ACE Exam Questions

Use the following information to answer the question: Gender: Female Age: 39 years Family history: Father has type 1 diabetes; Mother just diagnosed with type 2 diabetes Smoking: Never smoked Current exercise: swims 3-4 days per week for 30-45 minutes BMI: 31 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 128/82 mmHg Total serum Cholesterol: 224 mg/dL LDL cholesterol: 122 mg/dL HDL cholesterol: 64 mg/dL Fasting plasma glucose: 95 mg/dL Goals: Lose 30 lbs; enhance exercise program and improve diet to prevent diabetes What is this client's "total score" for artherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds?

0

The first Component of the TTM is made up of the five stages of behaviour change, what are they?

1. Precontemplation - People are sedentary and not even considering an activity program. 2. Contemplation - Still sedentary, however they are starting to consider activity as important and have begun to identify the implications of being inactive. 3. Preparation - Some physical activity as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program. 4.

Which of the following tests BEST measures muscular strength?

10-repetition maximum bench-press test This is the best test for measuring muscular strength because it is safer than a 1-repetition maximum bench-press test and most people can complete 10 repetitions with 75% of their maximum resistance. While a 1-repetition maximum bench-press test is considered a more accurate measure of strength, the risk of injury outweighs the benefits of performing the test for most personal training clients. Therefore, the 10-repetition test is considered an appropriate substitute for assessing strength.

What percentage of Americans is engaged in the recommended level of physical activity?

25%

When exercising in a hot environment, it is recommended that a person drink approximately __________. A. 2 to 4 fluid ounces of a sports drink every 10-15 minutes B. 3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes C. 32 fluid ounces of water within 30 minutes prior to, and following exercise D. 1 ounce of fluid for every ounce of weight lost during exercise

3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes This response is correct. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is to drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally, drink 8 ounces of water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes following exercise.

According to current estimates, approximately what percentage of the American population does not engage in any leisure time activity?

30%

According to ACSM, moderate-intensity exercise is defined as those activities performed at an intensity of ________.

40-59% VO2R

For asymtomatic clients, the ACSM recommended intensity range for cardiorespiratory endurance training is:

65 - 90% of maximum heart rate

What should be emphasized during the first 6 to 12 weeks of a beginner's exercise program? A. Attendance B. Long-term goals C. Increasing muscular strength and power D. Improving anthropometric measurements

A. Attendance This is the most appropriate response because behavior change works best when the final objective can be reduced to component parts that the client can address one step at a time. Research suggests that focused, rather than broad multi-component programming yields better initial outcomes. Therefore, emphasizing the attendance behavior in the first 6-12 weeks will help the client to feel successful immediately without focusing on performance measures that take several weeks to improve. Long-term goals This response is incorrect because research suggests that focused, rather than broad multi-component programming yields better initial outcomes. A long-term goal is too broad and too far off into the future to motivate compliance to the program. Clients may see their immediate failure to change as reflective of poor motivation or insufficient ability. Short-term,behavior-focused goals work best during the initial 6-12 weeks of a beginner's exercise program. Increasing muscular strength and power This response is incorrect because performance goals, such as muscular strength and power, take several weeks, if not months, to improve. Clients may see their immediate failure to change as reflective of poor motivation or insufficient ability. Short-term, behavior-focused goals work best during the initial 6- 12 weeks of a beginner's exercise program. Improving anthropometric measurements This response is incorrect because anthropometric assessments, such as circumference measurements and body composition, take several weeks, if not months, to improve. Clients may see their immediate failure to change as reflective of poor motivation or insufficient ability. Short-term, behavior-focused goals work best during the initial 6-12 weeks of a beginner's exercise program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 415-417; 2nd ed, pg. 336-341

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? A. "What do you hope to achieve from an exercise program?" B. "Do you enjoy exercising?" C. "Are you more interested in weight training or flexibility training?" D. "Have you had success in previous exercise programs?"

A. "What do you hope to achieve from an exercise program?" This response is correct because it allows the client to explore his/her own thoughts without being hemmed in to a short response such as "yes" or "no." This is the best type of question for a personal

You are working with a client who weighs 180 lbs with a body-fat percentage of 20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant? A. 144 lbs B. 149 lbs C. 169 lbs D. 175 lbs

A. 144 lbs B. 149 lbs C. 169 lbs (Correct Answer) D. 175 lbs (Your Answer)

You are working with a client who is begining to perform basic bodyweight squats with fairly decent form. She is now ready for more specific feedback to help her refine her squatting technique. In which stage of moto learning would she be classififed for this exercise skill? A. Associative B. Cognitive C. Autonomous D. Independent

A. Associative

During your initial interview with a new client, you learn that his motivation to sign up for personal-training sesions was based on a recent medical exam during which his physican informed him that he was prehypertensive (BP= 137/88 mmHg) and has dyslipidemia (total serum cholesterol = 227 mg/dL), and a fmaily history of cardiovascular disease. Based on this information, hos motivation to exercise is MOST likely associated with which of the following? A. Health belief model B. Transtheoretical Model C. Operant conditioning D. Cognitive behavioral techniques

