at 4°C and 27°C c. small in size and flexibility is restricted at the hinge region may prohibit multi-valent binding, thus cannot bridge the distance between particles d. is over 700 times more efficient in agglutination

c. small in size and flexibility is restricted at the hinge region may prohibit multi-valent binding, thus cannot bridge the distance between particles

Which of the following choices can we consider as a slight drawback of incorporating adjuvants to vaccines? a. Immune responses are amplified in their presence b. Cytokines are induced that regulate lymphocyte function c. stimulates of the inflammatory responses d. increases Ag concentration in a site where lymphocytes are exposed to it

c. stimulates of the inflammatory responses

True of type I DM, except a. The body's immune system attacks and destroys the cells that produce insulin b. Is known as autoimmune diabetes mellitus c. the body does not produce enough insulin, or the body's cells do not react to insulin d. inheritance of the HLA-DR3 or DR4 gene- increases the risk/disease susceptibility

c. the body does not produce enough insulin, or the body's cells do not react to insulin

Enhancing agglutination can be made possible by these processes, except a. decreasing the buffer's ionic strength through the use of low ionic strength saline b. reducing the water of hydration around cells and allowing them to come into a closer proximity for Ab to join together through the use of PEG or dextran c. using enzymes: e.g., bromelain, papain, trypsin, and ficin (they increase the RBC surface charge through chemical group cleavage and decrease hydration d. providing a physical means to increase cell-cell contact by centrifugation

c. using enzymes: e.g., bromelain, papain, trypsin, and ficin (they increase the RBC surface charge through chemical group cleavage and decrease hydration

The two central damaging sequelae to group A streptococcal infections are acute rheumatic fever (ARF) and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis; these sequelae utilize the following as their means of pathogenesis I. IgE-induced mast cell and basophil sensitization II. Ag-Ab immune complex deposition III. Th1-mediated immune response IV. Ab cross-reactivity a. I,II c.II,IV b. III,IV d.I,II,III e.II,III,IV

c.II,IV

the gene that codes for enzymes required for HIV replication: namely p66 and p51 which are subunits of reverse transcriptase a. gag c.pol b. nef d.env e.vpu

c.pol

ABO blood group typing of human RBCs is associated with the following statements, except a. An example of a direct agglutination reaction b. A hemagglutination reaction that involves erythrocytes c. Able to determine the presence or absence of the A and B Ags by using IgM type antisera d. Able to determine the presence or absence of the A and B Ags by using IgG type antisera e. none of the above

d. Able to determine the presence or absence of the A and B Ags by using IgG type antisera

Lateral flow-through immunoassays are associated with what statement below? a. Most often quantitative in their assay formats b. Possess technical difficulties in their performance c. Reading of the reaction is based on looking for the presence of a fluorescent under a fluorescent microscope. d. Are point of care assays

d. Are point of care assays

is the most widely used quantitative serodiagnostic method for identifying C. immitis infections a. Immunodiffusion (ID) c. Tube Precipitation (TP) Test b. Latex Agglutination d. Complement Fixation

d. Complement Fixation

The following are characteristics of agglutination, except a. can be qualitative (absence or presence of Ag or Ab) or semiquantitative (by performing dilutions) b. occurs on the particle surface c. process whereby specific Ags (e.g., RBCs) aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the corresponding specific Ab is present in the serum d. Is the combination of soluble Ab with soluble Ag to produce visible insoluble complexes.

d. Is the combination of soluble Ab with soluble Ag to produce visible insoluble complexes.

the following can be used to describe HIV-2, except a. classified into 3 groups: groups M, N and O b. formerly called as human T-cell lymphotropic virus-type III (HTLV-III) c. is much more prevalent worldwide d. all of the above e. none of the choices

d. all of the above

Which of the following applies to 4th generation ELISAs? a. Are used to differentiate a recent HIV infection from a more established infection b. Are indirect binding assays that employ highly purified recombinant or synthetic Ags from both HIV-1 and HIV-2, rather than crude cell lysates c. Are based on a solid-phase, indirect-assay system that detects Abs to only HIV-1 d. can simultaneously detect HIV-1 Abs, HIV-2 Abs, and the p24 Ag e. are sandwich techniques, based on the ability of Ab to bind with more than 1 Ag

d. can simultaneously detect HIV-1 Abs, HIV-2 Abs, and the p24 Ag

The 3 distinctive properties of tumors are, except; a. capable of multiple lineage development b. can manifest self-renewal c. potential for extensive proliferation d. development is based on a single lineage of cells

d. development is based on a single lineage of cells

The following are true regarding the host innate immune response to vaccination, except: a. is an evolutionarily ancient system of host defense b. takes place within minutes or hours after vaccination c. is the earliest host response to vaccination d. helper T lymphocytes are the effector cells involved in this type of response

d. helper T lymphocytes are the effector cells involved in this type of response

Chronic rejection is characterized by the following except a. is characterized by progressive fibrosis and scarring with vessel lumen narrowing due to smooth muscle cell proliferation b. remains the most significant cause of graft loss after the first-year post-transplant c. results from graft arteriosclerosis d. may develop days to weeks post-transplant

d. may develop days to weeks post-transplant

The major components of a flow cytometer are, except a. fluidics c. optics b. electronics d. mechatronics

d. mechatronics

Renal transplantation between monozygous identical twins provides an opportunity to utilize minimal immunosuppression to maintain stable allograft function, thereby alleviating the toxicities of immunosuppressive therapy. This type of of graft is known as a. allogeneic graft / allograft /homograft c. autologous graft / autograft b. xenogeneic graft / xenograft / heterograft d. syngeneic graft /syngraft

d. syngeneic graft /syngraft

Non-competitive immunoassays are characterized by which of the given statements below? a. the labeled Ag competes with unlabeled patient Ag for a limited number of Ab-binding sites b. the amount of bound label is inversely proportional to the labeled antigen concentration c. there is a simultaneous mixing of all the reactants together d. the amount of label measured is directly proportional to the amount of patient Ag

d. the amount of label measured is directly proportional to the amount of patient Ag

