Advanced Generalist Exam 1

Developing an organizational policy that supports unobstructed access to the ethics committee by health care team members is one example of a proactive approach to dealing with what issue? a. Moral distress b. Surrogate decision-makers c. Paternalism d. Patient advocacy

A Every organization must develop policies that support unobstructed access to resources such as the ethics committees to mitigate the harmful effects of moral distress in the pursuit of creating a healthy work environment.

The nurse is using the SFNO approach to case analysis to facilitate ethical decision making. What justification criteria may be used to help explain the reasons for selection of one option over another? a. Effectiveness b. Usefulness c. Legal ramifications d. Economics

A Justification criteria may be helpful in explaining the reasons for selecting one or two options as superior. These include necessity, effectiveness, proportionality, least infringement, and proper process. Usefulness, legal ramifications, and economics are not part of the criteria.

When assessing an intubated patient, the nurse notes normal breath sounds on the right side of the chest and absent breath sounds on the left side of the chest. What problem should the nurse suspect? a. Right mainstem intubation b. Left pneumothorax c. Right hemothorax d. Gastric intubation

A The finding of normal breath sounds on the right side of the chest and absent breath sounds on the left side of the chest in a newly intubated patient is probably caused by a right mainstem intubation.

Which statement best describes the definition of assault? a. An intentional act that causes the patient to believe that harm may have been done b. A statement that causes injury to the patient's standing in the community c. Negligence that results in harm to a spousal relationship d. An intentional act that brings about harm or offensive contact with the patient

A Assault occurs if the patient fears harmful or offensive touching. Battery is defined as an intentional act that brings about harm or offensive contact with the patient.

Which situations are early signs of an ethical dilemma? (Select all that apply.) a. Disagreements among health care team members b. Failure to discuss end-of-life issues with patient c. Aggressive pain management d. Belief that treatment is harmful e. Following the patient's advance directive despite family objections f. Providing hope to the patient's family

A, B, D Disagreements among health care team members, failure to discuss end-of-life issues with patient, and belief that treatment is harmful are early signs or indicators of an ethical dilemma.

What two medications are commonly prescribed at discharge for patients who have had a coronary artery stent placed? a. Aspirin and prasugrel b. Aspirin and abciximab c. Clopidogrel and eptifibatide d. Tirofiban and tricagrelor

A Because platelet activation is a complex process involving multiple pathways, combination therapy with two or more agents has proven most effective. The current standard of care for percutaneous coronary intervention typically includes dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and a thienopyridine. These oral agents are administered before the procedure and continued at discharge. Abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban are all intravenous antiplatelet agents.

Which oxygen delivery device is considered a low-flow system? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Reservoir cannula d. Air-entrainment nebulizer

A A low-flow oxygen delivery system provides supplemental oxygen directly into the patient's airway at a flow of 8 L/min or less. Because this flow is insufficient to meet the patient's inspiratory volume requirements, it results in a variable FiO2 as the supplemental oxygen is mixed with room air. A nasal cannula is a low-flow oxygen delivery system.

What condition develops when air enters the pleural space from the lung on inhalation and cannot exit on exhalation? a. Tension pneumothorax b. Sucking chest wound c. Open pneumothorax d. Pulmonary interstitial empyema

A A tension pneumothorax develops when air enters the pleural space from either the lung or the chest wall on inhalation and cannot escape on exhalation. Open pneumothorax is a laceration in the parietal pleura that allows atmospheric air to enter the pleural space; it occurs as a result of penetrating chest trauma. Pulmonary interstitial emphysema is air in the pulmonary interstitial space.

A patient suddenly develops a wide QRS complex tachycardia. The patient's heart rate is 220 beats/min and regular; blood pressure is 96/40 mm Hg; and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, and the patient is awake without complaint except for palpitations. Which of the following interventions would be best to try first? a. Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push b. Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV push c. Verapamil 5 mg IV push d. Digoxin 0.5 mg IV push

A Adenosine (Adenocard) is an antidysrhythmic agent that remains unclassified under the current system. Adenosine occurs endogenously in the body as a building block of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Given in intravenous boluses, adenosine slows conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, causing transient AV block. It is used clinically to convert supraventricular tachycardias and to facilitate differential diagnosis of rapid dysrhythmias.

Adenosine is an antidysrhythmic agent that is given primarily what reason? a. To convert supraventricular tachycardias b. To suppress premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) c. To treat second and third degree AV blocks d. To coarsen ventricular fibrillation so that defibrillation is effective

A Adenosine occurs endogenously in the body as a building block of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Given in intravenous boluses, adenosine slows conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, causing transient AV block. It is used clinically to convert supraventricular tachycardias and to facilitate the differential diagnosis of rapid dysrhythmias.

Which route for endotracheal (ET) tube placement is usually used in an emergency intubation? a. Orotracheal b. Nasotracheal c. Nasopharyngeal d. Trachea

A An endotracheal tube (ETT) may be placed through the orotracheal or the nasotracheal route. In most situations involving emergency placement, the orotracheal route is used because it is simpler and allows the use of a larger diameter ETT. Nasotracheal intubation provides greater patient comfort over time and is preferred in patients with a jaw fracture.

Which clinical manifestation is usually the first symptom of peripheral arterial disease (PAD)? a. Cramping when walking b. Thrombophlebitis c. Pulmonary embolism d. Cordlike veins

A Arterial occlusion obstructs blood flow to the distal extremity. The lack of blood flow produces ischemic muscle pain known as intermittent claudication. This cramping, aching pain while walking is often the first symptom of peripheral arterial occlusive disease. The pain is relieved by rest and may remain stable in occurrence and intensity for many years.

What nursing intervention can minimize the complications of suctioning? a. Inserting the suction catheter no more than 5 inches b. Premedicating the patient with atropine c. Hyperoxygenating the patient with 100% oxygen d. Increasing the suction to 150 mm Hg

C Hypoxemia can be minimized by giving the patient three hyperoxygenation breaths (breaths at 100% FiO2) with the ventilator before the procedure and again after each pass of the suction catheter.

Which statement describes the assist-control mode of ventilation? a. It delivers gas at preset volume, at a set rate, and in response to the patient's inspiratory efforts. b. It delivers gas at a preset volume, allowing the patient to breathe spontaneously at his or her own volume. c. It applies positive pressure during both ventilator breaths and spontaneous breaths. d. It delivers gas at preset rate and tidal volume regardless of the patient's inspiratory efforts.

A Continuous mandatory (volume or pressure) ventilation (CMV), also known as assist-control (AC) ventilation, delivers gas at preset tidal volume or pressure (depending on selected cycling variable) in response to patient's inspiratory efforts and initiates breath if patient fails to do so within preset time.

A patient was admitted following an aspiration event on the medical-surgical floor. The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask. The patient has become increasingly agitated and confused. The patient's oxygen saturation has dropped from 92% to 84%. The nurse notifies the practitioner about the change in the patient's condition. What interventions should the nurse anticipate? a. Intubation and mechanical ventilation b. Change in antibiotics orders c. Suction and reposition the patient d. Orders for a sedative

A Given the significant drop in oxygen saturation, increasing agitation and confusion, the nurse should anticipate the patient will need to be intubated and mechanically ventilated. Administering antibiotics, suctioning and repositioning, and administering a sedative would not address the development of severe hypoxemia.

What two pathogens are most frequently associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia? a. Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Escherichia coli and Haemophilus influenzae c. Acinetobacter baumannii and Haemophilus influenzae d. Klebsiella spp. and Enterobacter spp.

A Pathogens that can cause hospital-associated pneumonia (HAP) include Escherichia coli, H. influenzae, methicillin-sensitive S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, P. aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA), Klebsiella spp., and Enterobacter spp. Two of the pathogens most frequently associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) are S. aureus and P. aeruginosa.

The patient is 72 hours postoperative for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The patient's vital signs include temperature 103° F, heart rate 112, respiratory rate 22, blood pressure 134/78 mm Hg, and O2 saturation 94% on 3L nasal cannula. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed what problem? a. Infection and notifies the physician immediately b. Infection, which is common postoperatively, and monitors the patient's condition c. Cardiac tamponade and notifies the physician immediately d. Delirium caused by the elevated temperature

A Postoperative fever is fairly common after cardiopulmonary bypass. However, persistent temperature elevation to greater than 101° F (38.3° C) must be investigated. Sternal wound infections and infective endocarditis are the most devastating infectious complications, but leg wound infections, pneumonia, and urinary tract infections also can occur. A potentially lethal complication, cardiac tamponade may occur after surgery if blood accumulates in the mediastinal space, impairing the heart's ability to pump. Signs of tamponade include elevated and equalized filling pressures (eg, central venous pressure, pulmonary artery diastolic pressure, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure), decreased cardiac output, decreased blood pressure, jugular venous distention, pulsus paradoxus, muffled heart sounds, sudden cessation of chest tube drainage, and a widened cardiac silhouette on radiographs. The risk of delirium is increased in cardiac surgery patients, especially elderly patients, and is associated with increased mortality rates and reduced quality of life and cognitive function. Nursing staff can play a critical role in the prevention and recognition of delirium.

Which nursing intervention should be used to optimize oxygenation and ventilation in the patient with acute lung failure? a. Provide adequate rest and recovery time between procedures. b. Position the patient with the good lung up. c. Suction the patient every hour. d. Avoid hyperventilating the patient.

A Providing adequate rest and recovery time between various procedures prevents desaturation and optimizes oxygenation. In acute lung failure, the goal of positioning is to place the least affected area of the patient's lung in the most dependent position. Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position. Hyperventilate the patient before suctioning; suction patients as needed.

What are the most common presenting signs and symptoms associated with a pulmonary embolism (PE)? a. Tachycardia and tachypnea b. Hemoptysis and evidence of deep vein thromboses c. Apprehension and dyspnea d. Right ventricular failure and fever

A The patient with a pulmonary embolism may have any number of presenting signs and symptoms, with the most common being tachycardia and tachypnea. Additional signs and symptoms that may be present include dyspnea, apprehension, increased pulmonic component of the second heart sound (P1), fever, crackles, pleuritic chest pain, cough, evidence of deep vein thrombosis, and hemoptysis. Syncope and hemodynamic instability can occur as a result of right ventricular failure.

Identify complications with the above rhythm strip. a. Undersensing from a pacemaker b. Oversensing from a pacemaker c. ICD firing caused by VF d. Atrial pacing failure to capture

A Undersensing is the inability of the pacemaker to sense spontaneous myocardial depolarizations. Undersensing results in competition between paced complexes and the heart's intrinsic rhythm. This malfunction is manifested on the electrocardiogram by pacing artifacts that occur after or are unrelated to spontaneous complexes. Oversensing occurs as a result of inappropriate sensing of extraneous electrical signals that leads to unnecessary triggering or inhibition of stimulus output, depending on the pacer mode. The source of these electrical signals can range from tall peaked T waves to external electromagmetic interference in the critical care environment. The implantable cardioverter defibrillator system consists of leads and a generator and is similar to a pacemaker but with some key differences. The leads contain not only electrodes for sensing and pacing but also integrated defibrillator coils capable of delivering a shock. If the pacing stimulus fires but fails to initiate a myocardial depolarization, a pacing artifact will be present but will not be followed by the expected P wave.

Which oxygen administration device can deliver oxygen concentrations of 90%? a. Nonrebreathing mask b. Nasal cannula c. Partial rebreathing mask d. Simple mask

A With an FiO2 of 55% to 70%, a nonrebreathing mask with a tight seal over the face can deliver 90% to 100% oxygen. It is used in emergencies and short-term therapy requiring moderate to high FiO2.

