Adult Prep U CH 51 Assessment and Management of Patients With Diabetes part 2

Which of the following medications is considered a glitazone?

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A 6 months' pregnant patient was evaluated for gestational diabetes mellitus. The doctor considered prescribing insulin based on the serum glucose result of: a) 138 mg/dL, 2 hours postprandial. b) 120 mg/dL, 1 hour postprandial. c) 80 mg/dL, 1 hour postprandial. d) 90 mg/dL before meals.

138 mg/dL, 2 hours postprandial. ----- Explanation: The goals for a 2-hour, postprandial blood glucose level are less than 120 mg/dL in a patient who might develop gestational diabetes.

Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects blood glucose levels over which period of time?

2 months ----- Glycosylated hemoglobin is a blood test that reflects average blood glucose levels over a period of approximately 2 to 3 months.

When the dawn phenomenon occurs, the patient has relatively normal blood glucose until approximate what time of day? a) 3 AM b) 7 AM c) 9 AM d) 5 AM

3 AM ----- Explanation: During the dawn phenomenon, the patient has a relatively normal blood glucose level until about 3 AM, when the level begins to rise.

A client with type 1 diabetes is scheduled to receive 30 units of 70/30 insulin. There is no 70/30 insulin available. As a substitution, the nurse may give the client:

9 units regular insulin and 21 units neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH). ----- A 70/30 insulin preparation is 70% NPH and 30% regular insulin. Therefore, a correct substitution requires mixing 21 units of NPH and 9 units of regular insulin. The other choices are incorrect dosages for the ordered insulin.

Which of the following would be inconsistent as a cause of DKA?

Competency in injecting insulin ----- Being able to competently inject insulin is not a cause of DKA. Undiagnosed and untreated diabetes decreased or missed dose of insulin, and illness or infection are potential causes of DKA.

Which of the following is an age-related change that may affect diabetes and its management?

Decreased renal function ----- Decreased renal function affects the management of diabetes. Other age-related changes that may affect diabetes and its management include hypertension, decreased bowel motility, and decreased thirst.

A client is admitted to the unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which insulin would the nurse expect to administer intravenously? NPH Lente Glargine Regular

Regular ----- Explanation: Regular insulin is administered IV to treat DKA. It is added to an IV solution and infused continuously. Glargine, NPH, and Lente are only administered subQ.

After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a client experiences secondary failure. What should the nurse expect the physician to do?

Switch the client to a different oral anti diabetic agent. ----- The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order a different oral antidiabetic agent. Many clients (25% to 60%) who take glipizide respond to a different oral antidiabetic agent. Therefore, it wouldn't be appropriate to initiate insulin therapy at this time. However, if a new oral antidiabetic agent is unsuccessful in keeping glucose levels at an acceptable level, insulin may be used in addition to the antidiabetic agent. Restricting carbohydrate intake isn't necessary.

The greatest percentage of people have which type of diabetes?

Type 2 ----- Type 2 diabetes accounts for 90% to 95% of all diabetes. Type 1 accounts for 5% to 10% of all diabetes. Gestational diabetes has an onset during pregnancy. Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as an oral glucose tolerance test value between 140 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL.

Which of the following clinical manifestations of type 2 diabetes occurs if glucose levels are very high? a) Hyperactivity b) Oliguria c) Increased energy d) Blurred vision

d) Blurred vision ----- Explanation: Blurred vision occurs when the blood glucose levels are very high. The other clinical manifestations are not consistent with type 2 diabetes.

A 32-year-old client has an appointment at the weight loss clinic where you practice nursing. She has gained 55 lbs. in the last three years and is concerned about developing Type 2 diabetes mellitus, especially since her parents both have developed the disorder. What are the conditions which contribute to developing metabolic syndrome? Choose all correct options.

• Abdominal obesity • Elevated blood glucose levels ----- Some experts believe that diabetes in adults is one consequence of metabolic syndrome, which includes elevated blood glucose levels, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and abdominal obesity.

A client is receiving insulin lispro at 7:30 AM. The nurse ensures that the client has breakfast by which time?

7:35 AM ----- Insulin lispro has an onset of 10 to 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse would need to ensure that the client has his breakfast by 7:35 AM. Otherwise, the client may experience hypoglycemia.