A. Health belief model

What waist to hip ratio is considered at risk for A. Men B. Wome

A. Men = .95 B. Women = .86

Which of the following produces a stretch reflex when stimulated? A. Muscle spindles B. Sarcomeres C. Golgi tendon organ D. Motor end plates

A. Muscle spindles This response is correct. The stretch reflex is the phenomenon associated with the activation of the muscle spindle. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle fibers by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. This protective muscular contraction is called the stretch reflex. Sarcomeres This response is incorrect because sarcomeres are components of muscle fibers that, in and of themselves, do not cause or activate the stretch reflex. However, they are involved once the stretch reflex is initiated because they contain the contractile fibers of the muscle cell. Golgi tendon organ This response is incorrect because the Golgi tendon organ monitors tension produced by muscle contraction and acts by inhibiting muscle contraction if excessive force arises. In extreme cases of muscle stretch, the Golgi tendon organ may be called on to inhibit the contracting muscle and relax the entire muscle to prevent rupture. Motor end plates This response is incorrect because the motor end plate is a pocket that surrounds the junction of the motor neuron and muscle cell and is not responsible for producing the stretch reflex. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 26 & 309-310; 2nd ed., pg. 26 & 295-296

Using reinforcement to help a client progress from doing a quarter lunge to performing a full lunge and then eventually adding resistance is an example of which process? A. Shaping B. Operant conditioning C. Cognition and behavior D. Observational learning

A. Shaping using REINFORCEMENTS to gradually achieve a target behavior 73.

Q.4) At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics? A. While registering for an ACE certification exam B. Once the candidate earns his or her first ACE certification C. Upon receiving a printed copy of the ACE Code Of ethics with the printed ACE certification D. When accepting his or her first job as an ACE-certified Personal Trainer

A. While registering for an ACE certification exam. ? See 1.11

When the ACE candidate agree to the ACE Code of Ethics?

All ACE certified professionals AND CANDIDATES FOR ACE CERTIFICATION must be familiar with and comply with the ACE Code of ethics. Personal Trainer Handbook, Chapter 1, Page 11

The 1996 Surgeon General's Report on Physical Activity and Health and ACSM's guidelines (2000) emphasize that the public can obtain heath benefits from a MINIMUM of . A. 20 minutes or more of low-intensity physical activity, 3-5 days a week B. 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity, on most, preferably all, days of the week C. 30 consecutive minutes of moderate-to-high-intensity exercise, 4-5 days a week D. 20 consecutive minutes of structured, moderate-intensity exercise at least 3-5 days a week

B. 20 minutes or more of low-intensity physical activity, 3-5 days a week This response is incorrect because it is too modest in its recommendations for duration, intensity, and frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. B. 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week This response is correct. These guidelines were established because previous public health efforts to promote physical activity overemphasized the importance of high-intensity exercise. The ACSM recognized that most people prefer a less technical, more informal approach to exercise programming and developed this guideline to help exercise appear less intimidating to the general public. Additionally, the ACSM's latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to be accumulated throughout the day in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day. 30 consecutive minutes of moderate to high-intensity exercise, 4-5 days a week This response is incorrect because it is too aggressive in its recommendations for consecutive duration and intensity and not aggressive enough in its recommendation for frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. Additionally, the ACSM's latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to be accumulated throughout the day in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day. 20 consecutive minutes of structured, moderate-intensity exercise at least 3-5 days a week This response is incorrect because it is too modest in its recommendation for consecutive duration and frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. Additionally, the ACSM's latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to be accumulated throughout the day in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 328-330; 2nd ed., pgs. 310-312

While on an airplane, you are talking with the man next to you and tell him that you are a personal trainer. This opens up a conversation during which the mans ask you a number of questions about things he has read recently regarding exercise, nutrition, and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thiking about joing a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, in what stage of behavior change would he be categorized? A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action

B. Contemplation

What type of body language BEST conveys empathy, warmth, and genuineness to a potential client? A. Forward lean and crossed arms B. Open position with arms and legs uncrossed C. Backward lean and squared shoulders D. Crossed arms and uncrossed legs

B. Open position with arms and legs uncrossed This response best conveys empathy, warmth, and genuineness. The best posture for communicating interest is one in which the personal trainer is facing the client squarely at eye level and leaning toward the client in a relaxed manner maintaining an open position with arms and legs uncrossed. This posture says "I am interested in you and am ready to listen."

