A&P II MIDTERM REVIEW EXAM
D
A direct connection between arteries is called a/an Select one: a. auricle. b. sulcus. c. sinus. d. anastamosis.
D
A serious condition in which a large amount of fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity and puts pressure of the heart is Select one: a. endocarditis. b. pericarditis. c. a myocardial infarction. d. cardiac tamponade.
C
A vein responsible for draining blood from the upper limb is the Select one: a. azygos vein. b. portal vein. c. cephalic vein. d. peroneal vein. e. common iliac vein.
A
According to the Laplace's Law, as the diameter of a blood vessel increases, the force applied to the wall of that vessel Select one: a. increases. b. decreases. c. increases, then decreases. d. remains the same. e. None of these choices is correct.
A
Action potentials pass from one myocardial cell to another through areas of low electrical resistance called Select one: a. gap junctions. b. fibrous heart rings. c. electromagnetic discs. d. sarcolemma sclerotic plaques. e. tight junctions.
C
Active natural immunity occurs when Select one: a. antibodies pass from a pregnant mother to her fetus. b. antibodies are injected into a host. c. an individual develops a disease. d. a person is vaccinated. e. antibodies are passed in breast milk.
A
Angiotensin II Select one: a. causes vasoconstriction. b. stimulates the adrenal cortex to release ADH. c. is released in response to high blood pressure. d. is responsible for increasing urine output. e. stimulates peripheral vasodilation.
E
Antibodies Select one: a. play a large role in cell-mediated immunity. b. are produced by both T and B cells. c. are composed of four light and four heavy polypeptide chains. d. are not specific, but act generally. e. have a variable region that binds to a specific antigenic determinant.
D
As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the Select one: a. peroneal vein. b. saphenous vein. c. common iliac vein. d. femoral vein. e. deep femoral vein.
C
Bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by _____ in the sinuses of lymph nodes. Select one: a. trabecular cells b. germinal cells c. macrophages. d. lymphocytes e. plasma cells
A
Bean-shaped lymphatic organs found along lymphatic vessels are called Select one: a. lymph nodes. b. medullary cords. c. cisterna chyli. d. trabeculae. e. lymph nodules.
d
Blood does not enter or leave the ventricles during the period called Select one: a. ejection. b. rapid filling. c. atrial systole. d. isovolumetric contraction. e. active and passive filling.
B
Blood in the pulmonary veins returns to the Select one: a. right atrium. b. left atrium. c. right ventricle. d. left ventricle. e. coronary sinus.
C
Blood is moved through the vascular system by Select one: a. valves in the wall of the blood vessels. b. peristalsis caused by smooth muscle in the blood vessel walls. c. pressure gradients created by the heart. d. osmotic pressure. e. viscosity of the blood.
C
Case study: Dale Fremore was back home after spending the day at a picnic where he ate some "spoiled" potato salad. He developed severe abdominal pain and cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea. After about ten to twelve episodes of water diarrhea, Mr. Fremore became so pale and weak he could hardly walk. His wife took him to the hospital where he was diagnosed with severe dehydration (decreased plasma volume). Mr. Fremore was suffering from shock. The body has several mechanisms that can come into play to try to maintain blood pressure and blood flow when a person goes into shock. Compensatory shock is characterized by a narrowed pulse pressure. Which of the following blood pressure readings is an example of a narrowed pulse pressure? Select one: a. 99/40 b. 70/20 c. 92/64 d. 82/40 e. 100/50
C
Choose the arrangement that lists the chemicals in the order in which they would be used for coagulation. (1) thrombin (2) fibrinogen (3) prothrombinase (4) activated factor XII Select one: a. 3, 2, 4, 1 b. 4, 3, 2, 1 c. 4, 3, 1, 2 d. 3, 4, 1, 2 e. 3, 1, 4, 2
D
Erythropoiesis does not require Select one: a. iron. b. vitamin B12. c. folate. d. vitamin K. e. All of these are required.
A
Erythropoietin Select one: a. is a product of the kidney. b. inhibits the production of erythrocytes. c. is produced in response to increased blood pressure. d. is found both in the plasma and inside red blood cells. e. is produced by the red bone marrow.
B
Fred was admitted to the cardiac unit with chest pains. No arrhythmias and no large changes in the heart rate were observable. Blood samples taken over the next few days showed no increase in enzymes such as creatine phosphokinase. A possible treatment of the condition is Select one: a. beta adrenergic blocking agents. b. nitroglycerin. c. calcium channel blocking agents. d. aspirin. e. exercise.