Which interventions minimize the complications associated with suctioning an artificial airway? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperoxygenate the patient prior to the start of the procedure b. Hyperoxygenate the patient after each pass of the suction catheter c. Limit the duration of each suction pass to 20 seconds d. Instill 5 to 10 mL of normal saline to facilitate secretion removal e. Use intermittent suction to avoid damaging tracheal tissue

A, B Hyperoxygenation and limiting the number of passes help avoid desaturation. There is no evidence to suggest that intermittent suction reduces damage, and saline instillation can actually increase the risk for infection.

Which of the following are complications of endotracheal tubes? (Select all that apply.) a. Tracheoesophageal fistula b. Cricoid abscess c. Tracheal stenosis d. Tube obstruction e. Hemorrhage

A, B, C, D Complications of endotracheal tubes include tube obstruction, tube displacement, sinusitis and nasal injury, tracheoesophageal fistula, mucosal lesions, laryngeal or tracheal stenosis, and cricoid abscess. Hemorrhage is a complication of tracheostomy tubes.

What psychologic factors contribute to long-term mechanical ventilation dependence? (Select all that apply.) a. Fear b. Delirium c. Lack of confidence d. Depression e. Trust in the stuff

A, B, C, D Psychologic factors contributing to long-term mechanical ventilation dependence include a loss of breathing pattern control (anxiety, fear, dyspnea, pain, ventilator asynchrony, lack of confidence in ability to breathe), lack of motivation and confidence (inadequate trust in staff, depersonalization, hopelessness, powerlessness, depression, inadequate communication), and delirium (sensory overload, sensory deprivation, sleep deprivation, pain medications).

Medical management of a patient with status asthmaticus includes which treatments? (Select all that apply.) a. Oxygen therapy b. Bronchodilators c. Corticosteroids d. Antibiotics e. Intubation and mechanical ventilation

A, B, C, E Medical management of a patient with status asthmaticus is directed toward supporting oxygenation and ventilation. Bronchodilators, corticosteroids, oxygen therapy, and intubation and mechanical ventilation are the mainstays of therapy.

A patient is diagnosed with third-degree heart failure. The nurse reviews the patient's medication list. Which classifications of drugs should be avoided with this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) b. Antidysrhythmics c. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors d. Calcium channel blockers e. Beta-blockers

A, B, D Types of medications that have been found to worsen heart failure should be avoided, including most antidysrhythmics, calcium channel blockers, and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and beta-blockers are used to treat heart failure.

Nursing management of the patient with acute lung failure includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.) a. Positioning the patient with the least affected side up b. Providing adequate rest between treatments c. Performing percussion and postural drainage every 4 hours d. Controlling fever e. Pharmaceutical medications to control anxiety

A, B, D, E The goal of positioning is to place the least affected area of the patient's lung in the most dependent position. Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position. Patients with diffuse lung disease may benefit from being positioned with the right lung down because it is larger and more vascular than the left lung. For patients with alveolar hypoventilation, the goal of positioning is to facilitate ventilation. These patients benefit from nonrecumbent positions such as sitting or a semierect position. In addition, semirecumbency has been shown to decrease the risk of aspiration and inhibit the development of hospital-associated pneumonia. Frequent repositioning (at least every 2 hours) is beneficial in optimizing the patient's ventilatory pattern and ventilation/perfusion matching. These include performing procedures only as needed, hyperoxygenating the patient before suctioning, providing adequate rest and recovery time between various procedures, and minimizing oxygen consumption. Interventions to minimize oxygen consumption include limiting the patient's physical activity, administering sedation to control anxiety, and providing measures to control fever.

What are the clinical manifestations associated with oxygen toxicity? (Select all that apply.) a. Substernal chest pain that increases with deep breathing b. Moist cough and tracheal irritation c. Pleuritic pain occurring on inhalation, followed by dyspnea d. Increasing CO2 e. Sore throat and eye and ear discomfort

A, C, E A number of clinical manifestations are associated with oxygen toxicity. The first symptom is substernal chest pain that is exacerbated by deep breathing. A dry cough and tracheal irritation follow. Eventually, definite pleuritic pain occurs on inhalation followed by dyspnea. Upper airway changes may include a sensation of nasal stuffiness, sore throat, and eye and ear discomforts.

Use of oxygen therapy in the patient who is hypercapnic may result in which situation? a. Oxygen toxicity b. Absorption atelectasis c. Carbon dioxide retention d. Pneumothorax

C Deoxygenated hemoglobin carries more CO2 compared with oxygenated hemoglobin. Administration of oxygen increases the proportion of oxygenated hemoglobin, which causes increased release of CO2 at the lung level. Because of the risk of CO2 accumulation, all patients who are chronically hypercapnic require careful low-flow oxygen administration.

Which action best reflects the concept of beneficence within the critical care setting? a. Advocating for equitable health care b. Promoting for safe patient care c. Ensuring equal access for those with the same condition or diagnosis d. Confirming technologic advances are available to all in a given community

B Advocating for patient safety is an example of beneficence. The other actions are examples of justice.

A patient was admitted 3 days ago with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). The patient complains of fatigue, not sleeping the past two nights, and change in appetite. Based on these findings the nurse suspects the patient may be experiencing which problem? a. Angina b. Anxiety c. Depression d. Endocarditis

C Depression is a phenomenon that occurs across a wide spectrum of human experience. Key symptoms of depression mentioned frequently by cardiac patients are fatigue, change in appetite, and sleep disturbance.

When is a patient a candidate for a surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)? a. Size is 1 cm b. Patient experiencing symptoms c. Aneurysm size unchanged over several years d. Size less than 4 cm

B An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is usually repaired when the aneurysm is 5 cm or larger, creating symptoms, or rapidly expanding. This is done to prevent the high mortality rate associated with abdominal rupture.

For which situation does a patient with acute lung failure require a bronchodilator? a. Excessive secretions b. Bronchospasms c. Thick secretions d. Fighting the ventilator

B Bronchodilators aid in smooth muscle relaxation and are of particular benefit to patients with airflow limitations. Mucolytics and expectorants are no longer used because they have been found to be of no benefit in this patient population.

Which statement is correct concerning endotracheal tube cuff management? a. The cuff should be deflated every hour to minimize pressure on the trachea. b. A small leak should be heard on inspiration if the cuff has been inflated using the minimal leak technique. c. Cuff pressures should be kept between 20 to 30 mm Hg to ensure an adequate seal. d. Cuff pressure monitoring should be done once every 24 hours.

B Cuff pressures are monitored at a minimum of every shift and are maintained within 20 to 30 mm Hg because greater pressures decrease blood flow to the capillaries in the tracheal wall and lesser pressures increase the risk of aspiration. Pressures greater than 30 mm Hg (41 cm H2O) should be reported to the physician. Cuffs are not routinely deflated because this increases the risk of aspiration. The minimal leak technique is no longer recommended.

Which anticoagulant enhances the activity of antithrombin III and does not require activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) or activated clotting time (ACT) monitoring? a. Heparin b. Enoxaparin c. Bivalirudin d. Argatroban

B Enoxaparin (Lovenox) enhances activity of antithrombin III, a more predictable response than heparin, because enoxaparin is not largely bound to protein. There is no need for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) or activated clotting time (ACT) monitoring, and there is a lower risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) than with unfractionated heparin (UFH). Heparin sodium enhances activity of antithrombin III, a natural anticoagulant, to prevent clot formation. The effectiveness of treatment may be monitored by aPTT or ACT. Response is variable because of binding with plasma proteins effects may be reversed with protamine sulfate. Bivalirudin (Angiomax) directly inhibits thrombin. It may be administered alone or in combination with glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors and produces a dose-dependent increase in aPTT and ACT. It may be used instead of UFH for patients with HIT. Argatroban (Argatroban) directly inhibits thrombin. It may be used instead of UFH for patients with HIT. Whereas ACT is monitored during percutaneous coronary intervention, aPTT is used during prolonged infusion.

A patient with acute lung failure has been on a ventilator for 3 days and is being considered for weaning. When entering the room, the ventilator inoperative alarm sounds. What action should the nurse take FIRST? a. Troubleshoot the ventilator until the problem is found. b. Take the patient off the ventilator and manually ventilate. c. Call the respiratory therapist for help. d. Silence the ventilator alarms until the problem is resolved

B Ensure emergency equipment is at bedside at all times (eg, manual resuscitation bag connected to oxygen, masks, suction equipment or supplies), including preparations for power failures. If the ventilator malfunctions, the patient should be removed from the ventilator and ventilated manually with a manual resuscitation bag.

A patient was taken to surgery for a left lung resection. The patient returned to the unit 30 minutes ago. Upon completion of the assessment, the nurse notices that the chest tube has drained 150 mL of red fluid in the past 30 minutes. The nurse contacts the physician and suspects that the patient has developed what complication? a. Pulmonary edema b. Hemorrhage c. Acute lung failure d. Bronchopleural fistula

B Hemorrhage is an early, life-threatening complication that can occur after a lung resection. It can result from bronchial or intercostal artery bleeding or disruption of a suture or clip around a pulmonary vessel. Excessive chest tube drainage can signal excessive bleeding. During the immediate postoperative period, chest tube drainage should be measured every 15 minutes; this frequency should be decreased as the patient stabilizes. If chest tube loss is greater than 100 mL/h, fresh blood is noted, or a sudden increase in drainage occurs, hemorrhage should be suspected.

A patient with acute lung failure has been on a ventilator for 3 days and is being considered for weaning. The ventilator high-pressure limit alarm keeps alarming. What would cause this problem? a. A leak in the patient's endotracheal (ET) tube cuff b. A kink in the ventilator tubing c. The patient is disconnected from the ventilator d. A faulty oxygen filter

B High-pressure alarms will sound because of improper alarm setting; airway obstruction resulting from patient fighting ventilator (holding breath as ventilator delivers Vt); patient circuit collapse; kinked tubing; the endotracheal tube in the right mainstem bronchus or against the carina; cuff herniation; increased airway resistance resulting from bronchospasm, airway secretions, plugs, and coughing; water from the humidifier in the ventilator tubing; and decreased lung compliance resulting from tension pneumothorax, change in patient position, acute respiratory distress syndrome, pulmonary edema, atelectasis, pneumonia, or abdominal distention.

Which medication can cause bronchospasms and should be administered with a bronchodilator? a. Beta-2 agonist b. Mucloytics c. Anticholinergic agents d. Xanthines

B Mucolytics may be administered with a bronchodilator because it can cause bronchospasms and inhibit ciliary function. Treatment is considered effective when bronchorrhea develops and coughing occurs. Beta-2 agonists are used to relax bronchial smooth muscle and dilate airways to prevent bronchospasms. Anticholinergic agents are used to block the constriction of bronchial smooth muscle and reduce mucus production. Xanthines are used to dilate bronchial smooth muscle and reverse diaphragmatic muscle fatigue.

Which calcium channel blocker is beneficial in the treatment of patients with coronary artery disease or ischemic stroke? a. Nifedipine b. Nicardipine c. Clevidipine d. Diltiazem

B Nicardipine was the first available intravenous calcium channel blocker and as such could be more easily titrated to control blood pressure. Because this medication has vasodilatory effects on coronary and cerebral vessels, it has proven beneficial in treating hypertension in patients with coronary artery disease or ischemic stroke. Nifedipine is available only in an oral form, but in the past it was prescribed sublingually during hypertensive emergencies. Clevidipine is a new, short-acting calcium channel blocker that allows for even more precise titration of blood pressure in the management of acute hypertension. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is from the benzothiazine group of calcium channel blockers. These medications dilate coronary arteries but have little effect on the peripheral vasculature. They are used in the treatment of angina, especially that which has a vasospastic component, and as antidysrhythmics in the treatment of supraventricular tachycardias.

