ACE Exam Study: Client Interviews and Assessments

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

Jeanette is a 55-year-old woman who exercises regularly. What is her estimated maximum heart rate? a. 165 bpm b. 220 bpm c. 185 bpm d. 55 bpm

a. 165 bpm

Your new client is a 52-year-old man, who has hypertension. What is his estimated maximum heart rate? a. 168 beats per minute b. 186 beats per minute c. 152 beats per minute d. 160 beats per minute

a. 168 beats per minute

Peter is a 47-year-old male with a BMI of 31. He has been leading a sedentary lifestyle until recently hiring you. What is his risk stratification? a. +3 b. +2 c. +1 d. -1

a. +3

Jose is 18 years old. What is his estimated maximum heart rate? a. 202 bpm b. 200 bpm c. 220 bpm d. 218 bpm

a. 202 bpm

You have designed an exercise program for Carol. She plans on working out with you on Mondays and Wednesdays and is motivated to exercise on her own time as well. To help increase her self-awareness, and give her a more objective view of her behavior, you ask her to log her activities. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Carol? a. Action Stage b. Planning Stage c. Investigation Stage d. Rapport Stage

a. Action Stage

There are six external rotators of the hip. Which of the following muscles is not one of them? a. Adductor magnus b. Gluteus minimus c. Gluteus medius d. Quadratus femoris

a. Adductor magnus

Which of the following demographic factors does not affect adherence to physical activity programs? a. Age b. Income c. Gender d. Education

a. Age

Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the amount of work performed in a given unit of time? a. Anaerobic Power b. Anaerobic Capacity c. Agility d. Speed

a. Anaerobic Power

Which phase of cardiorespiratory training is considered the highest level of work and the majority of your clients will never reach this phase? a. Anaerobic-power training b. Anaerobic-endurance training c. Aerobic-base training d. Aerobic-efficiency training

a. Anaerobic-power training

Which of the following movement screens examines symmetrical lower-extremity mobility and stability and upper-extremity stability? a. Bend and lift screen b. Hurdle step screen c. Thoracic spine mobility screen d. Shoulder push stabilization screen

a. Bend and lift screen

Mike is trying to understand how to perform a squat after you have explained the skill to him. In what stage of learning in application to the client-trainer relationship is Mike in? a. Cognitive stage of learning b. Associative stage of learning c. Autonomous stage of learning d. Feedback stage of learning

a. Cognitive stage of learning

Your client has a sedentary lifestyle and has noticed her health steadily declining. In what stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change would your client begin to consider activity and identify implications of inactivity while remaining sedentary? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action

a. Contemplation

Before adding weighted loads to client exercises, you should make sure your client is proficient in which of the following movement patterns? a. Core stabilization b. 1 RM c. Plyometric jumps d. Dynamic warm ups

a. Core stabilization

Which of the following is a step in determining an individual's goal weight based on their goal body fat percentage? a. Determine lean body weight b. Administer aerobic fitness test c. Calculate Body Mass Index d. Calculate waist-to-hip ratio

a. Determine lean body weight

Your client mentions that they have completed a fasting plasma glucose test and have a blood glucose level of 127. Which type of disease could be associated with your client? a. Diabetes b. Dyslipidemia c. Peripheral vascular disease d. Stoke

a. Diabetes

Don is a 60-year-old man with high blood pressure and currently taking Angiotensinconverting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, as prescribed by his physician. It is important for you to understand that this medication will cause a decrease in blood pressure at rest and during exercise. Which of the following medications also decreases blood pressure? a. Diuretics b. Decongestants c. Antihistamines d. Ibuprofen

a. Diuretics

Which of the following is an example of a question that may appear on the Readiness to Change Questionnaire? a. Do you have support for making this change from friends, family and loved ones? b. Do you have a history of any illness? c. Do you suffer from eating disorder(s)? d. Do you eat a balanced diet?

a. Do you have support for making this change from friends, family and loved ones?

How often should a trainer have a client complete the Physical Readiness Questionnaire? a. Every 12 months b. After experiencing dizziness and loss of balance c. Once per month d. When the client starts taking new medications for high blood pressure

a. Every 12 months

What information does the Informed Consent form collect? a. Evidence of disclosure. b. Previous exercise history. c. Detailed medical and health information. d. Fitness measurement data.

a. Evidence of disclosure.

In the sagittal plane, which fundamental movements occur? a. Flexion and extension b. Circumduction and opposition c. Rotation and supination d. Adduction and abduction

a. Flexion and extension

When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

Which of the following assesses body fat percentage by measuring the amount of water a person displaces when completely submerged? a. Hydrostatic Weighing b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP) c. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) d. Total Body Electrical Conductivity

a. Hydrostatic Weighing

What is the best method for discussing nutrition with your client? a. Instruct them to go to choosemyplate.gov and to follow the instructions on the web site. b. Formulate a diet plan for your client. c. Discuss supplements that can help them to achieve their goals. d. Let them know which foods to avoid and which they should aim to eat more of.

a. Instruct them to go to choosemyplate.gov and to follow the instructions on the web site.

Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation? a. Knees moving inward b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine c. Lateral torso shift to one side d. Lack of foot stability

a. Knees moving inward

Oxygen is essential to all body tissues for survival. Which of the following is not a problem in the respiratory system that interferes with the body's ability to provide enough oxygen for the increasing demand that occurs during aerobic exercise? a. Lateral epicondylitis b. Bronchitis c. Emphysema d. COPD

a. Lateral epicondylitis

Your client has come to you complaining of lower back pain. Which movement assessment would clear your client of any implications that may result in a referral to another healthcare professional? a. Lumbar extension or cobra pose assessment b. Shoulder impingement assessment c. Cervical spine assessment d. Thoracic spine rotation assessment

a. Lumbar extension or cobra pose assessment

While conducting a thoracic spine mobility screen, your client is only able to rotate 30 degrees. Which areas could be directly affected as a result of this implication? a. Lumbar spine b. Occipital joint c. Subtalar joint d. Iliotibial band

a. Lumbar spine

When measuring a client's blood pressure, where should the stethoscope be placed? a. On the inside of the client's arm at the bend of the elbow. b. On the inside of the client's wrist. c. Above the blood pressure cuff. d. There is no need for a stethoscope.

a. On the inside of the client's arm at the bend of the elbow.