Exercise has been shown to be an effective stress-management technique because it _______________. A. Causes the release of catecholamines B. Provides a positive distraction C. Suppresses T-cell function D. Lowers resting heart rate

B. Provides a positive distraction This response is correct because, mentally, exercise provides an outlet for negative emotions such as frustration, anger, and irritability, thereby promoting a more positive mood and outlook. Exercise also allows individuals to focus on something other than the stressors in their lives. When people are exercising, they are focusing on performance and breath, both of which are positive distracters from life's daily stressors. Causes the release of catecholamines This response is incorrect. Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) act on the sympathetic nervous system to cause an increase in heart rate and mobilization of fatty acids. Therefore, the release of catecholamines does not effectively manage stress. Suppresses T-cell function This response is incorrect because a bout of moderate exercise boosts natural immune functions for up to several hours. T-cells function to defend directly against viral and fungal infections and contribute to regulating other important immune mechanisms. This would aid in stress management. Some research has shown that exhaustive, high-intensity bouts of exercise can actually suppress the immune system. However, this response is still not the best choice because there is no indication in the stem of the question as to what intensity of exercise it is referring. Lowers resting heart rate This response is incorrect because although regular cardiorespiratory exercise has been shown to reduce resting heart rate, this does not effectively manage stress.

Q.2) Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers? A. Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherence B. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design C. Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs D. Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals

B. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design. ACE PTH 1.8 - Personal trainers doe not Diagnose, Evaluate Injuries, Recommend supplements, Prescribe, Treat injury or disease, Monitor Medical Progress, Rehabilitate, Counsel or work with Patients.

8.186 What BMI indicates an increased health risk and/or overweight?

BMI > 25

8.186 What BMI indicates obesity?

BMI > 30

To assist your potential client's transition from the contemplation stage of change to the preparation stage of change, which intervention should be used? A. Formal contract B. Periodic goal evaluation C. Health-risk appraisal D. Relapse prevention strategies

C. Formal contract This response is incorrect because it assumes that the personal trainer and the client have already developed clearly defined goals and are ready to embark on a training program by signing a formal contract. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often characterized by ambivalence about changing. Periodic goal evaluation This response is incorrect because it assumes that the personal trainer and the client have already initiated a training program and have discussed or are contemplating the re-evaluation of the client's goals as the program progresses. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often characterized by ambivalence about changing. C. Health-risk appraisal This response is the best intervention because it assists the potential client in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. Completing a health-risk appraisal and consulting with a personal trainer about the results may initiate the motivation needed to progress to the preparation stage of change. Often individuals in the contemplation stage are unaware of their own health risks and may be motivated to change upon discovering their shortcomings. Relapse prevention strategies This response is incorrect because it assumes that the personal trainer and the client have already initiated a training program and have discussed or are contemplating strategies to address the client's potential relapses. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often characterized by ambivalence about changing. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 411-412; 2nd ed, pg. 376

According to ACSM and the Centers for Disease Control, the MINIMUM amount of physical activity required for health benefits is _______________. A. 20 minutes of high-intensity activity, 3 days per week B. 40 minutes of low-intensity activity, 5 to 7 days per week C. 30 minutes of moderate-intensity, 5 to 7 days per week D. 60 minutes of moderate-intensity, 3 days per week

C. 20 minutes of high-intensity activity, 3 days per week This response is incorrect because it is too aggressive in its recommendation for intensity and not aggressive enough in its recommendations for duration and frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. 40 minutes of low-intensity activity, 5 to 7 days per week This response is incorrect because it is too modest in its recommendation for intensity and too aggressive in its recommendation for duration. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. C. 30 minutes of moderate-intensity, 5 to 7 days per week This response is correct. Stated another way, the guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. 60 minutes of moderate-intensity, 3 days per week This response is incorrect because it is too aggressive in its recommendation for duration and not aggressive enough in its recommendation for frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 328-330; 2nd ed., pgs. 310-3

To assist your potential client's transition from the contemplation stage of change to the preparation stage of change, which intervention should be used? A. Formal contract B. Periodic goal evaluation C. Health-risk appraisal D. Relapse prevention strategies

C. A. Formal contract This response is incorrect because it assumes that the personal trainer and the client have already developed clearly defined goals and are ready to embark on a training program by signing a formal contract. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often characterized by ambivalence about changing. Periodic goal evaluation This response is incorrect because it assumes that the personal trainer and the client have already initiated a training program and have discussed or are contemplating the re-evaluation of the client's goals as the program progresses. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often characterized by ambivalence about changing. C. Health-risk appraisal This response is the best intervention because it assists the potential client in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. Completing a health-risk appraisal and consulting with a personal trainer about the results may initiate the motivation needed to progress to the preparation stage of change. Often individuals in the contemplation stage are unaware of their own health risks and may be motivated to change upon discovering their shortcomings. Relapse prevention strategies This response is incorrect because it assumes that the personal trainer and the client have already initiated a training program and have discussed or are contemplating strategies to address the client's potential relapses. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often characterized by ambivalence about changing. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 411-412; 2nd ed, pg. 376

Which strategy will BEST ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and goals? A. The client should be allowed by the trainer to plan the initial training activities. B. The trainer should establish a basic program for the client to start their regimen. C. The trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience. D. The client's present level of physical fitness should be determined.

