A+ Practice Test 2B

Which comment syntax will you use in a .sh script to add a comment in a single line? A. ' B. <# C. # D. /*

Answer C is correct. In a .sh script, any text on a single line following # is a comment. Answer A is incorrect. In a .vbs script, a statement can be commented out either with a single quote, ', or with rem. Answer B is incorrect. In a .ps1 script, you can create multi-line block comments by placing <# and #> at the beginning and end. Answer D is incorrect. In a .js script, single-line comments are prefaced by //, while comment blocks are enclosed by /* and */ at the beginning and end.

There are 20 laptops in a room and they all need to connect wirelessly to a wired network. Which of the following would be the best device to use? A. WAP B. Repeater C. Hub D. Switch

Answer A is correct. A wireless access point (WAP) is a device that provides a connection between wireless devices and enables wireless networks to connect to wired networks. A WAP is sometimes called just an AP or a WLAN-AP. WAPs have a network interface to connect to the wired network and a radio antenna or infrared receiver to receive the wireless signals. Many include security features that enable you to specify which wireless devices can make connections to the wired network. Answer C is incorrect. A hub, or multiport repeater, is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology. A hub contains multiple ports that you can connect devices to. When data from the transmitting device arrives at a port, it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data. Answer B is incorrect. A repeater, sometimes also called an extender, is a device made to enable connections over longer distances. The simplest repeater has ports listening in two directions along a cable; when it receives a signal from one direction, it boosts it, then transmits the amplified signal in the other direction. Answer D is incorrect. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same LAN. Unlike a hub, switches forward data only to the intended destination. Because of this functionality, they are slightly "smarter" than hubs and are more common.

You are working on the Windows operating system. You want to update your operating system as a security problem has emerged, but you find that no updates are available on the website of the vendor of your operating system. Which of the following could be the reason? A. EOL B. EOS C. EULA D. EOA

Answer A is correct. End-of-life (EOL) is the reason that there are no updates available on the website of the vendor of your operating system in the given scenario. Vendors specify the EOL of a given OS version and once the software reaches EOL, further updates and support will not be provided and if any bug or security problem emerges at that point, users must address the problems themselves or else upgrade to a newer software version. Answer C is incorrect. End user license agreement (EULA) is a contract between a software company and an end user that specifies the legal use of the company's application. Answers B and D are incorrect. End of sale (EOS) and End of availability (EOA) are the terms with the same meaning. As their names suggest, it is a date after which the operating system will no longer be available for purchase directly from a manufacturer.

Michael, a technician, is working on a Windows 10 PC that is running slowly. He needs to repair Windows images, Windows Setup, and Windows PE, for which he used the sfc command but is unable to repair corrupted files. Which of the following commands should Michael use to resolve the issue in the given scenario? A. dism B. diskpart C. chkdsk D. format

Answer A is correct. Michael's Windows 10 PC is running slowly, and he needs to repair Windows images, Windows Setup, and Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE), so he should use the dism command to resolve the issue. This command repairs Windows images, Windows Setup, and Windows PE when the sfc command is unable to repair corrupted files. Answer C is incorrect because the chkdsk command checks a hard disk for file system errors and repairs them. It also checks the disk surface for bad sectors. You can schedule the chkdsk command to run at regular intervals as part of a disk maintenance routine using tools such as Task Scheduler or third-party scheduling tools. Answer D is incorrect because the format command formats disk drives. The format command is available from within the Command Prompt in all Windows operating systems including Windows 10, Windows 8, Windows 7, Windows Vista, Windows XP, and older versions of Windows as well. Answer B is incorrect because the diskpart command helps you to manage your computer's drives, which includes disks, partitions, volumes, or virtual hard disks. Before you use the diskpart commands, you must list, and then select an object to give it focus. When an object has focus, any diskpart command that you type will act on that object.

Which of the following is used to store the virtual memory which an operating system writes to the disk in order to free the physical RAM? A. Swap B. ext C. CDFS D. UDF

Answer A is correct. Swap is a partition that is used to store the virtual memory which an operating system writes to the disk in order to free the physical RAM. Some operating systems, like Linux, use dedicated swap partitions that have no other files. Answer B is incorrect. The extended file system (ext) was designed for Linux. Mac OS and Android can read and write on ext4 partitions but Windows needs third-party software to do so. Answer C is incorrect. The Compact Disc File System (CDFS) is used for data and audio CD-ROMs, based on the ISO 9960 standard. Answer D is incorrect. Universal Disk Format (UDF) is an open vendor-neutral file system that can be used for a variety of purposes, but in practice is usually used for DVDs and writeable optical discs.

Which of the following registry subtrees contains all the file association information to determine which application Windows should open whenever you double-click a file with a specific extension? A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE D. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

Answer A is correct. The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT registry subtree contains all the file association information. Whenever you double-click a file with a specific extension, Windows uses this information to determine which application it should open. Answer D is incorrect. The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG registry subtree contains information about the hardware profile that is used by the local computer at system startup. Answer C is incorrect. The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE registry subtree contains all the configuration information for the computer's hardware. Answer B is incorrect. The HKEY_USERS registry subtree contains all the actively loaded user profiles on the computer.

Which of the following features of the Mac operating system searches the system for all kinds of files, including documents, music, photos, emails, and contacts, and also provides suggestions for Internet resources? A. Spotlight B. Boot Camp C. Remote Disc D. Keychain

Answer A is correct. The Spotlight feature searches the Mac operating system for all kinds of files, including documents, music, photos, emails, and contacts. It also provides suggestions for Internet resources. Answer C is incorrect. Remote Disc is a remote disk feature that enables users to access external drives or share disks from another computer. This feature can't be used to access music, movies, or copy-protected software discs. Answer B is incorrect. Boot Camp is an application that enables you to install Microsoft Windows on your Mac, then switch between Mac OS X and the Windows operating systems. Answer D is incorrect. The Keychain feature stores and manages passwords for applications, websites, and network shares. In addition to passwords, Keychain stores private keys and certificates.

Which of the following policies includes procedures and guidelines for use of network resources in an organization? A. Acceptable use policy B. Privacy policy C. Regulatory compliance policy D. Incident response policy

Answer A is correct. The acceptable use policy (AUP) targets end users, who may be employees or customers using hosted services. An AUP includes procedures and guidelines for use of network resources written in terms appropriate to the user's access level and technological knowledge, such as password creation and responsible network use. Answer D is incorrect. The incident response policy specifies exactly what steps will be taken in response to a security incident, in order to minimize and repair the damage without exposing the network to further risk. Answer C is incorrect. According to the regulatory compliance policy, the policies that are designed by the organization must be in compliance with applicable government and industry regulations, as well as agreements with business partners. Regulatory compliance is particularly important for organizations that handle a lot of data owned by other people, do work in specific sensitive fields, or need to integrate their operations with common industry standards. Answer B is incorrect. The privacy policy governs codified expectations of user privacy and consent to security-based monitoring of user activity.

Which of the following Linux commands allows you to perform search actions, such as finding any instance you're searching for, in a file? A. grep B. dd C. whoami D. chown

Answer A is correct. The grep (global regular expressions print) command allows you to perform search actions, such as finding any instance you're searching for, in a file. Answer B is incorrect. The dd (data description) command copies blocks of data from one file to another. This command can be used for tasks such as backing up the boot sector of a hard drive, and obtaining a fixed amount of random data Answer D is incorrect. The chown (change owner) command is used to change the owner, the group, or both for a file or directory. Answer C is incorrect. The whoami (who am I?) command is used to display the user name with which you are currently logged in to the system.

Which Windows command displays a list of available commands and their descriptions? A. help B. cls C. exit D. command/?

Answer A is correct. The help command displays a list of available commands and their descriptions. Answer B is incorrect. The cls command clears the command prompt window. Answer C is incorrect. The exit command closes the command prompt window. Answer D is incorrect. The command/? command displays the given command's syntax and parameters/options.

Which of the following network troubleshooting utilities of Linux is used to display the local system's network interface information, including IP address, hostname, and subnet mask? A. ifconfig B. traceroute C. ping D. arp

Answer A is correct. The ifconfig utility is used to display the local system's network interface information, including IP address, hostname, and subnet mask. It also allows you to configure these parameters. Answer D is incorrect. The arp utility is used to display information, such as the hardware address, the hostname, and the network interfaces, about the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache. Answer C is incorrect. The ping utility is used to verify whether a system can be reached on a network. Answer B is incorrect. The traceroute utility is used to track the route that data takes to reach its destination.