Susie has shown up 15 minutes late to her session. The trainer ends the session on time rather than extending it the 15 minutes Susie was late. Which principal of behavioral change will allow Susie to view the consequence of being tardy and correct her behavior in the future? a. Operant conditioning b. Shaping c. Observational learning d. Cognitions of behavior

a. Operant conditioning

What is the workload of 1 MET associated with? a. Oxygen consumption at rest b. Energy expenditure at rest c. Energy expenditure while performing a low-level task d. Oxygen consumption while performing a low-level task

a. Oxygen consumption at rest

This Questionnaire serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise. a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) b. Readiness to Change Questionnaire c. Health History Questionnaire d. Liability Waiver

a. PAR-Q

When conducting the Stork-Stand balance test on John, he is able to hold the position for 12 seconds before his foot touches the ground. What is the level of his performance based on the Stork-Stand Balance test results? a. Poor b. Fair c. Good d. Excellent

a. Poor

Your client is performing the Sharpened Romberg Test and is only able to sustain the test for 15 seconds. Which of the following is indicative of inadequacy for the inability to reach 30 seconds? (pick two) a. Postural control b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Immobility

a. Postural control c. Static balance

All of the following, except one, are structural abnormalities that can be risk factors for iliotibial band syndrome. Which of the following is not a risk factor for ITBS? a. Pes planus b. Knee varus c. Knee valgus d. Leg-length discrepancy

b. Knee varus

Which of the following tests will help you determine your client's muscular endurance? a. Push up test b. Step test c. 1.5 mile run test d. VT2 threshold test

a. Push up test

What muscle could be hypertonic causing an imbalance and associating with a flat-back posture? a. Rectus abdominis b. Internal oblique c. Lumbar extensors d. Neck flexors

a. Rectus abdominis

Rob is your new client who is 48 years old, has a body mass index of 35 kg/m2, and has prediabetes. He quit smoking 2 months ago and now walks at a moderate-intensity level twice per week. Before you begin your first workout with Rob, what is the most important thing to advise Rob to do? a. Refer to his physician to obtain approval for exercise b. Measure his blood glucose levels prior to his workouts c. Drink a protein shake before the workout d. Let you perform the Rockport fitness walking test

a. Refer to his physician to obtain approval for exercise

Which of the following tests evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness? a. Rockport Fitness Walking Test b. Bodyweight Squat Test c. Bench Press Test d. Leg Press Test

a. Rockport Fitness Walking Test

Many common muscle imbalances and postural deviations can be corrected through exercise. Which of the following is not correctable through exercise? a. Scoliosis b. Scapular protraction c. Forward head position d. Pelvic tilting

a. Scoliosis

You perform a static postural assessment on your client, Kim. You notice she has a lateral spinal curvature. Which postural deviation is Kim experiencing? a. Scoliosis b. Kyphosis c. Lordosis d. Sway back

a. Scoliosis

Which component of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change (TTM) is strongly related to program adoption, program maintenance, and the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in an exercise program? a. Self-efficacy b. Decisional Balance c. Processes of Change d. Precontemplation

a. Self-efficacy

You have screened your client and found that he has very limited dorsiflexion. Which exercise would be most affected by limited dorsiflexion? a. Squatting b. Pull-ups c. Dumbbell press d. Sit-ups

a. Squatting

Your new client is a 20-year-old college soccer player. Which of the following field tests will you administer to assess anaerobic power? a. Standing long jump test and vertical jump test b. 40-yard dash test and pro agility test c. 1 - RM Squat test and 40-yard dash test d. Vertical jump test and pro agility test

a. Standing long jump test and vertical jump test

You are conducting a heart rate assessment to determine the fitness level of your client during rest. Which option would allow for a lower resting heart rate due to an increased amount of blood pumped from the heart? a. Stroke volume b. Hypotension c. Korotkoff sounds d. Cerebrovascular acciden

a. Stroke volume

Which of the following is an example of a non-correctible factor for postural deviation? a. Structural deviations b. Lack of joint stability c. Repetitive motions d. Imbalanced strength-training programs

a. Structural deviations

A static postural assessment is considered very useful and serves as a starting point from which a personal trainer can identify muscle imbalances. Your client exhibits an increased posterior thoracic curve and a decreased anterior lumbar curve. Which of the following postural deviations is your client experiencing? a. Sway back b. Lordosis c. Kyphosis d. Flat back

a. Sway back

You are administering the push-up test to your client to measure her upper-body endurance. What would be a contradiction to administer the push-up test? a. The client is a novice exerciser. b. The client is an individual that has been working out regularly for more than a year. c. The client performed the push-up test within the last 6 months. d. The client has a weight loss goal.

a. The client is a novice exerciser.

Larry is in a seated position for most of the day and complains of tightness in his hips. Which assessment can be used to check the flexibility of the hips? a. Thomas test b. Shoulder pull stabilization screen c. Hurdle step d. Passive straight-leg raise

a. Thomas test

When performing a Static Postural Assessment on your client, you determine that your client has a slight posterior pelvic tilt. This means that the line of symmetry is __________________. a. Tilted Posteriorly b. Tilted Anteriorly c. Neutral d. Tilted to one side of the body

a. Tilted Posteriorly

When filling out the "medications" portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your client lets you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a physician's release for exercise, what is the most important difference in this client's exercise program versus a client who is not taking beta-blockers? a. Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) to determine the level at which he is exercising as his heart rate will not go up. b. Check his blood pressure throughout his session to ensure it does not spike. c. Check his heart rate throughout the session to ensure it does not spike. d. Monitor his consciousness level as beta-blockers will make him drowsy.

a. Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) to determine the level at which he is exercising as his heart rate will not go up.

The trunk lateral endurance test measures the endurance of which primary muscle? a. Multifidi b. Iliocostalis c. Obliques d. Subscapularis

c. Obliques

Your client is going through physiological assessments and you are conducting the ideal goal weight calculation. If the client is 180 pounds and has 25% body fat, and wishes to drop his body fat to 20%, what would be his ideal goal weight? a. 175 lbs. b. 168.75 lbs. c. 160 lbs. d. 155 lbs.

b. 168.75 lbs.

Mark is a 32-year-old man. What is his estimated maximum heart rate? a. 200 bpm b. 188 bpm c. 168 bpm d. 190 bpm

b. 188 bpm

Ken is a 42-year-old man who weighs 220 pounds and has an estimated body-fat percentage of 23%. Ken's goal is to reach a body-fat percentage of 17%. Approximately, what weight goal does he need to make in order to achieve his body-fat percentage goal? a. 211 pounds b. 204 pounds c. 196 pounds d. 188 pounds

b. 204 pounds

What is the total number of calories in this container and the total number of calories that come from fat? NUTRITION FACTS: Servings per container 2 Calories per serving 280 Calories from fat 120 a. 280/13 b. 560/234 c. 560/56 d. 280/113

b. 560/234

Which of the following individuals would be least likely to benefit from Body Mass Index? a. A woman with 30% body fat who weighs 165 pounds. b. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 230 pounds. c. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 160 pounds. d. A woman with 15% body fat who weighs 120 pounds.

b. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 230 pounds.

Which of the following individuals would be least likely to benefit from Body Mass Index? a. A woman with 30% body fat who weighs 165 pounds. b. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 230 pounds. c. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 160 pounds. d. A woman with 15% body fat who weighs 120 pounds.

b. A man with 8% body fat who weighs 230 pounds.

