AH Final

The nurse assesses a client with gastroenteritis. What risk factor would the nurse consider as the most likely cause of this disorder? a. Consuming too much fruit b. Consuming fried or pickled foods c. Consuming dairy products d. Consuming raw seafood

ANS: D Raw seafood is often contaminated and unless cooked can would most likely cause gastroenteritis. Any of the other food can also become contaminated if not stored properly or contaminated by workers/cooks who contaminate these foods.

Normal bone density T score

-1 and above lower than -2.5 = osteoporosis

Normal creatinine levels

0.6-1.2

The nurse is caring for a young client who has been diagnosed with osteopenia. Which risk factor in the client's history most likely contributed to the bone loss? a. Osteoarthritis b. Hypothyroidism c. Addison disease d. Rheumatoid arthritis

ANS: D Rheumatoid arthritis often occurs in young female adults and can lead to osteoporosis as a common complication. Cushing disease (rather than Addison disease) and hyperthyroidism (rather than hypothyroidism) are also risk factors. Osteoarthritis is a joint disease.

Normal BUN levels

10-20 mg/dL

normal hemoglobin levels

12-18 g/dL

Normal platelet count

150,000-400,000/mm3

normal potassium levels

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

Normal albumin levels

3.5-5.5 g/dL

Normal WBC count

5,000-10,000/mm3

Normal calcium levels

8.5-10.5 mg/dL

A nurse working with older adults in the community plans programming to improve morale and emotional health in this population. What activity would best meet this goal? a. Exercise program to improve physical function b. Financial planning seminar series for older adults c. Social events such as dances and group dinners d. Workshop on prevention from becoming an abuse victim

ANS: A All activities would be beneficial for the older population in the community. However, failure in performing one's own activities of daily living and participating in society has direct effects on morale and life satisfaction. Those who lose the ability to function independently often feel worthless and empty. An exercise program designed to maintain and/or improve physical functioning would best address this need

A client who has rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed etanercept. What health teaching by the nurse about this drug is appropriate? a. Giving subcutaneous injections b. Having a chest x-ray once a year c. Taking the medication with food d. Using heat on the injection site

ANS: A Etanercept is given as a subcutaneous injection twice a week. The nurse would teach the client how to self-administer the medication. The other options are not appropriate for etanercept

A nurse receives hand-off report on four postoperative clients who each had total hysterectomies. Which client would the nurse assess first upon initial rounding? a. Vaginal hysterectomy: two saturated perineal pads in 2 hours b. Abdominal: temperature of 99° F (37.2° C), blood pressure of 116/74 mm Hg c. Vaginal: opened incisional edges and moderate bleeding d. Abdominal: urinary catheter output of 150 mL in the last 3 hours

ANS: A Normal vaginal bleeding after a vaginal hysterectomy should be less than one saturated perineal pad in 4 hours. Two saturated pads in such a short time could indicate hemorrhage, which is a priority. The client with the slight temperature elevation needs to be assessed for possible infection, but not as the priority. A vaginal hysterectomy would not result in an incision the nurse could observe separating. The urinary output is normal.

A 70-kg adult client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is on a 40-g protein diet. The patient has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL (3.63 mcmol/L) b. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL (1.62 mmol/L) c. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) d. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L)

ANS: A Protein restriction is necessary with CKD due to the buildup of waste products from protein breakdown. The nurse would be concerned with the low albumin level since this indicates that the protein in the diet is not enough for the client's metabolic needs. The electrolyte values are not related to the protein-restricted diet. Normal albumin= 3.5-5.5

A nurse obtains the health history of a client with a suspected diagnosis of bladder cancer. Which question would the nurse ask when determining this client's risk factors? a. "Do you smoke cigarettes?" b. "Do you use any alcohol?" c. "Do you use recreational drugs?" d. "Do you take any prescription drugs?

ANS: A Smoking is known to be a factor that greatly increases the risk of bladder cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and prescription drug use (except medications that contain phenacetin) are not known to markedly increase the risk of developing bladder cancer.

A woman diagnosed with breast cancer had these laboratory tests performed at an office visit: Alkaline phosphatase 125 U/L (2.2 mckat/L) Total calcium 12 mg/dL (3 mmol/L) Hematocrit 39% (0.39) Hemoglobin 14 g/dL (140 mmol/L) Which test results indicate to the nurse that some further diagnostics are needed? a. Elevated alkaline phosphatase and calcium suggests bone involvement. b. Only alkaline phosphatase is decreased, suggesting liver metastasis. c. Hematocrit and hemoglobin are decreased, indicating anemia. d. The elevated hematocrit and hemoglobin indicate dehydration.

ANS: A The alkaline phosphatase (normal value 30 to 120 U/L [0.5 to 2.0 mckat/L]) and total calcium (normal value 9 to 10.5 mg/dL [2.25 to 2.63 mmol/L]) levels are both elevated, suggesting bone metastasis. Both the hematocrit and hemoglobin are within normal limits for females

A nurse teaches a young female client who is prescribed cephalexin for a urinary tract infection. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use a second form of birth control while on this medication." b. "You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this drug." c. "You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this drug." d. "Watch for blood in your urine while taking this medication."

ANS: A The client should use a second form of birth control because antibiotic therapy reduces the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives. She should not experience increased menstrual bleeding, an irregular heartbeat, or blood in her urine while taking the drug.

The nurse assesses a patient who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-tinged output

ANS: A The nurse would assess the stoma for color and contact the primary health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark because these changes indicate possible lack of perfusion. The nurse would expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

A nurse assesses a client who presents with renal calculi. Which question would the nurse ask? a. "Do any of your family members have this problem?" b. "Do you drink any cranberry juice?" c. "Do you urinate after sexual intercourse?" d. "Do you experience burning with urination?"

ANS: A There is a strong association between family history and stone formation and recurrence. Nephrolithiasis is associated with many genetic variations; therefore, the nurse should ask whether other family members have also had renal stones. The other questions do not refer to renal calculi but instead are questions that should be asked of a patient with a urinary tract infection

A nurse teaches assistive personnel (AP) about how to care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which statement would the nurse include as part of this teaching? a. "Allow the client to be as independent as possible with activities." b. "Assist the client with frequent and meticulous oral care." c. "Assess the client's ability to eat and swallow before each meal." d. "Schedule appointments early in the morning to ensure rest in the afternoon."

ANS: A Clients with Parkinson disease do not move as quickly and can have functional problems. The client would be encouraged to be as independent as possible and provided time to perform activities without rushing. Although oral care is important for all clients, instructing the UAP to provide frequent and meticulous oral is not a priority for this client. This statement would be a priority if the client was immune-compromised or NPO. The nurse would assess the client's ability to eat and swallow; this would not be delegated. Appointments and activities would not be scheduled early in the morning because this may cause the client to be rushed and discourage the client from wanting to participate in activities of daily living.

A client who had therapeutic hypothermia after a traumatic brain injury is slowly rewarmed to a normal core temperature. For which assessment finding would the nurse monitor during the rewarming process? a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Loss of consciousness c. Nausea and vomiting d. Fever

ANS: A Due to fluid and electrolyte changes that typically occur during the rewarming process, the nurse monitors for cardiac dysrhythmias. The other findings are not common during this process.

A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed alosetron. Which assessment question would the nurse ask this client before starting the drug? a. "Have you been experiencing any constipation?" b. "Are you eating a diet high in fiber and fluids?" c. "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?" d. "What vitamins and supplements are you taking?"

ANS: A Ischemic colitis is a life-threatening complication of alosetron. The nurse would assess the client for constipation because it places the client at risk for this complication. The other questions do not identify the risk for complications related to alosetron.

A nurse is caring for four clients with leukemia. After hand-off report, which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client who had two bloody diarrhea stools this morning. b. Client who has been premedicated for nausea prior to chemotherapy. c. Client with a respiratory rate change from 18 to 22 breaths/min. d. Client with an unchanged lesion to the lower right lateral malleolus

ANS: A The client who had two bloody diarrhea stools that morning may be hemorrhaging in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and should be assessed first to monitor for or avoid the client from going into hypovolemic shock. The client with the slight change in respiratory rate may have an infection or worsening anemia and should be seen next. If the client's respiratory rate was greater than 28 to 30 breaths/min, the client may need the initial assessment. Marked tachypnea is an early sign of a deteriorating client condition. The other two clients are not a priority at this time.

. The nurse is teaching an uncircumcised 65-year-old client about self-management of a urinary catheter in preparation for discharge to his home. What statement indicates the client needs more information? a. "I have to wash the outside of the catheter once a day with soap and water. b. "I should take extra time to clean the catheter site by pushing the foreskin back." c. "The drainage bag needs to be changed at least once a week and as needed." d. "I should pour a solution of vinegar and water through the tubing and bag."

ANS: A The first few inches (centimeters) of the catheter must be washed daily starting at the penis and washing outward with soap and water. The other options are correct for self-management of a urinary catheter in the home setting.

A nurse cares for a client who has a new colostomy. Which action would the nurse take? a. Empty the pouch frequently to remove excess gas collection. b. Change the ostomy pouch and barrier every morning. c. Allow the pouch to completely fill with stool prior to emptying it. d. Use surgical tape to secure the pouch and prevent leakage.

ANS: A The nurse would empty the new ostomy pouch frequently because of excess gas collection, and empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full of stool. The ostomy pouch does not need to be changed every morning. Ostomy barriers would be used to secure and seal the ostomy appliance; surgical tape would not be used.

A client has been admitted after sustaining a humerus fracture that occurred when picking up the family cat. What test result would the nurse correlate to this condition? a. Bence-Jones protein in urine b. Epstein-Barr virus: positive c. Hemoglobin: 18 mg/dL (180 mmol/L) d. Red blood cell count: 8.2 million/mcL (8.2 1012/L)

ANS: A This client has possible multiple myeloma. A positive Bence-Jones protein finding would correlate with this condition. The Epstein-Barr virus is a herpesvirus that causes infectious mononucleosis and some cancers. A hemoglobin of 18 mg/dL (180 mmol/L) is slightly high for a male and somewhat high for a female; this can be caused by several conditions, and further information would be needed to correlate this value with a specific medical condition. A red blood cell count of 8.2 million/mcL (8.2 1012/L) is also high, but again, more information would be needed to correlate this finding with a specific medical condition.