Which of the following Linux commands displays information about your wireless network adapters and addressing configuration? A. iwconfig B. ifconfig C. apt-get D. grep

Answer A is correct. The iwconfig command displays information about your wireless network adapters and addressing configuration. It is used to set the parameters of the network interface which are specific to the wireless operation. Answer C is incorrect. The apt-get command is used to update, upgrade, or install packages. Answer B is incorrect. The ifconfig command displays information about your wired network adapters and addressing configuration. Answer D is incorrect. The grep command is used to search for a pattern of text in files and display the results. This command helps you find files with specific words or phrases.

Jonas, a user, is facing an issue with his cell phone. He went to a technician for consultation and the technician said that his cell phone is showing symptoms of a frozen system. What is the most probable cause of this problem? A. Lack of sufficient storage, too many apps running at one time, or low battery. B. Security response to failed login attempts. C. Unplugged or defective A/C adapter, wet or damaged charging port. D. Battery wear or defects causing a gas buildup within the cell.

Answer A is correct. The most probable cause of the frozen system is either lack of sufficient storage, too many apps running at one time, or low battery. To fix this issue, you will need to hold down the power and home buttons for at least 10 seconds, or until the logo appears on the screen. If your battery was low before the phone froze, completely recharge it before you turn on the phone again. Answer B is incorrect because the security response to failed login attempts leads to system lockout. Answer D is incorrect because battery wear or defects causing gas build-up within the cell lead to the swollen battery. Answer C is incorrect because an unplugged or defective A/C adapter, wet or damaged charging port does not allow the battery to charge.

A user reports to a technician that her Windows 7 Home Premium computer displays a stop error and automatically reboots. Which of the following system utilities will the technician use to find more information about the cause of the error? A. Event Viewer B. Action Center C. Disk Management D. Task Manager

Answer A is correct. The technician will use the Event Viewer utility to find and identify the system errors. Event Viewer is a Windows utility used to keep a log of all recorded system and application events. This includes sign-on attempts, shutdown signals, system crashes, device driver errors, and many more scenarios that can help a user identify where problems exist. It can be helpful in troubleshooting various system issues. Any event that generates a message can be located in Event Viewer, which is helpful when a user cannot remember the exact wording of an error message. Answer B is incorrect. The Action Center utility provides information about potential security and maintenance problems in your system. It provides access to helpful resources about current security threats, including a check for the latest Windows Update. Answer C is incorrect. The Disk Management utility is used to create partitions and format new disks. It provides all the tools you need to manage the hard disks installed on your computer. Answer D is incorrect. Task Manager is a basic system diagnostic and performance monitoring tool. It can be used to monitor or terminate applications and processes, view current CPU and memory usage statistics, monitor network connection utilization, set the priority of various processes if programs share resources, and manage logged-on local users.

A user reports to a technician that her Windows 7 PC is running very slow. The technician advised her to check for the processes running on the machine. Which of the following utilities should she use to view this detail? A. Task Manager B. Task Scheduler C. Event Viewer D. msconfig

Answer A is correct. The user should use the Task Manager utility to check for the processes running on her machine. Task Manager is a basic system diagnostic and performance monitoring tool. Task Manager can be used to monitor or terminate applications and processes, view current CPU and memory usage statistics, monitor network connection utilization, set the priority of various processes if programs share resources, and manage logged-on local users. Answer B is incorrect. Task Scheduler allows a user to create and manage certain system tasks that will be automatically carried out by the computer at specified times. Answer C is incorrect. Event Viewer keeps a log of all recorded system and application events. This includes sign-on attempts, shutdown signals, system crashes, device driver errors, and many more scenarios that can help you to identify where problems exist. Answer D is incorrect. msconfig is a command-line tool that opens the System Configuration Utility dialog box, which can be used to troubleshoot and resolve startup errors, resolve unwanted prompts by third party users, find and resolve problems with running services, and resolve the errors regarding boot paths configured on multi-boot computers.

A Mac user's operating system became corrupted, and files were deleted after malware was downloaded. The user needs to access the data that was previously stored on the Mac. Which of the following built-in tools should be used? A. Time Machine B. Disk Utility C. Screen Sharing D. Force Quit

Answer A is correct. The user should use the Time Machine tool, it will back up data and schedule regular backups to an external hard drive. The software is designed to work with AirPort Time Capsule, the Wi-Fi router with a hard disk, as well as other internal and external disk drives. It allows the user to restore the whole system or specific files from this backup. It was introduced in Mac OS X Leopard. Answer D is incorrect because the Force Quit tool forces an unresponsive app to close. This feature is used when a user is trying to troubleshoot app and system issues. To force quit an application program is to quit the program without saving changes to any unsaved documents or settings. This is an emergency tactic and a troubleshooting technique on the Macintosh. Answer B is incorrect because the Disk Utility tool performs setup or maintenance on hard disks. It also performs creation, conversion, backup, compression, mounting, unmounting, ejecting disk volumes, and encryption of logical volume images. Answer C is incorrect because the Screen Sharing tool allows Mac desktop to be viewed and controlled from another Mac on your network. It can help to troubleshoot problems or coach a user on a remote computer. It may also be used over the Internet via iChat. It is a virtual network computing (VNC) client. This tool may also be used to control any computer running a VNC server if the IP address of the target computer is known and accessible.

You are assigned the task to configure IP addressing using Network and Sharing Center. You started the configuration by setting a static IP address that takes effect when you can't locate a DHCP server. Which tab would you click in the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) Properties dialog box to proceed? A. Alternate Configuration B. General C. Request Control D. Advanced

Answer A is correct. To set a static IP address that takes effect when you can't locate a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server, you would click the Alternate Configuration tab in the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) Properties dialog box. Answer D is incorrect because you click on the Advanced button in the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) Properties dialog box to add additional IP addresses, default gateways, or DNS servers. Answer B is incorrect because the General tab in the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) Properties dialog box allows you to choose whether you want to obtain IP addresses and DNS server automatically or assign manually. Answer C is incorrect because there is no Request Control tab in the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) Properties dialog box.

You are working on a project and updating several files on a network. Due to some technical issues, your Internet connection will be unavailable for few hours. You want to use a feature using which you can edit the files locally on your system and the files get updated automatically on the server whenever your connection is back. Which of the following can you use to accomplish the task in the given scenario? A. Sync Center B. Network and Sharing Center C. Device Manager D. BitLocker

Answer A is correct. You will use Sync Center in the given scenario. When you work with network files frequently you can designate them as offline files which will be stored as copies on your local computer even when you're not connected. When you are connected, Windows will synchronize your offline copies with those on the network. Offline files are especially useful for laptop users who may not always be connected to the work network but frequently use network folders. Answer B is incorrect. Network and Sharing Center provides a central location for managing and troubleshooting a computer's network connection, including the connection not just to the local network but the connection to the Internet as well. Answer C is incorrect. Device Manager is a utility that you can use to configure and troubleshoot devices that are connected to the computer. Answer D is incorrect. BitLocker protects entire drives and volumes with full disk encryption.

You have recently upgraded your operating system to Windows 10 and you know less about this new operating system. You want a digital assistant and search tool which responds to both keyboard and voice requests in Windows 10. Which of the following features will you use for this purpose? A. Cortana B. Edge C. Computer Management D. OneDrive

Answer A is correct. You will use the Cortana feature of Windows 10 as it is a digital assistant and search tool which responds to both keyboard and voice requests. Answer C is incorrect. Computer management is a software console allowing direct access to a number of system administration tools. Answer B is incorrect. Edge is a newly designed web browser replacing the deprecated Internet Explorer. Answer D is incorrect. OneDrive is a cloud storage app that synchronizes user files between multiple PCs via the Microsoft account.

You have to install Windows 8 on a computer that will work as a file server. For this, you need to format the hard disk of the computer, using a file system that supports encryption. You do not want to use any third-party app. Which of the following file systems will you use to accomplish this task? A. NTFS B. FAT32 C. FAT16 D. HFS

Answer A is correct. You will use the NTFS file system to accomplish the task. NTFS is an advanced file system designed for use specifically in Windows Vista / 7 / 8 / 8.1 operating systems. It supports the following: File system recovery Large storage media Long file names NTFS provides the following features: Disk quotas Distributed link tracking Compression Encryption File and folder permission Answers C and B are incorrect. The FAT16 and FAT32 file systems do not support encryption. Answer D is incorrect. The Hierarchical File System (HFS) is the family of file systems used by Mac OS and iOS. The original HFS was used in very old Macs, while newer Apple products use refined versions like HFS+ and APFS. Windows can't usually read or write to HFS drives.

