AH PREP U MSK

The nurse working in the emergency department receives a call from the x-ray department communicating that client the nurse is caring for has a fracture in the shaft of the tibia. The nurse tells the physician that the client's fracture is in the A. Diaphysis B. Lordosis C. Epiphysis D. Scoliosis

A. Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone.

Red bone marrow produces which of the following? Select all that apply. A. WBCs B. Platelets C. Estrogen D. RBCs E. Corticosteroids

A. WBCs B. Platelets D. RBCs The red bone marrow located within the bone cavities produces RBC, WBCs, and platelets through the process of hematopoiesis.

Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint? A. Carpal bones in the wrist B. Knee C. Joint at base of thumb D. Hip

B. Knee Hinge joints permit bending in one direction only and include the knee and elbow.

During which phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? A. Revascularization B. Reparative C. Inflammation D. Remodeling

B. Reparative

A client with a sports injury undergoes a diagnostic arthroscopy of the left knee. What comment by the client following the procedure will the nurse address first? A. "My feet are are cold." B. "My knee aches." C. "My toes are numb." D. "My foot is swollen."

C. "My toes are numb." Numbness would indicate neurological compromise of the extremity and requires immediate intervention to prevent permanent damage.

Which of the following factors would the nurse need to keep in mind about the focus of the initial history when assessing a new client with a musculoskeletal problem? A. Duration and location of discomfort or pain B. Client's age C. Any chronic disorder or recent injury D. Client's lifestyle

C. Any chronic disorder or recent injury. The focus of the initial history depends on the nature of the musculoskeletal problem, whether the client has a chronic disorder or a recent injury. If the disorder is long-standing, the nurse obtains a thorough medical, drug, and allergy history. If the client is injured, the nurse finds out when and how the trauma occurred.

A client has undergone an arthroscopy. After the procedure, the site where the arthroscope was inserted is covered with a bulky dressing. The client's entire leg is also elevated without flexing the knee. What is the appropriate nursing intervention required in caring for a client who has undergone an arthroscopy? A. Apply warm compresses to the insertion site B. Assist with performing ROM exercises C. Provide gentle massage D. Apply cold pack at insertion site

D. Apply cold pack at insertion site After covering the arthroscope insertion site with a bulky dressing and elevating the client's entire leg, the nurse needs to apply a cold pack at the site to minimize any chances of swelling.

The nurse is evaluating a client's peripheral neurovascular status. Which would the nurse report to the HCP as a circulatory indicator of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction? A. Paresthesia B. Paralysis C. Weakness D. Cool skin

D. Cool skin Indicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction related to circulation include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin with a cool temperature.

A nurse is caring for a client with an undiagnosed bone disease. When instructing on the normal process to maintain bone tissue, which process transforms osteoblasts into mature bone cells? A. Remodeling B. Resorption C. Epiphyses D. Ossification and calcification

D. Ossification and calcification

Which of the following is the final stage of fracture repair? A. Cartilage calcification B. Angiogenesis C. Cartilage removal D. Remodeling

D. Remodeling The final stage of fracture repair consists of remodeling the new bone into its former structural arrangement.

The nurse is preparing a client w/ a right neck mass for an MRI. Which question should the nurse ask? Select all that apply. A. "Have you removed your hearing aid?" B. "When is the last time you had food or drink?" C. "Did you take your medications this morning?" D. "Are you wearing any jewelry?" E. "Do you have a pacemaker?"

A. "Have you removed your hearing aid?" D. "Are you wearing any jewelry?" E. "Do you have a pacemaker?"

Which statement describes paresthesia? A. Abnormal sensations B. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers C. Absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage D. Absence of muscle tone

A. Abnormal sensations Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient who may have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. What signs does the patient present with that indicates circulation is impaired? Select all that apply. A. Cool temperature of the extremity B. Limited ROM C. Pale, cyanotic or mottled color D. More than 3 seconds capillary refill

A. Cool temperature of the extremitiy C. Pale, cyanotic or mottled skin D. More than 3 seconds capillary refill ndicators of peripheral neurovascular dysfunction include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin color; cool temperature of the extremities; and a capillary refill of more than 3 seconds.