The client who is managing diabetes through diet and insulin control asks the nurse why exercise is important. Which is the best response by the nurse to support adding exercise to the daily routine? Creates an overall feeling of well-being and lowers risk of depression Decreases risk of developing insulin resistance and hyperglycemia Increases ability for glucose to get into the cell and lowers blood sugar Decreases need for pancreas to produce more cells

Increases ability for glucose to get into the cell and lowers blood sugar ----- Explanation: Exercise increases trans membrane glucose transporter levels in the skeletal muscles. This allows the glucose to leave the blood and enter into the cells where it can be used as fuel. Exercise can provide an overall feeling of well-being but is not the primary purpose of including in the daily routine of diabetic clients. Exercise does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more cells. Exercise can promote weight loss and decrease risk of insulin resistance but not the primary reason for adding to daily routine.

Which of the following factors is the focus of nutrition intervention for clients with type 2 diabetes?

Weight loss ----- Weight loss is the focus of nutrition intervention for clients with Type 2 diabetes. A low-calorie diet may improve clinical symptoms; even a mild to moderate weight loss such as 10 to 20 lb may lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin action.

A client has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. When teaching the client and family how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements, the nurse should include which guideline?

"You'll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce your food intake." ----- The nurse should advise the client that exercise, reduced food intake, hypothyroidism, and certain medications decrease insulin requirements. Growth, pregnancy, greater food intake, stress, surgery, infection, illness, increased insulin antibodies, and certain medications increase insulin requirements.

A nurse is preparing a continuous insulin infusion for a child with diabetic ketoacidosis and a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dl. Which solution is the most appropriate at the beginning of therapy?

100 units of regular insulin in normal saline solution ----- Continuous insulin infusions use only short-acting regular insulin. Insulin is added to normal saline solution and administered until the client's blood glucose level falls. Further along in the therapy, a dextrose solution is administered to prevent hypoglycemia.

A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus about self-management of his condition. The nurse should instruct the client to administer 1 unit of insulin for every:

15 g of carbohydrates. ----- The nurse should instruct the client to administer 1 unit of insulin for every 15 g of carbohydrates.

What is the duration of regular insulin?

4 to 6 hours Explanation: The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours.

A client with type 1 diabetes is to receive a short-acting insulin and an intermediate-acting insulin subcutaneously before breakfast. The nurse would administer the insulin at which site as the preferred site?

Abdomen ----- Although the arms, thighs, and lower back can be used, the preferred site insulin administration is the abdomen which allows more rapid absorption.

An obese Hispanic client, age 65, is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which statement about diabetes mellitus is true?

Diabetes mellitus is more common in Hispanics and Blacks than in Whites. ----- Diabetes mellitus is more common in Hispanics and Blacks than in Whites. Only about one-third of clients with diabetes mellitus are older than age 60 and 85% to 90% have type 2. At least 80% of clients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus are obese.

Which of the following insulins are used for basal dosage?

Glarginet (Lantus) ----- Lantus is used for basal dosage. NPH is an intermediate acting insulin, usually taken after food. Humalog and Novolog are rapid-acting insulins.

For a client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume?

Increased urine osmolarity ----- In hyperglycemia, urine osmolarity (the measurement of dissolved particles in the urine) increases as glucose particles move into the urine. The client experiences glucosuria and polyuria, losing body fluids and experiencing deficient fluid volume. Cool, clammy skin; jugular vein distention; and a decreased serum sodium level are signs of fluid volume excess, the opposite imbalance.

A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to an acute care facility with diabetic ketoacidosis. To correct this acute diabetic emergency, which measure should the health care team take first?

Initiate fluid replacement therapy. ----- The health care team first initiates fluid replacement therapy to prevent or treat circulatory collapse caused by severe dehydration. Although diabetic ketoacidosis results from insulin deficiency, the client must have an adequate fluid volume before insulin can be administered; otherwise, the drug won't circulate throughout the body effectively. Therefore, insulin administration follows fluid replacement therapy. Determining and correcting the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis are important steps, but the client's condition must first be stabilized to prevent life-threatening complications.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])? Obesity Presence of islet cell antibodies Rare ketosis Requirement for oral hypoglycemic agents

Presence of islet cell antibodies Explanation: Individuals with type 1 diabetes often have islet cell antibodies. Individuals with type 1 diabetes are usually thin or demonstrate recent weight loss at the time of diagnosis. Individuals with type 1 diabetes are ketosis-prone when insulin is absent. Individuals with type 1 diabetes need insulin to preserve life.

Lispro (Humalog) is an example of which type of insulin?