A client has a platelet count of 9000/mm3 (9 10 9 /L). The nurse finds the client confused and mumbling. What nursing action takes priority at this time? a. Call the Rapid Response Team. b. Take a set of vital signs. c. Institute bleeding precautions. d. Place the client on bedrest.

ANS: A With a platelet count this low, the client is at high risk of spontaneous bleeding. The most disastrous complication would be intracranial bleeding. The nurse needs to call the Rapid Response Team as this client has manifestations of a sudden neurologic change. Bleeding precautions will not address the immediate situation. Placing the client on bedrest is important, but the critical action is to call for immediate medical attention. Normal platelet count: 150,000-400,000

A nurse assesses a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which questions would the nurse include in this client's assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. "Which food types cause an exacerbation of symptoms?" b. "Where is your pain or discomfort and what does it feel like?" c. "Have you lost a significant amount of weight lately?" d. "Are your stools soft, watery, and black?" e. "Do you often experience nausea and vomiting"

ANS: A, B The nurse would ask the client about factors that may cause exacerbations of symptoms, including food, stress, and anxiety. The nurse would also assess the location, intensity, and quality of the patient's pain or discomfort. Clients who have IBS do not usually lose weight, have nausea and vomiting, or have stools that are black.

. The nurse assesses a client who has a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI) for signs and symptoms consistent with this injury. What signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Sensitivity to light and sound b. Reports "feeling foggy" c. Unconscious for an hour after injury d. Elevated temperature e. Widened pulse pressure

ANS: A, B A mild TBI would possibly lead to sensitivity to light and sound and a feeling of mental fogginess. The patient would have been unconscious for less than 30 minutes. An elevated temperature is not related. A widened pulse pressure is indicative of increased intracranial pressure, not a mild TBI.

A nurse teaches a client about self-management after experiencing a urinary calculus treated by lithotripsy. Which statements would the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Finish the prescribed antibiotic even if you are feeling better." b. "Drink at least 3 L of fluid each day." c. "The bruising on your back may take several weeks to resolve." d. "Report any blood present in your urine." e. "It is normal to experience pain and difficulty urinating."

ANS: A, B, C The client should be taught to finish the prescribed antibiotic to ensure that he or she does not get a urinary tract infection. The client should drink at least 3 L of fluid daily to dilute potential stone-forming crystals, prevent dehydration, and promote urine flow. After lithotripsy, the client should expect bruising that may take several weeks to resolve. The client should also experience blood in the urine for several days. The client should report any pain, fever, chills, or difficulty with urination to the primary health care provider as these may signal the beginning of an infection or the formation of another stone.

The nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients would the nurse identify as at risk for secondary seizures? (Select all that apply.) a. A 26-year-old woman with a left temporal brain tumor b. A 38-year-old male client in an alcohol withdrawal program c. A 42-year-old football player with a traumatic brain injury d. A 66-year-old female client with multiple sclerosis e. A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: A, B, C Clients at risk for secondary seizures include those with a brain lesion from a tumor or trauma, and those who are experiencing a metabolic disorder, acute alcohol withdrawal, electrolyte disturbances, and high fever. Clients with a history of stroke, heart disease, and substance abuse are also at risk. Clients with multiple sclerosis or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are not at risk for secondary seizures.

The nurse would recognize which signs and symptoms as consistent with brainstem tumors? (Select all that apply.) a. Hearing loss b. Facial pain c. Nystagmus d. Vomiting e. Hemiparesis

ANS: A, B, C Hearing loss (CN VIII), facial pain (CN V), and nystagmus (CN III, IV, and VI) all are indicative of a brainstem tumor because these cranial nerves originate in the brainstem. Vomiting and hemiparesis are more indicative of cerebral tumors.

The nurse assesses a client who has meningitis. Which sign(s) and symptom(s) would the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) a. Photophobia b. Decreased level of consciousness c. Severe headache d. Fever and chills e. Bradycardia

ANS: A, B, C, D All of the choices except for bradycardia are key features of meningitis. Tachycardia is more likely than bradycardia due to the infectious process and fever.

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic leukemia. Which laboratory test result(s) is (are) expected for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased hematocrit b. Abnormal white blood cell count c. Low platelet count d. Decreased hemoglobin e. Increased albumin

ANS: A, B, C, D Chronic leukemia affects all types of blood cells causing a decrease is red blood cells (RBCs) and platelets. When the number of RBCs decreases, the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit also decrease. White blood cell counts are also abnormal depending on disease progression and management.

The nurse is caring for a client being treated for Hodgkin lymphoma. For which side effect(s) of treatment will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Severe nausea and vomiting b. Low platelet count c. Skin irritation at radiation site d. Low red blood cell count e. High white blood cell count

ANS: A, B, C, D Drug and radiation therapy for Hodgkin lymphoma cause many side and adverse effects, including all of the choices except for a high white blood cell (WBC) count. Instead, most clients experience a low WBC count making them very susceptible to infections.

The nurse is caring for a client who just had a minimally invasive inguinal hernia repair. Which nursing actions would the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply ice to the surgical area for the first 24 hours after surgery. b. Encourage ambulation with assistance within the first few hours after surgery. c. Encourage deep breathing after surgery but teach the client to avoid coughing. d. Assess vital signs frequently for the first few hours after surgery. e. Teach the client to rest for several days after surgery when at home. f. Teach the client not to lift more than 10 lb (4.5 kg) until allowed by the surgeon.

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F All of these nursing actions are appropriate for the client having MIS for inguinal hernia repair.

The nurse is assessing a client with long-term rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who has been taking prednisone for 10 years. For which complications of chronic drug therapy would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Osteoporosis b. Diabetes mellitus c. Glaucoma d. Hypertension e. Hypokalemia f. Decreased immunity

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F Prednisone is a corticosteroid that is sometimes used for autoimmune disorders like RA when other drugs are not effective or cannot be tolerated. However, it can cause many complications when used long-term, including all of the health problems listed in the choices.

. Which assessment finding(s) may indicate that a client may be experiencing a blood transfusion reaction? (Select all that apply.) a. Tachycardia b. Fever c. Bronchospasm d. Tachypnea e. Urticaria f. Hypotension

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F Several types of blood transfusion reactions can occur and cause all of the findings listed.

A nurse cares for an older adult who is admitted to the hospital with complications of diverticulitis. Which actions would the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medications as prescribed. b. Palpate the abdomen for distention. c. Assess for sudden changes in mental status. d. Provide the client with a high-fiber diet. e. Evaluate stools for occult blood.

ANS: A, B, C, E When caring for an older adult who has diverticulitis, the nurse would administer analgesics as prescribed, palpate the abdomen for distention and tenderness, assess for confusion and sudden changes in mental status, and check stools for occult or frank bleeding. A low-fiber/residue diet would be provided when symptoms are present and a high-fiber diet when inflammation resolves.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who is newly diagnosed with a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which questions would the nurse ask in preparation for discharge? (Select all that apply.) a. Does your gym provide yoga classes? b. When should you contact your provider? c. What do you plan to eat for dinner? d. Do you have a scale for daily weights? e. How many bathrooms are in your home?

ANS: A, B, C, E A home assessment for a client who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease would include identifying adequacy and availability of bathroom facilities, opportunities for rest and relaxation, and the client's knowledge of dietary therapy, and when to contact the primary health care provider. The client does not need to perform daily weights

.A nurse is assessing a community group for dietary factors that contribute to osteoporosis. In addition to inquiring about calcium, the nurse also assesses for which other dietary components? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. Caffeine c. Fat d. Carbonated beverages e. Vitamin D

ANS: A, B, D, E Dietary components that affect the development of osteoporosis include alcohol, caffeine, high phosphorus intake, carbonated beverages, and vitamin D. Tobacco is also a contributing lifestyle factor. Fat intake does not contribute to osteoporosis.

The nurse assists the wound care/ostomy nurse assess a client prior to ostomy surgery. Which assessments would the nurse complete before marking the placement for the ostomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Contour of the abdomen when standing b. Location of the client's belt line c. Contour of the abdomen when lying d. Location of abdominal muscles e. Contour of the abdomen when sitting

ANS: A, B, C, E Before marking the placement for the ostomy, the nurse would consider the contour of the abdomen in lying, sitting, and standing positions, the location of the belt line and possible location in the rectus muscle. The location of abdominal muscles is not considered.

The nurse is caring for a client with increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) following a stroke. Which evidence-based nursing actions are indicated for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperoxygenate the client before and after suctioning. b. Avoid sudden or extreme hip or neck flexion. c. Provide oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of 95% or greater. d. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times. e. Avoid clustering care nursing activities and procedures. f. Provide environmental stimulation to improve cognition.

ANS: A, B, C, E These precautions help prevent further increases in ICP. Clustering nursing activities and procedures and providing stimulation can increase ICP and should be avoided

The nurse is preparing for discharge of a client who had a carotid artery angioplasty with stenting to prevent a stroke. For which signs and symptoms with the nurse teach the family to report to the primary health care provider immediately? (Select all that apply.) a. Muscle weakness b. Hoarseness c. Acute confusion d. Mild neck discomfort e. Severe headache f. Dysphagia

ANS: A, B, C, E, F Muscle weakness, acute confusion, severe headache, and dysphagia are all signs and symptoms that could indicate that a stroke occurred. Hoarseness and severe neck pain and swelling may occur as a result of the interventional radiologic procedure.