B
Functions of plasma proteins include Select one: a. body temperature regulation. b. regulation of osmotic pressure. c. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide. d. serving as a source of energy for metabolism.
E
Germinal centers are the sites of Select one: a. increased blood flow to the lymph nodes. b. fluid production. c. increased flow of lymph from infected tissues. d. entrance of lymph into lymph nodes. e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.
E
Healing after clot formation involves Select one: a. clot retraction. b. repair of the damaged blood vessel by connective tissue cells. c. clot dissolution. d. serum being squeezed out of the clot. e. All of these choices are correct.
A
Histamine and leukotrienes are released from Select one: a. basophils and mast cells. b. eosinophils and basophils. c. neutrophils and lymphocytes. d. macrophages and microphages. e. phagocytes.
E
In a physiology lab, the students designed an experiment to illustrate how the heart responds to changes in blood pressure. Everyone relaxed and then did a headstand. Which of the following observations are consistent with the change in the function of their hearts? Select one: a. increased heart rate b. decreased heart rate c. increased stroke volume d. decreased stroke volume e. both decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume
A
In the aorta, Select one: a. the blood pressure and blood velocity are both high. b. the velocity of blood flow is high, but blood pressure is low. c. the resistance to blood flow is high, but velocity of blood flow is low. d. the resistance to blood flow and the blood pressure are both low. e. velocity is diminished because the total cross-sectional area is small.
C
In which of the following situations might Rh incompatibility develop? Select one: a. Mother is Rh negative; fetus is Rh negative b. Mother is Rh positive; father is Rh positive c. Mother is Rh negative; fetus is Rh positive d. Mother is Rh positive; fetus is Rh negative e. Mother is Rh positive; fetus is Rh positive
B
Increased venous tone will Select one: a. relax the veins. b. help return blood to the heart. c. allow blood to pool in the veins. d. stabilize blood velocity in the veins. e. dilate the veins.
E
Interferon Select one: a. directly attacks viruses. b. protects cells that have been invaded by viruses. c. increases vascular permeability. d. is not produced by most cells. e. is a protein that interferes with virus production and infection.
A
Iron Select one: a. is needed to produce hemoglobin. b. is a plasma coagulation factor. c. is the binding site for carbon dioxide on the hemoglobin molecule. d. prevents carbon monoxide from binding to hemoglobin. e. interferes with the normal function of hemoglobin.
E
Lymph capillaries are found in the Select one: a. epidermis. b. cornea. c. bone marrow. d. central nervous system. e. dermis.
A
Lymph containing a high lipid content is called Select one: a. chyle. b. chyme. c. lacteal. d. interstitial fluid.
A
Lymph exits a lymph node via the Select one: a. efferent lymphatic vessels. b. afferent lymphatic vessels. c. cortical sinuses. d. trabeculae. e. lymphatic duct.
B
Lymph nodes are surrounded by a dense connective tissue called Select one: a. cortex. b. capsule. c. reticulum. d. trabeculum. e. basement membrane. Feedback
A
Occlusion of which of the following would primarily damage the posterior wall of the heart? Select one: a. circumflex artery b. pulmonary artery c. right marginal artery d. coronary sinus artery e. right coronary artery
B
On which chromosome is there a mutation that leads to sickle cell anemia? Select one: a. chromosome 3 b. chromosome 11 c. chromosome 14 d. chromosome 21
E
Once cytotoxic T cells are produced, which of the following is (are) consistent with their ability to attack intracellular viruses? Select one: a. Most nucleated cells process antigens through the MHC class I mechanisms. b. Viral antigens are processed by the MHC class I mechanism and are presented to the cell surface. c. Cytotoxic T cells bind to MHC class I processed antigens. d. Cytotoxic T cells bound to the MHC class I processed antigens release lymphokines. e. All of these choices are correct.
A
Picture Identify structure "D" on the heart diagram. Select one: a. left atrium Correct b. aortic semilunar valve c. bicuspid (mitral) valve d. right atrium e. pulmonary semilunar valve
C
Randolf was suffering from severe hepatitis. His skin appeared to be jaundiced. That color change was due to Select one: a. increased heme in his circulatory system. b. increased globin in his circulatory system. c. increased bilirubin in his circulatory system. d. decreased rate of globin breakdown. e. increased globin in his circulatory system, increased bilirubin in his circulatory system and decreased rate of globin breakdown.