At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel? a. Throughout the entire test b. After reaching the first ventilatory threshold c. After reaching the second ventilatory threshold d. In the last 2 minutes of the test

b. After reaching the first ventilatory threshold

Clients on beta blocker medication during exercise will experience which of the following during a cardiorespiratory fitness test? a. An increase of contractility of the heart with exercise b. An inadequate heart-rate response to exercise c. A significant increase in blood pressure with exercise d. A reduction in heart-rate of 12 bpm at one-minute post-exercise

b. An inadequate heart-rate response to exercise

You are observing your male client's hips in the static posture and notice a deviation. The posterior superior iliac spine is well above the anterior superior iliac spine. What is this deviation called? a. Neutral pelvic position b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Posterior pelvic tilt d. Kyphosis

b. Anterior pelvic tilt

Which stage of learning allows the client to master the basics and handle more specific feedback to refine the motor skill? a. Cognitive stage of learning b. Associative stage of learning c. Autonomous stage of learning d. Feedback stage of learning

b. Associative stage of learning

Which movement screen can be utilized to test for tight plantarflexor muscles? a. Hurdle Step Screen b. Bend and Lift Screen c. Thoracic Spine Mobility Screen d. Shoulder Pull Stabilization Screen

b. Bend and Lift Screen

You are watching your client's heart rate during moderate aerobic exercise and notice that her heart rate is not increasing. Which antihypertensive medication could be preventing your client's heart rate to rise even though she is exercising? a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme Inhibitors b. Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists c. Diuretics d. Beta blockers

b. Beta blockers

Which type of body- composition assessment technique measures the amount of resistance to electric current flow as it passes through the body? a. Body Density (BD) b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) c. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) d. Body mass index (BMI)

b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

Blood pressure is measured within the arterial system. What is the standard site of measurement when assessing a client's blood pressure? a. Popliteal artery b. Brachial artery c. Posterior tibial artery d. Femoral artery

b. Brachial artery

Which cardiorespiratory fitness test is better suited for younger, fit individuals? a. Balke & Ware treadmill test b. Bruce Submaximal treadmill test c. Ebbeling Single-stage treadmill test d. Cycle Ergometer test

b. Bruce Submaximal treadmill test

While performing the 1.5 mile run test, your client stops suddenly and needs to rest. After sitting and resting for a few minutes, he complains of chest pain and extreme difficulty breathing. What action should you take to help your client? a. Refer to the clients' medical release form and contact the physician. b. Call emergency medical services immediately. c. Have the client sit down and drink a little water to see if symptoms subside. d. Recommend that the client inform his or her physician of the symptoms.

b. Call emergency medical services immediately.

You notice your client having dyspnea (difficult or labored breath) during a light aerobic warm up. Which health condition could be affecting his physical activity? a. Atherosclerosis b. Chronic Obstructive pulmonary disease c. Atrophy d. Diabetes

b. Chronic Obstructive pulmonary disease

After administering a static postural assessment, you notice that your client exhibits muscle imbalances and a lateral spinal curvature. This postural deviation can be attributed to many factors that are both correctible and non-correctible. Which of the following factors are non-correctable? a. Lack of joint stability, lack of joint mobility and side dominance b. Congenital conditions, structural deviations and certain types of trauma c. Imbalanced strength training, repetitive movements and lack of joint mobility d. Side dominance, lack of joint stability and muscular pattern overload

b. Congenital conditions, structural deviations and certain types of trauma

Hydrostatic weighting is considered the benchmark for measuring body composition. This concept is based on which of the following equations? a. Mass = Volume/Density b. Density = Mass/Volume c. Residual Volume = Density/Mass d. Density = Residual Volume/Mass

b. Density = Mass/Volume

Ben's blood pressure reading is 134/86. What does number 86 represent? a. Systolic blood pressure b. Diastolic blood pressure c. Distal blood pressure d. Static blood pressure

b. Diastolic blood pressure

Your client tells you that they are taking a calcium channel blocker. How would the calcium channel blocker likely affect your client? a. Water and electrolyte imbalances b. Dilates the arteries which lowers blood pressure c. Prevents the formation of a potent hormone d. An antihypertensive agent

b. Dilates the arteries which lowers blood pressure

After taking the Exercise-Induced Feeling Inventory 12 weeks into their program, your client appears to have the mood profile of "Positive Engagement". What might your client have answered to feeling very strongly? a. Worn out b. Enthusiastic c. Fatigued d. Tired e. a, c and d only

b. Enthusiastic

Which of the following is not a quality of effective listening? a. Encouraging b. Explaining c. Questioning d. Summarizing

b. Explaining

Jan just finished her fitness assessment with you. She is 58, has never engaged in physical activities, and tires easily while climbing stairs and walking her dog. Which 2 components of the Function-Health-Fitness-Performance continuum will Jan need to focus on during the beginning of her exercise program? a. Health and Fitness b. Function and Health c. Fitness and Performance d. Function and Performance

b. Function and Health

Which of the following is an example of a simple and effective stimulus-control strategy? a. Choosing a gym that is out of the direct route between home and work to create willpower. b. Having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts. c. Avoiding a set time to work out as to not get discouraged if you cannot make it in. d. Eating out with friends on their cheat days.

b. Having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts.

You are conducting an initial fitness assessment on your new client, Jan, who is 32 years old. After taking her blood pressure, you record her measurement as 146/92. Which classification of blood pressure does Jan represent? a. Normal b. Hypertension Stage 1 c. Prehypertension d. Hypertension Stage 2

b. Hypertension Stage 1

While performing the Thomas test for hip flexion, you observe that your client is able to keep the back and scrum flat. The back of the lowered thigh does not touch the table, but the knee does flex to 80 degrees. What muscles are suspected to be tight? a. Primary hip flexors b. Iliopsoas c. Rectus femoris d. Both a and c

b. Iliopsoas

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship are health-history and lifestyle questionnaires administered? a. Rapport Stage b. Investigation Stage c. Planning Stage d. Action Stage

b. Investigation Stage

In which stage of the client-trainer relationship should the trainer learn their client's likes and dislikes? a. Planning Stage b. Investigation Stage c. Action Stage d. Maintenance Stage

b. Investigation Stage

In what specific location is the circumference of the upper thigh measured? a. Just above the knee. b. Just below the gluteal fold. c. Half way between the knee and the gluteal fold. d. At the smallest part of the thigh.

b. Just below the gluteal fold.

Personal trainers use motivational interviewing to help clients build self-confidence and to help them become self-motivated. All of the following are components of motivational interviewing, except: a. Ask probing questions b. Keep the conversation direct and to the point c. Listen effectively d. Provide educational information

b. Keep the conversation direct and to the point

Your new client mentions that she has been following a low-carbohydrate diet that includes lots of fasting. What could be a negative result following this type of diet? a. Diabetes b. Ketosis c. Hypoxia d. Hydrolysates

b. Ketosis

One of your new clients has metabolic syndrome. He has been cleared for exercise by his physician. Which of the following recommendations are best suited to begin training your new client? a. Moderate impact activities. No resistance training. b. Low impact activities. Twice a week resistance training. c. Clients should begin with 500 minutes' total for the week. d. Clients should exercise 7 days a week with low intensity.

b. Low impact activities. Twice a week resistance training.