The nurse is caring for a client with peritonitis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Nausea and vomiting b. Distended rigid abdomen c. Abdominal pain d. Bradycardia e. Decreased urinary output f. Fever

ANS: A, B, C, E, F Peritonitis is an acute inflammatory disorder. Therefore, the client would likely have all of these signs and symptoms but would have tachycardia rather than bradycardia due to dehydration from fever.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with urinary tract infection (UTI). What common urinary signs and symptoms does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Dysuria b. Frequency c. Burning d. Fever e. Chills f. Hematuria

ANS: A, B, C, F Fever and chills may occur in clients who have a UTI if the infection has expanded beyond the bladder into the kidneys. However, these symptoms are not urinary signs and symptoms.

After teaching a patient who has a permanent ileostomy, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary items chosen for dinner indicate that the client needs further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Corn b. String beans c. Carrots d. Wheat rice e. Squash

ANS: A, B, D Clients with an ileostomy should be cautious of high-fiber and high-cellulose foods including corn, string beans, and rice. Carrots and squash are low-fiber items.

A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are correct regarding PD? (Select all that apply.) a. "You will not need vascular access to perform PD." b. "There is less restriction of protein and fluids." c. "You will have no risk for infection with PD." d. "You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges." e. "It takes less time than hemodialysis treatments."

ANS: A, B, D PD is based on exchanges of waste, fluid, and electrolytes in the peritoneal cavity. There is no need for vascular access. Protein is lost in the exchange, which allows for more protein and fluid in the diet. There is flexibility in the time for exchanges, but the treatment takes a longer period of time compared to hemodialysis. There still is risk for infection with PD, especially peritonitis

The nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding—erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation—localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon—transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction—paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula—dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

ANS: A, B, D -Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. -Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. -Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. -When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. -Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their description? (Select all that apply.) a. Stress incontinence—urine loss with physical exertion b. Urge incontinence—loss of urine upon feeling the need to void c. Functional incontinence—urine loss results from abnormal detrusor contractions d. Overflow incontinence—constant dribbling of urine e. Reflex incontinence—leakage of urine without lower urinary tract disorder

ANS: A, B, D -Stress incontinence is a loss of urine with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. -Urge incontinence presents with an abrupt and strong urge to void and usually has a large amount of urine released with each occurrence. -Overflow incontinence occurs with bladder distention and results in a constant dribbling of urine. -Functional incontinence is the leakage of urine caused by factors other than a disorder of the lower urinary tract. -Reflex incontinence results from abnormal detrusor contractions from a neurologic abnormality.

nurse assesses a client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months. Which question(s) would the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.) a. "How much water do you drink every day?" b. "Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?" c. "Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?" d. "Are you on steroids or other immune-suppressing drugs?" e. "Do you drink grapefruit juice or orange juice daily?"

ANS: A, B, D Fluid intake, estrogen levels, and immune suppression all can increase the chance of recurrent cystitis. Family history is usually insignificant, and cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to increase the acidic pH and reduce the risk for bacterial cystitis.

The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action(s) by the nurse is (are) most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Hang the blood product using normal saline and a filtered tubing set. b. Take a full set of vital signs prior to starting the blood transfusion. c. Tell the client that someone will remain at the bedside for the first 5 minutes. d. Use gloves to start the client's IV if needed and to handle the blood product. e. Verify the client's identity, and checking blood compatibility and expiration time

ANS: A, B, D Correct actions prior to beginning a blood transfusion include hanging the product with saline and the correct filtered blood tubing, taking a full set of vital signs prior to starting, and using gloves. Someone stays with the client for the first 15 to 20 minutes of the transfusion. Two registered nurses must verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.

. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client's blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions would the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow. b. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. c. Stop the hemodialysis treatment. d. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline. e. Contact the primary health care provider.

ANS: A, B, D Hypotension occurs often during hemodialysis treatments as a result of vasodilation from the warmed dialysate. Modest decreases in blood pressure, as is the case with this client, can be maintained with rate adjustment, Trendelenburg positioning, and a fluid bolus. If the blood pressure drops considerably after two boluses and cooling dialysate, the hemodialysis can be stopped and the primary health care provider contacted.

. The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with celiac disease and preparing to start natalizumab. Which health teaching would the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Need to have drug administered by a primary health care provider. b. Need to avoid crowds and individuals who have infection. c. Need to report injection reactions such as redness and swelling. d. Awareness of a rare but potentially fatal drug complication. e. Need to report any signs and symptoms of infection immediately

ANS: A, B, D, E All of these choices are correct except that the drug is given intravenously. Therefore, there is no need to teach the client to report injection reactions because the client does not self-administer the medication subcutaneously. Natalizumab can cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), but it is a very rare disorder causing cognitive, sensory, and/or motor changes.

.The nurse is caring for a client receiving a unit of whole blood. Which nursing action(s) is (are) appropriate regarding infusion administration. (Select all that apply.) a. Use a dedicated filtered blood administration set. b. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 20 minutes of the infusion. c. Infuse the blood over a 30-minute period of time. d. Monitor and document vital signs per agency policy. e. Use a 21-gauge or smaller catheter to administer the blood. f. Infuse the transfusion with intravenous normal saline.

ANS: A, B, D, F Blood administration requires a dedicated and filtered intravenous set and a larger catheter or needle due to the viscosity of the infusion. Normal saline is the only IV fluid that is compatible with blood. Vital signs are frequently monitored and documented while the client is carefully assesses for signs and symptoms of a blood transfusion reaction, usually within the first 15 to 20 minutes. One unit of blood is administered in no less than 60 minutes.

A nurse is caring for an older adult receiving multiple packed red blood cell transfusions. Which assessment finding(s) indicate(s) possible transfusion circulatory overload? (Select all that apply.) a. Acute confusion b. Dyspnea c. Depression d. Hypertension e. Bradycardia f. Bounding pulse

ANS: A, B, D, F Circulatory overload is the result of excessive body fluid which can cause signs and symptoms of heart failure including dyspnea, increased blood pressure, tachycardia (not bradycardia), and a bounding pulse. Dyspnea is caused by hypoxia which in older adults can cause acute confusion. Depression is not a common finding resulting from fluid overload.

The nurse assesses a client who is experiencing a common migraine without an aura. Which assessment finding(s) would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Headache lasting up to 72 hours b. Unilateral and pulsating headache c. Abrupt loss of consciousness d. Acute confusion e. Pain worsens with physical activities f. Photophobia

ANS: A, B, E, F A common migraine without an aura is usually accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, unilateral and pulsating pain, and nausea and/or vomiting. These migraines usually last 4 to 72 hours and are aggravated by physical activity. Loss of consciousness and acute confusion are not associated with a common migraine without an aura.

The nurse is taking the history of a 24-year-old client diagnosed with cervical cancer. What possible risk factors would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking b. Multiple births c. Poor diet d. Nulliparity e. Younger than 18 at first intercourse f. Infections with HPV

ANS: A, B, F Smoking, multiple births, and infection with HPV are all risk factors for cervical cancer. Nulliparity is a risk factor for endometrial cancer. Poor diet could lead to decreased immunity, which is a risk, but is not directly related. Giving birth before the age of 17 is a risk factor.

A nurse is preparing to administer a packed red blood cell transfusion to an older adult. Understanding age-related changes, what alteration(s) in the usual protocol is (are) necessary for the nurse to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess vital signs at least every 15 minutes. b. Avoid giving other IV fluids. c. Premedicate to prevent transfusion reaction. d. Transfuse smaller bags of blood. e. Transfuse each unit over 8 hours. f. Assess the client for fluid overload

ANS: A, B, F The older adult needs vital signs monitored as often as every 15 minutes for the duration of the transfusion because vital sign changes may be the only indication of a transfusion-related problem. To prevent fluid overload, the nurse obtains a prescription to hold other running IV fluids during the transfusion and assesses the client frequently for signs and symptoms of overload. The other options are not correct

The nurse is assessing a client for chronic osteomyelitis. Which features distinguish this from the acute form of the disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Draining sinus tracts b. High fevers c. Presence of foot ulcers d. Swelling and redness e. Tenderness or pain

ANS: A, C Draining sinus tracts and foot ulcers are seen in chronic osteomyelitis. High fever, swelling, and redness are more often seen in acute osteomyelitis. Pain or tenderness can be in either case

The nurse assesses a client who has Parkinson disease. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse recognize as a key feature of this disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Flexed trunk b. Long, extended steps c. Slow movements d. Uncontrolled drooling e. Tachycardia

ANS: A, C, D Key features of Parkinson disease include a flexed trunk, slow and hesitant steps, bradykinesia, and uncontrolled drooling. Tachycardia is not a key feature of this disease.

After a breast examination, the nurse is documenting assessment findings that indicate possible breast cancer. Which abnormal findings need to be included as part of the client's electronic medical record? (Select all that apply.) a. Peau d'orange b. Dense breast tissue c. Nipple retraction d. Mobile mass at 2 o'clock e. Nontender axillary nodes f. Skin ulceration

ANS: A, C, D, F In the documentation of a breast mass, skin changes such as dimpling (peau d'orange), nipple retraction, and whether the mass is fixed or movable are charted. The location of the mass should be stated by the "face of a clock." Skin ulceration is also a common sign. Dense breast tissue and nontender axillary nodes are not abnormal assessment findings that may indicate breast cancer

A nurse cares for older clients who have traumatic brain injury. What does the nurse understand about this population? (Select all that apply.) a. Admission can overwhelm the coping mechanisms for older clients. b. Alcohol is typically involved in most traumatic brain injuries for this age-group. c. These clients are more susceptible to systemic and wound infections. d. Other medical conditions can complicate treatment for these clients. e. Very few traumatic brain injuries occur in this age-group.

ANS: A, C, D Older adults often tolerate stress poorly, which includes being admitted to a hospital that is unfamiliar and noisy. Because of decreased protective mechanisms, they are more susceptible to both local and systemic infections. Other medical conditions can complicate their treatment and recovery. Alcohol is typically not related to traumatic brain injury in this population; such injury is most often from falls and motor vehicle crashes.