You are working on a computer that runs Linux operating system. You found a malfunctioning program in your system. Which of the following basic Linux commands will you use for stopping this program? A. kill B. shutdown C. vi D. sudo

Answer A is correct. You will use the kill command to stop the malfunctioning program or restart system daemons. It can send a signal to end a process or modify its behavior. Answer B is incorrect. The shutdown command is used to shut down the system. Answer C is incorrect. The vi command is used to edit text files using the vi editor. Answer D is incorrect. The sudo command is used to execute a command as another user.

You have a 64-bit operating system. How many bit applications can you install on this system? A. Only 32-bit B. Both 64 or 32-bit C. Only 64-bit

Answer B is correct. A 64-bit OS can run 64-bit applications and most OS also provide support for 32-bit applications. A 32-bit OS can only run 32-bit applications.

Which of the following is a type of malware that pretends to have found an infection on the victim's computer? A. Rootkit B. Rogue antivirus C. Kerberos D. Honeypot

Answer B is correct. A rogue antivirus is a form of malicious software and Internet fraud that misleads users into believing there is a virus on their computer and to pay money for a fake malware removal tool (that actually introduces malware to the computer). Answer D is incorrect. Honeypot is a decoy computer system that helps to trap hackers or track unconventional or new hacking methods. Answer A is incorrect. A rootkit is a code that is intended to take full or partial control of a system at the lowest levels. Answer C is incorrect. Kerberos provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography.

James, a network analyst, wants to create broadcast domains to eliminate the need for expensive routers. Which of the following will help him accomplish the task? A. SSH B. VLAN C. NAT D. VPN

Answer B is correct. A virtual local area network (VLAN) can be used to create broadcast domains that eliminate the need for expensive routers. A VLAN allows a network administrator to logically segment a LAN into different broadcast domains. Since this is a logical segmentation and not a physical one, workstations do not have to be physically located together. Users on different floors of the same building, or even in different buildings can now belong to the same LAN. Answer D is incorrect. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a private communication network transmitted across a public, typically insecure, network connection. Answer A is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a program that enables a user or an application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. Answer C is incorrect. Network Address Translation (NAT) allows the use of a private IP address network for internal use and mapping it to a single public IP address connected to the Internet.

Bob, a technician, is assigned the task of repairing computer components. Which component safety tool should he use to store components that are sensitive to electrostatic discharge? A. ESD straps B. Antistatic bags C. ESD mats D. Air filter

Answer B is correct. Bob will use antistatic bags to store components that are sensitive to electrostatic discharge. The bag is made from plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) and is slightly conductive, forming what is known as a Faraday Cage around the component, protecting it from any electrostatic discharges occurring on the outside of the bag. Answer A is incorrect. ESD straps are the safety devices that users wear on their wrist, ankle, or heel and then attach to a ground source away from sensitive internal components. Answer C is incorrect. ESD mats are electrically grounded mats that are designed to place computer equipment while you are working. Answer D is incorrect. An air filter is a device that removes solid airborne particles, which are generally harmful to human health if inhaled in the lungs.

At your workplace, you noticed a drop in voltage that is causing the electronic devices to fail or behave unpredictably. What type of power supply complication is this depicting? A. Blackout B. Brownout C. Power spikes D. Power surge

Answer B is correct. Brownout is defined as a drop in voltage, which may cause electronic devices to fail or behave unpredictably. Typically brownout means the voltage drop that lasts minutes or hours, while a short-term voltage drop is called a sag or dip. Answer A is incorrect. Blackout is a complete interruption of the power supply that lasts any duration. Answer D is incorrect. A power surge is an increase in voltage that can last several seconds and damage equipment. Answer C is incorrect. Power spikes are short intense power surges.

Which of the following scripting elements is a named sequence of commands that can be called in the script? A. Loop B. Function C. Conditional statement D. Variable

Answer B is correct. Function is a named sequence of commands that can be called in the script. When a function is called, the script executes the commands in the function and then returns to where it left off. Answer C is incorrect. The conditional statement is a construct that performs different actions depending on whether some condition evaluates as true or false. The simplest example is the if-then-else statement that performs one set of actions if the condition is true, and a different set (or none at all) if it's false. Answer A is incorrect. Loop is a construct that repeats a sequence of actions one or more times depending on some set of conditions. The simplest loop types are for loop and while loop. Answer D is incorrect. Variable is a name given to the computer memory location, which is used to store values in a program.

John, a technician, wants to assign permissions to child objects that are different than their parents. After clicking on change permissions, what changes will he make in the Advanced Security Settings dialog box? A. Enable the Apply these permissions to objects and/or containers within this container only checkbox. B. Clear the Include inheritable permissions from this object's parent checkbox. C. Clear the Exclude inheritable permissions from this object's parent checkbox. D. Enable the Replace all child object permissions with inheritable permissions from this object checkbox.

Answer B is correct. If John wants to assign different permissions to child objects, he must stop permissions inheritance. To accomplish the task he needs to perform these steps: Right-click the parent folder and choose Properties. On the Permissions tab, click Change Permissions. In the Advanced Security Settings dialog box, clear the Include inheritable permissions from this object's parent checkbox. Answer D is incorrect because if you want to copy the parent permissions as a starting point to customize the child objects' permissions, enable the Replace all child object permissions with inheritable permissions from this object checkbox. Answer A is incorrect because enabling the Apply these permissions to objects and/or containers within this container only check box is for propagating folder permissions down a structure where permissions inheritance has been broken. Answer C is incorrect because the Exclude inheritable permissions from this object's parent option does not exist in the Advanced Security Settings dialog box.

Melissa, a network administrator, is tasked to harden the workstation and protect it from malware and other network attacks. Which of the following should she ensure? A. Disable real-time anti-virus monitoring. B. Disable AutoRun for removable media. C Disable System Restore. D. Disable BitLocker..

Answer B is correct. Melissa should disable AutoRun. The main purpose of AutoRun is to provide a software response to hardware actions that you perform on a computer. AutoPlay begins reading from a drive as soon as you insert media into the drive. That is why the Setup file of programs and the music on audio media sometimes start immediately. Answer D is incorrect because disabling BitLocker removes all key protectors and begins decrypting the content of the volume. BitLocker is a feature that protects entire drives and volumes with full disk encryption. Answer A is incorrect because disabling real-time anti-virus monitoring will turn off the protection and monitoring, leaving your workstation vulnerable to malware. Answer C is incorrect because disabling System Restore will not keep the system as a fail-safe. System Restore in Windows allows a user to create restore points to make the recovery of the operating system easier. A restore point is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time.

Which of the following security policies is corporate-owned? A. RSA B. MDM C. SOX D. DES

Answer B is correct. Mobile Device Management (MDM) is corporate-owned as these policies are applied to the user's entire device. It is easier, if you can centrally manage devices in order to assign device permissions and verify security compliance. The MDM policy settings apply to both Windows 10 and Windows 10 Mobile. Windows 10 Mobile support exists only for Microsoft account-based roaming via user's the OneDrive account. Answer C is incorrect. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002 is a US federal law designed to prevent fraudulent accounting practices. It applies primarily to financial records managed by companies that do business in the United States. Answer A is incorrect. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) is a cryptosystem used for secure data transmission. In RSA, both the public and the private keys can encrypt a message; the opposite key from the one used to encrypt a message is used to decrypt it. Answer D is incorrect. The Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a symmetric-key algorithm for the encryption of electronic data.

Which of the following enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users? A. VoIP B. RADIUS C. SMTP D. SSL

Answer B is correct. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users. It is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections. It is commonly used by Internet service providers (ISPs) and in the implementation of virtual private networks (VPNs). Answer D is incorrect. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption. Answer C is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a communication protocol that enables sending email from a client to a server or between servers. Answer A is incorrect. Voice over IP (VoIP) is a voice over data implementation in which voice signals are transmitted over IP networks.

Which of the file extensions provides similar functionality to the batch file? A. .js B. .sh C. .vbs D. .py

Answer B is correct. The .sh file extension is for the shell script, which can perform similar functions to a batch file, but using the syntax of the shell it's written for. A shell script is designed to run in a Unix-style command shell, such as bash or csh, usually found on Linux systems. They can also run in other operating systems that run these shells, including Windows with the right components installed. Answer C is incorrect. The .vbs file extension is for Visual Basic Scripting (VBS) environment that's included with Windows. Instead of a command shell, it runs through the Windows Scripting Host (WSH), Internet Explorer, Internet Information Services, or other Windows components. Unlike shell scripts, VBS can be used for web pages in Internet Explorer or for server-side scripts on Microsoft web servers. Answer A is incorrect. The .js file extension is for the JavaScript language used by web pages. It is usually written into web pages to create client interactions. JavaScript is read by the browser. Answer D is incorrect. The .py file extension is for the Python language. Python is a general-purpose interpreted programming language. It's also used as a scripting language within many local applications and as a server-side language for web applications.