Rapid-acting ----- Humalog is a rapid-acting insulin. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. A short-acting insulin is Humulin-R. An example of a long-acting insulin is Glargine (Lantus).

Which of the following categories of oral antidiabetic agents exert their primary action by directly stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin?

Sulfonylureas ----- A functioning pancreas is necessary for sulfonylureas to be effective. Thiazolidinediones enhance insulin action at the receptor site without increasing insulin secretion from the beta cells of the pancreas. Biguanides facilitate insulin's action on peripheral receptor sites. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors delay the absorption of glucose in the intestinal system, resulting in a lower postprandial blood glucose level.

Which of the following factors would a nurse identify as a most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a client with diabetes? a) The client continues medication therapy despite adequate food intake. b) The client has not consumed sufficient calories. c) The client has been exercising more than usual. d) The client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin.

The client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin. ----- Explanation: If the client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin, DKA is more likely to develop.

A client with diabetes mellitus develops sinusitis and otitis media accompanied by a temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C). What effect do these findings have on his need for insulin?

They increase the need for insulin. ----- Insulin requirements increase in response to growth, pregnancy, increased food intake, stress, surgery, infection, illness, increased insulin antibodies, and some medications. Insulin requirements are decreased by hypothyroidism, decreased food intake, exercise, and some medications.

During a class on exercise for clients with diabetes mellitus, a client asks the nurse educator how often to exercise. To meet the goals of planned exercise, the nurse educator should advise the client to exercise:

at least three times per week ----- Clients with diabetes must exercise at least three times per week to meet the goals of planned exercise — lowering the blood glucose level, reducing or maintaining the proper weight, increasing the serum high-density lipoprotein level, decreasing serum triglyceride levels, reducing blood pressure, and minimizing stress. Exercising once per week wouldn't achieve these goals. Exercising more than three times per week, although beneficial, would exceed the minimum requirement.

Which of the following is an age-related change that may affect diabetes? Select all that apply.

• Decreased renal function • Taste changes • Decreased vision ----- Age-related changes include decreased renal function, taste changes, decreased vision, decreased bowel motility, and decreased proprioception.

Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of diabetes mellitus? Select all that apply. Hypertension Obesity History of gestational diabetes Family history Age greater of 45 years or older

• Hypertension • Obesity • Family history • Age greater of 45 years or older • History of gestational diabetes ----- Risk factors for the development of diabetes mellitus include hypertension, obesity, family history, age of 45 years or older, and a history of gestational diabetes.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of adults at a local community center about diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse include as associated with type 2 diabetes?

Insulin production insufficient ----- Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance or insufficient insulin production. It is more common in aging adults, and now accounts for 20% of all newly diagnosed cases. Type 1 diabetes is more likely in childhood and adolescence although it can occur at any age. It accounts for approximately 5% to 10% of all diagnosed cases of diabetes. Pre-diabetes can lead to type 2 diabetes.

A client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which laboratory test is the most important for confirming this disorder?

Serum osmolarity ----- Serum osmolarity is the most important test for confirming HHNS; it's also used to guide treatment strategies and determine evaluation criteria. A client with HHNS typically has a serum osmolarity of more than 350 mOsm/L. Serum potassium, serum sodium, and ABG values are also measured, but they aren't as important as serum osmolarity for confirming a diagnosis of HHNS. A client with HHNS typically has hypernatremia and osmotic diuresis. ABG values reveal acidosis, and the potassium level is variable.

Which is the primary dietary consideration for a client receiving insulin isophane suspension (NPH) at breakfast? Make sure breakfast is not delayed. Provide fewest amount of carbohydrates at lunch meal. Delay dinner meal. Encourage midday snack.

Encourage midday snack. ----- Explanation: Because NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin that peaks in approximately 4 to 12 hours, a midday snack should be included in daily calorie intake to avoid hypoglycemia. NPH insulin has no immediate effects. Carbohydrates are distributed throughout the meal plan of diabetics to avoid highs and lows. Delaying dinner meal is not indicated with NPH insulin use.

Which instruction should a nurse give to a client with diabetes mellitus when teaching about "sick day rules"? "It's okay for your blood glucose to go above 300 mg/dl while you're sick." "Follow your regular meal plan, even if you're nauseous." "Don't take your insulin or oral antidiabetic agent if you don't eat." "Test your blood glucose every 4 hours."