What nursing interventions should be included in the nursing management of the patient receiving a neuromuscular blocking agent? a. Withholding all sedation and narcotics b. Protecting the patient from the environment c. Keeping the patient supine d. Speaking to the patient only when necessary

B Patient safety is a major concern for the patient receiving a neuromuscular blocking agent because these patients are unable to protect themselves from the environment. Special precautions should be taken to protect the patient at all times.

Patient safety precautions when working with oxygen include which action? a. Observing for signs of oxygen-associated hyperventilation b. Ensuring the oxygen device is properly positioned c. Removal of all oxygen devices when eating d. Administration of oxygen at the nurse's discretion

B Patient safety precautions when working with oxygen involve administration of oxygen and monitoring of its effectiveness. Activities include restricting smoking, administering supplemental oxygen as ordered, observing for signs of oxygen-induced hypoventilation, monitoring the patient's ability to tolerate removal of oxygen while eating, and changing the oxygen delivery device from a mask to nasal prongs during meals as tolerated.

What is the preferred initial treatment of an acute myocardial infarction? a. Fibrinolytic therapy b. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) c. Coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG) d. Implanted Cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)

B Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is now preferred as the initial method of treatment for acute myocardial infarction (MI; primary PCI). PCI includes balloon angioplasty, atherectomy, and stent implantation, as well as a number of adjunctive devices used to facilitate successful revascularization in coronary vessels.

A patient was admitted with acute lung failure secondary to pneumonia. What is the single most important measure to prevent the spread of infection between staff and patients? a. Place the patient in respiratory isolation. b. Ensure everyone is using proper hand hygiene. c. Use personal protective equipment. d. Initiate prompt administration of antibiotics.

B Proper hand hygiene is the single most important measure available to prevent the spread of bacteria from person to person.

Which diagnostic criteria is indicative of mild adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Radiologic evidence of bibasilar atelectasis b. PaO2/FiO2 ratio less than or equal to 200 mm Hg c. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure greater than 18 mm Hg d. Increase in static and dynamic compliance

B The Berlin Definition of ARDS is as follows: timing—within 1 week of known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms; chest imaging—bilateral opacities not fully explained by effusions, lobar or lung collapse, or nodules; origin of edema—respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload; need objective assessment to exclude hydrostatic edema if no risk factor present; oxygenation—mild (200 mg Hg less than PaO2/FiO2 less than or equal to 300 mm Hg with positive end-respiratory airway pressure (PEEP) or constant positive airway pressure greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O), moderate (100 mg Hg less than PaO2/FiO2 less than or equal to 200 mm Hg with PEEP greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O), or severe (PaO2/FiO2 less than or equal to 100 mm Hg with PEEP greater than or equal to 5 cm H2O). The mortality rate for ARDS is estimated to be 34% to 58%.

What is the major hemodynamic consequence of a massive pulmonary embolus? a. Increased systemic vascular resistance leading to left heart failure b. Pulmonary hypertension leading to right heart failure c. Portal vein blockage leading to ascites d. Embolism to the internal carotids leading to a stroke

B The major hemodynamic consequence of a pulmonary embolus is the development of pulmonary hypertension, which is part of the effect of a mechanical obstruction when more than 50% of the vascular bed is occluded. In addition, the mediators released at the injury site and the development of hypoxia cause pulmonary vasoconstriction, which further exacerbates pulmonary hypertension.

A trauma victim has sustained right rib fractures and pulmonary contusions. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. Bulging intercostal muscles are noted on the right side. Heart rate (HR) is 130 beats/min, respiratory rate (RR) is 32 breaths/min, and breathing is labored. In addition to oxygen administration, what procedure should the nurse anticipate? a. Thoracentesis b. Chest tube insertion c. Pericardiocentesis d. Emergent intubation

B The patient is experiencing a pneumothorax and will need immediate chest tube insertion. Chest tubes are inserted into the pleural space to remove fluid or air, reinstate the negative intrapleural pressure, and re-expand a collapsed lung.

Which ventilator phase variable initiates the change from exhalation to inspiration? a. Cycle b. Trigger c. Flow d. Pressure

B The phase variable that initiates the change from exhalation to inspiration is called the trigger. Breaths may be pressure triggered or flow triggered based on the sensitivity setting of the ventilator and the patient's inspiratory effort or time triggered based on the rate setting of the ventilator.

A patient was admitted with acute lung failure. The patient has been on a ventilator for 3 days and is being considered for weaning. Which criteria would indicate that the patient is ready to be weaned? a. FiO2 greater than 50% b. Rapid shallow breathing index less than 105 c. Minute ventilation greater than 10 L/min d. Vital capacity/kg greater than or equal to 15 mL

B The rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI) has been shown to be predictive of weaning success. To calculate the RSBI, the patient's respiratory rate and minute ventilation are measured for 1 minute during spontaneous breathing. The measured respiratory rate is then divided by the tidal volume (expressed in liters). An RSBI less than 105 is considered predictive of weaning success. If the patient meets criteria for weaning readiness and has an RSBI less than 105, a spontaneous breathing trial can be performed.

What is the therapeutic blood level for theophylline (Xanthines)? a. 5 to 10 mg/dL b. 10 to 20 mg/dL c. 20 to 30 mg/dL d. 35 to 45 mg/dL

B Therapeutic blood level for theophylline is 10 to 20 mg/dL.

Which signs and symptoms would indicate successful reperfusion after administration of a fibrinolytic agent? (Select all that apply.) a. Gradual decrease in chest pain b. Intermittent, multifocal premature ventricular contractions c. Rapid resolution of ST elevation d. Rapid rise in creatine kinase MB fraction

B, C, D A reliable indicator of reperfusion is the appearance of various "reperfusion" dysrhythmias such as premature ventricular contractions, bradycardia, heart block, and ventricular tachycardia. Rapid resolution of the previously elevated ST segment should occur. The serum concentration of creatine kinase rises rapidly and markedly, a phenomenon termed washout.

Nursing interventions after angioplasty would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees b. Hydration as a renal protection measure c. Assessing pedal pulses on the involved limb every 15 minutes for the first 2 hours after the procedure d. Monitoring the vascular hemostatic device for signs of bleeding e. Educating the patient on the necessity of staying supine for 1 to 2 hours after the procedure

B, C, D The head of the bed must not be elevated more than 30 degrees, and the patient should be instructed to keep the affected leg straight. Bed rest is 6 to 8 hours in duration unless a vascular hemostatic device is used. The nurse observes the patient for bleeding or swelling at the puncture site and frequently assesses adequacy of circulation to the involved extremity.

Which patients would be a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. The patient's chest pain started 8 hours ago. She has a diagnosis of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). b. The patient's chest pain started 3 hours ago, and her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a new left bundle branch block. c. The patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain of 30 minutes' duration. She has a history of cerebrovascular accident 1 month ago. d. The patient has a history of unstable angina. He has been experiencing chest pain with sudden onset. e. The patient's chest pain started 1 hour ago, and his ECG shows ST elevation.

B, E Eligibility criteria for administering fibrinolytics include chest pain of less than 12 hours' duration and persistent ST elevation. Exclusion criteria include recent surgery, cerebrovascular accident, and trauma.

Which statements regarding rotation therapies are accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (CLRT) can be effective for improving oxygenation if used for at least 18 hours/day. b. Kinetic therapy can decrease the incidence of ventilator-acquired pneumonia in neurologic and postoperative patients. c. Use of rotational therapy eliminates the need for other pressure ulcer prevention strategies. d. CLRT helps avoid hemodynamic instability secondary to the continuous, gentle turning of the patient. e. CLRT has minimal pulmonary benefits for critically ill patients.

B, E Studies have found that to achieve benefits with rotation therapy, rotation must be aggressive, and the patient must be at least 40 degrees per side, with a total arc of at least 80 degrees for at least 18 hours a day. Kinetic therapy has been shown to decrease the incidence of ventilator-acquired pneumonia, particularly in neurologic and postoperative patients. Complications of the procedure include dislodgment or obstruction of tubes, drains, and lines; hemodynamic instability; and pressure ulcers. Lateral rotation does not replace manual repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (CLRT) has been shown to be of minimal pulmonary benefit for the critically ill patients.

Which finding confirms the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism (PE)? a. Low-probability ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan b. Negative pulmonary angiogram c. High-probability V/Q scan d. Absence of vascular markings on the chest radiograph

C A definitive diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism requires confirmation by a high-probability ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan, an abnormal pulmonary angiogram or computed tomography scan, or strong clinical suspicion coupled with abnormal findings on lower extremity deep venous thrombosis studies.

After admission a patient shares with the nurse a concern that her adult children will not be able to reach agreement on what to do if she is no longer able to make decisions for herself. The nurse informs the patient that it is possible to grant authority to one person to make decision through which mechanism? a. Court-appointed guardian b. Do-not-resuscitate order c. Durable power of attorney for health care d. Living will

C A durable power of attorney for health care includes legally binding documents that allow individuals to specify a variety of preferences, particular treatments he or she wants to avoid, and circumstances in which he or she wishes to avoid them. The durable power of attorney for health care is a directive through which a patient designates an "agent," someone who will make decisions for the patient if the patient becomes unable to do so. A living will specifies that if certain circumstances occur, such as terminal illness, the patient will decline specific treatments, such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation and mechanical ventilation.

What is an indication for a pneumonectomy? a. Peripheral granulomas b. Bronchiectasis c. Unilateral tuberculosis d. Single lung abscess

C A pneumonectomy is the removal of entire lung with or without resection of the mediastinal lymph nodes. Indications include malignant lesions, unilateral tuberculosis, extensive unilateral bronchiectasis, multiple lung abscesses, massive hemoptysis, and bronchopleural fistula.

What is the medical treatment for a pneumothorax greater than 15%? a. Systemic antibiotics to treat the inflammatory response b. An occlusive dressing to equalize lung pressures c. Interventions to evacuate the air from the pleural space d. Mechanical ventilation to assist with re-expansion of the collapsed lung

C A pneumothorax greater than 15% requires intervention to evacuate the air from the pleural space and facilitate re-expansion of the collapsed lung. Interventions include aspiration of the air with a needle and placement of a small-bore (12 to 20 Fr) or large-bore (24 to 40 Fr) chest tube.

A patient was admitted in acute lung failure. The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask. The morning chest radiography study reveals right lower lobe pneumonia. Which test would the nurse expect the practitioner to order to identify the infectious pathogen? a. CBC with differential b. Wound culture of surgical site c. Sputum Gram stain and culture d. Urine specimen

C A sputum Gram stain and culture are done to facilitate the identification of the infectious pathogen. In 50% of cases, though, a causative agent is not identified. A diagnostic bronchoscopy may be needed, particularly if the diagnosis is unclear or current therapy is not working. In addition, a complete blood count (CBC) with differential, chemistry panel, blood cultures, and arterial blood gas analysis is obtained.

Which airway would be the most appropriate for a patient requiring intubation longer than 21 days? a. Oropharyngeal airway b. Esophageal obturator airway c. Tracheostomy tube d. Endotracheal intubation

C Although no ideal time to perform the procedure has been identified, it is commonly accepted that if a patient has been intubated or is anticipated to be intubated for longer than 7 to 10 days, a tracheostomy should be performed.