A
Resistance in the cardiovascular system Select one: a. tends to increase if blood viscosity increases. b. tends to decrease as the diameter of blood vessels decreases. c. dramatically increases blood flow through the circulatory system. d. is directly related to flow ( R → Flow). e. does not occur. If it did, blood would not circulate in the blood vessels.
A
T cells are divided into two primary groups, effector and regulatory. Which of the following are regulatory T cells? Select one: a. helper T cells b. cytotoxic T cells c. chemotaxic T cells d. delayed hypersensitivity T cells e. assistant T cells
B
The HIV virus can be transmitted Select one: a. only from males to other males. b. during unprotected sexual intercourse. c. by coughing or sneezing. d. by contact with people at work. e. by hugging an infected child.
A
The P wave of an ECG indicates Select one: a. atrial depolarization. b. atrial repolarization. c. ventricular depolarization. d. ventricular repolarization. e. threshold.
B
The abdominal aorta divides at L5 to form the two Select one: a. inferior mesenteric arteries. b. common iliac arteries. c. superior mesenteric arteries. d. femoral arteries. e. renal arteries.
B
The ability of white blood cells to leave the circulation and enter tissues is called Select one: a. chemotaxis. b. diapedesis. c. margination. d. intrusion. e. exocytosis.
D
The azygos vein drains blood from the _____ into the superior vena cava. Select one: a. head b. upper arm c. kidneys d. thorax e. abdominal wall
D
The cascade of events in the intrinsic pathway can be set into motion when _____ comes into contact with collagen. Select one: a. factor III b. factor VII c. factor X d. factor XII e. calcium
D
The chamber of the heart that endures the highest pressure is the Select one: a. right atrium. b. left atrium. c. right ventricle. d. left ventricle. e. coronary sinus.
E
The diagram illustrates the stimulation and effects of T cells. What does "C" represent? Select one: a. memory T cells b. cytotoxic T cells c. contact killing d. lysis of target cell e. release of cytokines
B
The dicrotic notch in the aortic pressure curve is due to the Select one: a. increase in intraventricular pressure during ejection. b. backflow of blood toward the ventricles. c. closure of the left AV valve. d. elasticity of the arterial wall. e. closure of the semilunar valves.
D
The hematocrit is Select one: a. an estimate of blood flow/hour. b. the number of WBCs per mm3. c. the amount of hemoglobin by weight in the blood. d. the percentage of RBCs in a given volume of blood. e. the number of RBCs in the body.
C
The immunoglobulin that is often the first antibody produced in response to an antigen is Select one: a. IgD. b. IgA. c. IgM. d. IgE. e. IgG.
A
The key signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT Select one: a. jaundice. b. pain. c. swelling. d. redness. e. heat.
B
The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by Select one: a. adding lymph to GI tract secretions. b. returning interstitial fluid to the plasma. c. transporting lymph from tissues to the liver. d. carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted. e. actively absorbing fluid from the blood.
A
The movement of leukocytes to the source of certain chemicals is called Select one: a. chemotaxis. b. opsonization. c. chemoreception. d. phagocytosis. e. hemolysis.
B
The nervous system and certain chemicals can cause the constriction of a blood vessel. This is known as Select one: a. platelet adhesion. b. vascular spasm. c. hemostasis. d. coagulation.
A
The oxygenated form of hemoglobin is called Select one: a. oxyhemoglobin. b. deoxyhemoglobin. c. carboxyhemoglobin. d. carbaminohemoglobin. e. loaded hemoglobin.
D
The plasma component that forms fibrin, the insoluble protein, in a blood clot is Select one: a. sodium. b. albumin. c. globulin. d. fibrinogen. e. fibrinolysis.
C
The right atrium receives blood from Select one: a. the lungs and the heart. b. the heart. c. the body and the heart. d. the lungs and the body.
B
The secondary or memory response Select one: a. occurs after the primary response has activated NK cells. b. provides better protection than the primary response. c. is less effective in antibody production. d. produces different antibodies than those produced in the primary immune response. e. does not protect the body after the first exposure.
A
The spleen Select one: a. filters damaged red blood cells from the blood. b. changes undifferentiated lymphocytes into competent lymphocytes. c. is necessary for life. It can't be removed without causing death. d. produces several different hormones with unknown function. e. has additional digestive functions.