Which of the following disk management commands is used to repair Windows images, Windows Setup, and Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE)? A. chkdsk B. dism C. sfc D. format

Answer B is correct. The dism command is used to repair Windows images, Windows Setup, and Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE). This command is also used when the sfc command is unable to repair corrupted files. Answer C is incorrect. The sfc command runs the System File Checker, checks the hard disk for corrupt files and repairs them. Answer A is incorrect. The chkdsk command checks a hard disk for file system errors and repairs them and also checks the disk surface for bad sectors. Answer D is incorrect. The format command is used to format a disk.

What is the main reason to opt for a 64-bit operating system over a 32-bit operating system? A. 32-bit computers cannot address more than 2 GB of system RAM. B. 32-bit computers cannot address more than 4 GB of system RAM. C. 32-bit computers cannot address more than 8 GB of system RAM. D. 32-bit computers cannot address more than 1 GB of system RAM.

Answer B is correct. The main reason to opt for a 64-bit operating system over a 32-bit operating system is 32-bit computers cannot address more than 4 GB of system RAM.

Which of the following net commands is used to list computers on the network? A. net computer B. net view C. net share D. net use

Answer B is correct. The net view command is used to list computers and devices on the network. Answer D is incorrect. The net use command is used to display or connect to shares on remote computers. Answer C is incorrect. The net share command is used to list, create, and remove network shares on the local computer. Answer A is incorrect. The net computer command is used to add or remove a computer from a domain.

Which of the following commands shows information about a web server? A. netstat B. nslookup C. tracert D. ping

Answer B is correct. The nslookup command shows information about a web server. It is for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping or for any other specific DNS record. For example, nslookup www.google.com will use the nslookup command to show you information about Google's web server. Answer C is incorrect. The tracert command shows several details about the path that a packet takes from the computer or device you're on to whatever destination you specify. Answer A is incorrect. The netstat command displays network connections for the Transmission Control Protocol, routing tables, and a number of network interface and network protocol statistics. Answer D is incorrect. The ping command tests the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol network. It is available for virtually all operating systems that have networking capability, including most embedded network administration software.

An organization needs to keep backup copies of entire hard drives and other storage volumes. Which of the following backup methods should the organization opt for? A. Application-aware B. Image level C. File level D. Incremental

Answer B is correct. The organization should opt for image level backup that makes a backup copy of entire hard drives or other storage volumes. In addition to backing up important files, a system image allows you to quickly restore a fully configured computer to an operative state. Answer C is incorrect. The file level backup method preserves specific files or folders so that they can be restored to the same or a different system when needed. Answer A is incorrect. The application-aware backup method is designed to back up application servers running database software or other critical, constantly running applications. Answer D is incorrect. An incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies files that have changed since the previous backup.

Which of the following Linux commands shows the name of the current directory? A. mkdir B. pwd C. chown D. chmod

Answer B is correct. The pwd (print working directory) command shows the name of the current directory and writes the full pathname of it. Answer A is incorrect. The mkdir (make directory) command creates the specified directory if it does not already exist. Answer C is incorrect. The chown (change owner) command can be used to change the owner, the group, or both for a file or directory. Answer D is incorrect. The chmod (change mode) command enables you to modify the default permissions of a file or directory.

You work as a network administrator in an organization. You want to limit the traffic to your servers using a list. Only the IP addresses in this list are allowed to access the servers. Which of the following should you use? A. Digital certificate B. ACL C. SSO D. File hash

Answer B is correct. You should use an access control list (ACL) in the given scenario. An ACL is a list attached to a resource, giving permissions, or rules about exactly who can access it. ACLs can work for both inbound and outbound traffic: if you want to prevent network users from accessing a certain website, you can block access to its IP address using an ACL. Routers and firewalls can commonly filter according to several criteria: IP address (source or destination) MAC address (source or destination) Port number (source or destination) Protocols used Answer A is incorrect. A digital certificate is used to cryptographically link ownership of a public key with the entity that owns it. It is a file created and signed using special cryptographic algorithms. The holder has both a public certificate that can be shared freely, and a secret encryption key which is never shared. Answer C is incorrect. Single sign-on (SSO) is a mechanism that allows one set of user credentials to give access to a large number of services. Answer D is incorrect. A file hash is provided with some software downloads and allows you to manually make sure that the file wasn't altered in transit.

You work as a security administrator in an organization. You want to erase some unwanted data from a magnetic hard drive. Which of the following should you use to destroy the data without destroying the hard drive? A. Drills B. Degaussers C. Scissors D. Hammers

Answer B is correct. You should use degaussers to destroy the data. When exposed to the powerful magnetic field of a degausser, the magnetic data on a tape or hard disk is neutralized or erased. Degaussers use powerful electromagnets to destroy all data on magnetic media like tapes and hard drives but not optical or flash storage. Answers A and D are incorrect. Simple hammers and drills can easily destroy flash chips or hard drive platters. Answer C is incorrect. Scissors can cut the optical discs which are fragile.

Which of the following ipconfig switches will enable you to lease IP addressing information from a DHCP server or APIPA? A. /flushdns B. /renew C. /release D. /registerdns

Answer B is correct. ipconfig /renew will enable you to lease IP addressing information from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server or Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA). If the computer already has a good IP address leased, it will not renew unless you release the address first. Answer C is incorrect. ipconfig /release is used to release the IP addressing information assigned to the computer by the DHCP server or APIPA. Answer A is incorrect. ipconfig /flushdns is used to clear Domain Name System (DNS) information on the client so that client updates with new configuration information more quickly. Answer D is incorrect. ipconfig /registerdns is used to register the client with its DNS server.

Which Active Directory security feature is a single sign-on system that uses the common Internet standard SAML? A. AD CS B. AD LDS C. ADFS D. AD RMS

Answer C is correct. Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS) is a single sign-on system that uses the common Internet standard Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) instead of Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP). Unlike LDAP, it is intended for use over the Internet, and for integrating services with other organizations. You're likely to find it used to integrate web applications with Active Directory, especially those which aren't directly compatible with Windows authentication systems. Answer B is incorrect. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) provides directory services independent of the Windows domain model. Answer A is incorrect. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) allows the Active Directory network to maintain public key infrastructure. Answer D is incorrect. Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is an information right management service that can encrypt and limit access to specific types of information on the domain, such as emails, Word documents, webpages, and so on.

Which of the following should will you choose for destroying data on magnetic media like tapes and hard drives, but not optical or flash storage? A. Use an industrial shredder. B. Burn the media. C. Use an electromagnetic degausser D. Use a hammer and drill.

Answer C is correct. An electromagnetic degausser uses powerful electromagnets to destroy all data on magnetic media like tapes and hard drives, but not optical or flash storage. Answer B is incorrect. Some media release toxic chemicals when burned so you should not burn the media and it may be also be forbidden by local regulation. Answer A is incorrect. An industrial shredder can destroy flash drives, hard drives, or even entire computers. Answer D is incorrect. A hammer and drill can easily destroy flash chips or hard drive platters.

Which of the following data backup methods backs up only those files which have their archive bit set and then clears the bit? A. Full B. Differential C. Incremental D. Selective

Answer C is correct. An incremental backup only backs up those files which have their archive bit set and then clears the bit. It is one that backs up only files and data that have been changed since a previous backup was performed. Answer A is incorrect. A full backup is a process of backing up all files that are included in the backup policy regardless of their archive bits, then clears the bit for all files. Answer B is incorrect. A differential backup is a process of backing up files with a set archive bit but not clearing the bit after backing up. Answer D is incorrect. A selective backup provides backup of only those files or folders that are specified by a user.

Which of the following file systems is the default for the Mac operating system? A. FAT B. NTFS C. APFS D. ext

Answer C is correct. Apple File System (APFS) is the default file system for the Mac operating system. The original Hierarchical File System (HFS) was used in very old Macs, while newer Apple products use refined versions like HFS+ and APFS. Answer B is incorrect. NT File System (NTFS) was introduced with Windows NT. It's the default file system for internal hard drives in all modern versions of Windows, and you should always use it for the system volume. Answer D is incorrect. Extended file system (ext) was designed for Linux operating systems. Answer A is incorrect. File Allocation Table (FAT) is the file system that Microsoft originally developed for formatting floppy disks in DOS and early versions of Windows.