Which oxygen therapy device should is used in a patient requiring the delivery of a precise low FiO2? a. Simple mask b. Nasal cannula c. Air-entrainment mask d. Partial rebreathing mask

C An air-entrainment mask is used in patients requiring the delivery of a precise low FiO2. A simple mask, partial rebreathing mask, and nasal cannula are not able to provide as precise level of oxygen as an air-entrainment mask.

Ch 19 Which cause of hypoxemia is the result of blood passing through unventilated portions of the lungs? a. Alveolar hypoventilation b. Dead space ventilation c. Intrapulmonary shunting d. Physiologic shunting

C Hypoxemia is the result of impaired gas exchange and is the hallmark of acute respiratory failure. Hypercapnia may be present, depending on the underlying cause of the problem. The main causes of hypoxemia are alveolar hypoventilation, ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatching, and intrapulmonary shunting. Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when blood passes through a portion of a lung that is not ventilated. Physiologic shunting is normal and not a cause of hypoxemia.

The Passy-Muir valve is contraindicated in which patient? a. A patient who is trying to relearn normal breathing patterns b. A patient who has minimal secretions c. A patient with laryngeal or pharyngeal dysfunction d. A patient who wants to speak while on the ventilator

C The Passy-Muir valve is contraindicated in patients with laryngeal or pharyngeal dysfunction, excessive secretions, or poor lung compliance.

Depending on the patient's risk for the recurrence of pulmonary embolism (PE), how long may a patient remain on warfarin once they are discharged from the hospital? a. 1 to 3 months b. 3 to 6 months c. 3 to 12 months d. 12 to 36 months

C The patient should remain on warfarin for 3 to 12 months depending on his or her risk for thromboembolic disease.

Which therapeutic measure would be the most effective in treating hypoxemia in the presence of intrapulmonary shunting associated with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Sedating the patient to blunt noxious stimuli b. Increasing the FiO2 on the ventilator c. Administering positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP) d. Restricting fluids to 500 mL per shift

C The purpose of using positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP) in a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome is to improve oxygenation while reducing FiO2 to less toxic levels. PEEP has several positive effects on the lungs, including opening collapsed alveoli, stabilizing flooded alveoli, and increasing functional residual capacity. Thus, PEEP decreases intrapulmonary shunting and increases compliance.

Why are vasopressors used cautiously in the treatment of critical care patients? a. They cause vasoconstriction of the smooth muscles. b. They cause vasodilation of the smooth muscles. c. They increase afterload. d. They decrease preload.

C Vasopressors are not widely used in the treatment of critically ill cardiac patients because the dramatic increase in afterload is taxing to a damaged heart. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone, has become popular in the critical care setting for its vasoconstrictive effects. At higher doses, vasopressin directly stimulates V1 receptors in vascular smooth muscle, resulting in vasoconstriction of capillaries and small arterioles.

A patient was admitted to the critical care unit with acute respiratory failure. The patient has been on a ventilator for 3 days and is being considered for weaning. Which criteria would indicate that the patient is not tolerating weaning? a. A decrease in heart rate from 92 to 80 beats/min b. An SpO2 of 92% c. An increase in respiratory rate from 22 to 38 breaths/min d. Spontaneous tidal volumes of 300 to 350 mL

C Weaning intolerance indicators include (1) a decrease in level of consciousness; (2) a systolic blood pressure increased or decreased by 20 mm Hg; (3) a diastolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg; (4) a heart rate increased by 20 beats/min; (5) premature ventricular contractions greater than 6/min, couplets, or runs of ventricular tachycardia; (6) changes in ST segment (usually elevation); (7) a respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths/min or less than 10 breaths/min; (8) a respiratory rate increased by 10 breaths/min; (9) a spontaneous tidal volume less than 250 mL; (10) a PaCO2 increased by 5 to 8 mm Hg or pH less than 7.30; (11) an SpO2 less than 90%; (12) use of accessory muscles of ventilation; (13) complaints of dyspnea, fatigue, or pain; (14) paradoxical chest wall motion or chest abdominal asynchrony; (15) diaphoresis; and (16) severe agitation or anxiety unrelieved with reassurance.

To select the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should ensure the airway extends from which area to which area? a. Tip of the nose to the ear lobe b. Middle of the mouth to the ear lobe c. Tip of the nose to the middle of the trachea d. Corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw

D An oropharyngeal airway's proper size is selected by holding the airway against the side of the patient's face and ensuring that it extends from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw. If the airway is improperly sized, it will occlude the airway. Nasopharyngeal airways are measured by holding the tube against the side of the patient's face and ensuring that it extends from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe.

A patient has been admitted with the diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Arterial blood gasses (ABGs) revealed an elevated pH and decreased PaCO2. The patient is becoming fatigued, and the practitioner orders a repeat ABG. Which set of results would be indicative of the patient's current condition? a. Elevated pH and decreased PaCO2 b. Elevated pH and elevated PaCO2 c. Decreased pH and decreased PaCO2 d. Decreased pH and elevated PaCO2

D Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a low PaO2 despite increases in supplemental oxygen administration (refractory hypoxemia). Initially, the PaCO2 is low as a result of hyperventilation, but eventually the PaCO2 increases as the patient fatigues. The pH is high initially but decreases as respiratory acidosis develops.

A patient is admitted after a positive exercise treadmill test with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD) and stable angina. Radiographic tests show that the patient has blockage in the left main coronary artery and four other vessels. The nurse anticipates that the patient's treatment plan will include what treatment or procedure? a. Medical therapy b. PCI c. TAVR d. CABG

D Early studies demonstrated coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery was more effective than medical therapy for improving survival in patients with left main or three-vessel coronary artery disease and at relieving anginal symptoms. Medical therapy is recommended if the ischemia is prevented by antianginal medications that are well tolerated by the patient. Surgical revascularization has been shown to be more efficacious than percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in patients with multivessel or left main coronary disease. Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR) is a transformational therapy for patients who have severe aortic stenosis but who are extremely high-risk surgical candidates or who are inoperable by virtue of associated co-morbidities.

Patients with left-sided pneumonia may benefit from placing them in which position? a. Reverse Trendelenburg b. Supine c. On the left side d. On the right side

D Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position. Because gravity normally facilitates preferential ventilation and perfusion to the dependent areas of the lungs, the best gas exchange would take place in the dependent areas of the lungs. Thus, the goal of positioning is to place the least affected area of the patient's lung in the most dependent position. Patients with unilateral lung disease should be positioned with the healthy lung in a dependent position.

Which statement best describes the effects of positive-pressure ventilation on cardiac output? a. Positive-pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, which increases venous return and cardiac output. b. Positive-pressure ventilation decreases venous return, which increases preload and cardiac output. c. Positive-pressure ventilation increases venous return, which decreases preload and cardiac output. d. Positive-pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return and cardiac output.

D Positive-pressure ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the right side of the heart. Impaired venous return decreases preload, which results in a decrease in cardiac output.

What is the preset positive pressure used to augment the patient's inspiratory effort known as? a. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) b. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) c. Pressure control ventilation (PCV) d. Pressure support ventilation (PSV)

D Preset positive pressure used to augment the patient's inspiratory efforts is known as pressure support ventilation. With continuous positive airway pressure, positive pressure is applied during spontaneous breaths; the patient controls rate, inspiratory flow, and tidal volume. Positive end-expiratory pressure is positive pressure applied at the end of expiration of ventilator breaths.

What nursing intervention can facilitate the prevention of aspiration? a. Observing the amount given in the tube feeding b. Assessing the patient's level of consciousness c. Encouraging the patient to cough and to breathe deeply d. Positioning a patient in a semirecumbent position

D Semirecumbency has been shown to decrease the risk of aspiration and inhibit the development of hospital-associated pneumonia.

Supplemental oxygen administration is usually effective in treating hypoxemia related which situation? a. Physiologic shunting b. Dead space ventilation c. Alveolar hyperventilation d. Ventilation-perfusion mismatching

D Supplemental oxygen administration is effective in treating hypoxemia related to alveolar hypoventilation and ventilation-perfusion mismatching. When intrapulmonary shunting exists, supplemental oxygen alone is ineffective. In this situation, positive pressure is necessary to open collapsed alveoli and facilitate their participation in gas exchange. Positive pressure is delivered via invasive and noninvasive mechanical ventilation.

Ch. 20 Which arterial blood gas (ABG) values would indicate a need for oxygen therapy? a. PaO2 of 80 mm Hg b. PaCO2 of 35 mm Hg c. HCO of 24 mEq d. SaO2 of 87%

D The amount of oxygen administered depends on the pathophysiologic mechanisms affecting the patient's oxygenation status. In most cases, the amount required should provide an arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of greater than 60 mm Hg or an arterial hemoglobin saturation (SaO2) of greater than 90% during both rest and exercise.

A patient is admitted after a femorotibial bypass graft. What nursing action is critical in the immediate postoperative period? a. Frequent assessment of the skin b. Hourly assessment of intake and output c. Monitoring for ST segment changes d. Frequent pulse checks to the affected limb

D The primary focus of nursing care in the immediate postprocedural period is assessment of the adequacy of perfusion to the affected limb and identification of complications. Pulse checks are performed frequently, and the physician is notified of any decrease in the strength of the Doppler signal. Because distal perfusion is compromised in this patient population, nursing measures to prevent skin breakdown are implemented. If the repair was performed above the renal arteries, kidney function may be impaired as a result of interruption of renal blood flow during the procedure. Urine output is therefore assessed hourly and supported with fluids and diuretics as needed. Because patients with peripheral vascular disease are at high risk for cardiac events, ST segment monitoring is performed to detect episodes of myocardial ischemia throughout the perioperative period.

A patient was admitted after a left pneumonectomy. The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask. The morning chest radiography study reveals right lower lobe pneumonia. After eating breakfast, the patient suddenly vomits and aspirates. What action should the nurse take next? a. Lavage the airway with normal saline. b. Place the patient supine in a semi-Fowler position. c. Manually ventilate the patient. d. Suction the airway.

D When aspiration is witnessed, emergency treatment should be instituted to secure the airway and minimize pulmonary damage. The patient's head should be turned to the side, and the oral cavity and upper airway should be suctioned immediately to remove the gastric contents.

Which ethical principle is most important when soliciting informed consent from a patient? a. Nonmaleficence b. Fidelity c. Beneficence d. Veracity

D Veracity is important when soliciting informed consent because the patient needs to be aware of all potential risks of and benefits to be derived from specific treatments or their alternatives.

The principle of respect for persons incorporates what additional concepts? a. Confidentiality and privacy b. Truth and reflection c. Autonomy and justice d. Beneficence and nonmaleficence

A Confidentiality of patient information and privacy in patient interactions must be protected and honored by health care providers out of respect for persons. Confidentiality is a right involving the sharing of patient information with only those involved in the patient's care. Privacy includes confidentiality but goes further to include the right to privacy of person and personal space, such as ensuring that a patient is adequately covered during a procedure.

What element of malpractice is based on the existence of a nurse-patient relationship? a. Duty b. Breach c. Damages d. Harm caused by the breach

A Duty to the injured party is the first element of a malpractice case and is premised on the existence of a nurse-patient relationship. Breach is failure to act consistently within applicable standards of care. Harm caused by the breach occurs when the patient sustained injuries because of the breach of duty. Damages are derived from the harm or injury sustained by the acutely or critically ill patient and are calculated as a dollar amount.

Chapter 2 What is the difference between ethics and morals? a. Ethics is more concerned with the "why" of behavior. b. Ethics provides a framework for evaluation of the behavior. c. Ethics is broader in scope than morals. d. Ethics concentrates on the right or wrong behavior based on religion and culture values.

A Ethics are concerned with the basis of the action rather than whether the action is right or wrong, good or bad.