A group of students are reviewing the structure and function of bones. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they state that cortical bone is found primarily in which of the following? A. Osteoblasts B. Epiphyses C. Diaphysis D. Rounded irregular ends

C. Diaphysis Cortical bony tissue is found chiefly in the long shafts, or diaphysis, of bones in the arms and legs.

Which term refers to mature compact bone structures that form concentric rings of bone matrix? A. Endosteum B. Trabecula C. Lamellae D. Cancellous bone

C. Lamellae Lamellae are mineralized bone matrices.

Which of the following deformity causes an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine? A. Steppage gait B. Kyphosis C. Lordosis D. Scoliosis

C. Lordosis

A nurse knows that a person with a 3-week old femur fracture is at the stage where angiogenesis is occurring. What are the characteristics of this stage? A. The formation of a hematoma and fibrin B. Inflammation and the stimulation of osteoblasts and osteoclasts C. New capillaries producing a bridge between the fractured bones. D. Cartilage cells forming matrix villa that regulate calcification of the cartilage.

C. New capillaries producing a bridge between the fracture bones. Angiogenesis and cartilage formation begin when fibroblasts from the periosteum produce a bridge between the fractured bones. This is known as a callus. Reference:

Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect to be ordered for a client with lower extremity muscle weakness? A. Biopsy B. Bone scan C. Arthrocentesis D. Electromyography (EMG)

D. EMG

A client has an exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine. What is this condition called? A. Diaphysis B. Lordosis C. Scoliosis D. Kyphosis

D. Kyphosis Kyphosis is an exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine.

After a person experiences a closure of the epiphyses, which of the following is true? A. The bone grows in length, but not thickness. B. The bone increases in thickness and is remodeled. C. Both bone length and thickness continue to increase. D. No further increase in bone length occurs.

D. No further increase in bone length occurs. After closure of the epiphyses, no further increase in bone length can occur.

The nurse observes a client with a shuffling gait. What disease is commonly associated with a shuffling gait? A. Parkinson's disease B. Scoliosis C. Lower motor neuron disease D. Paget's disease

A. Parkinson's disease

Which term refers to the shaft of the long bone? A. Lordosis B. Diaphysis C. Scoliosis D. Epiphysis

B. Diaphysis

After a fracture, during which stage or phase of bone healing is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? A. Revascularization B. Remodeling C. Reparative D. Inflammation

B. Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

Which of the following is the most common site for joint effusion? A. Elbow B. Shoulder C. Knee D. Hip

C. Knee The most common site for joint effusion is the knee. If inflammation or fluid is suspected in a joint, consultation with a provider is indicated.

There are thousand of components of the musculoskeletal system that facilitate mobility and independent function. The function of skeletal muscle is promoting: A. Organ function B. All options are correct. C. Involuntary function D. Movement of skeletal bones.

D. Movement of skeletal bones The skeletal muscles promote movement of the bones of the skeleton.

Which of the following diagnostic studies are done to relieve joint pain due to effusion? A. Arthrocentesis B. EMG C. Biopsy D. Bone scan

A. Arthrocentesis Arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) is carried out to obtain synovial fluid for purpose of examination or to relieve pain due to effusion.

Which is an indicator of neurovascular compromise? A. Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds. B. Diminished pain C. Warm skin temperature D. Pain upon active stretch

A. Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds. Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other indicators include cool skin temperature, pale or cyanotic color, weakness, paralysis, paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain upon passive stretch, and absence of feeling.

Choose the correct statement about the endosteum, a significant component of the skeletal system: A. Covers the marrow cavity of long bones B. Facilitates bone growth C. Supports the attachment of tendons to bones D. Contains blood vessels and lymphatics

A. Covers marrow cavity of long bones The endosteum is a thin vascular membrane that covers the marrow cavity of long bones and the spaces in cancellous bone. Osteoclasts are located near the endosteum.

A client experiences a musculoskeletal injury that involves the structure that connects a muscle to the bone. The nurse understands that this injury involves which structure? A. Tendon B. Joint C. Cartilage D. Ligament

A. Tendon Tendons are cordlike structures that attach muscles to the periosteum of the bone.

Which data is most important for the nurse to record while assessing a client with an open wound? A. When the client last received a tetanus immunization B. Vital signs C. Degree of movement and range of motion D. Time and place of injury

A. When the client last received a tetanus immunization If the client has an open wound, the nurse ascertains when the client last received a tetanus immunization. This vital information helps in assessing the risk of infection in a client with an open wound.