Wendy is a 50-year-old woman who has not exercised in 3 years. She has no family history of heart disease and is a non-smoker. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on her cardiovascular disease risk factors? a. Moderate risk, doctor's supervision needed. b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary. c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary.

What is the best definition of VO2 max? a. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per pound of body weight. b. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body weight. c. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per pound of body weight. d. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per kg of body weight.

b. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body weight.

Molly is a 25-year-old woman who wants to lose weight and improve lower body strength. Which of the following is an example of an effective SMART goal for Molly? a. Molly will complete 30 squats in 2 minutes. b. Molly will complete 30 body weight squats in 2 minutes within one week. c. Molly will eat healthier within 2 weeks. d. Molly will lose 5 pounds.

b. Molly will complete 30 body weight squats in 2 minutes within one week.

What component of fitness does the body weight squat test measure? a. Cardiorespiratory endurance b. Muscular endurance c. Muscular strength d. Muscular power

b. Muscular endurance

What component of fitness does the push-up test measure? a. Cardiorespiratory endurance b. Muscular endurance c. Muscular strength d. Muscular power

b. Muscular endurance

A new client informs you she is taking a diuretic. What effect would you expect to see on her heart rate response during exercise? a. Resting heart rate up b. No significant change c. Exercising heart rate down d. Resting heart rate down

b. No significant change

Which of the following is not part of the traditional classification system to categorize resting heart rate? a. Sinus bradycardia, or slow HR: RHR less than 60 bpm b. Normal sinus rhythm: RHR 100 to 120 bpm c. Normal sinus rhythm: RHR 60 to 100 bpm d. Sinus tachycardia, or fast HR: RHR greater than 100 bpm

b. Normal sinus rhythm: RHR 100 to 120 bpm

If a client has too many goals or has goals that are too difficult to attain, the client's willpower may fail after only a short period of time. Since willpower is inherently limited, what is a strategy to conserve it? a. Introduce food choices when tired. b. Plan in advance. c. Take barriers as they come. d. Rely on your emotional side to dictate your actions.

b. Plan in advance.

In which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action

b. Preparation

What information does the Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire collect? a. Evidence of disclosure. b. Previous exercise including adherence experience. c. Detailed medical and health information. d. Fitness measurement data.

b. Previous exercise including adherence experience.

In what stage of the client-trainer relationship will the trainer first establish understanding and trust by listening to a new clients questions and concerns regarding her anxiety and insecurity of working out in a new environment? a. Investigation Stage b. Rapport Stage c. Action Stage d. Contemplation Stage

b. Rapport Stage

When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings

Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most important thing to do for this client? a. Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising. b. Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program. c. Monitor her blood glucose levels throughout the session. d. Have her fill out a waiver of liability prior to exercise.

b. Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program.

You are using a plumb line to monitor your client's static posture when you notice an excessive lordotic curve. In which plane would a lordotic curve be in? a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Frontal d. Rotational

b. Sagittal

You are going through an initial consultation with a potential client and he is explaining the struggles he has had with exercising and how it is always difficult sticking with a program. You are eager to get this person signed up for training and so you listen to keywords and hot buttons you can use to get him on-board. What type of listening are you demonstrating? a. Indifferent listening b. Selective listening c. Passive listening d. Active listening

b. Selective listening

A client has become very successful at performing a lunge and the trainer acknowledges the progress by reinforcing the client's performance and adding weight to increase the skill demand. Which principle of behavior is being used to gradually achieve a target behavior? a. Operant conditioning b. Shaping c. Observational learning d. Cognitions of behavior

b. Shaping

All of the following are characteristic of rapport, except: a. Creating impressions of professionalism b. Short duration c. Demonstrating warmth and genuineness d. Exhibiting empathy

b. Short duration

What would be an example of a correctable postural deviation? a. Congenital conditions b. Side dominance c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Tibial torsion

b. Side dominance

In which assessment can a personal trainer determine potential movement compensations associated with poor posture? a. Movement screens b. Static postural assessments c. Balance and core assessments d. Body composition assessments

b. Static postural assessments

Nicole is meeting you for her fitness assessment. You will be administering a skinfold measurement test with skinfold calipers. To ensure testing accuracy, which of the following is not recommended? a. All measurements are taken on the right side of the body. b. Take the measurements immediately following exercise. c. Clients should be optimally hydrated. d. Each site should be measured a minimum of two times.

b. Take the measurements immediately following exercise.

What is considered the easiest method for assessing a client's exercise intensity? a. Rating of perceived exertion b. Talk test c. Lactate threshold d. Second ventilator threshold

b. Talk test

When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers "yes" to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in physical activity. What is the next step in his fitness program? a. Begin training at a low intensity. b. Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise. c. Conduct a fitness appraisal. d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire.

b. Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise.

When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers "yes" to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a prescription blood pressure medication. What is the next step in his fitness program? a. Begin training at a low intensity. b. Talk with his doctor about his readiness for exercise. c. Conduct a fitness appraisal. d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire

b. Talk with his doctor about his readiness for exercise.

The body can be broken down into regions that are prone to be either relatively stable or mobile in terms of the joints that are involved. Which of the following has the correct relationship between region and its role in joint mobility and stability? a. Hips - stable b. Thoracic Spine- mobile c. Scapulothoracic - mobile d. Knee - mobile

b. Thoracic Spine- mobile

You decide to run some assessments to test a client's mobility. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate? a. Thomas test b. Thoracic spine mobility screen c. Sharpened Romberg test d. Trunk flexor endurance test

b. Thoracic spine mobility screen

What are the correct units of measurement for calculating body mass index (BMI)? a. Weight (lB./Height (in) b. Weight (kg)/Height (m) c. Height (in)/Weight (lB. d. Height (m)/Weight (kg)

b. Weight (kg)/Height (m)