Which hemodynamic alteration is the most common cause of a decrease in cardiac output in the postoperative cardiovascular patient? a. Reduced preload b. Increased afterload c. Increased contractility d. Bradycardia

A In most patients, reduced preload is the cause of low postoperative cardiac output. To enhance preload, volume may be administered in the form of crystalloid, colloid, or packed red blood cells.

The nurse is using the SFNO approach to case analysis to facilitate ethical decision making. Which question is important to ask when considering stakeholders? a. Are there reasons to give priority to one stakeholder over another? b. Will the stakeholders abide by the decision? c. Will the stakeholders want to be present during the ethics consultation? d. Do the stakeholders understand how to use the SFNO model?

A In the SFNO model, questions about stakeholders include: • Who has a stake in the decision being made? Why? • Who will be significantly affected by the decision made? Why? Please be specific. • Are there reasons to give priority to one stakeholder over another? The other questions are not relevant to this process.

In the acute phase after ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), fibrinolytic therapy is used in combination with heparin to recanalize the coronary artery. What dosage is the initial heparin bolus? a. 60 units/kg maximum 5000 units b. 30 units/kg maximum 3000 units c. 25 units/kg maximum of 2500 units d. 12 units/kg maximum of 1000 units

A In the acute phase after ST segment elevation myocardial infarction, heparin is administered in combination with fibrinolytic therapy to recanalize (open) the coronary artery. For patients who will receive fibrinolytic therapy, an initial heparin bolus of 60 units/kg (maximum, 5000 units) is given intravenously followed by a continuous heparin drip at 12 units/kg/hr (maximum 1000 units/hr) to maintain an activated partial thromboplastin time between 50 and 70 seconds (1.5 to 2.0 times control).

A patient is admitted with an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is done to validate the area of infarction. Which leads on the ECG would correlate with an inferior wall MI? a. II, III, aVF b. V5 to V6, I, aVL c. V2 to V4 d. V1 to V2

A Inferior infarctions are manifested by electrocardiographic (ECG) changes in leads II, III, and aVF. Lateral wall infarctions are manifested by ECG changes in leads V5 to V6, I, and aVL. Anterior wall infarctions are manifested by ECG changes in leads V2 to V4. Posterior wall infarctions are manifested by ECG changes in leads V1 to V2.

Which finding is a reliable indicator of reperfusion after fibrinolytic therapy? a. Dysrhythmias b. Q waves c. Elevated ST segments d. Immediate rapid decrease in cardiac biomarkers

A Initially, when there is reperfusion, ischemic chest pain ceases abruptly as blood flow is restored. Another reliable indicator of reperfusion is the appearance of various "reperfusion" dysrhythmias. Premature ventricular contractions, bradycardias, heart block, ventricular tachycardia, and (rarely) ventricular fibrillation may occur.

What is an injury resulting from the failure to meet an ordinary duty called? a. Negligence b. Malpractice c. Assault d. Battery

A Injury resulting from the failure to meet an ordinary duty or standard of care is negligence. Malpractice is a specialized form of negligence. Assault and battery are examples of intentional acts.

Why do women have higher mortality rates from acute myocardial infarction (MI) than men? a. Women wait longer to seek medical care. b. Women have more risk factors for coronary artery disease than men. c. Women have a higher risk of coronary spasm than men. d. Women have smaller hearts than men.

A Many reasons contribute to higher mortality rates from acute myocardial infarction (MI) in women, and these include waiting longer to seek medical care, having smaller coronary arteries, being older when symptoms occur, and experiencing very different symptoms from those of men of the same age. Women do not have a higher risk of coronary spasm than men.

A nurse fails to recognize an intubated patient's need for suctioning. The endotracheal tube becomes clogged, and the patient has a respiratory arrest. What type of negligence may be present? a. Assessment failure b. Planning failure c. Implementation failure d. Evaluation failure

A Nurses have a duty to assess and analyze the care required by each patient they care for. Failure to do so puts the nurse at risk for negligence related to failure to assess the patient's needs.

How does a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) improve blood flow? a. The balloon stretches the vessel wall, fractures the plaque, and enlarges the vessel lumen. b. Medication is delivered through the catheter that dissolves the plague and enhances vessel patency. c. The balloon removes blood clots from the vessel improving patency of the vessel. d. The balloon compresses the plaque against the vessel wall enlarging the vessel lumen.

A Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty involves the use of a balloon-tipped catheter that, when advanced through an atherosclerotic lesion (atheroma), can be inflated intermittently for the purpose of dilating the stenotic area and improving blood flow through it. The high balloon-inflation pressure stretches the vessel wall, fractures the plaque, and enlarges the vessel lumen.

A patient is admitted with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The nurse would expect the medical management of this patient to include which intervention? a. Administration of beta-blockers b. Administration of positive inotropes c. Plans for intensive exercise regimen d. Plans for an aortic valve replacement

A Pharmacologic management includes beta-blockers to decrease left ventricular workload, medications to control and prevent atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias, anticoagulation if atrial fibrillation or left ventricular thrombi are present, and, finally, drugs to manage heart failure.

Which statement regarding the difference between stable and unstable angina is accurate? a. Stable angina responds predictably well to nitrates. b. Stable angina is not precipitated by activity. c. Stable angina has a low correlation to coronary artery disease (CAD). d. Stable angina is a result of coronary artery spasm.

A Stable angina is predictable and caused by similar precipitating factors each time; typically, it is exercise induced. Pain control is usually achieved by rest and by sublingual nitroglycerin within 5 minutes. Stable angina is the result of fixed lesions (blockages) of more than 75% of the coronary artery lumen and thus has a high correlation to coronary artery disease (CAD), not coronary spasm.

What are the clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure? a. Elevated central venous pressure and sacral edema b. Pulmonary congestion and jugular venous distention c. Hypertension and chest pain d. Liver tenderness and pulmonary edema

A The common manifestations of right ventricular failure are the following: jugular venous distention, elevated central venous pressure, weakness, peripheral or sacral edema, hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), jaundice, and liver tenderness. Gastrointestinal symptoms include poor appetite, anorexia, nausea, and an uncomfortable feeling of fullness.

A nurse is providing care to a patient on fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statements from the patient warrants further assessment and intervention by the nurse? a. "My back is killing me!" b. "There is blood on my toothbrush!" c. "Look at the bruises on my arms!" d. "My arm is bleeding where my IV is!"

A The nurse must continually monitor for clinical manifestations of bleeding. Mild gingival bleeding and oozing around venipuncture sites are common and not causes for concern. However, severe lower back pain and ecchymoses are suggestive of retroperitoneal bleeding. If serious bleeding occurs, all fibrinolytic heparin therapies are discontinued, and volume expanders, coagulation factors, or both are administered.

A transvenous pacemaker is inserted through the right subclavian vein and threaded into the right ventricle. The pacemaker is placed on demand at a rate of 70. What is the three letter code for this pacing mode? a. VVI b. AOO c. DDD d. VAT

A The original code is based on three categories, each represented by a letter. The first letter refers to the cardiac chamber that is paced. The second letter designates which chamber is sensed, and the third letter indicates the pacemaker's response to the sensed event. A VVI pacemaker paces the ventricle when the pacemaker fails to sense an intrinsic ventricular depolarization.

A patient is undergoing ventricular pacing via a transvenous pacing lead. The nurse notes a pacing artifact, but it is not followed by a QRS on the electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. Which nursing intervention may correct this situation? a. Position the patient on the left side b. Decrease the milliamperes as ordered c. Increase the rate as ordered d. Monitor the patient in a different lead

A The patient is experiencing "loss of capture," which most often can be attributed either to displacement of the pacing electrode or to an increase in threshold as a result of drugs, metabolic disorders, electrolyte imbalances, or fibrosis or myocardial ischemia at the site of electrode placement. In many cases, increasing the output milliamperes (mA) may elicit capture. For transvenous leads, repositioning the patient to the left side may improve lead contact and restore capture.

A nurse providing care for a patient with a recent tracheostomy notes the presence of an ulceration or wound at the tracheotomy site. The nature of the ulceration or wound clearly indicates it has been present for at least several days. The nurse finds no documentation regarding the ulceration or wound since the insertion of the tracheostomy tube 12 days earlier. This situation an example of what legal situations? a. Assessment and implementation failure b. Failure to appropriately diagnose c. Failure to follow practitioners orders d. Planning and evaluation failure

A This situation is an example of the prior nurses' failure to assess and implement appropriately. Assessment and implementation failures are related to a failure to assess and analyze a care need, communicate findings to a physician, take appropriate action, and document.

The patient received a blood transfusion based on test results of critically low hemoglobin. The nurse records vital signs (VS) per hospital protocol. One hour after the transfusion was started, the nurse records VS as temperature (T) 102F, pulse (P) 110, respirations (R) 24, blood pressure (BP) 136/88. The nurse continues to administer the blood. This situation an example of what legal situation? a. Malpractice b. Assault c. Battery d. Libel

A To avoid liability associated with administration of blood and blood products, nurses must carefully follow organizational procedures and protocols that govern these interventions. Battery is any intentional act that brings about actual harmful or offensive contact with the plaintiff. Assault occurs if the patient fears harmful or offensive touching. Libel is defined as publishing false statements that are damaging to a person's reputation.

Ethical decisions are best made by performing which action? a. Following the guidelines of a framework or model b. Having the patient discuss alternatives with the practitioner or nurse c. Prioritizing the greatest good for the greatest number of persons d. Studying by the Ethics Committee after all diagnostic data are reviewed

A To facilitate the ethical decision-making process, a model or framework must be used so that all involved will consistently and clearly examine the multiple ethical issues that arise in critical care.

Which mechanisms responsible for a myocardial infarction (MI)? (Select all that apply.) a. Coronary artery thrombosis b. Plaque rupture c. Coronary artery spasm near the ruptured plaque d. Preinfarction angina e. Hyperlipidemia

A, B, C The three mechanisms that block the coronary artery and are responsible for the acute reduction in oxygen delivery to the myocardium are (1) plaque rupture, (2) new coronary artery thrombosis, and (3) coronary artery spasm close to the ruptured plaque.

Which physiologic effects can be associated with physical exercise? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased LDL cholesterol b. Increased HDL cholesterol c. Decreased triglycerides d. Increased insulin resistance e. Decreased incidence of depression

A, B, C, E Many research trials have demonstrated the positive effects of physical activity on the other major cardiac risk factors. Exercise alters the lipid profile by decreasing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglyceride levels and increasing high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels. Exercise reduces insulin resistance at the cellular level, lowering the risk for developing type 2 diabetes, especially if combined with a weight loss program.

Which actions by a nurse demonstrate the act of battery? (Select all that apply.) a. Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a patient with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order b. Threatening to punch someone c. Sexual misconduct with a patient d. Drawing blood without the patient's consent e. Threatening to restrain a patient for not using his or her call light for mobility assistance

A, C, D Battery is any intentional act that brings about actual harmful or offensive contact with the plaintiff. Battery occurs if the health care professional actually touches the patient in an unauthorized manner. Assault occurs if the patient fears harmful or offensive touching. Assault may be alleged if the patient was aware that he or she was going to be touched in a manner not authorized by informed consent. Threatening to punch someone and threatening to restrain a patient for not using his or her call light for mobility assistance are examples of assault.

Which of the following is/are criteria for defining an ethical dilemma? (Select all that apply.) a. An awareness of different options b. An issue in which only one viable option exists c. The choice of one option compromises the option not chosen d. An issue that has different options

A, C, D The criteria for identifying an ethical dilemma are threefold: (1) an awareness of the different options, (2) an issue that has different options, and (3) the choice of one option over another compromises the option not chosen.