Molecular mimicry could induce autoimmunity, which of the following is molecular mimicry exemplified? a. patients with rheumatic fever can develop an autoimmune disease due to infections with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci b. raised titers of both IgM and IgG antibodies to coxsackievirus and later to coxsackie B4 in newly diagnosed type 1 diabetics c. HIV-1 virus has been shown to cause diseases of the central nervous system (CNS) d. Association between the development of SLE and viruses such as Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Coxsackie virus, and retroviruses e. All of the choices

e. All of the choices

The phenomenon of 'clonal exhaustion' is associated with the following a. Is observed in systemic viral infections in which the immune response is initiated, but the response is impaired before the viral clearance b. Results to a persistent state of infection c. virus-specific T cell clones are present but do not respond normally and are unable to eradicate the infection d. favors viral persistence because it is a viral mechanism for immune evasion e. all of the above

e. All of the choices

Lattice formation is characterized by which of the following choices? a. It represents the sum of interactions between an Ab and multiple antigenic determinants on a particle. b. It is governed by the physicochemical factors that include: pH, milieu's ionic strength, and temperature. c. It is a representation of the stabilization of Ag-Ab complexes with the binding together of multiple antigenic determinants d. is difficult to occur in bacterial cells and RBCs e. all of the above

e. all of the above

Once a parasite enters the host or host cells, the following course of events are possible to take place a. because the host's innate immunity thwarts the parasite from establishing an infection, there may be no infection at all b. the parasite may overwhelm and kill the host c. parasite invasion to the host d. long-lasting infection e. all of the above

e. all of the above

Tumor markers are: a. more often used to monitor CA recurrence b. produced by or present in tumors that can be used to detect the presence of cancer based on their measurement in blood, body fluids, cells, or tissue c. utilized to differentiate a tumor from normal tissue d. products of cancerous cell or as a response to cancer e. all of the above

e. all of the above

Hook effects occurs in sandwich assays and results from proteins getting trapped between the coating proteins, which prevents effective washing and removal of unbound proteins. When hook effects is present the following can happen, except; a. nonspecifically traps detection of primary and secondary antibodies b. can lead to high background signals c. lowering the signal to noise ratio and sensitivity of an assay d. unexpected fall in the amount of measured analyte e. none of the above

e. none of the above

Vaccination principles include the following, except one; a. to enhance immune responses, adjuvants are employed b. attenuated organisms, subcellular fragments, toxoids, or vectors are used c. expanding the pool of memory cells through priming of specific lymphocytes d. herd immunity is promoted through the production of safe, affordable vaccines e. none of the above

e. none of the above

Characteristic laboratory findings of infectious mononucleosis include which of the following: a. Papanicolaou's stain revealing the Tzanck cells (multinucleated giant cells) in microscopic smear examination. b. bands that represent Abs to the gag protein p24 and the env glycoproteins of either virus are present c. absolute CD4+ T lymphocyte count is < 200/μL d. presence of Koplik spots: mucous membranes of the inner cheeks or lips appear as gray to- white lesions against a bright red background e. none of the choices

e. none of the choices

When the serological test for syphilis utilizes reagin as the antigen and the cardiolipin as the antibody, most likely these tests are involved I. DNA Probe II. Trust III. EIA IV. VDRL V. RPR VI. MHA- TP a. II, IV, V b. II, III, IV, V c. II, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV, V e. none of the choices

e. none of the choices

Bacterial immune evasion mechanisms include, except; a. cleavage of IgA b. blocking digestion by toxin production c. chemotaxis inhibition d. preventing adherence of phagocytes to the bacterial cells e. none of the choices given above

e. none of the choices given above

Vaccines are less likely to lead to the eradication of diseases because: a. the free-living form of some organisms are thought to survive in nature indefinitely, and it is impossible to eradicate diseases that also have an animal host b. it is hard to eliminate the carrier state c. people fear the possible side effects of vaccines, thus plummeting compliance d. there is a variation of vaccine effectiveness between countries, this could be due to species variation e.all of the above f. none of the choices from a to d

e.all of the above

To survive inside the cells and to hijack the cell's machinery for replication, viruses have developed ploys to evade immune mechanisms, which of the choices do not correlate to these types of immune subversion? a. antigenic drift and shift manifested by influenza viruses b. hepatitis C virus blocks viral RNA degradation as induced by the IFNs c. HIV reduces the MHC molecule expression on the surface of virus-infected cells d. VZV establishing latent infection in ganglia from all regions of the body e. All of the above f. None of the choices

f. None of the choices