Which of the following is a bandwidth optimization technology that allows various divisions of an office, which are located at different locations, to share files from a server and access the content locally rather than over the WAN? A. RDP host B. EFS C. BranchCache D. BitLocker

Answer C is correct. BranchCache is a bandwidth-optimization technology that allows various divisions of an office, which are located at different locations, to share files from a server and access the content locally rather than over the WAN. BranchCache fetches content from the main office or hosted cloud content servers and caches the content at branch office locations, allowing client computers at branch offices to access the content locally. Answer A is incorrect. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) host feature allows the computer to serve as a host for remote desktop connections. Answer D is incorrect. The BitLocker feature protects entire drives and volumes with full disk encryption, when it is enabled. Answer B is incorrect. The Encrypting File System (EFS) feature allows users to protect specific files and folders from unauthorized access.

In which of the following modes are connecting clients allowed to communicate to an external authentication server, usually RADIUS-based, with a username and password? A. WPA2-Personal B. WPA-Personal C. WPA-Enterprise D. WEP

Answer C is correct. In Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)-Enterprise mode, connecting clients are only allowed to communicate to an external authentication server, usually Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) based, with a username and password. Once authenticated, they get full network access, but they never directly see the WPA encryption key so they can't share it. Answer B is incorrect. WPA-Personal uses a passphrase between 8 and 63 ASCII characters, manually distributed to each authorized user. Answer D is incorrect. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a data encryption protocol used for 802.11 wireless networks. It uses a static 64-bit or 128-bit shared key for data encryption. WEP encryption is an older encryption method that is not considered to be secure and can be broken easily. Answer A is incorrect. WPA2-Personal supports 128-bit encryption using a strong and well-regarded Advanced Encryption Standard cipher.

Which of the following is defined by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and protected by an organization under the jurisdiction of this law? A. PCI B. GDPR C. PHI D. PII

Answer C is correct. Protected health information (PHI) is defined by Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and must be protected by any organization under the jurisdiction of this law. It is personal information that can be connected to an individual's health status, medical treatments, and health care payments. Answer D is incorrect. Personally identifiable information (PII) is information that can be used to uniquely identify an individual person, either on its own or in conjunction with other information. It can also mean information that specifically relates to an individual person. PII is a focus of many privacy regulations and the target of various attacks; since it is a legal term rather than a technical one, its definition varies by jurisdiction. Answer B is incorrect. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a set of privacy laws intended for businesses to ensure that their consumers are aware of the information businesses collect about them and more control is given over what is collected and how long it is kept. Answer A is incorrect. Payment card industry (PCI) regulations apply to any information regarding payment cards issued by major credit card vendors, and the customers that pay using those cards. They are designed both to guarantee interoperability among various payment card systems, and to make sure both payment card data and the systems which process them are safe against fraudulent purchases and identity theft.

An employee in your organization received an email in which he was asked to share some sensitive information. The email appeared to be from his manager and he shared the requested information. Later, he came to know that he has shared the information with an unauthorized person and he was a victim of a social engineering attack. What is the name of this social engineering attack? A. Dumpster diving B. Piggybacking C. Spear phishing D. Shoulder surfing

Answer C is correct. Spear phishing is an email spoofing attack that targets a specific individual, seeking unauthorized access to sensitive information. Answer D is incorrect. Shoulder surfing is an attack that is used to obtain information, such as personal identification numbers, passwords, and other confidential data by looking over the victim's shoulder. Answer A is incorrect. Dumpster diving is hunting for discarded documents and other media in a target's trash, looking for information. Answer B is incorrect. Piggybacking is getting into a secure area by tagging along right behind someone who has legitimate access, with or without their knowledge.

Which of the following is a physical security breach in which an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual to enter a secured premise? A. Dumpster diving B. Spamming C. Tailgating D. Phishing

Answer C is correct. Tailgating is a type of social engineering attack which is defined as getting into a secure area by tagging along right behind someone who has legitimate access, with or without their knowledge. It is a physical security breach in which an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual to enter a secured premise. Answer B is incorrect. Spamming is the sending of unsolicited emails or other electronic messages, with undesired or malicious content. Spam can be harmless noise, commercial advertisement, fraud attempts, or a way of delivering malware. Answer D is incorrect. Phishing is the method of using fake but official-looking messages to trick users into performing dangerous actions. Answer A is incorrect. Dumpster diving is the process of hunting for discarded documents and other media in a target's trash, looking for information.

Which of the following file extensions is for a script that runs through the Windows Scripting Host instead of the command shell? A. .ps1 B. .bat C. .vbs D. .js

Answer C is correct. The .vbs file extension is for the Visual Basic Scripting environment that's included with Windows. Instead of a command shell, it runs through the Windows Scripting Host (WSH), Internet Explorer, Internet Information Services, or other Windows components. Answer B is incorrect. The .bat file extension is for batch files that run in the Windows Command Prompt environment (CMD.EXE), or even in its DOS-based predecessors. Answer A is incorrect. The .ps1 file extension is for the script that is designed to run in the Windows PowerShell environment. Answer D is incorrect. The .js file extension is for the JavaScript language that is used by web pages, or else for the related JScript language developed by Microsoft.

Martha, a Mac OS user, is facing an issue in which an app has become unresponsive. Which tool will she use to troubleshoot this issue? A. Disk Utility B. Spotlight C. Force Quit D. Time Machine

Answer C is correct. The Force Quit tool forces an unresponsive app to close. You can use this feature when you're trying to troubleshoot app and system issues. Answer A is incorrect. The Disk Utility tool performs setup or maintenance on hard disks. Answer D is incorrect. The Time Machine tool backs up your data or schedules regular backups to an external hard drive, Apple's Time Capsule storage unit, or a hard drive connected to an AirPort Extreme base station. You can also use Time Machine to restore data from backup. Answer B is incorrect. The Spotlight tool searches your Mac for all kinds of files, including documents, music, photos, emails, and contacts.

Which of the following protocols allows you to log into a Windows desktop over the network and uses TCP port 3389? A. Telnet B. HTTP C. RDP D. SSH

Answer C is correct. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows you to log into a Windows desktop over the network. It uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 3389. It also provides security features. It provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. Answer A is incorrect. Telnet is an application protocol that provides command-line remote access. It is one of the oldest Internet standards and uses TCP port 23. Its features are very basic and it isn't very secure, so it's not nearly as popular as it once was. Answer D is incorrect. The Secure Shell (SSH) was developed as a secure alternative to Telnet, as it allows stronger authentication and encrypted transmission. It also allows other features, such as file transfers. SSH uses TCP port 22. Answer B is incorrect. The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a web-based interface that is not suitable for remote access to a graphic or command-line shell interface, though it's possible with the assistance of a web-based application. HTTP is used for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML. It is basically designed for communication between web browsers and web servers. By default, HTTP uses port 80.

A technician is troubleshooting a PC with multiple volumes. To know about the size of drives, the technician should use the list function of which of the following commands? A. sfc B. tasklist C. diskpart D. gpresult

Answer C is correct. The diskpart command is used to create and manage disks, partitions, and volumes. At the command prompt, type diskpart to enter the program. You then use the list command with disk, partition, or volume to list the hard drives, partitions, or volumes, with details like size, on your computer. Answer A is incorrect. The sfc command scans for corrupted Windows system files and restores those files. Answer D is incorrect. The gpresult command displays group policy settings and Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) for the specified user or computer. Answer B is incorrect. The tasklist command is used to display a list of applications and services currently running on the local computer (or a specified remote computer).

Which of the following disk types uses logical volume management technology to arrange data more flexibly on the disk? A. Basic B. GPT C. Dynamic D. Extended

Answer C is correct. The dynamic disk uses logical volume management technology to arrange data more flexibly on the disk. It can span non-contiguous disk segments or even multiple physical drives. However, they are incompatible with older versions of Windows and with other operating systems. While dynamic disks are still supported in Windows 10, they've been deprecated in favor of the new Storage Spaces feature. Answer A is incorrect. The basic disk contains the original and default partitioning style used by Windows and DOS since the 1980s. Partitions are defined by a partition table stored on the disk. Each partition represents a single contiguous portion of the disk. Basic disks can be formatted with any file system and accessed by any operating system, so they're usually the safest kind to use. Answer D is incorrect. An extended partition is a special partition on a Master Boot Record (MBR) disk which serves as a container for any number of logical partitions. There can be only one extended partition per disk, and it takes the place of one primary partition. Answer B is incorrect. The GUID Partition table (GPT) is a new standard supported by modern operating systems. It can be used with disks of any size and allows an almost unlimited number of partitions. Since partition information is stored in multiple areas of the disk, it's also less susceptible to errors from a corrupt boot sector

Thomas, a user, reports that his mobile device is not working properly. When you research the issue, you discover that he accidentally deleted all the data on his device. What has he most likely done on his mobile device? A. Performed a soft reset. B. Adjusted device settings. C. Performed a factory reset. D. Used an App scanner.