What elements or criteria must be present for negligence cases to go forward? (Select all that apply.) a. Duty to another person b. Acknowledgement of wrong doing c. Harm that would not have occurred in the absence of the breach d. Breach of duty e. Damages that have a monetary value

A, C, D, E There are four criteria or elements for all negligence cases: (1) duty to another person; (2) breach of that duty; (3) harm that would not have occurred in the absence of the breach (causation); and (4) damages that have a monetary value. All four elements must be satisfied for a case to go forward. Acknowledgement of wrong doing is not required.

Which clinical manifestations are indicative of left ventricular failure? (Select all that apply.) a. Cool, pale extremities b. Jugular venous distention c. Liver tenderness d. Weak peripheral pulses e. Rales

A, D, E Patients presenting with left ventricular failure have one of the following: (1) decreased exercise tolerance, (2) fluid retention, or (3) discovery during examination of noncardiac problems. Clinical manifestations of left ventricular failure include decreased peripheral perfusion with weak or diminished pulses; cool, pale extremities; and, in later stages, peripheral cyanosis.

A patient's wife has been informed by the practitioner that her spouse has permanent quadriplegia. The wife states that she does not want anyone to tell the patient about his injury. The patient asks the nurse about what has happened. Based on which ethical principles does the nurse answer the patient's questions? a. Veracity b. Justice c. Autonomy d. Nonmaleficence

ANS: C Autonomy is a freedom of choice or a self-determination that is a basic human right. It can be experienced in all human life events.

A practitioner is suggesting treatments to a patient that are contrary to the patient's preferences. What is this practice called? a. Invaluable deficiency b. Physiologic uselessness c. Ethical futility d. Situational insufficiency

ANS: C Ethical futility is treatment that will not serve the underlying interests, values, and preferences of the patient such as when a practitioner's idea of benefit is contrary to the values and preferences of the patient.

Which statement is accurate regarding a nurse's job description? a. As long as the nurse follows the American Nurses Association Standards of Care, the job description is irrelevant in a negligence allegation. b. Job descriptions must be reflective of the accepted standard of care. c. Institution-specific job descriptions are not legally acceptable. d. Job descriptions should be vague in describing nursing functions to avoid claims of negligence.

B Although job descriptions can be institution specific, they should be reflective of the national and community standards of care. Job descriptions are based on professional accountability as outlined by state boards of nursing and standards of practice.

Which dosage of dopamine results in stimulation of beta1 receptors and increased myocardial contractility? a. 1 mcg/kg/min b. 5 mcg/kg/min c. 15 mcg/kg/min d. 20 mcg/kg/min

B At low dosages of 1 to 2 mcg/kg/min, dopamine stimulates dopaminergic receptors, causing renal and mesenteric vasodilation. Moderate dosages result in stimulation of beta1 receptors to increase myocardial contractility and improve cardiac output. At dosages greater than 10 mg/kg/min, dopamine predominantly stimulates alpha receptors, resulting in vasoconstriction that often negates both the beta-adrenergic and dopaminergic effects.

A patient is admitted with chest pain, and his electrocardiogram shows elevated ST segments. The nurse bases her plan of care on the nursing diagnosis of pneumonia. What type of negligence may be present? a. Assessment failure b. Planning failure c. Implementation failure d. Evaluation failure

B Basing nursing care on an erroneous diagnosis is a failure in planning. Standards of care include assessment, the collection of relevant data pertinent to the patient's health or situation; diagnosis, analysis of the assessment data in determining diagnosis and care issues; implementation, coordinating care delivery and plan and using strategies to promote health and a safe environment; and evaluation, evaluation of the progress of the patient toward attaining outcomes.

Through what mechanism does enalapril decrease blood pressure? a. Direct arterial vasodilation b. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II c. Increase fluid excretion at the loop of Henle d. Peripheral vasoconstriction and central vasodilation.

B Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors that produces vasodilation by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Because angiotensin is a potent vasoconstrictor, limiting its production decreases peripheral vascular resistance. In contrast to the direct vasodilators and nifedipine, ACE inhibitors do not cause reflex tachycardia or induce sodium and water retention.

Which statement best describes the concept of paternalism? a. Encouraging the patient to ambulate after surgery b. Demanding the patient get out of bed to sit in a chair c. Following the patient's advance directive despite family objections d. Administering antibiotics for a viral infection

B Encouraging the patient to ambulate after surgery is an example of beneficence. Demanding the patient get out of bed to sit in a chair is an example of paternalism. Following the patient's advance directive despite family objections is an example of autonomy. Administering antibiotics for a viral infection is an example of physiologic futility.

Which of the following statements regarding beta-blockers is correct? a. They increase heart rate and are contraindicated in tachydysrhythmias. b. They result in bronchospasm and should not be used in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). c. They increase cardiac output and help with left ventricular failure. d. They are helpful in increasing atrioventricular node conduction and are used in heart blocks.

B Knowledge of the effects of adrenergic-receptor stimulation allows for anticipation of not only the therapeutic responses brought about by beta-blockade but also the potential adverse effects of these agents. For example, bronchospasm can be precipitated by noncardioselective beta-blockers in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease secondary to blocking the effects of beta2 receptors in the lungs.

Which situation would be considered a failure of proper implementation? a. Not identifying and analyzing symptoms appropriately b. Not documenting the patient's response to pain medication c. Not recognizing a malfunctioning chest tube d. Not asking the patient about code or no code wishes

B Nurses caring for acutely and critically ill patients are required not only to take appropriate action but also to accurately document their findings, interventions performed, and patients' response to those interventions. Failure to thoroughly and accurately document any aspect of care gives rise to negligence causes of action.

What parameter must be assessed frequently in the patient with an intraaortic balloon in place? a. Skin turgor in the affected extremity b. Peripheral pulses distal to the insertion site c. Blood pressures in both arms and legs d. Oxygen saturation

B One complication of intraaortic balloon support is lower extremity ischemia resulting from occlusion of the femoral artery by the catheter itself or by emboli caused by thrombus formation on the balloon. Although ischemic complications have decreased with sheathless insertion techniques and the introduction of smaller balloon catheters, evaluation of peripheral circulation remains an important nursing assessment. The presence and quality of peripheral pulses distal to the catheter insertion site are assessed frequently along with color, temperature, and capillary refill of the involved extremity. Signs of diminished perfusion must be reported immediately.

Which intervention is an essential aspect of the patient teaching plan for the patient with chronic heart failure? a. Instructing the patient to call the practitioner prior to dental surgery b. Stressing the importance of compliance with diuretic therapy c. Instructing the patient to take nitroglycerin if chest pain occurs d. Teaching the patient how to take an apical pulse

B Primary topics of education include (1) the importance of a daily weight, (2) fluid restrictions, and (3) written information about the multiple medications used to control the symptoms of heart failure. Reduction or cessation of diuretics usually results in sodium and water retention, which may precipitate heart failure.

What is the first step of the ethical decision-making process? a. Consulting with an authority b. Identifying the health problem c. Delineating the ethical problem from other types of problems d. Identifying the patient as the primary decision maker

B Step one involves identifying the major aspects of the patient's medical and health problems. Consulting an authority is not always necessary in the process. Delineating the ethical problem from other types of problems may not be necessary. Identification of the patient as primary decision maker is not part of the process.

Institutional ethics committees (IECs) review ethical cases that are problematic for the practitioner. What is the major function of an IEC? a. Consultation with purely binding recommendations b. Support and education to health care providers c. Conflict resolution for moral dilemmas d. Recommendations that are binding in all cases

B The Institutional Ethics Committee (IEC) can function in a variety of ways, serving as consultants, providing education, and helping resolve ethical conflicts or dilemmas for health care providers. Recommendations from the formal IEC may or may not be binding and are relative to the situation at hand.

Which mechanism is responsible for the augmentation of coronary arterial blood flow and increased myocardial oxygen supply seen with the intraaortic balloon pump? a. The vacuum created in the aorta as a result of balloon deflation b. Diastolic inflation with retrograde perfusion c. Forward flow to the peripheral circulation d. Inflation during systole to augment blood pressure

B The blood volume in the aorta below the level of the balloon is propelled forward toward the peripheral vascular system, which may enhance renal perfusion. Subsequently, the deflation of the balloon just before the opening of the aortic valve creates a potential space or vacuum in the aorta, toward which blood flows unimpeded during ventricular ejection. This decreased resistance to left ventricular ejection, or decreased afterload, facilitates ventricular emptying and reduces myocardial oxygen demands.

Which description best describes the pain associated with aortic dissection? a. Substernal pressure b. Tearing in the chest, abdomen, or back c. Numbness and tingling in the left arm d. Stabbing in the epigastric area

B The classic clinical presentation is the sudden onset of intense, severe, tearing pain, which may be localized initially in the chest, abdomen, or back. As the aortic tear (dissection) extends, pain radiates to the back or distally toward the lower extremities. Many patients have hypertension upon initial presentation, and the focus is on control of blood pressure and early operation.

A patient's wife has been informed by the practitioner that her spouse has permanent quadriplegia. The wife states that she does not want anyone to tell the patient about his injury. The patient asks the nurse about what has happened. The nurse has conflicting emotions about how to handle the situation. What is the nurse experiencing? a. Autonomy b. Moral distress c. Moral doubt d. Moral courage

B The nurse has been placed in a situation initially causing moral distress and is struggling with determining the ethically appropriate action to take. Moral courage is the freedom to advocate for oneself, patients, and peers. Autonomy is an ethical principle. Moral doubt is not part of the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN) framework. The 4A's to Rise Above Moral Distress.

When analyzing the electocardiogram (ECG) strip of the patient with a pacemaker, the nurse notices there is a spike before each QRS complex. What is this phenomenon indicative of? a. 60-cycle electrical interference; check equipment b. Pacing artifact; the pacemaker is sensing and capturing c. Electrical artifact; the pacemaker is not sensing d. Patient movement; check electrodes

B The pacing artifact is the spike that is seen on the electrocardiographic tracing as the pacing stimulus is delivered to the heart. A P wave is visible after the pacing artifact if the atrium is being paced. Similarly, a QRS complex follows a ventricular pacing artifact. With dual-chamber pacing, a pacing artifact precedes both the P wave and the QRS complex.

CH 15 The possibility of microshock when handling a temporary pacemaker can be minimized by which intervention? a. Decreasing the milliamperes b. Wearing gloves c. Positioning the patient on the left side d. Wearing rubber-soled shoes

B The possibility of "microshock" can be minimized by wearing gloves when handling the pacing wires and by proper insulation of terminal pins of pacing wires when they are not in use. The latter can be accomplished either by using caps provided by the manufacturer or by improvising with a plastic syringe or section of disposable rubber glove. The wires are to be taped securely to the patient's chest to prevent accidental electrode displacement.

The ability to practice as a licensed professional nurse is a privilege granted by what entity? a. Employee contract b. State legislature c. State boards of nursing d. Congress

B The very ability to practice as a licensed professional nurse is a privilege granted by the state and is a function of each state's authority to promote and protect the health and welfare of its citizens. State boards of nursing (BON) are administrative bodies created by—and that operate under—state statutes, or more generally written state laws created by state legislatures and signed by the governor. In turn, the BONs develop more specific rules (or regulations) for obtaining and maintaining licensure.

What dysrhythmia is most frequently associated with sudden cardiac death? a. Premature ventricular contractions b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Third degree heart block d. Asystole

B When the onset of symptoms is rapid, the most likely mechanism of death is ventricular tachycardia, which degenerates into ventricular fibrillation.