A client's resting heart rate should always be checked ____________________. a. Before breakfast b. When the client is sitting c. When the client is lying down d. Before the client gets out of bed in the morning

b. When the client is sitting

What is the approximate standard deviation of an individual's maximum heart rate? a. +/- 10 bpm b. +/- 15 bpm c. +/- 12 bpm d. +/- 18 bpm

c. +/- 12 bpm

A certain amount of body fat is necessary for insulation and thermoregulation, hormone production, cushioning of vital organs, and maintenance of certain body functions. For women, what percentage is considered essential body fat? a. 25-20% b. 14-20% c. 10-13% d. 6-9%

c. 10-13%

Many estimation calculations are based on the of 220-age equations for estimating maximum heart rate. This formula is subject to a standard deviation of approximately how many beats per minute? a. 6 beats per minute b. 16 beats per minute c. 12 beats per minute d. 8 beats per minute

c. 12 beats per minute

What is the total number of calories you would consume if you ate all of the servings of this snack? NUTRITION FACTS: Servings in bag 4 Calories per serving 155 a. 155 b. 310 c. 620 d. 830

c. 620

While performing the passive straight-leg raise, what degree of movement before rotation of the pelvis are you looking for? a. 60 degrees b. 70 degrees c. 80 degrees or above with opposite leg flat on the mat or table d. Above 80 degrees with the opposite leg lifting off the mat or table

c. 80 degrees or above with opposite leg flat on the mat or table

Which of the following is not an effective cognitive behavioral technique? a. Decision making b. Feedback c. A written contract d. Goal setting

c. A written contract

Which man has a waist to hip ratio that puts him at risk for obesity-related disease? a. Mark with a ratio of 0.82 b. Jim with a ratio of 0.90 c. Alex with a ratio of .96 d. Both Jim and Alex

c. Alex with a ratio of .96

The informed consent form is best used for which purpose? a. As a liability waiver b. To record fitness assessments c. An understanding between the client and trainer as to the risks associated with exercise d. A release form detailing medical information

c. An understanding between the client and trainer as to the risks associated with exercise

Which woman has a waist to hip ratio that puts her at risk for obesity-related disease? a. Jeanie with a ratio of 0.81 b. Emily with a ratio of 0.60 c. April with a ratio of .87 d. Both Jeanie and April

c. April with a ratio of .87

Crystal has developed a good understanding of how to do a push-up and can perform the movement with little correction or feedback from the personal trainer. Which stage of learning would Crystal fall into? a. Cognitive stage of learning b. Associative stage of learning c. Autonomous stage of learning d. Feedback stage of learning

c. Autonomous stage of learning

You are conducting the hurdle step movement screen and take note that there is a major discrepancy between the right and left legs. Which exercise would you want to avoid until the discrepancy has been improved? a. Plank b. Step ups c. Bilateral squat d. Split stance squat

c. Bilateral squat

Which of the following assessments does NOT determine body fat percentage? a. Hydrostatic Weighing b. Skinfold Measurement c. Body Mass Index d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis

c. Body Mass Index

Collecting heart rate throughout a cardiovascular assessment is important in order to determine if an individual is experiencing which of the following conditions? a. Thermoregulation b. Blood lactate accumulation c. Cardiovascular drift d. Anaerobic threshold

c. Cardiovascular drift

When checking a client's heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site? a. Femoral artery b. Jugular vein c. Carotid artery d. Tibial artery

c. Carotid artery

When the trainer instructs a client to measure his heart rate by palpating at the neck, which artery is involved with this pulse location? a. Femoral artery b. Radial artery c. Carotid artery d. Popliteal artery

c. Carotid artery

Which stage of learning is your client in when first learning how to properly perform reverse lunges? a. Associative Stage b. Autonomous Stage c. Cognitive Stage d. Action Stage

c. Cognitive Stage

Which of the following medications can affect a person's exercising heart rate? a. Diuretics b. Antihistamines c. Cold Medications d. Antidepressants

c. Cold Medications

Which term describes muscle action which shortens to create muscle tension? a. Isometric b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. None of the above

c. Concentric

What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect? a. Evidence of disclosure. b. Previous exercise history including adherence experience. c. Detailed medical and health information. d. Fitness measurement data.

c. Detailed medical and health information.

John has high blood pressure and has not consumed an adequate amount of fluids. He is complaining of dizziness. Which antihypertensive medication can increase blood volume and may predispose a client to dehydration? a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme Inhibitors b. Angiotensin-II receptor antagonists c. Diuretics d. Bronchodilators

c. Diuretics

Just as interview techniques are important in establishing rapport, trainers need to select a communication style that matches the client's needs and personality style. Which of the following styles would provide relevant information in a concise manner and allow the client to make a more informed decision? a. Preaching style b. Counseling style c. Education style d. Directing style

c. Education style

You are talking to your new client who has had multiple unsuccessful attempts at accomplishing his fitness goals when joining a gym. He does the same routine for about a month and then quits due to a lack of results and this has given him a negative attitude towards working out. Which of the following, in the client's file, would document this information and be considered when implementing strategies for improving motivation and adherence? a. Informed consent b. Liability waiver c. Exercise history and attitude questionnaire d. Medical Release

c. Exercise history and attitude questionnaire

You are conducting a postural screening on your client by having her place one finger on her collar bone and another finger right above on her cheek. What would you be looking for? a. Posterior pelvic tilt b. Medially rotated humerus c. Forward head posture d. Scoliosis

c. Forward head posture

What is considered the natural progression of exercise considerations when working with a new client? a. Performance, fitness, health and function b. Fitness, health, function, performance c. Function, health, fitness, performance d. Health, fitness, performance, function

c. Function, health, fitness, performance

When beginning an exercise program with a client, you determine that he has checked "yes" to 4 risk factors on the Health Questionnaire. The next step in the training process is to: a. Design adaptive exercises that will work around his risks. b. Ask to speak to his physician to obtain approval for exercise. c. Give your client a form to be signed by his physician, approving the exercise program. d. Apologize to the client and let him know that you cannot train him since he has 3 or more risk factors.

c. Give your client a form to be signed by his physician, approving the exercise program.

During the initial investigation stage with your new client, you notice she has answered YES to having a thyroid condition and taking a new medication for elevated blood pressure. Which evaluation form would have collected information from? a. Attitude Questionnaire b. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire c. Health History Questionnaire d. Risk Classification Questionnaire

c. Health History Questionnaire

98.9 million Americans age 20 and above have total cholesterol levels above 200 mg/dl. Which type of lipoprotein is inversely related to CAD and lowers the risk of developing CAD? a. Low-density lipoprotein b. Very low-density protein c. High-density lipoprotein d. Non-HDL cholesterol

c. High-density lipoprotein

Anterior tilting of the pelvis is generally associated with sedentary lifestyles where individuals spend countless hours in seated positions. Which of the following group of tight and shortened muscles is causing this deviation? a. Hamstrings b. Lumbar extensors c. Hip flexors d. Hip extensors

c. Hip flexors

When performing a risk stratification prior to engaging in physical-activity, what is the first step that should be followed? a. Performing a risk stratification based on CAD risk factors b. Determining the need for a medical exam/clearance and medical supervision c. Identifying coronary artery disease risk factors d. Begin assessments

c. Identifying coronary artery disease risk factors

Your client says multiple times that he does not think that he has the capability at succeeding at his goal. All of the following are proper questions that the client can use to help replace irrational cognitions with healthier and factual thinking, except: a. What is the evidence for and against this thought? b. What would I tell a friend in this same situation as opposed to what I tell myself? c. If I were to give up, would anything really happen? d. Are there any other possible responses besides blaming myself?

c. If I were to give up, would anything really happen?