.A nurse working with clients diagnosed with sickle cell disease (SCD) teaches about self-management to prevent exacerbations and sickle cell crises. What factor(s) should clients be taught to avoid? (Select all that apply.) a. Dehydration b. Exercise c. Extreme stress d. High altitudes e. Pregnancy

ANS: A, C, D, E Several factors cause red blood cells to sickle in SCD, including dehydration, extreme stress, high altitudes, and pregnancy. Strenuous exercise can also cause sickling, but not unless it is very vigorous

A client asks the nurse why she has urinary incontinence. What risk factors would the nurse recall in preparing to respond to the client's question? (Select all that apply.) a. Diuretic therapy b. Anorexia nervosa c. Stroke d. Dementia e. Arthritis f. Parkinson disease

ANS: A, C, D, E, F Drugs, such as diuretics, cause frequent voiding, often in large amounts. Diseases or disorders that limit mobility, such as stroke, arthritis, and Parkinson disease, can prevent an individual from getting to the bathroom in a timely manner. Mental/behavioral problems, such as dementia, impair cognition and the ability to recognize when he or she needs to void.

A 28-year-old client is diagnosed with uterine leiomyoma and is experiencing severe symptoms. Which actions by the nurse are the most appropriate at this time? (Select all that apply.) a. Teach nonpharmacologic comfort measures. b. Discuss the high risk of infertility with this diagnosis. c. Relieve anxiety by relaxation techniques and education. d. Discuss in detail the side effects of laparoscopic surgery. e. Review complete blood count for possible iron deficiency anemia.

ANS: A, C, E With uterine leiomyomas or fibroids, heavy bleeding is the predominant symptom, with anxiety occurring because of fears of cancer or infertility. Interventions would be directed to the heavy bleeding and anxiety relief, such as relaxation techniques and education about the pathophysiology and possible treatment of the fibroids. While many women do not experience pain with this condition, some do, so the nurse would teach nonpharmacologic comfort measures. The nurse could suggest resources to give more information about the diagnosis. Discussion of the possibility of infertility and side effects of laparoscopic surgery is premature and may increase the anxiety.

. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client's spouse about the renal-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components would be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower sodium b. Higher calcium c. Lower potassium d. Higher phosphorus e. Higher calories

ANS: A, C, E Many clients with AKI are too ill to meet caloric goals and require tube feedings with renal-specific formulas that are lower in sodium, potassium, and phosphorus, and higher in calories than are standard formulas

A client with chronic osteomyelitis is being discharged from the hospital. What information is important for the nurse to teach this client and family? (Select all that apply.) a. Adherence to the antibiotic regimen b. Correct intramuscular injection technique c. Eating high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods d. Keeping daily follow-up appointments e. Proper use of the intravenous equipment

ANS: A, C, E The client going home with chronic osteomyelitis will need long-term antibiotic therapy—first intravenous, and then oral. The client needs education on how to properly administer IV antibiotics, care for the IV line, adhere to the regimen, and eat a healthy diet to encourage wound healing. The antibiotics are not given by IM injection. The client does not need daily follow-up.

A nurse is caring for a postoperative 70-kg client who had major blood loss during surgery. Which findings by the nurse would prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.) a. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours b. Urine output of 500 mL in 12 hours c. Large amount of sediment in the urine d. Amber, odorless urine e. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg

ANS: A, C, E The low urine output, sediment, and blood pressure would be reported to the primary health care provider. Postoperatively, the nurse would measure intake and output, check the characteristics of the urine, and report sediment, hematuria, and urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 3 to 4 hours. A urine output of 100 mL is low, but a urine output of 500 mL in 12 hours would be within normal limits. Perfusion to the kidneys is compromised with low blood pressure. The amber odorless urine is normal.

The nurse is caring for a client who has perineal surgical wound. Which actions would the nurse take to promote comfort and wound healing? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the client into a side-lying position. b. Use a rubber donut device when sitting up. c. Apply warm compresses three to four times a day. d. Instruct the client to wear boxer shorts. e. Place an absorbent dressing over the wound.

ANS: A, C, E The nurse would place an absorbent pad over the wound and apply warm compresses to the wound area. The nurse would also instruct the male client to wear jockey-type shorts for support rather than boxers, assume a side-lying position in bed, avoid sitting for long periods, and use foam pads or soft pillows whenever in a sitting position. The patient should avoid the use of air rings or rubber donut devices.

Which risk factor(s) places a client at risk for leukemia? (Select all that apply.) a. Chemical exposure b. Genetically modified foods c. Ionizing radiation exposure d. Vaccinations e. Viral infections

ANS: A, C, E Chemical and ionizing radiation exposure and viral infections are known risk factors for developing leukemia. Eating genetically modified food and receiving vaccinations are not known risk factors.

The nurse is caring for a client who has Alzheimer disease. The client's wife states, "I am having trouble managing his behaviors at home." Which questions would the nurse ask to assess potential causes of the client's behavior problems? (Select all that apply.) a. "Does your husband bathe and dress himself independently?" b. "Do you weigh your husband each morning around the same time?" c. "Does his behavior become worse around large crowds?" d. "Does your husband eat healthy foods including fruits and vegetables?" e. "Do you have a clock and calendar in the bedroom and kitchen?"

ANS: A, C, E To minimize behavior problems, the nurse would encourage the patient to be as independent as possible with ADLs, minimize excessive simulation, and assist the patient to remain orientated. The nurse would assess these activities by asking if the patient is independent with bathing and dressing, if behavior worsens around crowds, and if a clock and single-date calendar are readily available. Diet and weight are not related to the management of behavior problems for a patient who has Alzheimer disease.

A nurse teaches the spouse of a client who has Alzheimer disease. Which statements should the nurse include in this teaching related to caregiver stress reduction? (Select all that apply.) a. "Establish advanced directives early." b. "Trust that family and friends will help." c. "Set aside time each day to be away from the client." d. "Use discipline to correct inappropriate behaviors." e. "Seek respite care periodically for longer periods of time."

ANS: A, C, E To reduce caregiver stress, the spouse should be encouraged to establish advanced directives early, set aside time each day for rest or recreation away from the client, seek respite care periodically for longer periods of time, use humor with the client, and explore alternative care settings and resources. Family and friends may not be available to help. A structured environment will assist the client with AD, but discipline will not correct inappropriate behaviors and not reduce caregiver stress.

The nurse is planning health teaching for a client starting mirabegron for urinary incontinence. What health teaching would the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. "Monitor blood tests carefully if you are prescribed warfarin." b. "Avoid crowds and individuals with infection." c. "Report any fever to your primary health care provider." d. "Take your blood pressure frequently at home." e. "Report palpitations or chest soreness that may occur."

ANS: A, D This drug can cause increase blood pressure and, therefore, the client's blood pressure should be monitored. Mirabegron can increase the effect of warfarin causing bleeding or bruising. The client will need additional coagulation studies to ensure that the INR is within a therapeutic range.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube (NGT). Which actions would the nurse take for client care? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for proper placement of the tube every 4 hours or per agency policy. b. Flush the tube with water every hour to ensure patency. c. Secure the NG tube to the client's chin. d. Disconnect suction when auscultating bowel peristalsis. e. Monitor the client's skin around the tube site for irritation

ANS: A, D, E The nurse would frequently assess for NGT placement, patency, and output (drainage) every 4 hours or per agency policy. The nurse would also monitor the skin around the tube for irritation and secure the tube to the client's nose. When auscultating bowel sounds for peristalsis, the nurse would disconnect suction. NGT irrigation may or may not be prescribed. If it is prescribed, hourly irrigation is not appropriate.

A woman is interested in alternative and complementary treatments for the nausea and vomiting caused by the side effects of chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which therapies wound the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.) a. Acupuncture b. Chiropractic c. Journaling d. Aromatherapy e. Shiatsu f. Black cohosh

ANS: A, D, E Alternative and complementary measures are chosen by many women. For nausea and vomiting, the best choices would be acupuncture, aromatherapy, and shiatsu. Chiropractic treatments would help pain. Journaling would be beneficial for fear and anxiety. Black cohosh is frequently used for hot flashes.

The nurse is caring for a client in late-stage Alzheimer disease. Which assessment finding(s) will the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) a. Immobile b. Has difficulty driving c. Wandering d. ADL dependent e. Incontinent f. Possible seizures

ANS: A, D, E, F The client in late-stage Alzheimer disease is totally bedridden and immobile, and therefore, cannot ambulate to wander or drive. The client is incontinent and ADL dependent

A client is interested in learning about the risk factors for prostate cancer. Which factors does the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. First-degree relative with prostate cancer b. Smoking c. Obesity d. Advanced age e. Eating too much red meat f. Race

ANS: A, D, F Risk factors for prostate cancer include having a first-degree relative with the disease, advanced age, and African-American race. Smoking, obesity, and eating too much red meat are not considered risk factors. Research is exploring the relationship with diet.

The nurse plans care for a client with epilepsy who is admitted to the hospital. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Have suction equipment with an airway at the bedside. b. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside. c. Permit only clear oral fluids. d. Have oxygen administration set at the bedside. e. Maintain the client on strict bedrest. f. Ensure that the client has IV access.

ANS: A, D, F Oxygen and suctioning equipment with an airway must be readily available. If the client does not have an IV access, insert a saline lock, especially for those clients who are at significant risk for generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The saline lock provides ready access if IV drug therapy must be given to stop the seizure. Padded tongue blades may pose a danger to the client or nurse during a seizure and would not be used. Dietary restrictions and strict bedrest are not interventions associated with epilepsy

The nurse is caring for a client who is planning to have a laparoscopic colon resection for colorectal cancer tomorrow. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should have less pain after this surgery compared to having a large incision." b. "I will probably be in the hospital for 3 to 4 days after surgery." c. "I will be able to walk around a little on the same day as the surgery." d. "I will be able to return to work in a week or two depending on how I do."