What is negligence called when it applies to an individual who is a professional? a. Breach b. Malpractice c. Duty d. Harm

B Whereas negligence claims may apply to anyone, malpractice requires the alleged wrongdoer to have special standing as a professional. If a nurse caring for acutely and critically ill patients is accused of failing to act in a manner consistent with the standard of care, that nurse is subject to liability for professional malpractice (negligence applied to a professional).

Truth-telling is an example of what ethical principle? a. Justice b. Beneficence c. Autonomy d. Nonmaleficence

C Truth telling is an example of autonomy.

A patient presents with severe substernal chest pain. The patient exclaims, "This is the most severe pain I have ever felt!" The patient reports that the pain came on suddenly about 2 hours ago and that three sublingual nitroglycerin tablets have not relieved the pain. The 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals only the following abnormalities: T-wave inversion in leads I, aVL, V4, and V5; pathologic Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF; ST segment elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4. Which statement is accurate about this patient? a. This patient has an old lateral wall infarction. b. This patient is having an inferior wall infarction. c. This patient is having an acute anterior wall infarction. d. This patient is having a posterior wall infarction.

C Acute anterior wall infarctions are manifested by electrocardiographic (ECG) changes in leads V2 to V4. Inferior infarctions are manifested by ECG changes in leads II, III, and aVF. Lateral wall infarctions are manifested by ECG changes in leads V5 to V6, I, and aVL. Posterior wall infarctions are manifested by ECG changes in leads V1 to V2.

Why is restraining a competent patient against his or her wishes considered an intentional tort? a. The nurse did not document the patient's need for restraints. b. The nurse failed to get a physician's order for restraints. c. The nurse touched the patient in an unauthorized manner. d. The nurse do not inform the patient that the restraints were needed.

C Assault and battery are examples of intentional torts that are frequently brought against health care providers. Battery occurs if the health care professional actually touches the patient in an unauthorized manner. The act of restraining a patient without consent is battery.

A patient is getting heparin by intravenous infusion. The nurse received an order to increase the heparin infusion rate and obtain a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) in 1 hour. The PTT was drawn correctly and revealed a critically elevated level. The nurse was busy with another patient and failed to report the critical result to the physician within 30 minutes according to the facility's policy. Subsequently, the patient sustained a massive intracerebral bleed. What type of negligence may be present? a. Assessment failure b. Planning failure c. Implementation failure d. Evaluation failure

C Failure to communicate and document patient findings in a timely manner is a form of failure to implement appropriate action.

A patient has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) for chronic ventricular tachydysrhythmias. What action should the nurse take when the patient's rhythm deteriorates to ventricular fibrillation? a. Apply an external defibrillator to the patient. b. Call a code and start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on the patient. c. Wait for the ICD to defibrillate the patient. d. Turn the ICD off and administer epinephrine.

C If the dysrhythmia deteriorates into ventricular fibrillation, the implantable cardioverter defibrillator is programmed to defibrillate at a higher energy. If the dysrhythmia terminates spontaneously, the device will not discharge.

A patient is admitted with a fever of unknown origin. The patient is complaining of fatigue, malaise, joint pain, and shivering. The patient's vital signs include temperature, 103° F; heart rate, 90 beats/min; respiratory rate, 22 breaths/min; blood pressure, 132/78; and oxygen saturation, 94% on 2L nasal cannula. The patient has developed a cardiac murmur. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which problem? a. Coronary artery disease b. Heart failure c. Endocarditis d. Pulmonary embolus

C Initial symptoms include fever, sometimes accompanied by rigor (shivering), fatigue, and malaise, with up to 50% of patients complaining of myalgias and joint pain. Blood cultures are drawn during periods of elevated temperature.

A patient has been newly diagnosed with stable angina. He tells the nurse he knows a lot about his diagnosis already because his father had the same diagnosis 15 years ago. The nurse asks him to state what he already knows about angina. Which response indicates the need for additional education? a. He should stop smoking. b. He can no longer drink colas or coffee. c. He can no longer get a strong back massage. d. He should take stool softeners to prevent straining.

C Longer term education of the patient and the family can begin. Points to cover include (1) risk factor modification, (2) signs and symptoms of angina, (3) when to call the physician, (4) medications, and (5) dealing with emotions and stress. It is essential to teach avoidance of the Valsalva maneuver, which is defined as forced expiration against a closed glottis. This can be explained to the patient as "bearing down" during defecation or breath holding when repositioning in bed. Relaxation therapy and techniques including back rubs are encouraged when appropriate.

A patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). What common complication should the nurse anticipate in this patient? a. Pulmonary edema b. Cardiogenic shock c. Dysrhythmias d. Deep vein thrombosis

C Many patients experience complications occurring either early or late in the postinfarction course. These complications may result from electrical dysfunction or from a cardiac contractility problem. Cardiac monitoring for early detection of ventricular dysrhythmias is ongoing. Pumping complications can cause heart failure, pulmonary edema, and cardiogenic shock. The presence of a new murmur in a patient with an acute myocardial infarction warrants special attention because it may indicate rupture of the papillary muscle. The murmur can be indicative of severe damage and impending complications such as heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Two nurses are talking about a patient's condition in the cafeteria. In doing so, these nurses could be accused of what? a. Failure to take appropriate action b. Failure to timely communicate patient findings c. Failure to preserve patient privacy d. Failure to document patient information

C Nurses have a duty to preserve patient privacy, and failure to do so is a breach of patient confidentiality and failure to preserve patient privacy. Nurses should also refrain from having discussions about specific patients with anyone except other health care professionals involved in the care of the patient. When discussing specific patients with other health care professionals, it is imperative that patient-specific discussions occur in non-public settings. Discussions about specific patients are never appropriate in public areas such as elevators, cafeterias, gift shops, and parking lots.

The nursing management plan for a patient with angina would include which intervention? a. Immediate administration of antiplatelet therapy b. Teaching the patient how to perform the Valsalva maneuver c. Assessment and documentation of chest pain episodes d. Administration of prophylactic lidocaine for ventricular ectopy

C Nursing interventions focus on early identification of myocardial ischemia, control of chest pain, recognition of complications, maintenance of a calm environment, and patient and family education. It is important to document the characteristics of the pain and the patient's heart rate and rhythm, blood pressure, respirations, temperature, skin color, peripheral pulses, urine output, mentation, and overall tissue perfusion. It is essential to teach avoidance of the Valsalva maneuver, which is defined as forced expiration against a closed glottis.

Assessment of a patient with pericarditis may reveal which signs and symptoms? a. Ventricular gallop and substernal chest pain b. Narrowed pulse pressure and shortness of breath c. Pericardial friction rub and pain d. Pericardial tamponade and widened pulse pressure

C Pain is the most common symptom of pericarditis, and a pericardial friction rub is the most common initial sign. A friction rub is best auscultated with a stethoscope at the sternal border and is described as a grating, scraping, or leathery scratching. Pericarditis frequently produces a pericardial effusion

By what action can critical care nurses can best enhance the principle of autonomy? a. Presenting only the information to prevent relapse in a patient b. Assisting with only tasks that cannot be done by the patient c. Providing the patient with all of the information and facts d. Guiding the patient toward the best choices for care

C Patients and families must have all the information about a certain situation to make an autonomous decision that is best for them.

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided heart failure. The nurse suspects the patient is developing pulmonary edema. Which finding would confirm the nurse's suspicions? a. Pulmonary crackles b. Peripheral edema c. Pink, frothy sputum d. Elevated central venous pressure

C Patients experiencing heart failure and pulmonary edema are extremely breathless and anxious and have a sensation of suffocation. They expectorate pink, frothy sputum and feel as if they are drowning. They may sit bolt upright, gasp for breath, or thrash about. The respiratory rate is elevated, and accessory muscles of ventilation are used, with nasal flaring and bulging neck muscles. Respirations are characterized by loud inspiratory and expiratory gurgling sounds.

Ch 14. Which statement about coronary artery disease (CAD) is accurate? a. There is a low correlation between modifiable risk factors and CAD. b. The onset of CAD occurs in middle age women sooner than men of the same age. c. There is an association between development of specific risk factors and CAD. d. The lower the C-reactive protein level the higher the risk for a coronary event.

C Research and epidemiologic data collected during the past 50 years have demonstrated a strong association between specific risk factors and the development of coronary artery disease (CAD). In general, CAD symptoms are seen in persons age 45 years and older. Primary cardiovascular risk factors are different in men and women, with women having higher rates of diabetes and hypertension compared with men. C-reactive protein (CRP) is associated with an increased risk for development of other cardiovascular risk factors including diabetes, hypertension, and weight gain. The higher the value, the greater the risk of a coronary event, especially if all other potential causes of systemic inflammation such as infection can be ruled out.

Which agency is responsible for maintaining the expectations and limits of nursing practice? a. State Hospital Association b. Court system c. State Board of Nursing d. State Department of Health

C State Boards of Nursing (SBONs) maintain expectations for and limits of nursing practice in each state through the licensure of nurses and also through challenges to non-nurses engaged in professional activities that intrude upon the nursing scope of practice.

What is the most common complication of fibrinolytic therapy? a. Reperfusion chest pain b. Lethargy c. Bleeding d. Heart blocks

C The most common complication related to thrombolysis is bleeding.

During transport to the operating room for mitral valve replacement, a patient with a signed consent form says that she does not want to go through with the surgery and asks to be returned to her room. What is the best response from the nurse? a. "The operating room is prepared; let's not keep the surgeon waiting." b. "You have the right to cancel surgery, but it could be weeks before you are rescheduled." c. "You sound frightened; tell me what you are thinking." d. "Your preoperative medications will have you feeling more relaxed in a minute; it will be OK."

C The patient has the right to withdraw consent at any time. The nurse must listen and then clarify whether that is really what the patient desires. If it is, the surgeon should then be notified.

A patient is admitted for palliative care for end-stage heart failure. What is the nurse's primary goal when caring for this patient? a. To reverse heart failure with the use of diuretics b. To increase activity tolerance c. To manage symptoms and relieve pain d. To increase cardiac output related to alteration of contractility

C The primary aim of palliative care is symptom management and the relief of suffering. Fundamental to all symptom management strategies for heart failure is the optimization of medications, according to current guidelines.

A patient is connected to an external temporary pulse generator. What does the sensitivity control regulate? a. The time interval between the atrial and ventricular pacing stimuli b. The amount of electrical current and is measured in milliamperes c. The ability of the pacemaker to detect the heart's intrinsic electrical activity d. The number of impulses that can be delivered to the heart per minute

C The sensitivity control regulates the ability of the pacemaker to detect the heart's intrinsic electrical activity. Sensitivity is measured in millivolts (mV) and determines the size of the intracardiac signal that the generator will recognize.

The nurse developing a patient education plan for the patient with endocarditis. What information would be included in the plan? a. Endocarditis is a viral infection that is easily treated with antibiotics. b. The risk of this diagnosis is occlusion of the coronary arteries. c. A long course of antibiotics is needed to treat this disorder. d. Complications are rare after antibiotics have been started.

C Treatment requires prolonged IV therapy with adequate doses of antimicrobial agents tailored to the specific infective endocarditis microbe and patient circumstances. Antibiotic treatment is prolonged, administered in high doses intravenously, and may involve combination therapy. Best outcomes are achieved if therapy is initiated before hemodynamic compromise.

A patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. The patient is suddenly awakened with severe chest pain. Three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are administered 5 minutes apart without relief. A 12-lead electrocardiograph (ECG) reveals nonspecific ST segment elevation. The nurse suspects the patient may have which disorder? a. Silent ischemia b. Stable angina c. Unstable angina d. Prinzmetal angina

C Unstable angina usually is more intense than stable angina, may awaken the person from sleep, or may necessitate more than nitrates for pain relief. A change in the level or frequency of symptoms requires immediate medical evaluation. Severe angina that persists for more than 5 minutes, worsens in intensity, and is not relieved by one nitroglycerin tablet is a medical emergency. Stable angina is predictable and caused by similar precipitating factors each time; typically, it is exercise induced. Patients become used to the pattern of this type of angina and may describe it as "my usual chest pain." Pain control should be achieved within 5 minutes of rest and by taking sublingual nitroglycerin. Silent ischemia describes a situation in which objective evidence of ischemia is observed on an electrocardiographic monitor but the person does not complain of anginal symptoms. Variant unstable angina, or Prinzmetal angina, is caused by a dynamic obstruction from intense vasoconstriction of a coronary artery. Spasm can occur with or without atherosclerotic lesions. Variant angina commonly occurs when the individual is at rest, and it is often cyclic, occurring at the same time every day.

While participating in rounds, a nurse is interrupted by the wife of a ventilated patient, who informs the nurse that her husband is having difficulty breathing. The patient is found to be disconnected from the ventilator and unresponsive when the nurse enters the room after rounds. The alarm mode on the ventilator had been turned off. This situation an example of what legal situation? a. Assault b. Battery c. Injury d. Malpractice

D All four elements of negligence are present: duty and standard of care, breach of duty, causation, and injury. If a nurse caring for acutely and critically ill patients is accused of failing to act in a manner consistent with the standard of care, that nurse is subject to liability for professional malpractice (negligence applied to a professional). Assault occurs if the patient fears harmful or offensive touching. Battery is any intentional act that brings about actual harmful or offensive contact with the plaintiff.

Which value, when elevated, places the patient at lowest risk for coronary artery disease (CAD)? a. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) b. Triglycerides c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) d. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

D All of the reasons are not completely understood, but one recognized physiologic effect is the ability of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) to promote the efflux of cholesterol from cells. This process may minimize the accumulation of foam cells in the artery wall and thus decrease the risk of developing atherosclerosis. High HDL levels confer both antiinflammatory and antioxidant benefits on the arterial wall. In contrast, a low HDL level is an independent risk factor for the development of CAD and other atherosclerotic conditions.

At what size is an aortic aneurysm evaluated for surgical repair or stent placement? a. 2 cm b. 4 cm c. 5 cm d. >5 cm

D An aneurysm smaller than 4 cm in diameter can be managed on an outpatient basis with frequent blood pressure monitoring and ultrasound testing to document any changes in the size of the aneurysm. Management includes weight loss, smoking cessation, and control of hypertension as appropriate. An aortic aneurysm larger than 5 cm in diameter requires evaluation for surgical repair or placement of an aortic stent to eliminate the risk of rupture.

Patient is admitted with heart failure. The patient has developed dyspnea with wheezing, a nonproductive cough, and pulmonary crackles that progress to the gurgling sounds of pulmonary edema. The nurse suspects the patient may be developing with problem? a. Dyspnea b. Orthopnea c. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea d. Cardiac asthma

D Dyspnea with wheezing, a nonproductive cough, and pulmonary crackles that progress to the gurgling sounds of pulmonary edema are symptoms of cardiac asthma. With dyspnea, the patient feels shortness of breath from pulmonary vascular congestion and decreased lung compliance. In orthopnea, the patient has difficulty breathing when lying flat because of an increase in venous return that occurs in the supine position. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a severe form of orthopnea in which the patient awakens from sleep gasping for air.

The nurse is developing a patient education plan for a patient with valvular heart disease. Which instruction would be included as part of that plan? a. Increase fluid intake to increase cardiac output. b. Take sodium replacement tablets to replace sodium lost with diuretics. c. Increase daily activity until shortness of breath occurs. d. Take prophylactic antibiotics before undergoing any invasive procedure.

D Education for the patient with acute or chronic heart failure secondary to valvular dysfunction includes (1) information related to diet, (2) fluid restrictions, (3) the actions and side effects of heart failure medications, (4) the need for prophylactic antibiotics before undergoing any invasive procedures such as dental work, and (5) when to call the health care provider to report a negative change in cardiac symptoms.

Which laboratory value indicates a heightened risk for the development of coronary artery disease (CAD)? a. Total cholesterol level of 170 mg/dL b. HDL cholesterol level of 30 mg/dL c. Triglyceride level of 120 mg/dL d. LDL cholesterol level >190 mg/dL

D Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is usually described as the "bad cholesterol" because high levels are associated with an increased risk of acute coronary syndrome (ACS), stroke, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD). High LDL levels initiate the atherosclerotic process by infiltrating the vessel wall and binding to the matrix of cells beneath the endothelium. Total cholesterol levels below 200 are considered normal. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels below 40 are at low risk of coronary artery disease. Triglyceride levels below 150 are considered normal.

What is the best action a nurse could take to prevent allegations of malpractice? a. Carrying malpractice insurance b. Clarifying orders with the nursing supervisor c. Delegating care to nursing assistants d. Providing care according to standards of practice

D Maintaining standards of practice is the best way to reduce risk. The hallmark of risk reduction is knowledge of the professional standards of care, delivery and documentation of that care, and consistent demonstration that the standards are met. Nurses caring for acutely and critically ill patients may be alleged to have acted in a manner that is inconsistent with standards of care or standards of professional practice and may find themselves involved in civil litigation that focuses in whole or in part on the alleged failure.

A night nurse is notified by the laboratory that the patient has a critical magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L. The patient has a do-not-resuscitate order. The nurse does not notify the practitioner because of the patient's code status. In doing so, the nurse is negligent for what? a. Failure to analyze the level of care needed by the patient b. Failure to respect the patient's wishes c. Wrongful death d. Failure to take appropriate action

D Nurses caring for acutely and critically ill patients must appropriately notify physicians of situations warranting treatment actions. Furthermore, the full no-code, do-not-resuscitate order does not exclude this patient from receiving treatment to correct the critical laboratory value. Failure to take appropriate action in cases involving acutely and critically ill patients has included not only physician-notification issues but also failure to follow physician orders, failure to properly treat, and failure to appropriately administer medication.

Which classification of dysrhythmia is most common with an inferior wall infarction in the first hour after ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Multifocal PVCs c. Atrial fibrillation d. Sinus bradycardia

D Sinus bradycardia (heart rate less than 60 beats/min) occurs in 30% to 40% of patients who sustain an acute myocardial infarction (MI). It is more prevalent with an inferior wall infarction in the first hour after ST segment elevation MI. Sinus tachycardia (heart rate more than 100 beats/min) most often occurs with an anterior wall MI. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) occur frequently in patients who sustain an acute MI. Atrial fibrillation is also common and may occur spontaneously or may be preceded by PACs. Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are seen in almost all patients within the first few hours after an MI.

A patient is admitted with left-sided heart failure and a blood pressure of 220/118 mm Hg. Which drug will be most effective in decreasing the blood pressure and reducing afterload? a. Dopamine b. Verapamil c. Propranolol d. Sodium nitroprusside

D Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) is a potent, rapidly acting venous and arterial vasodilator, particularly suitable for rapid reduction of blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies and perioperatively. It also is effective for afterload reduction in the setting of severe heart failure. The drug is administered by continuous intravenous infusion, with the dosage titrated to maintain the desired blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance.

A patient has been admitted in hypertensive crisis. Which medication would the nurse expect the practitioner to order for this patient? a. Digitalis b. Vasopressin c. Verapamil d. Sodium nitroprusside

D Sodium nitroprusside is frequently the first drug used to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergency. Sodium nitroprusside is useful because of its half-life of seconds. It is not suitable for long-term use because of development of a metabolite that causes cyanide-like toxicity. Short-acting beta-blockers that are effective are labetalol and esmolol. Beta-blockers are especially effective if aortic dissection is present. Digoxin is frequently prescribed for atrial fibrillation.

The nurse is caring for a patient with these vital signs: blood pressure 220/110, pulse 108, respiratory rate 24, temperature 103° F, and oxygen saturation of 94% on oxygen 2L nasal cannula. The patient is responsive and denies chest pain. The physician has ordered a work-up for coronary artery disease (CAD). These findings are suggestive of which diagnosis? a. Silent ischemia b. Prehypertension c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Stage 2 hypertension

D Stage 2 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 160 mm Hg or above and a diastolic blood pressure of 100 mm Hg or above.

In which situation did the nurse disregard the patient's right to privacy? a. Informing the physician that the patient was verbalizing suicidal thoughts b. Notifying the health department of a patient's tuberculosis diagnosis c. Reporting possible dependent-adult abuse to the police d. Warning a visitor to wear gloves when giving a back rub because the patient is HIV positive

D Telling a visitor of the patient's HIV status violated the patient's right to privacy. The nurse could have ensured the visitor's safety by providing gloves and explaining universal precautions.

Which statement regarding the Code of Ethics for Nursing is accurate? a. The Code of Ethics for Nurses is usurped by state or federal laws. b. It allows the nurse to focus on the good of society rather than the uniqueness of the patient. c. The Code of Ethics for Nurses was recently adopted by the American Nurses Association. d. It provides society with a set of expectations of the nursing profession.

D The Code of Ethics for Nursing provides a framework for the nurse to follow in ethical decision making and provides society with a set of expectations of the profession.

What is the rationale for administrating a fibrinolytic agent to a patient experiencing acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)? a. Dilation of the blocked coronary artery b. Anticoagulation to prevent formation of new emboli c. Dissolution of atherosclerotic plaque at the site of blockage d. Restoration of blood flow via lysis of the thrombus

D The administration of a fibrinolytic agent results in the lysis of the acute thrombus, thus recanalizing, or opening, the obstructed coronary artery and restoring blood flow to the affected tissue. After perfusion is restored, adjunctive measures are taken to prevent further clot formation and reocclusion.

A patient is admitted with an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is done to validate the area of infarction. Which finding on the ECG is most conclusive for infarction? a. Inverted T waves b. Tall, peaked T waves c. ST segment depression d. Pathologic Q waves

D The changes in repolarization are seen by the presence of new Q waves. These new, pathologic Q waves are deeper and wider than tiny Q waves found on the normal 12-lead ECG.

Chapter 3 What is the legal standard of care for a nurse's actions? a. Minimal competency under the state Nurse Practice Act b. The ability to distinguish what is right or wrong for the patient c. The demonstration of satisfactory knowledge of policies and procedures d. The care that an ordinary prudent nurse would perform under the same circumstances

D The legal standard of care for nurses is established by expert testimony and is generally "the care that an ordinarily prudent nurse would perform under the same circumstances."

On the way to surgery, a patient expresses doubt about proceeding with the planned procedure. The patient states that the doctor did not explain it very well and she would like to talk to her again before starting the procedure. The nurse knows the surgery schedule is very tight, reassures the patient that everything will be all right, and administers the preoperative sedation. This scenario describes what possible type of negligence? a. Assessment failure b. Planning failure c. Implementation failure d. Evaluation failure

D The nurse has a duty to act as a patient advocate, in this case by holding the preoperative sedation until the doctor and the patient can speak and the patient is satisfied that she has the necessary information to make this decision.

Noninvasive emergency pacing is best achieved via the use of which type of temporary pacing? a. Transvenous (endocardial) b. Epicardial c. Transthoracic d. Transcutaneous

D Transcutaneous cardiac pacing involves the use of two large skin electrodes, one placed anteriorly and the other posteriorly on the chest, connected to an external pulse generator. It is a rapid, noninvasive procedure that nurses can perform in the emergency setting and is recommended for the treatment of symptomatic bradycardia.