Jill is a new client that you are meeting with this morning. You plan on asking her what time of day she enjoys working out, what her previous experiences were with exercise, and what type of classes or workouts have worked and not worked for her in the past. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Jill? a. Planning Stage b. Action Stage c. Investigation Stage d. Rapport Stage

c. Investigation Stage

Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin? a. Rapport Stage b. Planning Stage c. Investigation Stage d. Action Stage

c. Investigation Stage

Which of the following is an example of empathy toward a client? a. Asking questions about their relationships and personal life to show that you care. b. Telling them about yourself in detail so they feel that they can relate to you. c. Listening to what they say and repeating it back so they know you are listening. d. None of the above.

c. Listening to what they say and repeating it back so they know you are listening.

You are performing a static posture and looking for imbalances. What option should a trainer keep in mind while looking at your client's posture? a. Look for minor postural asymmetries b. The body should be perfectly symmetrical c. Look for gross imbalances d. Overanalyzing asymmetries is time-consuming but necessary

c. Look for gross imbalances

You have observed that a client is exhibiting a muscle imbalance commonly associated with lordosis posture. Which muscle do you suspect is shortened? a. Hip extensors b. Neck flexors c. Lumbar extensors d. Scapular stabilizers

c. Lumbar extensors

Which of the following is administered to assess a person's level of cardiorespiratory function? a. Maximum Heart Rate calculation b. Body Mass Index (BMI) c. Maximal Oxygen Uptake (VO2 max) d. Push up test

c. Maximal Oxygen Uptake (VO2 max)

Approximately 85 percent of ankle sprains are to the lateral structures of the ankle. All of the following are lateral ankle ligaments, except: a. Anterior talofibular ligament b. Calcaneofibular ligament c. Medial collateral ligament d. Posterior talofibular ligament

c. Medial collateral ligament

In what specific location should the arm be measured? a. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the bicep flexed. b. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the arm relaxed. c. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the arm relaxed. d. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the bicep flexed.

c. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the arm relaxed.

Amy is a 48-year-old woman with 3 risk factors according to the ACSM risk stratification. Which of the following statements is true regarding her ability to participate in an exercise program? a. Low risk, moderate exercise approved. b. High risk, medical exam necessary. c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. d. Moderate risk, medical exam not necessary before vigorous exercise.

c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.

Bill is a 50-year-old man with a family history of heart disease. His body mass index is 20 and he has been running 3 miles 3-4 days a week for a year. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors? a. Moderate risk, doctor's supervision needed. b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary. c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise.

Your client has been complaining of pain in her anterior lower leg. What is the best course of action to take in continuing her exercise program? a. Continue as planned. b. Tell her she has shin splints and to stretch and ice them when she gets home. c. Modify the program with cross training. d. Cancel her sessions until the pain goes away.

c. Modify the program with cross training.

Your client is complaining of pain with extension of her elbow. She has a history of lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow). What is the best course of action to take in continuing her exercise program? a. Continue as planned. b. Tell her she has tennis elbow and to rest and ice it when she gets home. c. Modify the program with cross training. d. Cancel her sessions until the pain goes away.

c. Modify the program with cross training.

Jeff has recently begun regular physical activity, but is still surrounded by inactive family members that do not understand the importance of physical activity. Which principle of behavior may influence Jeff enough to affect his likelihood of success? a. Operant conditioning b. Shaping c. Observational learning d. Cognitions of behavior

c. Observational learning

How often should Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPEs) be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment? a. Once every 3 minutes b. Once every 30 seconds c. Once every minute d. Once every 2 minutes

c. Once every minute

Your client initially tells you that she has a general goal to lose weight. After questioning her a bit further, she tells you a more specific goal is that she wishes to lose 10 lbs. in 2 months. In what stage of the client-trainer relationship would this SMART goal be developed? a. Rapport stage b. Investigation stage c. Planning stage d. Action stage

c. Planning stage

Which of the following is NOT necessary to monitor when observing a Bend and Lift Screen? a. Degree of lordosis in the lower back b. Stability of the feet c. Position of the scapulae relative to the ribcage d. Changes in head position

c. Position of the scapulae relative to the ribcage

The Vertical Jump test assesses what component of fitness? a. Endurance b. Strength c. Power d. Agility

c. Power

John understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He has no intention of being on any kind of exercise program since he believes he has never had any weight loss success in the past. According to the Transtheoretical Model of Behavioral Change (TTM), what stage of change is John in? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action

c. Precontemplation

Which of the following tests evaluates muscular fitness? a. Balke & Ware Treadmill Exercise Test b. YMCA Submaximal Step Test c. Push Up Test d. YMCA Bike Test

c. Push Up Test

Which of the following tests will help you determine your client's muscular endurance level? a. 1 -RM Bench press b. 1-RM Squat test c. Push up test d. Both a and c

c. Push up test

When checking a client's heart rate, what is a commonly palpated site? a. Femoral artery b. Jugular vein c. Radial artery d. Tibial artery

c. Radial artery

Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation? a. Knees moving inward b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine c. Raised heels d. Lateral torso shift to one side

c. Raised heels

Dan is a new client whom you are meeting with for the first time today. He will most likely be evaluating you as a trainer through both your verbal and non-verbal communication. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Dan? a. Planning Stage b. Action Stage c. Rapport Stage d. Investigation Stage

c. Rapport Stage

Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the rate at which an individual responds to a stimulus? a. Anaerobic Power b. Agility c. Reactivity d. Coordination

c. Reactivity

A trainer who wishes to further develop his or her active listening skills should consider an action plan that consists of all the following options, except: a. Identifying areas that need improvement b. Measuring improvements in specific ways c. Remaining passive to achieve the improvements d. Taking active steps to achieve the improvements

c. Remaining passive to achieve the improvements

Which method of body fat measurement is not accurate when used on obese clients? a. Hydrostatic Weighing b. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis c. Skinfold Measurement d. Total Body Electrical Conductivity

c. Skinfold Measurement

Which action comes first after conducting static and dynamic analyses and determining slight postural deviations? a. Movement Training b. Load and Performance Training c. Stability and Mobility Training d. None of the Above

c. Stability and Mobility Training

According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure? a. Core Function b. Balance c. Static Posture d. Health Related Assessments

c. Static Posture

While performing a hip bridge or a hip extension movement with your client, she tells you that the muscle being activated are the hamstrings. What would be the cause of the prime mover of the gluteals to become dormant in hip extension and allow the hamstrings to become the prime mover? a. Co-contraction b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Hypertonicity

c. Synergistic dominance

What is the purpose of the Rockport fitness walking test? a. To estimate VO2 max from a client's pre-exercise heart rate b. To determine the client's muscular endurance c. To estimate VO2 max from a client's immediate post-exercise heart rate d. To determine VO2 max from a client's exercise heart rate

c. To estimate VO2 max from a client's immediate post-exercise heart rate

What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in WOMEN? a. Triceps, chest and thigh b. Biceps, thigh and suprailium c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium

Which of the following is not a part of muscular endurance testing? a. Push-up test b. Body-weight test c. Vertical jump test d. Curl-up test

c. Vertical jump test

How do you determine a person's waist-to-hip ratio? a. Hip measurement divided by waist measurement b. Waist measurement multiplied by hip measurement c. Waist measurement divided by hip measurement d. Use a chart to determine

c. Waist measurement divided by hip measurement

What is an example of testing absolute strength? a. Bodyweight squat test b. Push-up test c. Pre-Agility test d. 1 RM leg-press test

d. 1 RM leg-press test

What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? a. 130/70 mmHg b. 120/80 mmHg c. 121/81 mmHg d. 140/90 mmHg

d. 140/90 mmHg

Rob is your new client who is 48 years old, has a body mass index of 35 kg/m2, and has prediabetes. He quit smoking 2 months ago and now walks at a moderate-intensity level twice per week. Based on ACSM Risk Stratification, how many risk factors does Rob have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

d. 4

Which individual might a muscular power test be inappropriate for? a. A 30-year-old man who is interested in pushing his physical fitness to the next level. b. A 13-year-old boy looking to improve soccer performance. c. A 25-year-old woman looking to improve her body fat percentage and tone. d. A 56-year-old woman looking to get back into skiing.

d. A 56-year-old woman looking to get back into skiing.

A one-repetition maximum test evaluates which type of strength? a. Relative strength b. Endurance c. Power d. Absolute strength

d. Absolute strength

Deb has been engaging in regular physical activity for the past 4 months. In which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change would Deb be in? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action

d. Action

John has been set up with a self-monitoring system that tracks the form of resistance he will use and the amount of repetitions and sets he completes during his workout. What stage of the client-trainer relationship is John in? a. Rapport stage b. Investigation stage c. Planning stage d. Action stage

d. Action stage

What style of listening is considered most effective when building rapport with your clients? a. Indifferent listening b. Selective listening c. Passive listening d. Active listening

d. Active listening

Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates how accurately and rapidly a person can change direction? a. Anaerobic Power b. Speed c. Reactivity d. Agility

d. Agility

Which of the following assessments should be repeated after 1-3 months? a. Resting Vital Signs b. Body Composition c. Static Posture and Movement Screens d. All of the Above e. Both a and b

d. All of the Above

Which of the following is a contraindication to performing a 1 Repetition Maximum test? a. Improper form b. Beginning exercisers c. Individuals with hypertension d. All of the Above

d. All of the Above

Which of the following is important to consider when choosing which assessments to utilize with a client? a. Goals b. Physical Limitations c. Age d. All of the Above e. Both a and b only

d. All of the Above

Which of the following statements is true based on a one inch increase in a man's waist circumference and his risk level? a. His blood pressure increases by 10% b. His risk for metabolic syndrome increases by 18% c. His triglycerides increase by 18% d. All of the Above e. Only a and b

d. All of the Above

Which of the following statements is true based on a one inch increase in a man's waist circumference and his risk level? a. His blood pressure increases by 10% b. His risk for metabolic syndrome increases by 18% c. His triglycerides increase by 18% d. All of the Above e. Only a and b

d. All of the Above

Which of the following factors influence a client's resting heart rate? a. Fatigue b. Drugs and medication c. Caffeine d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following symptoms merit test termination during any test that involves muscular endurance? a. Angina b. Cyanosis c. Wheezing d. All of the above e. Both a and c

d. All of the above

Your client has osteoporosis. When designing her exercise program, you may need to avoid which of the following movements? a. Spinal flexion b. Pulling exercises from behind the head c. Adducting or abducting the legs against resistance d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following functional fitness tests is not contraindicated for individuals who suffer from low-back pain, have had recent back surgery, and/or are in the midst of an acute low-back flare-up? a. Trunk lateral endurance test b. Trunk extensor endurance test c. Trunk flexor endurance test d. Apley's scratch test

d. Apley's scratch test

In what specific location is the abdominal circumference measured? a. Around the ribcage. b. Around the pelvic bone. c. Around the smallest portion of the abdomen. d. At the level of the umbilicus.

d. At the level of the umbilicus.

Which form of body fat testing measures electrical signals as they pass through the body? a. Hydrostatic Weighing b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP) c. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA)

d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA)

Which of the following is not an example of a cardiorespiratory fitness assessment? a. Bruce submaximal treadmill exercise test b. Cycle ergometer test c. YMCA submaximal step test d. Body-weight squat test

d. Body-weight squat test

Each of the following questions are likely to appear on a Par-Q questionnaire with the exception of one. Which question would likely not appear on a Par-Q? a. Have you experienced chest pain? b. Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs? c. Do you have any joint pain? d. Can you exercise during your work day?

d. Can you exercise during your work day?

Amy is a new client who works at a computer for her job and is complaining of neck soreness and stiffness. While performing a basic postural assessment you determine that Amy has a forward-head position. What muscles are suspected to be tight because of this altered position? a. Upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids b. Pectoralis major, cervical spine flexors and serratus anterior c. Cervical spine extensors, levator scapula and shoulder adductors d. Cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae and upper trapezius

d. Cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae and upper trapezius

You notice a forward head position when assessing your client. Which muscles are considered tight and restricted? a. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, levator scapula b. Pectoralis major, subscapularis, latissimus dorsi c. Cervical spine extensors, serratus anterior, latissimus dorsi d. Cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, upper trapezius

d. Cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, upper trapezius

According to the Jackson and Pollock three-site skinfold test, what are the 3 sites to be measured on men? a. Triceps, thigh and suprailium b. Triceps, thigh and abdomen c. Chest, thigh, and suprailium d. Chest, thigh and abdomen

d. Chest, thigh and abdomen

What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in MEN? a. Triceps, chest and thigh b. Biceps, thigh and suprailium c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

Which of the following statements is not true regarding participation and adherence in an exercise program? a. A client's past exercise history is a predictable behavior with exercise. b. Social support plays an important role in maintaining an exercise program. c. A client's location relative to the exercise facility can have an influence. d. Clients who perform moderate intensity exercises are almost twice as likely to drop out.

d. Clients who perform moderate intensity exercises are almost twice as likely to drop out.