"Test your blood glucose every 4 hours." ----- The nurse should instruct a client with diabetes mellitus to check his blood glucose levels every 3 to 4 hours and take insulin or an oral antidiabetic agent as usual, even when he's sick. If the client's blood glucose level rises above 300 mg/dl, he should call his physician immediately. If the client is unable to follow the regular meal plan because of nausea, he should substitute soft foods, such as gelatin, soup, and custard.

Which instruction about insulin administration should a nurse give to a client? a) "Shake the vials before withdrawing the insulin." b) "Discard the intermediate-acting insulin if it appears cloudy." c) "Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe." d) "Store unopened vials of insulin in the freezer at temperatures well below freezing."

Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe. ----- Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe. Insulin should never be shaken because the resulting froth prevents withdrawal of an accurate dose and may damage the insulin protein molecules. Insulin should never be frozen because the insulin protein molecules may be damaged. The client doesn't need to discard intermediate-acting insulin if it's cloudy; this finding is normal.

When referred to a podiatrist, a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks, "Why do you need to check my feet when I'm having a problem with my blood sugar?" The nurse's most helpful response to this statement is:

"Diabetes can affect sensation in your feet and you can hurt yourself without realizing it." ----- The nurse should make the client aware that diabetes affects sensation in the feet and that he might hurt his foot but not feel the wound. Although it's important that the client's shoes fit properly, this isn't the only reason the client's feet need to be checked. Telling the client that diabetes mellitus increases the risk of infection or stating that the circulation in the client's feet indicates the severity of his diabetes doesn't provide the client with complete information.

A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a child who's just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. When the child's mother stops the nurse in the hall, she's crying and anxious to talk about her son's condition. The nurse's best response is:

"I'm going to give your son some insulin. Then I'll be happy to talk with you." ----- Attending to the mother's needs is a critical part of caring for a sick child. In this case however, administering insulin in a prompt manner supersedes the mother's needs. By informing the mother that she's going to administer the insulin and will then make time to talk with her, the nurse recognizes the mother's needs as legitimate. She provides a reasonable response while attending to the priority of administering insulin as soon as possible. Telling the mother that she can't talk with her or telling her to wait for the physician could increase the mother's fear and anxiety. The nurse shouldn't tell the mother that everything will be fine; the nurse doesn't know that everything will be fine.

A client is evaluated for type 1 diabetes. Which client comment correlates best with this disorder?

"I'm thirsty all the time. I just can't get enough to drink." ----- Classic signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus are polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyuria (excessive urination), and polyphagia (excessive appetite). Decreased appetite, lingering cough and cold, and pain on urination aren't related to diabetes. Decreased appetite reflects a GI disorder; cough and cold indicate an upper respiratory problem; and pain on urination suggests a urinary tract infection.

A client with type 1 diabetes has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, the nurse is most accurate in stating: "Your insulin regimen must be altered significantly." "It looks like you aren't following the ordered diabetic diet." "The test must be repeated following a 12-hour fast." "It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months."

"It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months." ----- Explanation: The nurse is providing accurate information to the client when she states that the glycosylated Hb test provides an objective measure of glycemic control over a 3-month period. The test helps identify trends or practices that impair glycemic control, and it doesn't require a fasting period before blood is drawn. The nurse can't conclude that the result occurs from poor dietary management or inadequate insulin coverage.

A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks why he needs ketone testing when the disease affects his blood glucose levels. How should the nurse respond?

"Ketones will tell us if your body is using other tissues for energy." ----- The nurse should tell the client that ketones are a byproduct of fat metabolism and that ketone testing can determine whether the body is breaking down fat to use for energy. The spleen doesn't release ketones when the body can't use glucose. Although ketones can damage the eyes and kidneys and help the physician evaluate the severity of a client's diabetes, these responses by the nurse are incomplete.

A client with diabetes mellitus must learn how to self-administer insulin. The physician has ordered 10 units of U-100 regular insulin and 35 units of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. When teaching the client how to select and rotate insulin injection sites, the nurse should provide which instruction? "Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions." "Administer insulin into areas of scar tissue or hypertrophy whenever possible." "Inject insulin into healthy tissue with large blood vessels and nerves." "Administer insulin into sites above muscles that you plan to exercise heavily later that day."

"Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions." ----- The nurse should instruct the client to rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region. Rotating sites among different regions may cause excessive day-to-day variations in the blood glucose level; also, insulin absorption differs from one region to the next. Insulin should be injected only into healthy tissue LACKING large blood vessels, nerves, or scar tissue or other deviations. Injecting insulin into areas of hypertrophy may delay absorption. The client shouldn't inject insulin into areas of lipodystrophy (such as hypertrophy or atrophy); to prevent lipodystrophy, the client should rotate injection sites systematically. Exercise speeds drug absorption, so the client shouldn't inject insulin into sites above muscles that will be exercised heavily.

