Adults II: Mod 3: Neuro, Ch 61, 63, 65

A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and finds that the client has a spinal cord tumor that involves the vertebral bodies. The nurse identifies this as which type of spinal tumor? Intramedullary Intradural-extramedullary Extradural Metastatic

Extradural Tumors within the spine are classified according to their anatomic relation to the spinal cord. Intramedullary tumors arise from within the spinal cord. Intradural-extramedullary tumors are within or under the spinal dura but not on the actual spinal cord. Extradural tumors are located outside the dura and often involve the vertebral bodies.

A nurse is preparing to administer an antiseizure medication to a client. Which of the following is an appropriate antiseizure medication? Lamictal Lamisil Labetalol Lomotil

Lamictal Lamictal is an antiseizure medication. Its packaging was recently changed in an attempt to reduce medication errors, because this medication has been confused with Lamisil (an antifungal), labetalol (an antihypertensive), and Lomotil (an antidiarrheal).

What does the nurse recognize as the earliest sign of serious impairment of brain circulation related to increasing ICP? A bounding pulse Bradycardia Hypertension Lethargy and stupor

Lethargy and stupor As ICP increases, the patient becomes stuporous, reacting only to loud or painful stimuli. At this stage, serious impairment of brain circulation is probably taking place, and immediate intervention is required.

Which of the following is a hallmark of spinal metastases? Pain Nausea Fatigue Change in level of consciousness (LOC)

Pain (think about a tumor pressing on various sensory nerves emanating from the spine)

A client presents to the emergency department stating numbness and tingling occurring down the left leg into the left foot. When documenting the experience, which medical terminology would the nurse be most correct to report? Sciatic nerve pain Herniation Paresthesia Paralysis

Paresthesia When a client reports numbness and tingling in an area, the client is reporting a paresthesia. The nurse would document the experience as such or place the client's words in parentheses. The nurse would not make a medical diagnosis of sciatic nerve pain or herniation. The symptoms are not consistent with paralysis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington's disease in the long-term care facility. What does the nurse recognize as the most prominent symptom of the disease that the patient exhibits? Rapid, jerky, involuntary movements Slow, shuffling gait Dysphagia and dysphonia Dementia

Rapid, jerky, involuntary movements The most prominent clinical features of the disease are chorea (rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements), impaired voluntary movement, intellectual decline, and often personality changes

A nurse completes the Glasgow Coma Scale on a patient with traumatic brain injury (TBI). Her assessment results in a score of 6, which is interpreted as: Mild TBI. Moderate TBI. Severe TBI. Brain death.

Severe TBI. A score of 13 to 15 is classified as mild TBI, 9 to 12 is moderate TBI, and 3 to 8 is severe TBI. A score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, deep coma, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response; a score of 8 or less typically indicates an unconscious patient; a score of 15 indicates a fully alert and oriented patient.

Which Glasgow Coma Scale score is indicative of a severe head injury? 7 9 11 13

7 A score between 3 and 8 is generally accepted as indicating a severe head injury.

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement? Related to visual field deficits Related to difficulty swallowing Related to impaired balance Related to psychomotor seizures

Related to impaired balance A client with a cerebellar brain tumor may suffer injury from impaired balance as well as disturbed gait and incoordination. Visual field deficits, difficulty swallowing, and psychomotor seizures may result from dysfunction of the pituitary gland, pons, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe — not from a cerebellar brain tumor. Difficulty swallowing suggests medullary dysfunction. Psychomotor seizures suggest temporal lobe dysfunction.

A client with paraplegia asks why exercises are done to the lower extremities every day. Which response will the nurse make? "They help stabilize total body functioning." "They help prevent the development of contractures." "They aid in restoring your skeletal integrity." "They prepare you to function in the absence of your leg function."

"They help prevent the development of contractures." Clients are at high risk for the development of contractures (permanent tightening of muscle/tendon/skin) as a result of disuse syndrome due to the musculoskeletal system changes brought about by the loss of motor and sensory functions below the level of injury. Range-of-motion exercises must be provided at least four times a day, and care is taken to stretch the Achilles tendon with exercises to prevent footdrop. Range-of-motion exercises are not done to stabilize total body functioning or restore skeletal integrity. Exercise programs are used to prepare to function in the absence of leg function.