The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation with a client admitted with a fracture. What medication predisposes a client for a risk of fractures? A. Digoxin B. Prednisone C. Metoprolol D. Furosemide

B. Prednisone Prednisone, a corticosteroid, causes increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation, resulting in increased risk for fractures.

Choose the correct statement about the endosteum, a significant component of the skeletal system: A. Covers marrow cavity of long bones B. Contains blood vessels and lymphatics C. Facilitates bone growth

A. Covers marrow cavity of the long bones. The endosteum is a thin vascular membrane that covers the marrow cavity of long bones and the spaces in cancellous bone. Osteoclasts are located near the endosteum.

Which nerve is being assessed when the nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? A. Peroneal B. Radial C. Ulnar D. Median

A. Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the client to dorsiflex the ankle and to extend the toes, while pricking the skin between the great toe and center toe assesses sensory function.

Which laboratory study indicates the rate of bone turnover? A. Serum osteocalcin B. Serum phosphorus C. Urine calcium D. Serum calcium

A. Serum osteocalcin

A client undergoes an arthroscopy at the outpatient clinic. After the procedure, the nurse provides discharge teaching. Which response by the client indicates the need for further teaching? A. "Elevating my leg will reduce swelling after the procedure." B. "I should use my heating pad this evening to reduce some of the pain in my knee." C. "My physician may prescribe pain pills after the procedure." D. "I may notice some bruising or swelling in my knee."

B. "I should use my heating pad this evening to reduce some of the pain in my knee." The client shouldn't use heat at the procedure site during the first 24 hours because doing so may increase localized swelling. Ice is indicated during this time.

A client is experiencing muscle weakness in the upper extremities. The client raises an arm above the head but then loses the ability to maintain the position. Muscular dystrophy is expected. Which diagnostic test would evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration? A. An arthroscopy B. MRI C. EMG D. Serum calcium test

C. EMG An electromyography tests the electrical potential of muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration.

The human body has 206 bones, which are classified into four categories. Which types of bones are the femur and ulna? A. Irregular bones B. Flat bones C. Long bones D. Short bones

C. Long bones The femur and ulna are long bones.

A client arrives at the orthopedic physician's office stating knee pain sustained while playing soccer. A history and physical assessment is completed. The knee appears reddened with edema. Which other diagnostic testing would the nurse anticipate? A. Bone scan B. Arthrocentesis C. Bone densitometry D. Arthroscopy

D. Arthroscopy An arthroscopy is the internal inspection of the joint using an arthroscope. The physician can inspect the joint for injury or deterioration and can also complete therapeutic procedures such as removing bit of torn or floating cartilage.

A client is seen in the emergency room for a knee injury that happened during a basketball game. Diagnostic tests reveal torn cords of fibrous connective tissue that connects muscles to bones. What type of tear has this client sustained? A. Ligament B. Fascia C. Bursa D. Tendon

D. Tendon

The client presents with an exaggeration of of the lumbar spine curve. How does the nurse interpret this finding? A. Lordosis B. Kyphosis C. Scoliosis D. Osteoporosis

A. Lordosis Lordosis is an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve.

Skull sutures are an example of which type of joint? a) Amphiarthrosis b) Synarthrosis c) Diarthrosis d) Aponeuroses

B. Synarthrosis Skull sutures are considered synarthrosis joints and are immovable.

Which of the following is the final stage of fracture repair? A. Cartilage removal B. Angiogenesis C. Remodeling D. Cartilage calcification

C. Remodeling The final stage of fracture repair consists of remodeling the new bone into its former structural arrangement.

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client following an arthrocentesis? A. Activity intolerance B. Deficient knowledge: procedure C. Risk for infection D. Chronic pain

C. Risk for infection The priority nursing diagnosis following an arthrocentesis is risk for infection.

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult patient and observes the patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. What does the nurse understand this common finding known as? A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Osteoporosis D. Scoliosis

A. Kyphosis Common deformities of the spine include kyphosis, which is an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine that causes a bowing or rounding of the back, leading to a hunchback or slouching posture.