D
The three major arteries of the upper limb that form a continuum are the Select one: a. brachial, radial, and ulnar arteries. b. brachial, axillary, and radial arteries. c. subclavian, axillary, and radial arteries. d. subclavian, axillary, and brachial arteries. e. cephalic, basilic, and brachial arteries
A
The white pulp of the spleen Select one: a. contains lymphocytes that can stimulate an immune response. b. filters lymph as it flows through the spleen. c. destroys defective red blood cells. d. stimulates immune responses, filter lymph, and destroys defective red blood cells.
D
This diagram illustrates the effects of antibodies. What effect does "B" represent? Select one: a. activation of complement cascade b. facilitation of phagocytosis c. initiates release of inflammatory chemicals d. binds antigens together e. inactivation of antigens
C
Tolerance is a state of Select one: a. hypersensitivity. b. transplant rejection. c. unresponsiveness to antigens. d. responding to self-antigens. e. non-recognition of antigens.
C
Tonsils Select one: a. increase in size in adults. b. are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities. c. provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities. d. contain red pulp and white pulp. e. are not functional in children.
B
Veins that return blood directly to the heart include the Select one: a. brachiocephalic vein. b. superior vena cava. c. portal vein. d. azygos vein. e. pulmonary arteries.
B
Ventricular contraction begins at the Select one: a. AV bundle. b. apex of the heart. c. base of the heart. d. superior portion of the interventricular septum. e. top of the ventricles.
A
What action is most responsible for the resting membrane potential in cardiac muscle cells? Select one: a. movement of K+ through voltage-gated K+ channels b. movement of Na+ through open Na+ channels c. movement of Ca2+ through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels. d. closing of Na+ and K+ voltage-gated channels
B
What does "A" represent on the diagram? Select one: a. spleen b. thymus c. axillary lymph node d. inguinal lymph node e. thoracic duct
C
What does "B" represent on the diagram? Select one: a. spleen b. thymus c. axillary lymph node d. inguinal lymph node e. thoracic duct
E
What does "C" represent on the diagram? Select one: a. spleen b. thymus c. axillary lymph node d. inguinal lymph node e. thoracic duct
D
What does "E" represent on the diagram? Select one: a. spleen b. thymus c. axillary lymph node d. inguinal lymph node Correct e. thoracic duct
C
What is the purpose of lacteals? Select one: a. Drain blood from the spleen. b. Absorb fluid from capillary beds. c. Absorb lipids from the digestive tract. d. Absorb solutes from interstitial spaces.
B
What structural feature of lymphatic vessels is responsible to forward movement of lymph? Select one: a. over-lapping endothelial cells b. valves c. no basement membrane d. thin walls
C
When left atrial pressure exceeds left ventricular pressure, Select one: a. left ventricular ejection begins. b. aortic blood pressure begins to rise. c. the bicuspid (mitral) valve opens. d. ventricular volume decreases. e. the tricuspid valve opens.
C
Which blood component is NOT correctly matched with its function? Select one: a. erythrocytes - transport oxygen b. leukocytes - protect against disease c. platelets - phagocytize bacteria d. plasma proteins - maintain blood osmotic pressure; involved in clotting e. monocytes - become macrophages
A
Which coat of an artery contains endothelium? Select one: a. tunica intima b. tunica media c. tunica adventitia d. tunica elastica e. tunica intermedia
B
Which of the following acts as a storage area for blood? Select one: a. the aorta b. the veins c. capillaries d. arterioles e. the arteries
E
Which of the following are components of the hepatic portal system? Select one: a. azygos vein b. inferior vena cava c. gastric vein d. inferior mesenteric vein e. both the gastric vein and the inferior mesenteric vein
C
Which of the following areas of the conduction system would produce spontaneous action potentials most frequently if the SA node were not functioning? Select one: a. AV bundle b. Purkinje fibers c. AV node d. bundle branch e. the pacemaker
E
Which of the following characteristics is/are most consistent with adaptive immunity? Select one: a. constant response to each exposure b. specificity c. memory d. increased response to second and subsequent exposures e. specificity, memory and increased response to second and subsequent exposures
E
Which of the following chemical substances, when released into the blood, would cause blood pressure to decrease? Select one: a. angiotensin II (active angiotensin) b. aldosterone c. ADH d. vasopressin e. atrial natriuretic hormone
C
Which of the following cytokines is mismatched? Select one: a. perforin - makes a hole in target cell membranes b. alpha interferon - prevents viral replication c. lymphotoxin - costimulator of T cells d. interleukin 4 - plays a role in allergic reactions e. TNF - activates macrophages and promotes fever
A
Which of the following functions is associated with the blood? Select one: a. delivery of oxygen to tissue cells b. transport of digestive enzymes to the small intestine c. maintenance of DNA content of egg cells d. transport of neurotransmitters across synapses e. electrical stimulation of the heart Feedback
A
Which of the following functions is associated with vessels that carry blood directly from arterioles to veins without passing through capillaries? Select one: a. thermoregulation b. nutrient supply to tissues c. removal of metabolic waste products from tissues d. oxygen supply to tissues e. pH regulation
C
Which of the following is NOT a form of hemoglobin found in the developing human? Select one: a. adult b. embryonic c. adolescent d. fetal
B
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? Select one: a. Defending from infection caused by microorganisms and other foreign substances. b. Aiding in erythropoiesis of red blood cells. c. Maintaining fluid balance by returning excess interstitial fluid to the blood. d. Absorbing and transporting lipids from the digestive tract.