ANS: B All of these statements are correct about having minimally invasive laparoscopic surgery except that the hospital stay will likely be only 1 or 2 days

The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the patient's recent history? a. Pyelonephritis b. Dehydration c. Bladder cancer d. Kidney stones

ANS: B -Prerenal causes of AKI are related to a decrease in perfusion, such as in clients who have prolonged dehydration. -Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of AKI related to kidney damage. -Bladder cancer and kidney stones are postrenal causes of AKI related to urine flow obstruction

. A client has a bone density score of -2.8. What intervention would the nurse anticipate based on this assessment? a. Asking the client to complete a food diary b. Planning to teach about bisphosphonates c. Scheduling another scan in 2 years d. Scheduling another scan in 6 months

ANS: B A T-score from a bone density scan at or lower than -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The nurse would plan to teach about medications used to treat this disease, such as the bisphosphonates. A food diary is helpful to determine if the client gets adequate calcium and vitamin D, but at this point, dietary changes will not prevent the disease. Simply scheduling another scan will not help treat the disease either.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a postoperative paralytic ileus following abdominal surgery. What drug is appropriate to manage this nonmechanical bowel obstruction? a. Alosetron b. Alvimopan c. Amitiptyline d. Amlodipine

ANS: B Alvimopan is the appropriate drug to promote peristalsis for clients who have a paralytic ileus. The other drugs do not affect intestinal activity.

. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection (bacterial cystitis). The laboratory report notes a "shift to the left" in the client's white blood cell count. What action would the nurse take? a. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells. b. Notify the primary health care provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics. c. Ask assistive personnel (AP) to strain the client's urine for renal calculi. d. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

ANS: B An increase in band cells creates a "shift to the left." A left shift most commonly occurs with urosepsis and is seen rarely with uncomplicated urinary tract infections. The nurse will be administering antibiotics, most likely via IV, so he or she would notify the primary health care provider and prepare to give the antibiotics. The shift to the left is part of a differential white blood cell count. The nurse would not need to strain urine for stones. Allergic reactions are associated with elevated eosinophil cells, not band cells

A client is having a peritoneal dialysis treatment. The nurse notes an opaque color to the effluent. What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Warm the dialysate solution in a microwave before instillation. b. Obtain a sample of the effluent and send to the laboratory. c. Flush the tubing with normal saline to maintain patency of the catheter. d. Check the peritoneal catheter for kinking and curling.

ANS: B An opaque or cloudy effluent is the first sign of peritonitis. A sample of the effluent would need to be sent to the laboratory for culture and sensitivity in order to administer the correct antibiotic. Warming the dialysate in a microwave and flushing the tubing are not safe actions by the nurse. Checking the catheter for obstruction is a viable option but will not treat the peritonitis.

. After delegating care to assistive personnel (AP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the AP's understanding. Which action indicates that the AP needs additional teaching? a. Toileting the client after breakfast b. Changing the client's incontinence brief when wet c. Encouraging the client to drink fluids d. Recording the client's incontinence episodes

ANS: B Habit training is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should reeducate the AP on the technique of habit training. The AP should continue to toilet the client after meals, encourage the client to drink fluids, and record incontinent episodes.

A nurse cares for a postmenopausal client who has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months. The client asks, "I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Your immune system becomes less effective as you age." b. "Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection." c. "You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area." d. "It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease."

ANS: B Low estrogen levels decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area and cause other tissue changes, predisposing it to the development of infection. Urethritis is most common in postmenopausal women for this reason. Although immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases are a known cause of urethritis, the most likely reason in this patient is low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene usually does not contribute to this disease process.

The nurse plans care for a client with Crohn disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention would be the nurse's priority action? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

ANS: B Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a patient who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn disease also includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

The nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question would the nurse ask first? a. "Are you drinking plenty of water?" b. "What medications are you taking?" c. "Have you tried laxatives or enemas?" d. "Has this type of thing ever happened before?"

ANS: B Some types of incontinence or other health problems are treated with anticholinergic medications. Anticholinergic side effects include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. The nurse needs to assess the client's medication list to determine whether the he or she is taking an anticholinergic medication. The other questions are not as helpful to understanding the current situation

A client is preparing to have a laparoscopic restorative proctocolectomy with ileo pouch-anal anastomosis (RCA-IPAA). Which preoperative health teaching would the nurse include? a. "You will have to wear an appliance for your permanent ileostomy." b. "You should be able to have better bowel continence after healing occurs." c. "You will have a large abdominal incision that will require irrigation." d. "This procedure can be performed under general or regional anesthesia."

ANS: B A RCA-IPAA can improve bowel continence although leakage may still occur for some clients. The procedure is a 2-step process performed under general anesthesia using a laparoscope which does not require an abdominal incision or permanent ileostomy.

A client is receiving IV alteplase and reports a sudden severe headache. What is the nurse's first action? a. Perform a comprehensive pain assessment. b. Discontinue the infusion of the drug. c. Conduct a neurologic assessment. d. Administer an antihypertensive drug.

ANS: B A severe headache may indicate that the client's blood pressure has markedly increased and, therefore, the drug should be stopped immediately as the first action. The nurse would then perform the appropriate assessments and possibly administer an antihypertensive medication.

After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab for severe ulcerative colitis (UC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I should wash my hands after I play with my dog."

ANS: B Adalimumab is an immune modulator that is given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

A nurse in a hematology clinic is working with four clients who have polycythemia vera. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with a blood pressure of 180/98 mm Hg b. Client who reports shortness of breath c. Client who reports calf tenderness and swelling d. Client with a swollen and painful left great toe

ANS: B Clients with polycythemia vera often have clotting abnormalities due to the hyperviscous blood with sluggish flow. The client reporting shortness of breath may have a pulmonary embolism and should be seen first. The client with a swollen calf may have a deep vein thrombosis and should be seen next. High blood pressure and gout symptoms are common findings with this disorder.

An older client had hip replacement surgery and the surgeon prescribed morphine sulfate for pain. The client is allergic to morphine and reports pain and muscle spasms. When the nurse calls the surgeon, which medication would he or she suggest in place of the morphine? a. Cyclobenzaprine b. Hydromorphone hydrochloride c. Ketorolac d. Meperidine

ANS: B Cyclobenzaprine (used for muscle spasms), ketorolac, and meperidine (both used for pain) are all on the Beers list of potentially inappropriate medications for use in older adults and would not be suggested. The nurse would suggest hydromorphone hydrochloride.

A client has been prescribed denosumab. What health teaching about this drug is most appropriate for the nurse to include? a. "Drink at least 8 ounces (240 mL) of water with it." b. "Make appointments to come get your injection." c. "Sit upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking it." d. "Take the drug on an empty stomach."

ANS: B Denosumab is given by subcutaneous injection twice a year. The client does not need to drink 8 ounces (240 mL) of water with this medication as it is not taken orally. The client does not need to remain upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking this medication, nor does the client need to take the drug on an empty stomach.

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication would the nurse anticipate to prepare for administration? a. Atenolol b. Lorazepam c. Phenytoin d. Lisinopril

ANS: B Initially, intravenous lorazepam or diazepam is administered to stop motor movements. This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These drugs are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed lubiprostone for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-C). What health teaching will the nurse include about taking this drug? a. "This drug will make you very dry because it will decrease your diarrhea." b. "Be sure to take this drug with food and water to help manage constipation." c. "Avoid people who have infection as this drug will suppress your immune system." d. "Include high-fiber foods in your diet to help produce more solid stools."

ANS: B Lubiprostone is an oral laxative approved for women who have IBS with constipation (IBS-C). Water and food will also help to improve constipation. The drug is not used for clients who have diarrhea and does not affect the immune system. Although high-fiber foods are important for clients who have IBS, this client does not need fiber to help make stool more solid. Instead the fiber will help prevent constipation.

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which question would the nurse ask the client before starting this drug? a. "Are you taking Vitamin C or B? b. "Do you have any allergy to sulfa drugs?" c. "Can you swallow pills pretty easily?" d. "Do you have insurance to cover this drug?"

ANS: B Sulfasalazine is a sulfa drug given for clients who have ulcerative colitis. However, it should not be given to those who have an allergy to sulfa and sulfa drugs to prevent a hypersensitivity reaction.

The nurse obtains a health history on a client prior to administering prescribed sumatriptan succinate for migraine headaches. Which condition would alert the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the primary health care provider? a. Bronchial asthma b. Heart disease c. Diabetes mellitus d. Rheumatoid arthritis

ANS: B Sumatriptan succinate effectively reduces pain and other associated symptoms of migraine headache by binding to serotonin receptors and triggering cranial vasoconstriction. Vasoconstrictive effects are not confined to the cranium and can cause coronary vasospasm in clients with heart disease, hypertension, or Prinzmetal angina. The other conditions would not affect the client's treatment.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about care for a male client diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke and left-sided weakness. Which statement by the AP indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching? a. "I will use "yes" and "no" questions when communicating with the client." b. "I will remind the client frequently to not get out of bed without help." c. "I will offer a urinal every hour to the client due to incontinence." d. "I will feed the client slowly using soft or pureed foods."

ANS: B The client who has left-sided weakness has likely had a right-sided stroke in the brain. Clients who have strokes on the right side of the brain tend to be very impulsive and exhibit poor judgment. Therefore, to keep the client safe, the staff will need to remind the client to stay in bed unless he has assistance to prevent falling. There is no evidence in the clinical situation that the client has aphasia (which is less common in those with right-sided strokes), difficulty swallowing, or urinary incontinence.

After a craniotomy, the nurse assesses the client and finds dry, sticky mucous membranes, acute confusion, and restlessness. The client has IV fluids running at 75 mL/hr. What action by the nurse would the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's urinary output. b. Assess the client's serum sodium level. c. Increase the rate of the IV infusion. d. Provide oral care every hour.

ANS: B This client has signs and symptoms of hypernatremia, which is a possible complication after craniotomy. The nurse would assess the client's serum sodium level first and then possibly increase the rate of the IV infusion. Providing oral care is also a good option but does not take priority over assessing laboratory results.

A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt numbness in his left leg. Currently the client's neurologic examination is normal. About what drug would the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. Alteplase b. Clopidogrel c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol

ANS: B This client's signs and symptoms are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would likely be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel to prevent platelet aggregation on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition.