Which anticholinergic agent is used to control tremor and rigidity in Parkinson disease? Bromocriptine mesylate Benztropine Mesylate Amantadine Levodopa

Benztropine Mesylate Benztropine Mesylate is an anticholinergic agent used to control tremor and rigidity in Parkinson disease. Bromocriptine mesylate is a dopamine agonist. Amantadine is an antiviral agent. Levodopa is a dopaminergic.

A client with newly diagnosed seizures asks about stigma associated with epilepsy. The nurse will respond with which of the following statements? "In most people, epilepsy is usually synonymous with intellectual disability." "For many people with epilepsy, the disorder is synonymous with mental illness." "Many people with developmental disabilities resulting from neurologic damage also have epilepsy." "Cases of epilepsy are often associated with intellectual level."

"Many people with developmental disabilities resulting from neurologic damage also have epilepsy." Many people who have developmental disabilities because of serious neurologic damage also have epilepsy. Epilepsy is not associated with intellectual level. It is not synonymous with intellectual disability or mental illness.

A client with quadriplegia is in spinal shock. What finding should the nurse expect? Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities Positive Babinski's reflex along with spastic extremities Hyperreflexia along with spastic extremities Spasticity of all four extremities

Absence of reflexes along with flaccid extremities During the period immediately following a spinal cord injury, spinal shock occurs. In spinal shock, all reflexes are absent and the extremities are flaccid. When spinal shock subsides, the client will demonstrate positive Babinski's reflex, hyperreflexia, and spasticity of all four extremities.

A client was running along an ocean pier, tripped on an elevated area of the decking, and struck his head on the pier railing. According to his friends, "He was unconscious briefly and then became alert and behaved as though nothing had happened." Shortly afterward, he began complaining of a headache and asked to be taken to the emergency department. If the client's intracranial pressure (ICP) is increasing, the nurse should expect to observe which sign first? Pupillary asymmetry Irregular breathing pattern Involuntary posturing Declining level of consciousness (LOC)

Declining level of consciousness (LOC)

The nurse is educating a patient with a seizure disorder. What nutritional approach for seizure management would be beneficial for this patient? Low in fat Restricts protein to 10% of daily caloric intake High in protein and low in carbohydrate At least 50% carbohydrate

High in protein and low in carbohydrate A dietary intervention, referred to as the ketogenic diet, may be helpful for control of seizures in some patients. This high-protein, low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet is most effective in children whose seizures have not been controlled with two antiseizure medications, but it is sometimes used for adults who have had poor seizure control

A patient with a brain tumor is complaining of headaches that are worse in the morning. What does the nurse know could be the reason for the morning headaches? Increased intracranial pressure Dehydration Migraines The tumor is shrinking.

Increased intracranial pressure Headache, although not always present, is most common in the early morning and is made worse by coughing, straining, or sudden movement. It is thought to be caused by the tumor invading, compressing, or distorting the pain-sensitive structures or by edema that accompanies the tumor, leading to increased intracranial pressure.

A patient sustained a head trauma in a diving accident and has a cerebral hemorrhage located within the brain. What type of hematoma is this classified as? An epidural hematoma An extradural hematoma An intracerebral hematoma A subdural hematoma

Intracerebral hematoma Intracerebral hemorrhage (hematoma) is bleeding within the brain, into the parenchyma of the brain. It is commonly seen in head injuries when force is exerted to the head over a small area (e.g., missile injuries, bullet wounds, stab injuries). A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a collection of blood between the dura and the brain, a space normally occupied by a thin cushion of cerebrospinal fluid. After a head injury, blood may collect in the epidural (extradural) space between the skull and the dura.

A client in the intensive care unit (ICU) has a traumatic brain injury. The nurse must implement interventions to help control intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following are appropriate interventions to help control ICP? Keep the client's neck in a neutral position (no flexing). Avoid sedation. Cluster all procedures together. Keep the head of the client's bed flat.

Keep the client's neck in a neutral position (no flexing). To assist in controlling ICP in clients with severe brain injury, the following are recommended: elevate the head of the bed as prescribed (gravity helps drain fluid), maintain head/neck in neutral alignment (no twisting or flexing), give sedation as ordered to prevent agitation, and avoid noxious stimuli (scatter procedures so that client does not become overtired).