Answer C is correct. When a factory reset occurs, all personal data on the device (all contacts, photos, music, purchased apps, and other data) is deleted from the device. The only way to recover is to restore the data from backup. A factory reset enables users to restore their mobile devices back to their original factory state. You must back up your device prior to performing a factory reset. Answer D is incorrect. App scanners help to notice unusual activities, even if these activities are not strictly malware. Answer A is incorrect. A soft reset is the same as turning a device off and back on again. No personal data is lost during a soft reset. Answer B is incorrect. The device settings enable you to configure personal settings such as login credentials, shared keys, pins, and passcodes on your mobile device.

What encrypts traffic using Temporal Key Integrity Protocol? A. WPA2 B. WPS C. WPA D. WEP

Answer C is correct. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encrypts traffic using Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), a different implementation of the RC4 cipher. Wi-Fi Protected Access is a security standard for users of computing devices equipped with wireless Internet connections. WPA was developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance to provide more sophisticated data encryption and better user authentication. Answer D is incorrect. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) uses the Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) encryption cipher. Answer A is incorrect. WPA2 supports 128-bit encryption using the strong and well-regarded Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) cipher. Answer B is incorrect. Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) was designed to make it easy for non-technical users of home networks to easily control network access.

Which of the following Windows security features will you use to access your stored user names, passwords, and certificates in your computer system? A. Local Security Policy B. Security Account Manager C. Credential Manager D. Windows Resource Protection

Answer C is correct. You will use the Credential Manager feature as it is a Control Panel utility that allows individual users to access their stored user names, passwords, and certificates. These may be from websites, or from other network services. You can view your passwords and other credentials in Credential Manager, but Windows still protects them from view by any other user. Answer B is incorrect. The Security Account Manager feature is a database which stores user passwords and performs authentication of local users. Answer D is incorrect. The Windows Resource Protection feature runs in the background to protect critical system files, folders, and registry keys from unplanned alterations. Answer A is incorrect. The Local Security Policy feature is a utility that allows you to configure a wide range of security settings for the local computer, including those related to account management, default user rights, network functions, and so on.

Which of the following utilities is used to determine exactly what information the DNS server is providing about a specific hostname? A. ping B. nbtstat C. nslookup D. netstat

Answer C is correct. nslookup is a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) utility that is used for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. Answer B is incorrect. nbtstat is a TCP/IP utility used to view and manage NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) status information. It can display NetBIOS name tables for both the local and remote computers, and also the NetBIOS name cache. Answer D is incorrect. netstat is a TCP/IP utility used to show the status of each active network connection. It displays statistics for both TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP), including the protocol, local address, foreign address, and the TCP connection state. Answer A is incorrect. ping is a TCP/IP utility used to transmit a datagram to another host. If network connectivity works properly, the receiving host sends the datagram back. This process verifies IP-level connectivity to another TCP/IP host.

Which of the following attacks is correlated with the man-in-the-middle attack? A. Denial of service B. Spoofing C. DNS hijacking D. Eavesdropping

Answer D is correct. A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack is a form of eavesdropping that intercepts or observes private communications. Eavesdropping is common for social engineering attacks, like shoulder surfing, but on the network, it's most common where an attacker can get access to unencrypted network traffic, such as from an unprotected switch or an open Wi-Fi network. Answer A is incorrect. Denial of service (DoS) attacks are designed to prevent legitimate users from accessing a network service or an entire network. The most common DoS technique attacks servers or routers with overwhelming or unusual traffic which consumes its resources and causes slowdowns or crashes. Other DoS methods include locking users out of accounts or physically attacking hardware. Answer B is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that falsifies the origin of network communications, either to redirect responses or to trick users into thinking it comes from a trustworthy source. Spoofing attacks can apply to almost any protocol that specifies both a destination and an origin address, such as IP addresses on the Internet, MAC addresses on the local area network (LAN), or specific applications such as email addresses or caller ID. Answer C is incorrect. In Domain Name System (DNS) hijacking, the attacker gives false replies to DNS requests sent by a host in order to redirect traffic to a malicious or fraudulent site, which is sometimes called pharming. When an application tries to access a named host, you actually connect to the attacker's site which may host malware, perform MITM attacks, or just trick you into divulging sensitive information.

What is the name of the default virtual assistant created by Microsoft for Windows? A. Siri B. Google Assistant C. Bixby D. Cortana

Answer D is correct. Cortana is a virtual assistant created by Microsoft for Windows. Cortana can set reminders, recognize natural voice without the requirement for keyboard input, and answer questions using information from the search engine. Answer C is incorrect. Bixby is a virtual assistant developed by Samsung Electronics. Answer B is incorrect. Google Assistant is an artificial intelligence-powered virtual assistant developed by Google that is primarily available on mobile and smart home devices. Answer A is incorrect. Siri is an intelligent assistant that offers a faster, easier way to get things done on your Apple devices.

Daisy, a student, is assigned a task to design a webpage for XYZ organization. She has used the scripting language to manage the behavior of the webpage. While coding, she has used a variable which is a sequence of alphanumeric characters. Which of the following data types has she used in the given scenario? A. Character B. Boolean C. Integer D. String

Answer D is correct. Daisy has used the string data type in the given scenario. A string is a sequence of alphanumeric characters that can include space as well. A string typically has a maximum length. It is a data type and is often implemented as an array data structure of bytes that stores a sequence of elements, typically characters, using some character encoding. Answer B is incorrect. The boolean data type has one of two possible values, true or false, intended to represent the two truth values of logic and Boolean algebra. Answer C is incorrect. An integer is a whole number. Most integer values have a fixed size in bits, such as 16-bit or 32-bit. A language might have multiple integer types representing different sizes. Answer A is incorrect. The character data type consists of a single alphanumeric character.

You are a security analyst in an organization. You need to take care of the password policies for users of the organization as they have to manage a lot of passwords in their daily lives. To avoid theft and different types of cyberattacks they suffered, which of the following points need to be addressed? A. Password should be short or commonly used. B. Password should be the same under multiple accounts. C. Passwords should be shared among users. D. Passwords must be stored under appropriate security.

Answer D is correct. Here are the points that need to be addressed under strong password policies: Passwords must be stored under appropriate security. Passwords should be easy for the user to remember, but difficult for an attacker to guess. Passwords should never be shared between users or given to unauthorized people. A password should be changed if there's any reason to believe it should be compromised. Single sign-on is an effective solution to users struggling with multiple separate passwords.

You are an IT personnel in an organization. You encounter an unexpected and unusual incident that has some meaningful threat to the organization's functions, performance, or security. In the process of responding to the incident, you have identified the problem. What will be your next step in this process? A. Preserve the data and devices involved in the incident. B. Identify the type of violation which has happened. C. Keep all evidence in a safe location. D. Report the incident through the proper channels.

Answer D is correct. In the process of responding to the incident, after identifying the problem, you will report the incident through the proper channels according to the organization's policies. Answer A is incorrect. Preserving the data and devices involved in the incident is the step that would be performed after the reporting step. In this step, the data and devices involved in the incident are preserved. Answer B is incorrect. Identifying the type of violation which has happened is part of the first step of the process which is similar to identifying the problem. Answer C is incorrect. Keeping all evidence in a safe location is the step that would be performed after the reporting step and is part of the third preserving step.

Andrew, a technician, is trying to manually migrate a user's profile from one Windows PC to another. Files in the user's folder cannot be copied. Which of the following is causing this issue to occur? A. exFAT B. NFS C. CDFS D. EFS

Answer D is correct. The Encrypting File System (EFS) is a file-encryption tool available on Windows systems that have partitions formatted with New Technology File System (NTFS). Users who are not authorized to access the encrypted files or folders, receive an "Access denied" message if they try to open, copy, move, or rename the encrypted file or folder. Answer A is incorrect. exFAT is a file system. It is useful if you're sharing external drives between Windows and Mac computers. NTFS partitions are typically read-only on Mac. When the drive is formatted on a Windows system with exFAT, it will be read/write when accessed from Mac. Answer C is incorrect. Compact Disc File System (CDFS) is a file system that was developed for optical disc media, typically for open source operating systems. Multiple operating systems support CDFS, including Windows, Apple OS, and Unix-based systems. Answer B is incorrect. Network File System (NFS) is a distributed file system protocol, which allows a user on a client computer to access files over a computer network much like local storage is accessed.