The nurse is teaching a client who had a descending colostomy 2 days ago about the ostomy stoma. Which changes in the stoma would the nurse teach the client to report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Stool consistency is similar to paste. b. Stoma becomes dark and dull. c. Skin around the stoma becomes excoriated. d. Skin around stoma becomes protruded. e. Stoma becomes retracted into the abdomen

ANS: B, C, D, E A colostomy placed in the descending colon would be expect to have a paste-like stool consistency. However, if the stoma becomes retracted or discolored, the client should report those changes to the primary health care provider. Skin around the stoma that becomes protruded would suggest the formation of a peristomal hernia, and skin excoriation needs appropriate management. Therefore, both of those skin changes would need to be reported to the primary health care provider.

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I can continue to take antacids to relieve heartburn." b. "I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment." c. "I'll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia." d. "The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted." e. "I should watch for bleeding when taking my anticoagulants."

ANS: B, C, D, E In discharge teaching, the nurse must emphasize that the client needs to have an antibiotic prophylactically before dental procedures to prevent infection. There may be a need for dose reduction in medications if the kidney is not excreting them properly (antacids with magnesium, antibiotics, antidiabetic drugs, insulin, opioids, and anticoagulants).

The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which priority complications would the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) a. Dehydration b. Anemia c. Hypertension d. Dysrhythmias e. Heart failure

ANS: B, C, D, E The client who has CKD has fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, that can cause hypertension, heart failure, and dysrhythmias. Anemia results because erythropoietin production by the kidneys is decreased.

A client is admitted with a confirmed left middle cerebral artery occlusion. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Ataxia b. Dysphagia c. Aphasia d. Apraxia e. Hemiparesis/hemiplegia f. Ptosis

ANS: B, C, D, E, F All of these assessment findings are common in clients who have a stroke caused by an occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery with the exception of ataxia (most often present in clients who have cerebellar strokes). This artery supplies the majority of the left side of the brain where motor, sensory, speech, and language centers are located.

The nurse is teaching a client about side effects and adverse reactions of a PDE5 inhibitor. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Refrain from eating citrus fruit within 24 hours of taking the medication. b. Stop using this drug if your primary health care provider prescribes a nitrate. c. Do not drink alcohol before having sexual intercourse. d. Muscle cramps, nausea, and vomiting are possible if you take more than 1 pill a day. e. Take this medication within 30 to 60 minutes of having sexual intercourse. f. Change positions slowly especially if you also take an anti-hypertensive drug.

ANS: B, C, D, F A PDE5 inhibitor is used to treat erectile dysfunction. The client should avoid grapefruit or grapefruit juice while taking these drugs. Taking a PDE5 inhibitor along with a nitrate can cause a profound drop in blood pressure. Alcohol may interfere with the ability to have an erection. Muscle cramps, nausea, and vomiting are possible side effects if more than 1 pill a day are taken. Each medication has its own directions for how soon to take it before intercourse, from 15 minutes to 2 hours. Any PDE5 drug can lower blood pressure so the nurse alerts the client of safety precautions.

The nurse is caring for a client with probable colorectal cancer (CRC). What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Rectal bleeding c. Anemia d. Change in stool shape e. Electrolyte imbalances f. Abdominal discomfort

ANS: B, C, D, F The client who has CRC usually experiences unintentional weight loss and rectal bleeding, either gross or occult. As a result of bleeding, the client has anemia and fatigue. Electrolyte imbalances are not common, but the client may note that the shape or consistency of stool has changed

. The nurse assesses a client with long-term rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for late signs and symptoms. Which assessment findings will the nurse document as late signs and symptoms of RA? (Select all that apply.) a. Anorexia b. Felty syndrome c. Joint deformity d. Low-grade fever e. Weight loss

ANS: B, C, E Late signs and symptoms of RA include Felty syndrome, joint deformity, weight loss, organ involvement, osteoporosis, extreme fatigue, and anemia, among others. Anorexia and low-grade fever are both seen early in the course of the disease.

A nurse assesses a patient who has celiac disease. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Anorexia c. Constipation d. Anal fistula e. Abdominal pain

ANS: B, C, E Signs and symptoms of celiac disease include weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and abdominal pain. Anal fistulas are not associated with celiac disease.

A nurse cares for a patient who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which actions would the nurse take to prevent skin excoriation? (Select all that apply.) a. Cleanse the perineum with an antibacterial soap. b. Use medicated wipes instead of toilet paper. c. Identify foods that decrease constipation. d. Apply a thin coat of aloe cream to the perineum. e. Gently pat the perineum dry after cleansing.

ANS: B, D, E To prevent skin excoriation from frequent bowel movements associated with inflammatory bowel disease, the nurse would encourage good skin care with a mild soap and water and gently patting the area dry after each bowel movement. Using medicated wipes instead of toilet paper and applying a thin coat of aloe cream are appropriate. The client should identify and avoid foods that increase diarrhea. Antibacterial soaps are harsh and should not be used.

The nurse is working with a male client who has gynecomastia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Teach the client to perform self-breast examination. b. Review the plan for chemotherapy after surgery. c. Educate him on the side effects of tamoxifen. d. Assess his usual daily alcohol intake.

ANS: C Gynecomastia is enlarged breast tissue in men. It is from an enlarged ridge of glandular breast tissue and is benign. The client does not need to perform SBE nor will he undergo chemotherapy. Tamoxifen is one drug used to treat the condition, so the nurse would educate the client on the medication. Alcohol is not related.

A client returned from a transurethral resection of the prostate 8 hours ago with a continuous bladder irrigation. The client reports headache and dizziness. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Consider starting a blood transfusion. b. Slow the bladder irrigation down. c. Report the findings to the surgeon immediately. d. Take the vital signs every 15 minutes.

ANS: C Headache, dizziness, and shortness of breath are symptoms of possible TURP syndrome in which the irrigation fluid is absorbed, putting strain on the client's heart. The nurse notifies the primary health care provider immediately as the client may need intensive care monitoring. There is no data indicating the client needs a blood transfusion, plus that would add even more fluid in the system. The irrigant may need to be slowed but that is not the first action the nurse would take. Vital signs do need to be taken frequently in this situation, but the nurse notifies the primary health care provider first.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of possible strangulated inguinal hernia. For which complication would the nurse monitor? a. Paralytic ileus b. Bowel volvulus c. Sepsis d. Colitis

ANS: C The client who has a strangulated inguinal hernia would likely develop bowel necrosis which can lead to sepsis. The nurse would observe for early signs and symptoms of sepsis such as fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia. If the client's condition is not promptly managed, bowel perforation, septic shock, and death can result.

A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 has been well controlled with metformin. The client is scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan with contrast. What priority would the nurse take at this time? a. Teach the client about the purpose of the MRI. b. Assess the client's blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. c. Tell the client to withhold metformin for 24 hours before the MRI. d. Ask the client if he or she is taking antibiotics

ANS: C Contrast media can be nephrotoxic (damaging to the kidneys). Metformin can also be nephrotoxic and the client should not be exposed to two agents. Clients who have diabetes are already at risk for renal damage.

The nurse is teaching a client how to increase the flow of dialysate into the peritoneal cavity during dialysis. Which statement by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should leave the drainage bag above the level of my abdomen." b. "I could flush the tubing with normal saline if the flow stops." c. "I should take a stool softener every morning to avoid constipation." d. "My diet should have low fiber in it to prevent any irritation."

ANS: C Inflow and outflow problems of the dialysate are best controlled by preventing constipation. A daily stool softener is the best option for the client. The drainage bag should be below the level of the abdomen. Flushing the tubing will not help with the flow. A diet high in fiber will also help with a constipation problem.

The nurse assesses a client who has possible bladder cancer. What common assessment finding associated with this type of cancer would the nurse expect? a. Urinary retention b. Urinary incontinence c. Painless hematuria d. Difficulty urinating

ANS: C The classic and most common finding in clients who have bladder cancer is painless and intermittent hematuria that can be with gross or microscopic. Dysuria, frequency, and urgency occur in clients who have bladder infection or obstruction.

A nurse reviews the laboratory values of a client who returned from kidney transplantation 12 hours ago: Sodium 136 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) Potassium 5 mEq/L (5 mmol/L) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 44 mg/dL (15.7 mmol/L) Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL (221 mcmol/L) What initial intervention would the nurse anticipate? a. Start hemodialysis immediately. b. Discuss the need for peritoneal dialysis. c. Increase the dose of immunosuppression. d. Return the client to surgery for exploration.

ANS: C The client may need a higher dose of immunosuppressive medication as evidenced by the elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels. This increased dose may reverse the possible acute rejection of the transplanted kidney. The client does not need hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, or further surgery at this point.

A nurse assesses clients in an osteoporosis clinic. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client taking calcium with vitamin D who reports flank pain 2 weeks ago. b. Client taking ibandronate who cannot remember when the last dose was. c. Client taking raloxifene who reports unilateral calf swelling. d. Client taking risedronate who reports occasional dyspepsia.

ANS: C The client on raloxifene needs to be assessed first because of the potential for deep vein thrombosis, which is an adverse effect of raloxifene. The client with flank pain may have had a kidney stone but is not acutely ill now. The client who cannot remember taking the last dose of ibandronate can be seen last. The client on risedronate may need to change medications.

A nurse teaches a client who is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals." b. "Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours." c. "Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time." d. "The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week."

ANS: C The client should try to hold urine consciously until the next scheduled toileting time. Toileting should occur at specific intervals during the training. The interval can be increased once the client becomes comfortable with the interval.