C. A. The client should be allowed by the trainer to plan the initial training activities This response is incorrect because it undermines the concept that the trainer is a professional with the knowledge and experience of creating safe and effective exercise programs. While it is important to allow the client to be involved in the goal-setting process and for the trainer to choose activities that the client enjoys, it is inappropriate for the client to plan the initial training activities. The trainer has more knowledge about the level of intensity and modes of exercise that are appropriate for the initial stages of a training program. B. The trainer should establish a basic program for the client to start their regimen This response is incorrect because it fails to acknowledge the client's expectations and desires. While it is important for the trainer to take the lead when designing the exercise program, it is equally important for the trainer to fully explore the client's preferences for exercise as well as any time constraints the client has in his/her daily schedule. The more tailored to the client the exercise program is, the more likely the client will be motivated to adhere. C. The trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience This response will best ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and goals. Finding out where a client is mentally and experientially with respect to exercise allows a trainer to develop a specific exercise program tailored to exactly what the client wants and needs. When a program is designed with client expectations and prior experience in mind, the client's motivation increases because the client was a contributor to the process. D. The client's present level of physical fitness should be determined This response is incorrect because it does not take into account the client's psychological readiness for, and prior experience with, exercise. While it is important to assess the client's current level of fitness prior to designing an exercise program, it is equally important to understand the client's readiness to commit to exercise. Without this understanding, the trainer has no clue about the client's expectations and prior exercise experience, which are necessary when developing a program that promotes adherence. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 378-386; 2nd ed., 358-365

When designing a program, the personal trainer should identify client goals by _______________. A. Interviewing using close-ended questions B. Training the client for a week before assessment C. Using a lifestyle questionnaire D. Creating a formal contract with the client

C. Interviewing using close-ended questions This response is incorrect because it directs the client to give a short response such as "yes" or "no." The personal trainer should avoid this type of question when trying to get the client to open up and give more details. Training the client for a week before assessment This response is incorrect on more than one level. A personal trainer should never use the first week of training a new client as a form of initial assessment. Not only does the trainer risk potentially injuring the client due to recommending exercises without knowing the client's health/exercise/injury history, the trainer also risks exposing the new client to exercises or situations with which he/she may not be comfortable. Additionally, exercise, like other behaviors, is strongly influenced by its immediate consequences. Often the immediate feelings and consequences surrounding actions, rather than long-term beliefs or views, have the most powerful effect on daily activities. Therefore, if the personal trainer conducts workout sessions prior to understanding the client's true goals, there is the possibility that after one week the client will be so discouraged that he/she may not want to continue with the program. c. Using a lifestyle questionnaire This response is correct because using a lifestyle questionnaire prior to training is an excellent way to uncover a client's preferences, needs, exercise history and motivational readiness for change. With this information the personal trainer, together with the client, can develop realistic and relevant goals tailored specifically to the client's motivational needs. Creating a formal contract with the client This response is incorrect because a formal contract should be created between the personal trainer and the client after the goals have already been clearly defined. Contracts are written agreements signed by the client and the personal trainer that clearly spell out the exercise goals and the reward associated with achieving them. The stem of the question implies that the client goals have yet to be identified. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 397; 2nd ed., pg. 376-380

Which of the following is MOST critical to the development of the client/trainer relationship? A. A comprehensive contract B. A flexible and accommodating schedule C. A development of trust D. A persistent expression of optimism

C. A development of trust This response is correct. In order to develop a strong personal trainer/client relationship, a good rapport must be established. To establish rapport the personal trainer must exhibit empathy, warmth, and genuineness toward the client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional affinity and it begins at first contact.

Which of the following BEST describes a motor unit? A. A neuron that provides information regarding length and tension of muscle fibers B. The interface between the end of a myelinated motor neuron and a muscle fiber C. A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates D. A nerve cell that conducts impulses from the central nervous system to a group of muscle fibers

C. A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates This response is correct. A motor unit is a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers it innervates. A neuron that provides information regarding length and tension of muscle fibers This response is incorrect. A motor unit is a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers it innervates. This response is describing proprioceptors such as muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs; respectively. The interface between the end of a myelinated motor neuron and a muscle fiber This response is incorrect. A motor unit is a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers it innervates. This response is describing the neuromuscular junction, where the sarcolemma forms a pocket that is called the MOTOR END PLATE. A nerve cell that conducts impulses from the central nervous system to a group of muscle fibers This response is incorrect. A motor unit is a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers it innervates. This response is describing a component of the peripheral nervous system, the efferent nerve fiber.

The BEST method of maintaining client motivation is to _______________. A. Administer monthly fitness evaluations B. Establish realistic expectations and monitor progress C. Compare the client's progress to established norms D. Record weekly body-weight measurements

C. Establish realistic expectations and monitor progress This response is the best method for maintaining client motivation. Expectations formalized as written goals increase the client's personal responsibility and commitment to the exercise program. The goals should be somewhat challenging, yet realistically achievable to promote success. Exercise goals should be written in a manner that allows them to be objectively measured, thereby eliminating any questions regarding goal attainment.