Which of the following is a part of RADIUS to which users directly connect and it also relays all communication between users and the RADIUS server? A. CHAP B. PAP C. EAP D. NAS

Answer D is correct. The Network Access Server (NAS) relays all communication between users and the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server. It's the device to which users directly connect, like a dial-in server, virtual private network (VPN) endpoint, or wireless access point (WAP). Answers B and A are incorrect. The Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) are both used to authenticate Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) sessions and can be used with many VPNs. Answer C is incorrect. The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and point-to-point connections.

James, a technician, needs to format a new drive on a workstation. He will need to configure read attributes to specific local files and write extended attributes to specific folders. Which of the following file systems will allow him to configure these settings in a Windows environment without using any third-party software? A. FAT32 B. EXT4 C. HFS D. NTFS

Answer D is correct. The New Technology File System (NTFS) is the standard file structure for the Windows operating system. It is used for retrieving and storing files on the hard disk. It has introduced a number of enhancements, including innovative data structures that increased performance, improved metadata, and added expansions like security access control (ACL), reliability, disk space utilization, and file system journaling. It includes a fault tolerance system that automatically repairs hard drive errors without error messages. It also retains detailed transaction records that keep track of hard drive errors. It is beneficial in recovering files if the hard drive crashes and helps to prevent hard disk failures. It allows attributes (like write, read or execute) to be set for files and specific directories. Answer A is incorrect. FAT32 supports much larger drive sizes and longer file names, but it doesn't support modern drive security and file or folder encryption. It also has a maximum file size of 4 GB. FAT32 is widely supported by non-Windows computers, so it's commonly used for removable storage such as flash drives and SD cards. Answer B is incorrect. Extended File System or ext was the first file system created specifically for the Linux kernel. The ext4 or fourth extended filesystem is a journaling file system for Linux, developed as the successor to ext3. Windows needs third-party software to read and access ext4. Answer C is incorrect. Hierarchical File System (HFS) is the family of file systems used by Mac OS and iOS. The original HFS was used in very old Macs, while newer Apple products use refined versions like HFS+ and APFS. Windows can't usually read or write to HFS drives without third-party software.

Which of the following is the best way to handle the situation when dealing with a difficult customer? A. Use technical terms to assure customer confidence. B. Escalate the customer's issue to a supervisor. C. Sympathize with the customer about the issue. D. Do not argue with the customer and/or be defensive.

Answer D is correct. When dealing with a difficult customer, a technician should handle the situation in the following ways: Avoid arguing with customers and/or becoming defensive. Do not dismiss customers' problems. While it may be an everyday situation for a technician, it is a crisis for the customer. Avoid being judgmental and/or insulting or calling the customer names. Clarify the customer's statements and ask relevant questions. Don't express about customers on social media. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these might make the customer more annoying, as the customer might not be that technical and wants the problem to be resolved immediately.

Which of the following Windows 10 features has a WAN bandwidth optimization technology? A. Cortana B. Continuum C. BitLocker D. BranchCache

Answer D is correct. Windows 10 has a feature called BranchCache that optimizes network performance on wide area networks (WANs). To optimize WAN bandwidth when users access content on remote servers, BranchCache fetches content from the main server and caches the content at branch office locations, allowing client computers at branch offices to access the content locally rather than over the WAN. Answer B is incorrect. The Continuum feature accommodates the user interface automatically to make it suitable for PCs, 2-in-1 devices, tablets, or even turns your phone into a PC. Answer C is incorrect. The BitLocker feature protects entire drives and volumes with full disk encryption when enabled. Answer A is incorrect. Cortana is a virtual personal assistant for Windows. It responds to both keyboard and voice requests.

You have recently diagnosed a video problem with a customer's computer. You suspect that the video card or monitor has failed. You assign an IT technician to the customer. Which rule should not be followed by the technician for the site visit? A. Take the appropriate parts and tools. B. Ask the customer to demonstrate the problem. C. Explain any repairs made. D. Ask the customer to clean up the repair site.

Answer D is correct. You should never ask the customer to clean up the repair site. Once the repair is complete, it is important that you clean up the site yourself. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. During any on-site technical repair, you should ask the customer to demonstrate the problem. You should also make sure that you bring the right spare parts and tools. When finished, you should explain the repairs that you made.

Which of the following remote access technologies provide features of screen sharing and file transfer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. SSH B. Telnet C. IPsec D. VPN

Answers A and B are correct. Secure Shell (SSH) and Telnet provide features of screen sharing and file transfers. In addition to third-party Telnet and SSH applications, there are a wide variety of applications that are designed to allow remote access, remote assistance, or just collaboration features, such as screen sharing and file transfers. Some of these tools, like RealVNC or TeamViewer, are intended and marketed primarily as remote access and support tools. Answer C is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a secure network protocol suite that authenticates and encrypts the packets of data sent over an Internet protocol network. Answer D is incorrect. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network, and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. It is not a remote access technology.

Which of the following tools are used to protect against problems with the power supply? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Surge suppressor B. Extension cord C. Electrical generator D. Safety data sheet

Answers A and C are correct. A surge suppressor, or surge protector prevents power surges or spikes from reaching sensitive equipment. It can be a single strip designed to protect a few devices, but you can also purchase the whole house or building suppressors which an electrician installs on the main power supply lines for the building. An electric generator is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical power for use in an external circuit. Answer D is incorrect. A safety data sheet includes safety and health information about chemical products, including health risks and storage, disposal recommendations, and procedures for containing a leak or a spill. Answer B is incorrect. An extension cord is a flexible electrical power cable with a plug on one end and one or more sockets on the other end.

Stephen, a support analyst, has been assigned the task of documenting incidents. What should he include in the general description of the incident? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Internal and external involved parties B. A list of IT assets including hardware and software C. Timeline of events D. Physical and logical diagrams of the network

Answers A and C are correct. Stephen should include the timeline of events along with the internal and external involved parties in the general description of the incident. Incident documentation also includes the total impact of the incident, including its scope, cost, duration, policies that may have been violated, problems with the response process, and recommendations for preventing recurrence. Answers D and B are incorrect because physical and logical diagrams of the network and a list of IT assets including hardware and software must be included in the network documentation.

Which of the following can restrict the risk of unauthorized login? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Strong password B. Anti-malware C. Access control D. Firewall

Answers A and C are correct. Strong passwords and access control can restrict the risk of unauthorized login. A strong password provides essential protection from financial fraud and identity theft. One of the most common ways that hackers break into computers is by guessing passwords. Simple and commonly used passwords enable intruders to easily gain access and control of a computing device. Access control can restrict the risk of unauthorized login as it provides access rights to the authorized user of particular system objects, such as a file directory or individual file. Answer D is incorrect. The firewall is configured to stop suspicious or unsolicited incoming or outgoing traffic. It uses complex filtering algorithms that analyze incoming network data based on destination and source addresses, port numbers, and data type. Answer B is incorrect. Anti-malware is a type of software program designed to prevent, detect, and remove malicious software on IT systems, as well as individual computing devices.

John, a technician, has been assigned the task of working on computer components and peripheral devices. In order to keep himself safe from injury, which of the following guidelines does he need to follow? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Be prepared for electrical fires. B. Remove loose items such as jewelry, scarves, or ties that could get caught or bang on components. C. Secure loose cables out of the way. D. Disconnect the power before repairing a computer or other device. E. Use surge suppressor.

Answers A, B, C, and D are correct. John should adhere to the following guidelines to prevent injury when working on computer components and peripheral devices: Disconnect the power before repairing a computer or other device. Remove loose items such as jewelry, scarves, or ties that could get caught or bang on components. Be prepared for electrical fires. Secure loose cables out of the way. Answer E is incorrect. A surge suppressor prevents power surges or spikes from reaching sensitive equipment. It is used to protect against problems with the power supply

Which of the following are the requirements of a strong password policy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Password should be changed if there's any doubt that it is known to someone. B. Passwords should never be shared between users or given to unauthorized people. C. Passwords should be easy for the user to remember, but difficult for an attacker to guess. D. Passwords should be related to the name, family, or other real-world facts about the user.