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a complete small bowel obstruction. For what priority problem is this client most likely at risk? a. Abdominal distention b. Nausea c. Electrolyte imbalance d. Obstipation

ANS: C The client who has a small bowel obstruction is at the highest risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances, especially dehydration and hypokalemia due to profuse vomiting. Nausea, abdominal distention, and obstipation are also usually present, but these problems are not as life threatening as the imbalances in electrolytes.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about fluid restriction for a client who has acute kidney injury (AKI). The client's 24-hour urinary output is 120 mL. How much fluid would the client be allowed to have over the next 24 hours? a. 380 mL b. 500 mL c. 620 mL d. 750 mL

ANS: C The general principle for fluid restriction for clients is that they may have a daily fluid intake of 500 mL plus the amount of their urinary output. In this case, 120 mL urinary output plus 500 mL equals 620 mL fluid allowance

The nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Positive Murphy sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

ANS: C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn disease. A positive Murphy sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds is not commonly found with Crohn disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn disease.

A nurse assessing a client with colorectal cancer auscultates high-pitched bowel sounds and notes the presence of visible peristaltic waves. Which action would the nurse take? a. Ask if the client is experiencing pain in the right shoulder. b. Perform a rectal examination and assess for polyps. c. Recommend that the client have computed tomography. d. Administer a laxative to increase bowel movement activity.

ANS: C The presence of visible peristaltic waves, accompanied by high-pitched or high-pitched bowel sounds, is indicative of bowel obstruction caused by the tumor. The nurse would contact the primary health care provider with these results and recommend a computed tomography scan for further diagnostic testing. This assessment finding is not associated with right shoulder pain; peritonitis and cholecystitis are associated with referred pain to the right shoulder. The nurse generalist is not qualified to complete a rectal examination for polyps, and laxatives would not help this client.

A nurse is caring for a young male client with lymphoma who is to begin treatment. What teaching topic is a priority? a. Genetic testing b. Infection prevention c. Sperm banking d. Treatment options

ANS: C All teaching topics are important to the client with lymphoma, but for a young male, sperm banking is of particular concern if the client is going to have radiation to the lower abdomen or pelvis

. The nurse is teaching the daughter of a client who has middle-stage Alzheimer disease. The daughter asks, "Will the sertraline my mother is taking improve her dementia?" How would the nurse respond about the purpose of the drug? a. "It will allow your mother to live independently for several more years." b. "It is used to halt the advancement of Alzheimer disease but will not cure it." c. "It will not improve her dementia but can help control emotional responses." d. "It is used to improve short-term memory but will not improve problem solving."

ANS: C Drug therapy is not effective for treating dementia or halting the advancement of Alzheimer disease. However, certain psychoactive drugs may help suppress emotional disturbances and manage depression, psychoses, or anxiety. Drug therapy will not allow the client with middle-stage dementia to safely live independently.

A client is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding would require immediate action by the nurse? a. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L) b. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) c. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg d. Pulse rate of 88 beats/min

ANS: C Hypotension can be a problem with CVVH if replacement fluid does not provide enough volume to maintain blood pressure. The nurse needs to monitor for ongoing fluid and electrolyte replacement. The sodium level is normal and the potassium level is slightly elevated, which could be normal findings for someone with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 88 beats/min is within usual limits.

An older client with diabetes is admitted with a heavily draining leg wound. The client's white blood cell count is 38,000/mm3 (38 109 /L) but the client is afebrile. Which nursing action is most appropriate at this time? a. Administer acetaminophen as needed. b. Educate the client on amputation. c. Place the client on Contact Precautions. d. Refer the client to the wound care nurse.

ANS: C In the presence of a heavily draining wound, the nurse would place the client on Contact Precautions. If the client has discomfort, acetaminophen can be used, but this client has not reported pain and is afebrile. The client may or may not need an amputation in the future. The wound care nurse may be consulted but not as the most appropriate action.

. A client who is experiencing a traumatic brain injury has increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). What drug will the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client? a. Phenytoin b. Lorazepam c. Mannitol d. Morphine

ANS: C Increased intracranial pressure is often the result of cerebral edema as a result of traumatic brain injury. Therefore, as osmotic diuretic such as mannitol or a loop diuretic like furosemide is administered. The other drugs are not appropriate to manage increasing ICP.

The primary health care provider prescribes methotrexate (MTX) for a client with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse provides health teaching about the drug. What statement by the nurse is appropriate to include about methotrexate? a. "It will take at least 1 to 2 weeks for the drug to help relieve your symptoms." b. "The drug is very expensive but there are pharmacy plans to help pay for it." c. "The drug can increase your risk for infection, so you should avoid crowds." d. "It's OK for you to drink about 2 to 3 glasses of wine each week while taking the drug."

ANS: C MTX takes up to 4 to 6 weeks to begin to help relieve RA symptoms and is very inexpensive. Clients should avoid alcohol due to the potential for liver toxicity. MTX suppresses the immune system which makes clients susceptible to infection. The nurse teaches clients to avoid crowds and anyone with a known infection

After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will not take this drug with food or milk." b. "I will have my partners tested for STIs." c. "An orange color in my urine should not alarm me." d. "I will drink two glasses of cranberry juice daily."

ANS: C Phenazopyridine discolors urine, most commonly to a deep reddish orange. Many clients think that they have blood in their urine when they see this. In addition, the urine can permanently stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or needs while taking this medication.

. A client has thrombocytopenia. What statement indicates that the client understands self-management of this condition? a. "I brush and use dental floss every day." b. "I chew hard candy for my dry mouth." c. "I usually put ice on bumps or bruises." d. "Nonslip socks are best when I walk.

ANS: C The client should be taught to apply ice to areas of minor trauma. Flossing is not recommended. Hard foods should be avoided. The client should wear well-fitting shoes when ambulating.

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the emergency department after experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Before discharge, which factor would the nurse identify as placing the client at high risk for a stroke? a. Age greater than or equal to 75 b. Blood pressure greater than or equal to 160/95 c. Unilateral weakness during a TIA d. TIA symptoms lasting less than a minute

ANS: C The client who has a TIA is at risk for a stroke is he or she has one-sided (unilateral) weakness during a TIA. Risk factors also include an age greater than or equal to 60, blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 (either or both systolic and diastolic), and/or a long duration of TIA symptoms. One minute is not a very long time for symptoms to occur.

The nurse is examining a woman's breast and notes multiple small mobile lumps. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask? a. "When was your last mammogram at the clinic?" b. "How many cans of caffeinated soda do you drink in a day?" c. "Do the small lumps seem to change with your menstrual period?" d. "Do you have a first-degree relative who has breast cancer?"

ANS: C The most appropriate question would be one that relates to benign lesions that usually change in response to hormonal changes within a menstrual cycle. Reduction of caffeine in the diet has been shown to give relief in fibrocystic breast changes, but research has not found that it has a significant impact. Questions related to the client's last mammogram or breast cancer history are not related to the nurse's assessment.

The nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. What action would the nurse take first? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Administer IV push diazepam. c. Turn the client's head to the side. d. Prepare to intubate the client.

ANS: C The nurse would turn the client's head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and would be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam.

A client presents to the emergency department reporting vomiting, severe lower abdominal pain, and a tender mass above one testis. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Have the client rate pain using the 0-10 scale. b. Prepare to administer an IV opioid analgesic. c. Determine when he last ate or drank anything. d. Assess risk factors for testicular cancer.

ANS: C This client has signs and symptoms of testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency. For client safety, the nurse assesses last oral intake. Rating the pain is an important intervention too but is not related to safety. The client cannot have opioids prior to signing a surgical consent. The client does not have signs and symptoms of testicular cancer.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from the implantation of a vagal nerve-stimulation device. For which signs and symptoms would the nurse assess as common complications of this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Bleeding b. Infection c. Hoarseness d. Dysphagia e. Seizures

ANS: C, D Complications of surgery to implant a vagal nerve-stimulation device include hoarseness (most common), dyspnea, neck pain, and dysphagia. The device is tunneled under the skin with an electrode connected to the vagus nerve to control simple or complex partial seizures. Bleeding is not a common complication of this procedure, and infection would not occur during the recovery period.

.A client asks about the process of graft-versus-host disease. What explanation by the nurse is correct? a. "Because of immunosuppression, the donor cells take over." b. "It's like a transfusion reaction because no perfect matches exist." c. "The patient's cells are fighting donor cells for dominance." d. "The donor's cells are actually attacking the patient's cells."

ANS: D Graft-versus-host disease is an autoimmune-type process in which the donor cells recognize the client's cells as foreign and begin attacking them. The other answers are not accurate.

After teaching a client who is recovering from a colon resection to treat early-stage colorectal cancer (CRC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statements by the client indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I must change the ostomy appliance daily and as needed." b. "I will use warm water and a soft washcloth to clean around the stoma." c. "I might start bicycling and swimming again once my incision has healed." d. "I will make sure that I make lifestyle changes to prevent constipation." e. "I will be sure to have the recommended colonoscopies."

ANS: C, D, E The client has had a colon resection for early CRC and there is no indication that the client also had a colostomy. Follow up with recommended colonoscopies are essential to monitor for CRC recurrence. Avoiding constipation will help improve intestinal motility which helps to decrease the risk for CRC recurrence. Exercise and other activities do not need to be restricted after the client has healed.

The nurse is teaching a client who is undergoing brachytherapy about what to immediately report to her primary health care provider . Which signs and symptoms would be included in this teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Constipation for 3 days b. Temperature of 99° F (37.2° C) c. Abdominal pain d. Visible blood in the urine e. Heavy vaginal bleeding f. Urinary retention

ANS: C, D, E Health teaching for a client having brachytherapy would emphasize reporting abdominal pain, visible blood in the urine, and heavy vaginal bleeding. Severe diarrhea (not constipation), urethral burning, extreme fatigue, and a fever over 100° F (37.7° C) would also be reported.

. A nurse is providing education to a community women's group about lifestyle changes helpful in preventing osteoporosis. What topics does the nurse cover? (Select all that apply.) a. Cut down on tobacco product use. b. Limit alcohol to two drinks a day. c. Strengthening exercises are important. d. Take recommended calcium and vitamin D. e. Walk for 30 minutes at least three times a week.

ANS: C, D, E Lifestyle changes can be made to decrease the occurrence of osteoporosis and include strengthening and weight-bearing exercises and getting the recommended amounts of both calcium and vitamin D. Tobacco should be totally avoided. Women should not have more than one drink per day.