Q.1) The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to: A. Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge, skills and abilities B. Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation C. Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence D. Confirm a candidate's understanding of key concepts following the complete of a bachelor's degree

C. Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence. ACE PTH 1.7

Which of the following is a component of a well-stated goal? A. Competitive B. Precise C. Flexible D. Time-bound

Correct D Time Bound A. Competitive This response is incorrect because a well-stated goal is a SMART goal. The components of a SMART goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. Using competition to help in the development of a client's goal may be detrimental if the client is an individual who is intimidated by competing with others. Being competitive isn't necessarily a negative mind-set as long as the client is accepting of it. However, keeping with the SMART goal strategy ensures that all clients receive the most out of the goal-setting process. Precise This response is incorrect because a well-stated goal is a SMART goal. The components of a SMART goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. While being precise during the goal-setting process isn't a negative attribute, it is clearly not one of the words that make up the SMART acronym. This question is assessing whether or not the test-taker knows the components of a SMART goal. Flexible This response is incorrect because a well-stated goal is a SMART goal. The components of a SMART goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. Being flexible when initially discussing client goals and when developing a program design is appropriate. Furthermore, being flexible when reassessing progress and establishing new goals is appropriate. However, a well-stated goal, once it is developed and written down, should be adhered to until the first re-evaluation. Time-bound This response is correct because it is one of the components of a well-stated goal (a SMART goal). The components of a SMART goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. SMART goals are effective because they translate clients' vague statements about what they want into precise goals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 396-397; 2nd ed, pgs. 376-377

Once the trainer obtains personal goals and health data from the client, the gathered information should be________________. A. Posted as a motivational incentive measure B. Attached to the program card found in the training area C. Entered on the general client database D. Filed in a secured data storage area

D. A. Posted as a motivational incentive measure This response is incorrect. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment. Any breach of confidentiality potentially harms the productivity and trust of the client. This puts the personal trainer at risk for potential litigation and puts the client at risk of public embarrassment and fraudulent activity such as identity theft. It is considered a breach of confidentiality to allow anyone (besides the personal trainer and the client) access to the client's personal information without the client's express written consent. Attached to the program card found in the training area This response is incorrect because all client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness facility. This limits the access to the client's personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment. Entered on the general client database This response is incorrect because all client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness facility. This limits the access to the client's personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment. Filed in a secured data storage area This response is correct. All client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness facility. This limits the access to the client's personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 436; 2nd ed., pgs. 399-400

Q.3) Which of the hollowing is OUTSIDE of the ACE-certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? A. Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise B. Providing guidance, motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs C. Implementing post-rehabilitative exercise programs for clients following their physicians recommendations D. Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician

D. Conducting a VO2 max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician

A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10k and half-marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born 2 years ago. Now that they are in daycare 3 days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, what stages of change has she gone through from pre-pregnany to meeting with you today. A. Action -> Precontemplation -> Action B. Maintenance -> Contemplation -> Action C. Action -> Maintenance -> Preparation D. Maintenance -> Contemplation -> Preparation

D. Maintenance -> Contemplation -> Preparation

________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.

Decisional balance One of the four components of the transtheoretical model, decisional balance refers to the number of pros and cons that an individual perceives about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 69

________________ involves the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.

Decisional balance One of the four components of the transtheoretical model, decisional balance refers to the number of pros and cons that an individual perceives about adopting and/or maintaining an activity program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 69

Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem?

Health belief model The health belief model predicts that people will engage in a health behavior (e.g., exercise) based on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior.

1) Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem?

Health belief model The health belief model predicts that people will engage in a health behavior (e.g., exercise) based on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 64

During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus?

Load training The focus of phase 3, or load training, is on applying external resistances, or loads, to functional movement patterns. Phase 3 applies the traditional resistance-training methodology for endurance, hypertrophy (or strength-endurance), and strength to the client's particular goals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 88

Client: Male Age: 39 Physician Clearance: Yes Medical/Health Concerns: Smokes 30+ cigarettes per day Blood pressure: 136/94 mmHg Past Activity Levels: Played high-school soccer and rugby Current Activity Levels: Walks dog and walks 10 minutes to work everyday Main Fitness Goal: To improve stamina and feel more fit Given the information above, which of the following fitness tests is contraindicated for a personal trainer to perform? A. 3-minute step test B. Submaximal cycle ergometry test C. Maximal graded treadmill test D. 1-mile walk test

Maximal graded treadmill test This response is correct because this is a maximal fitness test and, therefore, contraindicated. The client's information, given in the stem of the question, places him in the moderate risk category for experiencing a cardiac event during exercise. He has two risk factors, current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has no symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore, he may exercise at a moderate intensity and undergo submaximal fitness testing.

What is considered essential body fat % for A. Men B. Women

Men 2-5% Women 10-13%

8.185 What body fat percentage indicates obesity for A. Men B. Women

Men BF%>25 Women BF % > 32

What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information?

Past performance experience Past performance experience is the most influential source of self-efficacy information. Personal trainers should ask clients about their previous experiences with exercise, fitness facilities, and personal trainers. These previous experiences will strongly influence self-efficacy. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 66

What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information?