A physician orders blood glucose levels every 4 hours for a 4-year-old child with brittle type 1 diabetes. The parents are worried that drawing so much blood will traumatize their child. How can the nurse best reassure the parents?

"Your child will need less blood work as his glucose levels stabilize." ----- Telling the parents that the number of blood draws will decrease as their child's glucose levels stabilize engages them in the learning process and gives them hope that the present discomfort will end as the child's condition improves. Telling the parents that their child won't remember the experience disregards their concerns and anxiety. The nurse shouldn't offer to ask the physician if he can reduce the number of blood draws; the physician needs the laboratory results to monitor the child's condition properly. Although telling the parents that the laboratory technicians are gentle and use tiny needles may be reassuring, it isn't the most appropriate response.

An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client's history includes type 1 diabetes, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.

10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. ----- To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. Then the client should check his blood glucose after 15 minutes. If necessary, this treatment may be repeated in 15 minutes. Ingesting only 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate may not raise the blood glucose level sufficiently. Ingesting more than 15 g may raise it above normal, causing hyperglycemia.

As a nurse educator, you have been invited to your local senior center to discuss health-maintaining strategies for older adults. During your education session on nutrition, you approach the subject of diabetes mellitus, its symptoms and consequences. What is the prevalence of Type I diabetes?

5% to 10% of all diagnosed cases ----- Type 1 diabetes accounts for approximately 5% to 10% of all diagnosed cases of diabetes (National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases [NIDDK], 2008).

A client with diabetes comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse reviews the client's glycosylated hemoglobin test results. Which result would indicate to the nurse that the client's blood glucose level has been well-controlled?

6.5% ----- Normally the level of glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%. Thus a level of 6.5% would indicate that the client's blood glucose level is well-controlled. According to the American Diabetes Association, a glycosylated hemoglobin of 7% is equivalent to an average blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL. Thus, a level of 7.5% would indicate less control. Amount of 8% or greater indicate that control of the client's blood glucose level has been inadequate during the previous 2 to 3 months.

A nurse is caring for a diabetic patient with a diagnosis of nephropathy. What would the nurse expect the urinalysis report to indicate? a) Albumin b) Red blood cells c) White blood cells d) Bacteria

Albumin ----- Explanation: Albumin is one of the most important blood proteins that leak into the urine. Although small amounts may leak undetected for years, its leakage into the urine is among the earliest signs that can be detected. Clinical nephropathy eventually develops in more than 85% of people with microalbuminuria but in fewer than 5% of people without microalbuminuria (Chart 51-10). The urine should be checked annually for the presence of microalbumin.

A nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?

Below-normal serum potassium level ----- A client with HHNS has an overall body deficit of potassium resulting from diuresis, which occurs secondary to the hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state caused by the relative insulin deficiency. An elevated serum acetone level and serum ketone bodies are characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis. Metabolic acidosis, not serum alkalosis, may occur in HHNS.

A client is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect in this client? Arterial pH 7.25 Plasma bicarbonate 12 mEq/L Blood glucose level 1,100 mg/dl Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dl

Blood glucose level 1,100 mg/dl ----- Explanation: HHNS occurs most frequently in older clients. It can occur in clients with either type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus but occurs most commonly in those with type 2. The blood glucose level rises to above 600 mg/dl in response to illness or infection. As the blood glucose level rises, the body attempts to rid itself of the excess glucose by producing urine. Initially, the client produces large quantities of urine. If fluid intake isn't increased at this time, the client becomes dehydrated, causing BUN levels to rise. Arterial pH and plasma bicarbonate levels typically remain within normal limits.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? Usually thin at diagnosis Ketosis-prone Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Demonstrate islet cell antibodies

Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise ----- Explanation: Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful. Individuals with type 2 diabetes are usually obese at diagnosis. Individuals with type 2 diabetes rarely demonstrate ketosis, except with stress or infection. Individuals with type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

A nurse is teaching a client about insulin infusion pump use. What intervention should the nurse include to prevent infection at the injection site?

Change the needle every 3 days. ----- The nurse should teach the client to change the needle every 3 days to prevent infection. The client doesn't need to wear gloves when inserting the needle. Antibiotic therapy isn't necessary before initiating treatment. Sterile technique, not clean technique, is needed when changing the needle.