Answers A, B, and C are correct. The following are the requirements of a strong password policy: Passwords should be easy for the user to remember, but difficult for an attacker to guess. Passwords should never be shared between users or given to unauthorized people. Password should be changed if there's any doubt that it is known to someone. Passwords should not be related to the name, family, or other real-world facts about the user as these passwords are easy to crack.

You are an IT technician in an organization. While working on your computer system, you notice that the system likely has malware. You need to immediately quarantine it so that the malware does not spread through the network and storage devices. What will you do to accomplish the task in the given scenario? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Isolate the removable storage devices that have been recently connected to the computer system. B. Limit network connectivity. C. Identify and isolate other computers that might be infected. D. Enable all network shares, file sharing applications, or other ongoing connections to other computers.

Answers A, B, and C are correct. You should do the following to quarantine the system: Isolate the removable storage devices that have been recently connected to the computer system. Disable all network shares, file sharing applications, or other ongoing connections to other computers. Identify and isolate other computers that might be infected. Limit network connectivity.

Which of the following are the most probable symptoms of malware in your system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Search requests being redirected to new and unfamiliar websites B. Failed operating system updates C. Receiving spam messages D. Automatic changes in file permissions

Answers A, B, and D are correct. Some of the common symptoms of malware in a system include the following: Automatic changes in file permissions Failed operating system updates Search requests being redirected to new and unfamiliar websites Unfamiliar programs on a system Change in the default search engine of the browser Answer C is incorrect. Receiving spam messages is not usually a sign of malware. A spam message is unsolicited and unwanted junk email that is sent out in bulk to an indiscriminate recipient list. Typically, spam is sent for commercial purposes to promote a service or a product.

Which of the following are the probable causes of the slow profile load symptom of the Windows startup process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Group policy misconfiguration B. Errors in a startup application C. Errors with the Fast Boot feature D. Corrupted user profile

Answers A, B, and D are correct. The following are the probable causes of the slow profile load symptom of the Windows startup process: Errors in a startup application Group policy misconfiguration Corrupted user profile For domain accounts, problem connecting with Active Directory server over the network, or profile errors caused by joining a new domain Answer C is incorrect. Errors with the Fast Boot feature is the probable cause of the very slow startup symptom of the Windows startup process.

Which of the following steps and techniques should be kept in mind while remediating the infected computer systems? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Run multiple scans to verify malware removal. B. Don't scan the removable media that may have been infected. C. Combine multiple tools for multiple separate infections. D. Always use updated tools.

Answers A, C, and D are correct. The following are the steps and techniques that should be kept in mind while remediating the infected computer systems: Always use updated tools. Run multiple scans to verify malware removal. Don't forget to scan the removable media that may have been infected. Combine multiple tools for multiple separate infections.

You are a PC technician of an organization. John, a software developer in your organization, has asked you to repair his laptop which is affected by malware. You have repaired the system but it is vulnerable to get infected again. Which of the following should you do to harden and secure the system again in the given scenario? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Examine system and application settings to look for other security problems. B. Uninstall all potentially vulnerable but useful software. C. Schedule regular security scans and definition/OS updates. D. Prevent worms by disabling unnecessary services and tightening firewall protections.

Answers A, C, and D are correct. You should do the following to harden and secure the system again: Schedule regular security scans and definition/OS updates. Prevent worms by disabling unnecessary services and tightening firewall protections. Examine system and application settings to look for other security problems. Update all potentially vulnerable software.

Which of the following are the signs of a rogue antivirus program in a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Browser oddity B. Unfamiliar security applications C. Security alerts D. File alteration

Answers B and C are correct. The signs of a rogue antivirus program in a computer system are unfamiliar antivirus or other security applications and security alerts that fake system problems or virus detection in order to make the users buy paid security scanners or further compromise the system. Some of the rogue antiviruses very closely resemble legitimate software or even Windows functions. Answer D is incorrect. An unexpected alteration to files indicates malware in the system. Answer A is incorrect. Browser oddity is a condition in which a web browser may not behave as expected. This might manifest as something as simple as excessive or unusual pop-up ads, or new toolbars and add-ons in the browser. The default search engine might be changed, or worse, search requests might be redirected to new and unfamiliar websites.

Annie, a support technician, has been assigned the task to handle a customer query and talk to the customer. What guidelines does she need to consider while talking to the customer in the given scenario? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Display interruptions when dealing with a difficult customer. B. Deal appropriately with confidential and private materials. C. Be judgemental. D. Maintain a positive attitude and project confidence.

Answers B and D are correct. Here are the guidelines that Annie should consider while talking to the customer: Use proper language. Maintain a positive attitude and project confidence. Be culturally sensitive. Be on time. Display patience and tact when dealing with a difficult customer. Set achievable expectations for service activities and their timeline; as the support process continues, regularly communicate your current status with the customer. Deal appropriately with confidential and private materials. Avoid being judgemental.

John, a user, reports about slow system performance. What are the probable causes of this trouble? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Incorrect file association in system settings B. Application errors that are taking over system resources C. Misconfigured settings in the Display properties. D. Heavily fragmented hard drive

Answers B and D are correct. John is facing slow system performance due to application errors that are taking over system resources, heavily fragmented hard drive, lack of free space on hard drive, or malware. Answer C is incorrect because misconfigured settings in the Display properties lead to multiple monitor misalignment or orientation. Answer A is incorrect because incorrect file association in system settings leads to the inability to open files.

Alen, a security administrator, is configuring the SOHO network. This network does not provide most of the security zones and subnets. To keep the network devices secure in this network, what points will you consider? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Uninstall IPS/IDS. B. Harden network devices like switches, routers, and firewalls by disabling unnecessary services. C. Disable change in default user names and passwords for device administration. D. Disable remote management of routers and other network devices.

Answers B and D are correct. To secure network devices in the small office/home office (SOHO) network, the administrator should disable remote management of routers and other network devices from the Internet if possible and harden network devices like switches, routers, and firewalls in much the same way as hosts, by keeping them up to date and disabling unnecessary services. The administrator must also make sure that he is using strong passwords and secure protocols. Answers A and C are incorrect because to secure network devices, you must install Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)/Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and change default user names and passwords for device administration

Which of the following are the symptoms of malware present in a mobile device based on its device and network performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Fast network speeds B. Radio interference C. Rapid battery drain D. Exceeded data limits

Answers B, C, and D are correct. The following are the symptoms of malware present in a mobile device based on its device and network performance: Exceeded data limits Rapid battery drain Radio interference Slow network speeds Weak or dropped signals

Which of the following are the useful policies to ensure that the mobile devices used by the employees in an organization are standardized and consistently secured? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Certificate of destruction B. Certificate distribution C. Device encryption and other security settings D. Passcode requirements

Answers B, C, and D are correct. The following are useful policies to ensure that the mobile devices used by the employees in an organization are standardized and consistently secured: Passcode requirements Device encryption and other security settings Certificate distribution Backup policies Update policies Required or forbidden apps Physical security procedures Acceptable use Answer A is incorrect. Certificate of destruction is given by data-recycling companies that destroy hard drives or other storage devices to prove compliance with local laws or institutional policies.

You are troubleshooting a computer issue at a customer location. Which guidelines should you follow? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Skip any steps that the customer has already taken. B. Avoid using technical jargon. C. Ask clarifying questions. D. Respect the customer's property.

Answers B, C, and D are correct. When troubleshooting a computer issue at a customer location, you should avoid using technical jargon, ask clarifying questions, and respect the customer's property. Asking clarifying questions is important to ensure that both you and the customer agree that you understand the problem. Respecting the customer's property includes not making personal calls on the customer's phone and not reading the customer's papers. Answer A is incorrect. You should never skip any steps that the customer has already taken. Even if the customer has already performed some of the necessary steps, you need to go through the steps in an orderly manner.

Which of the following ideals should be kept in mind while developing a knowledge base article? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. It should focus on an injury incident reporting system. B. It should be kept up to date. C. It should be written with the target audience in mind. D. It should be easy to navigate.

Answers B, C, and D are correct. While developing a knowledge base article, the following are the ideals that should be kept in mind: It should be kept up to date. When an article is rendered obsolete by system changes, it should be updated or deleted. It should be written with the target audience in mind. Highly technical articles might suit a highly technical user base, but will confuse many end users. It should be easy to navigate with a clear organizational hierarchy and search functions. Answer A is incorrect. A safety plan focuses on an injury incident reporting system, not the knowledge base articles.