Past performance experience Past performance experience is the most influential source of self-efficacy information. Personal trainers should ask clients about their previous experiences with exercise, fitness facilities, and personal trainers. These previous experiences will strongly influence self-efficacy. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 66

5) During which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

Phase 3 During phase 3, or load training, assessments of muscular strength and endurance are introduced to facilitate program design and quantify progress. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 90

A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual's stage of change? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance

Preparation The preparation stage is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program. Activity during the preparation stage may be a sporadic walk, or even a periodic visit to the gym, but it is inconsistent. People in the preparation stage are ready to adopt and live an active lifestyle.

4) A prospective client tells you that he has been going for 2-mile walks a couple of times each week for the past two months, and that he joined the gym because he is finally ready to adopt a more structured workout regimen. What is this individual's stage of change?

Preparation The preparation stage is marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program. Activity during the preparation stage may be a sporadic walk, or even a periodic visit to the gym, but it is inconsistent. People in the preparation stage are ready to adopt and live an active lifestyle. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 67

Which of the following methods is MOST accurate for assessing body composition? A. Bioelectrical impedance analysis B. Body mass index C. Waist-to-hip ratio D.Skinfold thickness measurement

Skinfold thickness measurement Of all the responses listed for this question, the skinfold measurement method is the most accurate for assessing body composition provided the measurements are taken properly. If the technician/personal trainer performing the assessment has ample experience locating and measuring the standard sites, the results are both valid and reliable for estimating body composition.

Transtheoretical Model of change is seperated into four components, what are they?

Stages of Change Process of Change Self Efficacy Decisional Balance Ch. 4, P. 67

Transtheoretical Model of change is also called the _____________ __ ________ model.

Stages of Chnage CH.4 P.67

A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using?

Stimulus control Stimulus control refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy behaviors. Simple and effective stimulus-control strategies may include choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work; keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items for a workout; having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts; and writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 72, 74

What is the PRIMARY purpose of certification?

The primary purpose of certification is always to protect the public from harm by assessing if the professional meets established levels of competence in the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the job in a safe and effective manner. Personal Trainer Handbook, Chapter 1, Page 7

Describe Shaping as is refers to behavior Change

The process of using reinforcements to gradually achieve a target behavior. PTH Ch. 4 P. 73

Negative Reinforcement is?

The removal or avoidance of an ADVERSIVE stimuli

Which strategy will BEST ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and

The trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience This response will best ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and goals. Finding out where a client is mentally and experientially with respect to exercise allows a trainer to develop a specific exercise program tailored to exactly what the client wants and needs. When a program is designed with client expectations and prior experience in mind, the client's motivation increases because the client was a contributor to the process.

People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish. a. True b. False

True People with low self-efficacy will be more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are non-threatening and easy to accomplish. They will display minimal effort to protect themselves in the face of a challenge—since failing when not working hard will be a lesser blow to their self-efficacy than failing when doing their best— and, if faced with too many setbacks, they are likely to lose faith, give up, and drop out of the program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 67

Which body-composition assessment method assesses body-fat distribution?

Waist-to-hip ratio

When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated? a. Whenever the client has a relapse into inactivity b. After the client finishes his final purchased workout c. Never; they should be permanent documents d. When goals are met or programs are modified

When goals are met or programs are modified It is important that a written agreement is reviewed and adjusted at all program-modification points. Similarly, the behavior contract must be revised and updated as goals are met and programs are modified. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 74

Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for a client who is at risk of relapsing? A. You really need to work out four times a week while on vacation. B. You must find time during your vacation for exercise. C. If you discontinue your exercise, think of all the health benefits you will lose. D. In case you don't find a gym to work out, exercise by doing your sightseeing on foot.

You really need to work out four times a week while on vacation. This response is incorrect because it does not take into account the fact that the client is on vacation. When individuals vacation, their day-to-day behaviors are likely to change because their daily routines will likely be altered. It is important for a personal trainer to understand this and provide alternatives for exercise while on vacation. For example, working out in a gym may not be possible while on vacation so the personal trainer should advise the client on activities such as walking and hiking that will likely be more convenient. Additionally, since the client will have a vacation mind-set, instructing him/her to "work out" may make it seem too much like work. Allowing the client to increase physical activity through other means may help with adherence and prevent a relapse. You must find time during your vacation for exercise. This response is incorrect because it provides no options for the client. Adherence will likely increase if the client feels they have a choice when planning their physical activity. It is important for a personal trainer to understand this and provide alternatives for exercise while on vacation. For example, working out in a gym may not be possible while on vacation so the personal trainer should advise the client on activities such as walking and hiking that will likely be more convenient. Additionally, a relapse may be prevented if the client engages in a new physical activity he/she has never tried before. For example, a client might try kayaking for the first time on a vacation. The personal trainer should inform the client that kayaking is a great way to get physical activity. It seems like play to the client, yet it is an acceptable form of exercise. If you discontinue your exercise, think of all the health benefits you will lose. This response is incorrect because it places blame on the client which will result in feelings of guilt and shame if the client does not work out while on vacation. This puts the client at risk for relapse because he/she may decide there is no use in continuing because of failure to exercise while on vacation. Understandably, when individuals are on vacation their exercise behaviors may decrease. It is important for the personal trainer to let the client know that taking it a little easy on vacation is nothing to worry about. Providing alternatives to traditional exercise such as walking, hiking, or bicycling for vacationing clients is likely to increase adherence. In case you don't find a gym to work out, exercise by doing your sightseeing on foot. This is the most appropriate response for a client on the verge of a relapse. When individuals vacation, their day-to-day behaviors are likely to change because their daily routines will likely be altered. It is important for a personal trainer to understand this and provide alternatives for exercise while on vacation. For example, working out in a gym may not be possible while on vacation so the personal trainer should advise the client on activities such as walking and hiking that will likely be more convenient. Additionally, since the client will have a vacation mind-set, instructing him/her to "work out" may, make it seem too much like work. Allowing the client to increase physical activity through other means may help with adherence and prevent a relapse.