Which of the following is NOT a fitness indicator for SMART goal setting? a. Skill level b. Body weight c. Body size d. Clothing size

d. Clothing size

Bill has been in a regular exercise regime with you for a while now, but has experienced a lapse and has developed negative feelings towards exercise. Which principal of behavioral change would be affected with his negative thoughts? a. Operant conditioning b. Shaping c. Observational learning d. Cognitions of behavior

d. Cognitions of behavior

At what times should heart rate be monitored throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment? a. Every 30 seconds b. Every minute c. Every 3 minutes d. Continuously

d. Continuously

What muscles would be inhibited in the squat movement causing lumbar dominance? a. Hip flexors b. Erector spinae c. Quadriceps d. Core abdominal

d. Core abdominal

Which of the following is not a potential determinant for physical activity? a. Personal attributes b. Environmental factors c. Physical-activity factors d. Current weight

d. Current weight

What is the purpose of the pre-participation screening? a. A minimal health-risk appraisal. b. Identifying individuals who need no supervision and have no medical conditions. c. An acknowledgement by the client giving informed consent. d. Detection of at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation.

d. Detection of at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation.

Which questionnaire asks the client if they have any negative feelings toward physical activity programs? a. Health History Questionnaire b. Informed Consent Form c. Medical Release Form d. Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire

d. Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire

Zack is a 22-year-old athlete who needs to increase his power for football. Which of the following equations would be used to manipulate his training to help increase his ability to produce power? a. Mass x Acceleration b. Force x Distance c. Power x Time d. Force x Velocity

d. Force x Velocity

Joel has been working out with you regularly and has been able to stay active on his off days by picking up biking. Which of the following would be another intervention during the preparation stage that you could introduce to develop healthy behaviors? a. Identify early signs of staleness to prevent burnout. b. Provide continued education about barrier identification. c. Keep the exercise environment enjoyable and switch it up to fight boredom. d. Giving knowledge of someone else who is successfully participating in a similar program.

d. Giving knowledge of someone else who is successfully participating in a similar program.

Which of the following muscles is not responsible for hip extension? a. Biceps femoris b. Gluteus maximus c. Semitendinosus d. Gluteus medius

d. Gluteus medius

Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors? a. Moderate risk, doctor's supervision needed. b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary. c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

You are conducting the shoulder flexion assessment on your client. In the supine position, the client is able to flex her shoulders and touch the floor, but only if the lower back is raised. Which muscle is most likely contributing the lower back having to be raised? a. Pectoralis major b. Teres major c. Rhomboids d. Latissimus dorsi

d. Latissimus dorsi

All of the following are contraindications of performing the trunk lateral endurance test, except: a. Shoulder pain or weakness b. Lower-back pain c. Recent back surgery d. Limited degree of mobility with no back pain

d. Limited degree of mobility with no back pain

Which of the following forms provides the trainer with the client's medical information, and explains physical-activity limitations and/or guidelines as outlined by his or her physician? a. Exercise history form b. Health history form c. CAD health-risk form d. Medical release form

d. Medical release form

All of the following can cause a fitness test to be inaccurate EXCEPT: a. Client b. Trainer c. Equipment d. None of the Above

d. None of the Above

Which of the following is not a step in the planning stage? a. Setting goals b. Formulating a plan c. Generating and discussing alternatives d. Observing an exercise

d. Observing an exercise

Since the heart plays a pivotal role in supplying oxygen and nutrients and removing waste products, heart rate is a valid indicator of the demands placed upon the body. Which of the following two methods used to measure heart rate are each accurate within 95% of a heart-rate monitor? a. Electrocardiogram and palpitation b. Telemetry and electrocardiogram c. Auscultation and telemetry d. Palpation and auscultation

d. Palpation and auscultation

You have performed the Thomas test with Mary and have observed that her lower thigh does not touch the table and her knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscles do you suspect to be tight? a. Hamstrings b. Rectus femoris c. Iliopsoas d. Primary hip flexor muscles

d. Primary hip flexor muscles

Your client mentions that he has lower back pain and certain movements really aggravate it. In this situation what is the correct strategy to deal with pain or any underlying pathologies? a. Improve mobility through the ankle and hips b. Screen for pronation or supination c. Strengthen the rectus abdominus to correct the length-tension relationship d. Refer out to a qualified healthcare professional

d. Refer out to a qualified healthcare professional

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD. is s condition that affects mainly which system? a. Musculoskeletal b. Integumentary c. Cardiovascular d. Respiratory

d. Respiratory

Which of the following is true when taking circumference measurements? a. Measurements should be made with an elastic-style tape measure. b. Tape should be pulled as tightly as possible around the body part. c. Take duplicate measurements at each site and average them together. d. Rotate through measurement sites to allow skin to regain normal quality

d. Rotate through measurement sites to allow skin to regain normal quality

Your client, Randy, comes to you with a goal of "being more flexible for his golf and tennis game". You help Randy define his goals in more specific and measurable terms so that his progress can be evaluated. Helping him set these effective goals are commonly said to be: a. Time-Bound Goals b. Process Goals c. Product Goals d. SMART Goals

d. SMART Goals

Bob has a sedentary lifestyle and you notice that he has scapula protraction. Which muscles could be tight and causing a dysfunctional protraction? a. Upper trapezius b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rhomboids d. Serratus anterior

d. Serratus anterior

Two clients, one a male and the other a female, are working out together. They ask you to measure their heart rates at the same time. What could attribute to higher values found in the female RHR? a. Larger heart chamber size b. Lower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body c. Lower hemoglobin level d. Smaller heart chamber size

d. Smaller heart chamber size

What would be an implication observed while watching your client perform the Apley's scratch test for shoulder mobility? a. The ability to reach up the spine with shoulder extension and internal rotation b. The avoidance of impingement in the moving arm c. The ability to touch the opposite inferior angle of the scapula d. The inability to touch the medial border of the contralateral scapula

d. The inability to touch the medial border of the contralateral scapula

Helping clients successfully adopt and adhere to exercise programs is an integral part of a personal trainer's job. Therefore, personal trainers must be able to incorporate behavior-change strategies. One effective behavior-change is stimulus control. Which of the following is an example of a simple and effective stimulus-control strategy? a. The trainer guides the client through the goal-setting process and helps them understand how to set effective and appropriate goals. b. The trainer and client outline a system of rewards for maintaining the program and maximizing adherence. c. The trainer continuously educates the client on everything from the principles of behavioral change to exercise techniques. d. The trainer recommends that the client write down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.

d. The trainer recommends that the client write down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.

You have a new client who is extremely obese, and you realize that your body fat calipers (skinfold measurement) may not be an accurate method to determine their body fat percentage. You want to have a starting measurement to determine their progress. What is the best course of action? a. Do your best to use the calipers and get some kind of skinfold measurement. b. Refer them to a medical fitness center that offers hydrostatic weighing. c. Refer the client to a physician to have an MRI. d. Utilize Body Mass Index (BMI) and girth measurements

d. Utilize Body Mass Index (BMI) and girth measurements


Kaugnay na mga set ng pag-aaral

CHAPTER 33- AGENCY LIABILITY AND TERMINATION

View Set

Ch.42 Stress and Adaptation PrepU

View Set

Chapter 33 rest and sleep / Chapter 34: Comfort

View Set