A client's blood glucose level is 45 mg/dl. The nurse should be alert for which signs and symptoms? Kussmaul's respirations, dry skin, hypotension, and bradycardia Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight loss Polyuria, polydipsia, hypotension, and hypernatremia Coma, anxiety, confusion, headache, and cool, moist skin

Coma, anxiety, confusion, headache, and cool, moist skin ----- Explanation: S/S of hypoglycemia (indicated by a blood glucose level of 45 mf/dl) include anxiety, restlessness, headache, irritability, confusion, diaphoresis, cool skin, tremors, coma, and seizures. Kussmaul's respirations, dry skin, hypotension, and bradycardia are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis. Excessive thirst, hunger, hypotension, and hypernatremia are symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight loss are classic signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus.

A client with a serum glucose level of 618 mg/dl is admitted to the facility. He's awake and oriented, has hot dry skin, and has the following vital signs: temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C), heart rate of 116 beats/minute, and blood pressure of 108/70 mm Hg. Based on these assessment findings, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?

Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis ----- A serum glucose level of 618 mg/dl indicates hyperglycemia, which causes polyuria and fluid volume deficit, making Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis the highest priority. In this client, tachycardia is more likely to result from fluid volume deficit than from decreased cardiac output because his blood pressure is normal. Although the client's serum glucose is elevated, food isn't a priority because fluids and insulin should be administered to lower the serum glucose level. Therefore, a diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements isn't appropriate. A temperature of 100.6° F isn't life-threatening, eliminating Ineffective thermoregulation as the top priority.

A client with long-standing type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with unstable angina pectoris. After the client's condition stabilizes, the nurse evaluates the diabetes management regimen. The nurse learns that the client sees the physician every 4 weeks, injects insulin after breakfast and dinner, and measures blood glucose before breakfast and at bedtime. Consequently, the nurse should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:

Deficient knowledge (treatment regimen). ----- The client should inject insulin before, not after, breakfast and dinner — 30 minutes before breakfast for the a.m. dose and 30 minutes before dinner for the p.m. dose. Therefore, the client has a knowledge deficit regarding when to administer insulin. By taking insulin, measuring blood glucose levels, and seeing the physician regularly, the client has demonstrated the ability and willingness to modify his lifestyle as needed to manage the disease. This behavior eliminates the nursing diagnoses of Impaired adjustment and Defensive coping. Because the nurse, not the client, questioned the client's health practices related to diabetes management, the nursing diagnosis of Health-seeking behaviors isn't warranted.

HHNS: Low K+, excessive urination, normal pH, absence of urine and serum ketones DKA: excessive urination, dehydration, low pH, Ketones

HHNS: Low K+, excessive urination, normal pH, absence of urine and serum ketones DKA: excessive urination, dehydration, low pH, Ketones

Which combination of adverse effects should a nurse monitor for when administering I.V. insulin to a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia ----- Blood glucose needs to be monitored in clients receiving I.V. insulin because of the risk of hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia might occur if too much insulin is administered. Hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia, might occur because I.V. insulin forces potassium into cells, thereby lowering the plasma level of potassium. Calcium and sodium levels aren't affected by I.V. insulin administration.

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding suggests that the client has developed hyperglycemia? Diaphoresis Decreased appetite Increased urine output Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Increased urine output Explanation: Glucose supplies most of the calories in TPN; if the glucose infusion rate exceeds the client's rate of glucose metabolism, hyperglycemia arises. When the renal threshold for glucose reabsorption is exceeded, osmotic diuresis occurs, causing an increased urine output. A decreased appetite and diaphoresis suggest hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a period of apnea lasting 10 to 60 seconds, followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respirations. Cheyne-Stokes respirations typically occur with cerebral depression or heart failure.

The nurse is describing the action of insulin in the body to a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse explain as being the primary action? It aids in the process of gluconeogenesis. It stimulates the pancreatic beta cells. It decreases the intestinal absorption of glucose. It carries glucose into body cells.

It carries glucose into body cells. / It enhances transport of glucose across the cell wall. ----- Insulin carries glucose into body cells as their preferred source of energy. Besides, it promotes the liver's storage of glucose as glycogen and inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose. Insulin does not aid in gluconeogenesis but inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose.

A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed to switch from animal to synthesized human insulin. Which of the following factors should the nurse monitor when caring for the client?