3) People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish. a. True b. False

a) True People with low self-efficacy will be more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are non-threatening and easy to accomplish. They will display minimal effort to protect themselves in the face of a challenge—since failing when not working hard will be a lesser blow to their self-efficacy than failing when doing their best—and, if faced with too many setbacks, they are likely to lose faith, give up, and drop out of the program. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 67

A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance training will be working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorespiratory training. a. True b. False

a. False While these two phases both represent phase 3 of their respective training components, it is important to understand that each client will progress from one phase to the next according to his or her unique needs, goals, and available time to commit to training. Many clients will be at different phases of the two training components based on their current health and fitness levels. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 86

What is the PRIMARY reason for including a warm-up in every group fitness class? a. To elevate internal body temperature b. To gradually decrease muscle elasticity c. To increase aerobic capacity d. To enhance muscle relaxation

a. To elevate internal body temperature

The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model in their proper order. • Stability and mobility training • Movement training • Load training • Performance training a. True b. False

a. True The proper order of the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is as follows: stability and mobility training, movement training, load training, and performance training. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 86

What would be the BEST advice for individuals who are scheduled to participate in a six week walking program being conducted in the middle of the summer? a. Wear light colored clothing to reflect heat from the sun b. Sweat profusely to enhance weight loss c. Drink only when thirsty to prevent muscle cramps d. Take Vitamin D to reduce the risk of a heat stroke

a. Wear light colored clothing to reflect heat from the sun

4) It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program. a. True b. False

b) False No assessments of muscular strength or endurance are required prior to designing and implementing an exercise program during this phase. Assessments that should be conducted early in this phase include basic assessments of posture, balance, movement, and range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 89

You are preparing to teach an outdoor class on a day when the temperature is 85 degrees which a humidity level of 60%. Which of the following modifications would be the MOST appropriate? a. Cancel class and ask the participants to return for the next scheduled class time b. Decrease the intensity throughout the class and increase the length of the warm up and cool down periods c. Increase the intensity of workout and shorten the duration of the class d. Encourage participants to drink less fluid to avoid getting nauseous

b. Decrease the intensity throughout the class and increase the length of the warm up and cool down periods

Which of the following groups of muscles contracts concentrically during the lifting phase of an overhead dumbbell press exercise? a. Upper traps and pectoralis minor b. Deltoid and tricps brachii c. Pectoralis major and rhomboids d. Serratus anterior and biceps brachii

b. Deltoid and tricps brachii

What is the MOST effective method for addressing flexibility during the warm-up portion of a group exercise class? a. Perform a series of stretches for all major muscle groups, holding each stretch for 10-30 seconds b. Focus on gradually increasing range of motion through a series of dynamic movements c. Encourage the use of propioceptive neuromuscular facilitation to prepare the participants for the upcoming exercises d. Keep the participants moving through the use of ballistic stretches and dynamic full ROM movements

b. Focus on gradually increasing range of motion through a series of dynamic movements

Which of the following would be the BEST assessment of muscular endurance? a. Step test b. Push up test c. Sit and reach test d. Full sit up test

b. Push up test

What should a trainer have a diabetic participant do if his pre-exercise blood glucose level is 90 mg/dL? a. Postpone his participation until he has worked with his doctor to get his blood glucose levels under better control b. Recommend that he consume carbs, wait until his blood glucose level increases, and then discuss his return c. Commend him on his sub-100 blood glucose level and lead him in an extended workout d. Make note of his pre- blood glucose level in his file and make sure he is properly hydrated before starting the exercise class

b. Recommend that he consume carbs, wait until his blood glucose level increases, and then discuss his return to the class