A client with tetraplegia cannot do his own skin care. The nurse is teaching the caregiver about the importance of maintaining skin integrity. Which of the following will the nurse most encourage the caregiver to do? Maintain a diet for the client that is high in protein, vitamins, and calories. Avoid range of motion exercises for the client because of spasms. Keep accurate intake and output. Watch closely for signs of urinary tract infection.

Maintain a diet for the client that is high in protein, vitamins, and calories. To maintain healthy skin, the following interventions are necessary: regularly relieve pressure, protect from injury, keep clean and dry, avoid wrinkles in the bed, and maintain a diet high in protein, vitamins, and calories to ensure minimal wasting of muscles and healthy skin.

The nurse explains to the client with projectile vomiting and severe headache that a medication is being prescribed to reduced edema surrounding the brain and lessen these symptoms. What medication is the nurse preparing to administer? Mannitol Temozolomide Bevacizumab Everolimus

Mannitol Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is administered to decrease the fluid content of the brain, which leads to a decrease in intracranial pressure. Temozolomide is a chemotherapeutic agent which is commonly used to stop or slow cell growth in certain types of brain tumors. B evacizumab and everolimus are immunotherapy agents that reduce the vascularization of tumors, thereby inhibiting tumor growth.

A nurse working in the neurologic intensive care unit admits from the emergency department a patient with an inoperable brain tumor. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the patient is positioned like part B of the accompanying image. Based on this initial observation, what would the nurse predict about this patient's prognosis? (B has arms pronated) good poor excellent fatal

Poor An inappropriate or nonpurposeful response is random and aimless. Posturing may be decorticate or decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing indicates deeper and more severe dysfunction than does decorticate posturing; it implies brain pathology, which is a poor prognostic sign. Decorticate posture is the flexion and internal rotation of forearms and hands. Decerebrate posture is extension and external rotation. Flaccidity is the absence of motor response and the most severe neurologic impairment.

Which of the following types of hematoma results from venous bleeding with blood gradually accumulating in the space below the dura? Epidural Subdural Intracerebral Cerebral

Subdural A subdural hematoma results from venous bleeding, with blood gradually accumulating in the space below the dura. An epidural hematoma stems from arterial bleeding, usually from the middle meningeal artery, and blood accumulation above the dura. An intracerebral hematoma is bleeding within the brain that results from an open or closed head injury or from a cerebrovascular condition such as a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. A cerebral hematoma is bleeding within the skull.

A patient with myasthenia gravis is in the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. The patient informs the nurse that it is very important to take pyridostigmine bromide on time. The nurse gets busy and does not administer the medication until after breakfast. What outcome will the patient have related to this late dose? The muscles will become fatigued and the patient will not be able to chew food or swallow pills. There should not be a problem, since the medication was only delayed by about 2 hours. The patient will go into cardiac arrest. The patient will require a double dose prior to lunch.

The muscles will become fatigued and the patient will not be able to chew food or swallow pills. Maintenance of stable blood levels of anticholinesterase medications, such as pyridostigmine, is imperative to stabilize muscle strength. Therefore, the anticholinesterase medications must be administered on time. Any delay in administration of medications may exacerbate muscle weakness and make it impossible for the patient to take medications orally.

A client is scheduled for a laminectomy to repair a herniated intervertebral disk. When developing the postoperative care plan, the nurse should include which action? Keeping a pillow under the client's knees at all times Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position Maintaining bed rest for 72 hours after the laminectomy Turning the client from side to side, using the logroll technique

Turning the client from side to side, using the logroll technique To avoid twisting the spine or hips when turning a client onto the side, the nurse should use the logroll technique. (Twisting after a laminectomy could injure the spine.) After surgery, the nurse shouldn't put anything under the client's knees or place the client in semi-Fowler's position because these actions increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Typically, the client is allowed out of bed by the first or second day after a laminectomy.

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia. Which activity is altered as a result of this diagnosis? chewing swallowing smelling tasting

chewing Trigeminal neuralgia is a painful condition that involves the fifth (V) cranial nerve (the trigeminal nerve) and is important to chewing.

What is one of the earliest signs of increased ICP? decreased level of consciousness (LOC) headache Cushing's triad coma

decreased level of consciousness (LOC) Headache is a symptom of increased ICP, but decreasing LOC is one of the earliest signs of increased ICP. Cushing's triad occurs late in increased ICP. If untreated, increasing ICP will lead to coma.