D
Which of the following is an agranulocyte? Select one: a. eosinophil b. basophil c. neutrophil d. monocyte e. erythrocyte
E
Which of the following is usually the first cell type to leave the blood and enter infected tissues? Select one: a. eosinophil b. lymphocyte c. monocyte d. natural killer cell e. neutrophil
E
Which of the following most accurately describes how foreign substances can activate complement? Select one: a. Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway. b. Foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it. c. Foreign proteins bind to C1 and activate it. d. Foreign proteins are phagocytized by macrophages and directly activate complement. e. Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway and foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it.
C
Which of the following statements accurately describes the thymus gland? Select one: a. The thymus gland lacks a capsule. b. The thymus gland contains many reticular fibers. c. The thymus gland is larger in infants than advanced age adults. d. Lymphocytes are found only in the medulla of the thymus gland. e. The thymus increases in size with aging until death.
B
Which of the following statements concerning the spleen is true? Select one: a. Splenic arteries enter the organ at the periarterial sheath. b. The spleen can act as a blood reservoir. c. The white pulp is associated with the venous supply. d. The red pulp has trabeculae. e. Humans can not survive without a spleen.
A
Which of the following statements regarding regulation of local blood flow is true? Select one: a. Increased metabolic rate in a tissue increases capillary blood flow into the tissue. b. Blood flow through capillaries is continuous. c. Contraction of precapillary sphincters will increase blood flow to a capillary bed. d. Increased levels of carbon dioxide increase the contraction of precapillary sphincters. e. Tissue need for oxygen and amino acids will cause precapillary sphincters to contract.
A
Which of the following substances DOES NOT cause increased capillary permeability, chemotaxis, and vasodilation? Select one: a. cytokines b. protaglandins c. leukotrienes d. complement e. histamine
A
Which of the following will depolarize immediately after the AV node depolarizes? Select one: a. the AV bundle b. Purkinje fibers c. atrial myocardium d. bundle branches in the ventricular septum e. the SA node
B
Which of the following will increase the heart rate? Select one: a. a rise in pH b. an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood c. an increase in the level of blood oxygen d. an increase in blood pressure e. a decrease in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
C
Which of the following will increase your risk of contracting the HIV virus? Select one: a. use of a condom during intercourse b. heat treatment of clotting factors prior to transfusion c. use of contaminated needles d. reduction in the number of sexual partners e. abstinence
B
Which statement is CORRECT? Select one: a. For an artery and vein of the same diameter, the vein would have a thicker wall. b. Veins contain valves and arteries do not. c. Blood pressure is lower in arteries than in veins. d. When empty, an artery is more likely to be collapsed (flattened) than a vein. e. Both arteries and veins are under pressure.
D
Which white blood cells function primarily as phagocytotic cells? Select one: a. monocytes and lymphocytes b. basophils and neutrophils c. eosinophils and monocytes d. neutrophils and monocytes
A
Within normal limits, an increase in preload leads to Select one: a. an increase in cardiac output and force of left ventricular contraction. b. a decrease in cardiac output and force of left ventricular contraction. c. an increase in cardiac output and a decrease in force of left ventricular contraction. d. a decrease in cardiac output and an increase in the force of left ventricular contraction. e. a decrease in stroke volume and heart rate.