What would the be the BEST technique that a GFI could use to provide feedback for participants? a. postpone giving feedback until after class b. deliver feedback as soon as possible after the exercise c. guide them to perform in a manner that meets the instructor's and other participants abilities d. encourage participants to give each other feedback to create a supportive group environment

b. deliver feedback as soon as possible after the exercise

Which of the following occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased? a. Positive reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Extinction d. Punishment

c) Extinction Extinction occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 73

After several months of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client's self-efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer provides to the client? a. The trainer should increase the amount of external feedback b. The amount of feedback should not change c. The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback d. The trainer should immediately stop providing external feedback

c) The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback As self-efficacy and ability build, trainers should taper off the amount of external feedback they provide, encouraging the clients to start providing feedback for themselves. Clients must learn to reinforce their own behaviors by providing internal encouragement, error correction, and even punishment. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 75

Which os the following would be the best initial recommendation for a participant with osteoporosis who has been cleared by his physician for exercise? a. Incorporate rest periods between sets initially, and then reduce their duration as intensity increases b. Perform 3-5 sets of each exercise to induce momentary muscle fatigue c. Attend a strength-training class two to three times a week d. Increase resistance when eight repetitions are performed comfortably

c. Attend a strength-training class two to three times a week

Which of the following is reflective of the autonomous stage of learning process? a. Correctly completing basic squat repetition b. performing basic pushups with minimal cueing c. Perform consistent step movements one the BOSU while keeping up with beat of the music d. Increase from 10 lbs weight to 15 lbs weights in a week's time for bicep curls

c. Perform consistent step movements one the BOSU while keeping up with beat of the music

What method of intensity monitoring is MOST appropriate for a woman who is in her fourth month of pregnancy? a. Karvonen formula b. Metabolic equivalents c. Ratings of perceived exertion d. Percentage of maximal heart rate

c. Ratings of perceived exertion

Which of the following statements least accurately describes the Golgi Tendon Organ function? a. During static stretch, the GTO causes an inhibition of the muscle group being stretched b. The GTO allows for reduction of tension an a more effective stretch c. The GTO can affect a static stretch by causing a contraction of the muscle through autogenic inhibition d. The GTO and the muscle spindles work together

c. The GTO can affect a static stretch by causing a contraction of the muscle through autogenic inhibition

Which postural deviation is MOST commonly found associated with weakness of the rhomboids and trap muscles? a. sway-back b. lordosis c. kyphosis d. scolios

c. kyphosis

What is the caloric content of an energy bar that has 22 grams of carbohydrate, 8 grams of fat, and 15 grams of protein?

carbs = 4, protein = 4, fat = 9, 220 calories

Which of the following intervention strategies would be LEAST APPROPRIATE when working with someone in the precontemplation stage? a. Make inactivity a relevant issue b. Provide information about the risks of being inactive and the benefits of being active c. Provide information from multiple sources (e.g., news, posters, pamphlets, general health-promotion material) d. Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys

d) Introduce different types of exercise activities to find something the individual enjoys This intervention is most appropriate for someone in the preparation stage. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 4th edition, p. 69

What would be the MOST appropriate instruction to give a new class participant who is six months pregnant? a. Avoid indoor cycling due to body mechanics and positioning concerns b. Perform exercise at an intensity that correlates with the low to mid range of her HHR c. Avoid the semirecumbent position during exercise d. Avoid overhead lifting in order to prevent back irritation

d. Avoid overhead lifting in order to prevent back irritation

Which of the following exercises has a primary focus of increasing strength in pectoralis major muscles? a. Standing dumbbell flies with elbows bent and upper arms moving horizontally b. Front plank with hands on the ground and elbows extended c. Dumbbell lateral raises d. Medicine ball chest pass

d. Medicine ball chest pass

Agility, balance, and coordination are examples of which of the following? a. Physical fitness skills b. Genetic attributes c. Aerobic fitness skills d. Motor skills

d. Motor skills

The pectoralis major is a prime mover for the shoulder ________ in the sagittal plane.

flexion

Which of the following fitness modalities is considered MOST beneficial to a person with osteoporosis?

free weights

Joe has reached his goals and now wants to maintain his current level of strength. The trainer should modify Joe's workout by decreasing ________.

his sessions to 2-3 days per week of total-body training in each session.

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on exercise performance?

oxygen extraction

Of the following methods used to determine exercise intensity, which uses resting heart rate in its equation?

percent heart rate reserve

Describe the Health Belief Model

predicts that most people will engage in a health behaviour based on the PERCEIVED THREAT they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the behaviour. CH 4, P. 64

Describe Operant Conditioning

process by which behaviors are influenced by their consequences. It examines the relationship between ANTECEDENTS, behaviors and CONSEQUENCES.

In response to training at the same submaximal workload, approximately how much time is needed for a decrease in exercise heart rate to take place

six weeks

Which muscle is a prime mover for internal rotation of the shoulder girdle?

subscapularis

Shaping Refers to?

using REINFORCEMENTS to gradually achieve a target behavior 73.

Which of the following is the LEAST effective option for a client with advanced peripheral vascular disease beginning an exercise program?

walking

What does Extinction refer to?

when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed. The likelyhood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased. 73