A nurse is working on a surgical floor. The nurse must logroll a client following a: laminectomy. thoracotomy. hemorrhoidectomy. cystectomy.

laminectomy

A client who has been severely beaten is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse suspects a basilar skull fracture after assessing: raccoon's eyes and Battle sign. nuchal rigidity and Kernig's sign. motor loss in the legs that exceeds that in the arms. pupillary changes.

raccoon's eyes and Battle sign. A basilar skull fracture commonly causes only periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon's eyes) and postmastoid ecchymosis (Battle sign); however, it sometimes also causes otorrhea, rhinorrhea, and loss of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve) function. Nuchal rigidity and Kernig's sign are associated with meningitis. Motor loss in the legs that exceeds that in the arms suggests central cord syndrome. Pupillary changes are common in skull fractures with associated meningeal artery bleeding and uncal herniation.

A nurse assesses the patient's LOC using the Glasgow Coma Scale. What score indicates severe impairment of neurologic function? 3 6 9 12

3 A score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response

An older client complains of a constant headache. A physical examination shows papilledema. What may the symptoms indicate in this client? Epilepsy Trigeminal neuralgia Hypostatic pneumonia Brain tumor

Brain tumor The incidence of brain tumor increases with age. Headache and papilledema are less common symptoms of a brain tumor in the older adult. Symptoms of epilepsy include fits and spasms, while symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia would be pain in the jaws or facial muscles. Hypostatic pneumonia develops due to immobility or prolonged bed rest in older clients.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of self-care deficit, bathing related to motor impairment and decreased cognitive function for a client with cerebral metastasis. Which outcome would the nurse most likely identify on this client's plan of care? Client demonstrates positive coping strategies. Client participates in daily hygiene activities with assistive devices. Client expresses feelings related to self-care ability. Client consumes adequate calories to meet energy needs.

Client participates in daily hygiene activities with assistive devices. The client has a self-care deficit related to bathing. Therefore, an appropriate outcome would address the client's participation in daily hygiene measures. Positive coping strategies would be appropriate for a nursing diagnosis associated with anxiety or fear. Verbalizing feelings about self-care ability would be more appropriate for a nursing diagnosis involving self-esteem or role function. Consuming adequate calories would be appropriate for a nursing diagnosis involving imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements.

A client who is disoriented and restless after sustaining a concussion during a car accident is admitted to the hospital. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority in this client's care plan? Disturbed sensory perception (visual) Dressing or grooming self-care deficit Impaired verbal communication Risk for injury

Risk for injury Because the client is disoriented and restless, the most important nursing diagnosis is Risk for injury. Although Disturbed sensory perception (visual), Dressing or grooming self-care deficit, and Impaired verbal communication may all be appropriate, they're secondary because they don't immediately affect the client's health or safety.

A client is diagnosed with a brain tumor. As the nurse assists the client from the bed to a chair, the client begins having a generalized seizure. Which action should the nurse take first? Initiate the code team response. Put a padded tongue blade into the client's mouth and restrain his extremities. Record the type of seizure and the time that it occurred. Assist the client to the floor, in a side-lying position, and protect him with linens.

Assist the client to the floor, in a side-lying position, and protect him with linens. The nurse should protect the client from injury by assisting him to the floor, in a side-lying position, and protect him from harm by padding the floor with bed linens. Initiating a response from the code team isn't necessary because seizures are self-limiting. As long as the client's airway is protected, his cardiopulmonary status isn't affected. The nurse shouldn't force anything into the client's mouth during a seizure; doing so may cause injury. Documenting seizure activity is important, but it doesn't take priority over client safety.

x The nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the emergency department due to a severe headache with sudden onset, lowered level of consciousness and slurred, non-sensical speech. The client completed chemotherapy and radiation treatment for a glioma-type brain tumor 6 months ago. The client has been taking low molecular weight heparin since completing treatment. The nurse should be prepared to provide care for which possible problem? Intracerebral hemorrhage Deep vein thrombosis Pulmonary embolism Spinal metastasis

Intracerebral hemorrhage Clients receiving anticoagulant agents, such as low molecular weight heparin, must be closely monitored because of the risk of central nervous system hemorrhage, also known as an intercerebral hemorrhage. Both deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism would be prevented or mitigated by the use of anticoagulant medications such as low molecular weight heparin. The nurse should always consider the risk of these latter problems, however, because the client is clearly at risk for impaired coagulation. Spinal metastasis can result in spinal cord compression, which is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment. In this case, the nurse would observe reports of back pain, extremity weakness, ataxia and/or paralysis.