The nurse reviews a list of drugs that can cause secondary osteoporosis. Which drugs are most commonly associated with this health problem? (Select all that apply.) a. Antianxiety agents b. Antibiotics c. Barbiturates d. Corticosteroids e. Loop diuretics

ANS: C, D, E Several classes of drugs can cause secondary osteoporosis, including barbiturates, corticosteroids, and loop diuretics. Antianxiety agents and antibiotics are not associated with the formation of osteoporosis.

A client has received a bone marrow transplant and is waiting for engraftment. What action(s) by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Not allowing any visitors until engraftment b. Limiting the protein in the client's diet c. Placing the client in protective precautions d. Teaching visitors appropriate hand hygiene e. Telling visitors not to bring live flowers or plants

ANS: C, D, E The client waiting for engraftment after bone marrow transplant has no white cells to protect him or her against infection. The client is on protective precautions and visitors are taught hand hygiene. No fresh flowers or plants are allowed due to the standing water in the vase or container that may harbor organisms; clients are also told not to work with houseplants in the home. Limiting protein is not a healthy option and will not promote engraftment.

The nurse assesses a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and Sjögren syndrome. What assessment would be most important for this client? a. Abdominal assessment b. Oxygen saturation c. Breath sounds d. Visual acuity

ANS: D Sjögren syndrome may be seen in clients with RA and manifests with dryness of the eyes, mouth, and vagina in females. Visual disturbances can occur. The other assessments are not related to Sjögren syndrome.

. The nurse is caring for several clients with osteoporosis. For which client would bisphosphonates not be a good option? a. Client with diabetes who has a serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL (61 mcmol/L). b. Client who recently fell and has vertebral compression fractures. c. Hypertensive client who takes calcium channel blockers. d. Client with a spinal cord injury who cannot tolerate sitting up.

ANS: D Clients on bisphosphonates must be able to sit upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking them. The client who cannot tolerate sitting up is not a good candidate for this class of drug. Poor renal function also makes clients poor candidates for this drug, but the client with a creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL (61 mcmol/L) is within normal range. Diabetes and hypertension are not related unless the client also has renal disease. The client who recently fell and sustained fractures is a good candidate for this drug if the fractures are related to osteoporosis.

After teaching a patient with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

ANS: D Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup [240 mL] of bean soup) would be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

. A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at highest risk for developing colorectal cancer? a. A 37-year-old who drinks eight cups of coffee daily. b. A 44-year-old with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). c. A 60-year-old lawyer who works 65 hours per week. d. A 72-year-old who eats fast food frequently.

ANS: D Colon cancer is rare before the age of 40, but its incidence increases rapidly with advancing age. Fast food tends to be high in fat and low in fiber, increasing the risk for colon cancer. Coffee intake, IBS, and a heavy workload do not increase the risk for colon cancer

A nurse teaches a client with functional urinary incontinence. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "You must clean around your catheter daily with soap and water." b. "You will need to be on your drug therapy for life." c. "Operations to repair your bladder are available, and you can consider these." d. "You might want to get pants with elastic waistbands."

ANS: D Functional urinary incontinence occurs as the result of problems not related to the client's bladder, such as trouble ambulating or difficulty accessing the toilet. One desired outcome is that the client will be able to manage his or her clothing independently. Elastic waistband slacks that are easy to pull down and back up can help the client get on the toilet in time to void. The other instructions do not relate to functional urinary incontinence.

A nurse cares for a client who has kidney stones from gout ricemia. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering? a. Phenazopyridine b. Doxycyline c. Tolterodine d. Allopurinol

ANS: D Stones caused by hyperuricmia caused by gout or other reason respond to allopurinol. Phenazopyridine is given to clients with urinary tract infections. Doxycycline is an antibiotic. Tolterodine is an anticholinergic with smooth muscle-relaxant properties.

The nurse is caring for four clients with traumatic brain injuries. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with amnesia for the incident b. Client who has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 c. Client with a PaCO2 of 36 mm Hg and on a ventilator d. Client who has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C)

ANS: D A fever is a poor prognostic indicator in patients with brain injuries. The nurse should see this client first. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12, a PaCO2 of 36, and amnesia for the incident are all either expected or positive findings.

A client with multiple myeloma demonstrates worsening bone density on diagnostic scans. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach this client? a. Bortezomib b. Dexamethasone c. Thalidomide d. Zoledronic acid

ANS: D All the options are drugs used to treat multiple myeloma, but the drug used specifically for bone manifestations is zoledronic acid, which is a bisphosphonate. This drug class inhibits bone resorption and is used to treat osteoporosis as well.

A client diagnosed with Parkinson disease will be starting ropinirole for symptom control. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "This drug should help decrease my tremors and help me move better." b. "I need to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness or falls." c. "I should take the drug at the same time each day for the best effect." d. "I know the drug will probably make help me prevent constipation."

ANS: D Although ropinirole is a dopamine agonist and mimics dopamine to promote movement, it does not work to prevent constipation. This class of drugs can cause orthostatic hypotension and should be taken at the same time every day.

The primary health care provider prescribes donepezil for a client diagnosed with early-stage Alzheimer disease. What teaching about this drug will the nurse provide for the client's family caregiver? a. "Monitor the client's temperature because the drug can cause a low grade fever." b. "Observe the client for nausea and vomiting to determine drug tolerance." c. "Donepezil will prevent the client's dementia from progressing as usual." d. "Report any client dizziness or falls because the drug can cause bradycardia."

ANS: D Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that may temporarily slow cognitive decline for some clients but does not alter the course of the disease. The family caregiver would want to monitor the client's heart rate and report any incidence of dizziness or falls because the drug can cause bradycardia. It does not typically cause fever or nausea/vomiting

The nurse plans care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which intervention would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Restrain the client to prevent falling. b. Ensure that the client uses incentive spirometry. c. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques. d. Keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees or greater.

ANS: D Elevation of the head of the bed will help prevent aspiration. The other options will not prevent aspiration, which is the greatest respiratory complication of Parkinson disease, nor do these interventions address any of the complications of Parkinson disease. Pursed-lip breathing increases exhalation of carbon dioxide; incentive spirometry expands the lungs. The client should not be restrained to prevent falls. Other less restrictive interventions should be used to maintain client safety.

The outpatient clinic nurse has assessed a woman who reports a month-long history of feeling full, urinary frequency, and bloating. What action by the nurse is best? a. Obtain a clean catch urine specimen. b. Instruct the client on a 3-day diet history. c. Facilitate having a pelvic ultrasound. d. Teach the woman about CA-125 test.

ANS: D Evidence shows that women with ovarian cancer often have recognizable, early signs such as abdominal bloating, urinary frequency or urgency, feeling full or difficulty eating, and pelvic pain. The nurse should "think ovarian" and facilitate the client having a CA-125 blood test, which is a cancer antigen test. The other actions may or may not be needed, but with these symptoms, the client needs to be evaluated for ovarian cancer.

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing sickle cell disease crisis. Which priority action would help prevent infection? a. Administering prophylactic antibiotics b. Monitoring the client's temperature c. Checking the client's white blood cell count d. Performing frequent handwashing

ANS: D Frequent and thorough handwashing is the most important intervention that helps prevent infection. Antibiotics are not usually used to prevent infection. Monitoring the client's temperature or white blood cell count helps to detect the presence of infection, but prevent it

The nurse assesses a client with a history of epilepsy who experiences stiffening of the muscles of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities. How would the nurse document this type of seizure? a. Atonic b. Myoclonic c. Absence d. Tonic-clonic

ANS: D Seizure activity that begins with stiffening of the arms and legs, followed by loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities, is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. An atonic seizure presents as a sudden loss of muscle tone followed by postictal confusion. A myoclonic seizure presents with a brief jerking or stiffening of extremities that may occur singly or in groups. Absence seizures present with automatisms, and the client is unaware of his or her environment.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a hemorrhagic stroke. Which assessment finding is the earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) for this client? a. Projectile vomiting b. Dilated and nonreactive pupils c. Severe hypertension d. Decreased level of consciousness

ANS: D The earliest sign of increasing ICP is decreased level of consciousness. The other signs occur later

A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

ANS: D The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical.

A nurse prepares to provide perineal care to a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which personal protective equipment would the nurse wear? (Select all that apply.) a. Particulate respirator b. Isolation gown c. Shoe covers d. Surgical mask e. Gloves

ANS: D, E Meningococcal meningitis is spread via saliva and droplets, and Droplet Precautions are necessary. Caregivers would wear a surgical mask when within 6 feet (1.8 m) of the client and would continue to use Standard Precautions, including gloves. A particulate respirator, an isolation gown, and shoe covers are not necessary for Droplet Precautions

ABGs

Arterial Blood Gases pH 7.35- 7.45 HCO3 (Bicarbonate) normal values 22-26 mEq/L PaCO2 ( CO2 or carbon dioxide content) 35-45 mm Hg PaO2 (oxygen saturation in arterial blood)- 80-100 mm Hg

The nurse is taking a history from a daughter about her father's onset of stroke signs and symptoms. Which statement by the daughter indicates that the client likely had an embolic stroke? a. Client's symptoms occurred slowly over several hours. b. Client because increasingly lethargic and drowsy. c. Client reported severe headache before other symptoms. d. Client has a long history of atrial fibrillation.

The major cause of embolic strokes is a history of heart disease, especially atrial fibrillation. Most clients who have an embolic stroke have acute sudden neurologic symptoms but stay alert rather than lethargic. Decreasing level of consciousness and severe headache are more common in clients who have hemorrhagic strokes.

. The nurse is performing an assessment of a client with possible plantar fasciitis in the right foot. What assessment finding would the nurse expect in the right foot? a. Multiple toe deformities b. Numbness and paresthesias c. Severe pain in the arch of the foot d. Redness and severe swelling

The most common assessment finding is the client's report of severe pain in the arch of the foot, especially when walking. The other findings are not typical in clients with this health problem.