Low blood glucose levels ----- Clients who switch from animal to synthesized human insulin should be monitored for low blood glucose levels initially because the human form of insulin is used more effectively.

A client with diabetes is receiving an oral antidiabetic agent that acts to help the tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Which of the following agents would the nurse expect to administer? Repaglinide Glipizide Glyburide Metformin

Metformin ----- Explanation: Metformin is a biguanide and along with the thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone and pioglitazone) are categorized as insulin sensitizers; they help tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Glyburide and glipizide which are sulfonylureas, and repaglinide, a meglitinide, are described as being insulin releasers because they stimulate the pancreas to secrete more insulin.

A nurse expects to find which signs and symptoms in a client experiencing hypoglycemia?

Nervousness, diaphoresis, and confusion ----- Signs and symptoms associated with hypoglycemia include nervousness, diaphoresis, weakness, light-headedness, confusion, paresthesia, irritability, headache, hunger, tachycardia, and changes in speech, hearing, or vision. If untreated, signs and symptoms may progress to unconsciousness, seizures, coma, and death. Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia are symptoms associated with HYPERglycemia.

A nurse obtains a fingerstick glucose level of 45 mg/dl on a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The client is alert and oriented, and the client's skin is warm and dry. How should the nurse intervene?

Obtain a repeat fingerstick glucose level. ----- The nurse should recheck the fingerstick glucose level to verify the original result because the client isn't exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should give the client milk and a graham cracker with peanut butter or a glass of orange juice after confirming the low glucose level. It isn't necessary to notify the physician or to obtain a serum glucose level at this time.

A client who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 14 years ago is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with abdominal pain. On admission, the client's blood glucose level is 470 mg/dl. Which finding is most likely to accompany this blood glucose level?

Rapid, thready pulse ----- This client's abnormally high blood glucose level indicates hyperglycemia, which typically causes polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia. Because polyuria leads to fluid loss, the nurse should expect to assess signs of deficient fluid volume, such as a rapid, thready pulse; decreased blood pressure; and rapid respirations. Cool, moist skin and arm and leg trembling are associated with hypoglycemia. Rapid respirations — not slow, shallow ones — are associated with hyperglycemia

Laboratory studies indicate a client's blood glucose level is 185 mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most conclusive diagnostic information about the client's glucose use?

Serum glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb A1c) ----- Hb A1c is the most reliable indicator of glucose use because it reflects blood glucose levels for the prior 3 months. Although a fasting blood glucose test and a 6-hour glucose tolerance test yield information about a client's use of glucose, the results are influenced by such factors as whether the client recently ate breakfast. Presence of ketones in the urine also provides information about glucose use but is limited in its diagnostic significance.

A male client, aged 42, is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. He visits the gym regularly and is a vegetarian. Which of the following factors is important when assessing the client? The client's exercise routine History of radiographic contrast studies that used iodine The client's mental and emotional status The client's consumption of carbohydrates

The client's consumption of carbohydrates ----- Explanation: While assessing a client, it is important to note the client's consumption of carbohydrates because he has high blood sugar. Although other factors such as the client's mental and emotional status, history of tests involving iodine, and exercise routine can be part of data collection, they are not as important to information related to the client's to be noted in a client with high blood sugar.

A client with type 2 diabetes asks the nurse why he can't have a pancreatic transplant. Which of the following would the nurse include as a possible reason? Need for exocrine enzymatic drainage Need for lifelong immunosuppressive therapy Increased risk for urologic complications Underlying problem of insulin resistance

Underlying problem of insulin resistance Explanation: Clients with type 2 diabetes are not offered the option of a pancreas transplant because their problem is insulin resistance, which does not improve with a transplant. Urologic complications or the need for exocrine enzymatic drainage are not reasons for not offering pancreas transplant to clients with type 2 diabetes. Any transplant requires lifelong immunosuppressive drug therapy and is not the factor.

Which of the following factors is the focus of nutrition intervention for patients with type 2 diabetes?

Weight loss ----- Weight loss is the focus of nutrition intervention for patients with type 2 diabetes. A low-calorie diet may improve clinical symptoms, and even a mild to moderate weight loss, such as 10 to 20 pounds, may lower blood glucose levels and improve insulin action. Consistency in the total amount of carbohydrate consumed is considered an important factor influencing blood glucose level. Protein metabolism is not the focus of nutrition intervention for patients with type 2 diabetes.