A client who has just been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy asks the nurse about the usual course of this disease. How should the nurse respond? "You should ask your physician about that." "The strength of your arms and pelvic muscles will decrease gradually, but this should cause only slight disability." "You may experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles." "This form of muscular dystrophy is a relatively benign disease that progresses slowly."

"You may experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles." The nurse should tell the client that muscular dystrophy causes progressive, symmetrical wasting of skeletal muscles, without neural or sensory defects. The mixed form of the disease typically strikes between ages 30 and 50 and progresses rapidly, causing deterioration of all voluntary muscles. Because the client asked the nurse this question directly, the nurse should answer and not simply refer the client to the physician. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy causes a gradual decrease in arm and pelvic muscle strength, resulting in slight disability. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is a slowly progressive, relatively benign form of muscular dystrophy; it usually arises before age 10.

Which type of brain injury is characterized by a loss of consciousness associated with stupor and confusion? Concussion Contusion Diffuse axonal injury Intracranial hemorrhage

Contusion Other characteristics can include tissue alteration and neurologic deficit without hematoma formation, alteration in consciousness without localizing signs, and hemorrhage into the tissue that varies in size and is surrounded by edema. The effects of injury (hemorrhage and edema) peak after about 18 to 36 hours. A concussion is a temporary loss of neurologic function with no apparent structural damage. A diffuse axonal injury involves widespread damage to the axons in the cerebral hemispheres, corpus callosum, and brainstem. An intracranial hemorrhage is a collection of blood that develops within the cranial vault.

The nurse is seeing a client who is suspected of having a glioblastoma multiforme tumor. The nurse anticipates the client will require which diagnostic test to confirm the client has this form of brain tumor? Tissue biopsy Weber and Rinne test Audible bruit over the skull An increase in prolactin

Tissue biopsy Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common and aggressive malignant brain tumor. In most cases, a tissue biopsy, which can be obtained at the time of surgical removal, is needed to confirm the diagnosis. A Weber and Rinne test may be useful in assessing asymmetric hearing loss associated with an acoustic neuroma, not glioblastoma multiforme. The diagnosis of an angioma is suggested by the presence of another angioma somewhere in the head or by a bruit (an abnormal sound) that is audible over the skull. Functioning pituitary adenoma can produce one or more hormones, normally by the anterior pituitary. Increase maybe seen in prolactin hormone, growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, or thyroid-stimulating hormone.

A client is transferred to the intensive care unit after evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which nursing intervention reduces the client's risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? Encouraging oral fluid intake Suctioning the client once each shift Elevating the head of the bed 90 degrees Administering a stool softener as ordered

Administering a stool softener as ordered To prevent the client from straining at stool, which may cause a Valsalva maneuver that increases ICP, the nurse should institute a regular bowel program that includes use of a stool softener. For a client at risk for increased ICP, the nurse should prevent, not encourage, oral fluid intake and should elevate the head of the bed only 30 degrees. Suctioning, indicated for a client with lung congestion, isn't necessary for this client.

Which of the following methods may be used by the nurse to maintain the peripheral circulation in a patient with increased intracerebral pressure (ICP)? Apply elastic stockings to lower extremities. Take care not to jar the bed or cause unnecessary activity. Assist the patient with frequent ambulation. Elevate patient's head or follow the physician's directive for body position.

Apply elastic stockings to lower extremities. To maintain the peripheral circulation in a patient with increased ICP, the nurse must apply elastic stockings to lower extremities. Elastic stockings support the valves of veins in the lower extremities to prevent venous stasis, and relieving pressure promotes the circulation of oxygenated blood through the capillary to peripheral cells and tissues and facilitates venous blood return. The patient's bed should not be jarred or shaken because unexpected physical movement tends to aggravate the pain and does not help in maintaining the peripheral circulation. On the other hand, head elevation helps venous blood and cerebrospinal fluid drain from cerebral areas.

The nurse is caring for a client who underwent surgery to remove a spinal cord tumor. When conducting the postoperative assessment, the nurse notes the presence of a bulge at the surgical site. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing what complication from the surgery? Cerebrospinal fluid leakage Infection at the surgical site Growth of a secondary tumor Impaired tissue healing

Cerebrospinal fluid leakage Bulging at the incision may indicate a contained cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The site should be monitored for increasing bulging, known as pseudomeningocele, which may require surgical repair. Infection at the surgical site should be suspected if the surgical dressing is stained. The bulge does not indicate growth of secondary tumor, this can only be identified using diagnostic imaging. Impaired tissue healing would be indicated if the nurse assessed redness, swelling and warmth at the surgical site during a dressing change. The bulge at the site warrants further assessment of a postsurgical leak of CSF.

x The nurse is evaluating the transmission of a report from a paramedic unit to the emergency department. The medic reports that a client is unconscious with edema of the head and face and Battle sign. What clinical picture would the nurse anticipate? Edema to the head and a blackened eye Edema to the head with a large scalp laceration Edema to the head with fixed pupils Edema to the head with bruising of the mastoid process

Edema to the head with bruising of the mastoid process Battle sign is the presence of bruising of the mastoid process behind the ear. It is not related to periorbital bleeding, lacerations, or fixed pupils.

A client with a brain tumor is complaining of a headache upon awakening. Which nursing action would the nurse take first? Elevate the head of the bed. Complete a head-to-toe assessment. Administer morning dose of anticonvulsant. Administer Percocet as ordered.

Elevate the head of the bed The first action would be to elevate the head of the bed to promote venous drainage of blood and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). Then, a neurological assessment would be completed to determine if any other assessment findings are significant of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). The administering of routine ordered drugs is not a priority, and narcotic analgesics would be avoided in clients with ICP issues.

A client undergoes a craniotomy with supratentorial surgery to remove a brain tumor. On the first postoperative day, the nurse notes the absence of a bone flap at the operative site. How should the nurse position the client's head? Flat Turned onto the operative side Elevated no more than 10 degrees Elevated 30 degrees

Elevated 30 degrees After supratentorial surgery, the nurse should elevate the client's head 30 degrees to promote venous outflow through the jugular veins. The nurse would keep the client's head flat after infratentorial, not supratentorial, surgery. However, after supratentorial surgery to remove a chronic subdural hematoma, the neurosurgeon may order the nurse to keep the client's head flat; typically, the client with such a hematoma is older and has a less expandable brain. A client without a bone flap can't be positioned with the head turned onto the operative side because doing so may injure brain tissue. Elevating the head 10 degrees or less wouldn't promote venous outflow through the jugular veins.

The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who just underwent surgery to remove a metastatic intramedullary tumor. On postoperative day 3, the client states, "I am really looking forward to going running again, it had become too difficult because of the loss of feeling in my feet." Which should the nurse address in the client's care plan? Body image disturbance Anxiety Impaired cognition Knowledge deficit

Knowledge deficit Clients with extensive neurologic deficits before surgery usually do not make significant functional recovery, even after successful tumor removal. In this case, the client had already developed bilateral sensory loss in the lower extremities indicating the fairly progressed impact of the tumor on the client's functional ability. The client's statement reflects a knowledge deficit and it is a priority to provide information regarding the possibility that lower extremity sensation may not return. Although body image disturbance and anxiety may be identified and addressed. This would occur after the client demonstrates an accurate understanding of loss of functional capabilities as a result of the progressed tumor. Ensuring the client understands the extent of functional loss due to the impact of the tumor is a priority. The client does not demonstrate impaired cognition.

A client diagnosed with Huntington disease is on a disease-modifying drug regimen and has a urinary catheter in place. Which potential complication is the highest priority for the nurse while monitoring the client? Severe depression Choreiform movements Urinary tract infection Emotional apathy

Urinary tract infection Because all disease-modifying drug regimens for Huntington disease can decrease immune cells and infection protection, it is most important for the nurse to assess for acquired infections such as urinary tract infections, especially if the client is catheterized. Severe depression is common and can lead to suicide. Symptoms of Huntington disease develop slowly and include mental apathy and emotional disturbances, choreiform movements (uncontrollable writhing and twisting of the body), grimacing, difficulty chewing and swallowing, speech difficulty, intellectual decline, and loss of bowel and bladder control. Assessing for these other conditions is appropriate but not as important as assessing for urinary tract infection in the client on a disease-modifying drug regimen with a urinary catheter in place.