A nurse is teaching a diabetic support group about the causes of type 1 diabetes. The teaching is determined to be effective when the group is able to attribute which of the following factors as a cause of type 1 diabetes? a) Presence of autoantibodies against islet cells b) Obesity c) Rare ketosis d) Altered glucose metabolism

a) Presence of autoantibodies against islet cells Explanation: There is evidence of an autoimmune response in type 1 diabetes. This is an abnormal response in which antibodies are directed against normal tissues of the body, responding to these tissues as if they were foreign. Autoantibodies against islet cells and against endogenous (internal) insulin have been detected in people at the time of diagnosis and even several years before the development of clinical signs of type 1 diabetes.

A patient is admitted to the health care center with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The medical reports indicate a history of type 1 diabetes. The nurse suspects the patient's symptoms to be that of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following actions will help the nurse confirm the diagnosis? a) Assessing the patient's ability to move all extremities b) Assessing the patient's ability to take a deep breath c) Assessing the patient's breath odor d) Assessing for excessive sweating

c) Assessing the patient's breath odor ----- Explanation: DKA is commonly preceded by a day or more of polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, vomiting, and fatigue with eventual stupor and coma if not treated. The breath has a characteristic fruity odor due to the presence of ketoacids. Checking the patient's breath will help the nurse confirm the diagnosis.

A nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend: consuming a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding fasting. increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements. increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon. eating a candy bar if light-headedness occurs.

consuming a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding fasting. ----- Explanation: To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should instruct the client to consume a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet, avoid fasting, and avoid simple sugars.

A 16-year-old patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes has a very low body weight despite eating regular meals. The patient is upset because friends frequently state, "You look anorexic." Which of the following statements would be the best response by the nurse to help this patient understand the cause of weight loss due to this condition? a) "I will refer you to a dietician who can help you with your weight." b) "You may be having undiagnosed infections causing you to lose extra weight." c) "Don't worry about what your friends think; the carbohydrates you eat are being quickly digested, increasing your metabolism." d) "Your body is using protein and fat for energy instead of glucose." d) "Your body is using protein and fat for energy instead of glucose." Explanation: Persons with type 1 diabetes, particularly those in poor control of the condition, tend to be thin because when the body cannot effectively utilize glucose for energy (no insulin supply), it begins to break down protein and fat as an alternate energy source. Patients may be underweight at the onset of type 1 diabetes because of rapid weight loss from severe hyperglycemia. The goal initially may be to provide a higher-calorie diet to regain lost weight and blood glucose control.

d) "Your body is using protein and fat for energy instead of glucose." Explanation: Persons with type 1 diabetes, particularly those in poor control of the condition, tend to be thin because when the body cannot effectively utilize glucose for energy (no insulin supply), it begins to break down protein and fat as an alternate energy source. Patients may be underweight at the onset of type 1 diabetes because of rapid weight loss from severe hyperglycemia. The goal initially may be to provide a higher-calorie diet to regain lost weight and blood glucose control.

A 60-year-old patient comes to the ED with complaints of weakness, vision problems, increased thirst, increased urination, and frequent infections that do not seem to heal easily. The physician suspects that the patient has diabetes. Which of the following classic symptoms should the nurse watch for to confirm the diagnosis of diabetes? a) Numbness b) Fatigue c) Dizziness d) Increased hunger

d) Increased hunger ----- Explanation: The classic symptoms of diabetes are the three Ps: POLYURIA (increased urination), POLYDIPSIA (increased thirst), and POLYPHAGIA (increased hunger). Some of the other symptoms include tingling, numbness, and loss of sensation in the extremities and fatigue.

A nurse is preparing the daily care plan for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus. The priority nursing concern for this client should be:

providing client education at every opportunity. ----- The nurse should use routine care responsibilities as teaching opportunities with the intention of preparing the client to understand and eventually manage his disease. Monitoring blood glucose, checking for the presence of ketones, and administering insulin are important when caring for a client with diabetes, but they aren't the priority of care.

A nurse is assigned to care for a postoperative client with diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about the effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. ----- The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other professional. Making appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the client's care. The nurse doesn't normally provide sex counseling.

Which of the following is a characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? Select all that apply.

• Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine • Rapid onset • More common in type 1 diabetes HINT: BUN and 1 rhyme ----- DKA is characterized by an elevated BUN and creatinine, rapid onset, and it is more common in type 1 diabetes. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is characterized by the absence of urine and serum ketones and a normal arterial pH level.