A patient is scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy. The nurse explains to the family that the bone marrow is located mainly in four areas. She tells the family that the site to be used would be the: A. Sternum B. Femur C. Scapula D. Humerus

A. Sternum The sternum, along with the ilium, vertebrae, and ribs are responsible for producing red blood cells and are used for bone marrow aspiration sites.

The nurses assess soft subcutaneous nodules along the line of tendons in a patient's hand and wrist. What does this finding indicate to the nurse? A. The patient has lupus erythematosus B. The patient has rheumatoid arthritis C. The patient has neurofibromatosis D. The patient has osteoarthritis

B. The patient has rheumatoid arthritis The subcutaneous nodules of rheumatoid arthritis are soft and occur within and along tendons that provide extensor function to the joints.

Which is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or wrist? A. EMG B. Meniscography C. Bone densitometry D. Arthrography

D. Arthrography Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist.

The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which would the nurse report? A. Capillary refill of 3 seconds B. Positive distal pulses C. Skin warm to touch D. Dusky or mottled skin color

D. Dusky or mottled skin color Pale or dusky skin color indicates an abnormality that needs to be reported.

A group of students are reviewing information about bones in preparation for a quiz. Which of the following indicates that the students have understood the material? A. The yellow marrow is responsible for manufacturing RBCs. B. Osteocytes are transformed into osteoblasts or mature bone cells. C. Long bones typically contain more red bone marrow than yellow. D. Osteoclasts are involved in the destruction and remodeling of bone.

D. Osteoclasts are involved in the destruction and remodeling of bone. Osteoclasts are the cells involved in the destruction, resorption, and remodeling of bone.

The nurse is assessing a client for scoliosis. What will the nurse have the client do to perform the assessment. A. Stand in front of the client and ask them to bend forward at the waist. B. Stand behind the client and ask the client to walk a short distance away. C. Stand to the side of the client and observe the clients spinal curvatures. D. Stand behind the client and ask the client to bend forward at the waist.

D. Stand behind the client and ask the client to bend forward at the waist.

A patient is scheduled for a procedure that will allow the physician to visualize the knee joint in order to diagnose the patient's pain. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for? A. Bone scan B. Arthroscopy C. Arthrocentesis D. Electromyography

B. Arthroscopy

A client undergoes an invasive joint examination of the knee. What will the nurse closely monitor the client for? A. Lack of sleep and appetite. B. Serous drainage C. Signs of shock D. Signs of depression

B. Serous drainage

The nurse is assessing a client's peroneal nerve. What technique will the nurse use? A. Prick the medial surface of the sole. B. Ask client to plantar flex the toes. C. Prick the skin mid-way between the great and second toe. D. Ask client to invert and evert the foot.

C. Prick the skin mid-way between the great and second toe.

The nurse is performing a neurological assessment. What will this assessment include? A. Observe for capillary refill of the great toe. B. Palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse. C. Inspect the foot for edema. D. Ask the client the plantar flex the toes.

D. Ask the client to plantar flex the toes. A neurological assessment evaluates sensation and motion. Assessing plantar flexion of the toes would be included in a neurological assessment.

The client presents with an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve. How does the nurse interpret this finding? A. Lordosis B. Scoliosis C. Dowager's hump D. Kyphosis

A. Lordosis Lordosis is an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve.

Which serum level indicates the rate of bone turnover? A. Osteocalcin B. Myoglobin C. Creatinine kinase D. Aspartate aminotransferase

A. Osteocalcin Serum osteocalcin (bone GLA protein) indicates the rate of bone turnover.

When reading a client's chart, the nurse notices that the client is documented to have paresthesias. The nurse plans care for a client with A. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. B. Abnormal sensations. C. Absence of muscle tone. D. Absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage.

B. Abnormal sensations Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

The older client asks the nurse how best to maintain strong bones. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Range of motion exercises build bone mass." B. "Cardio-training is the best way to build bones." C. "Weight-bearing exercises can strengthen bones." D. "Weight-resistance exercises can strengthen bones."

C. "Weight-bearing exercises can strengthen bones." Weight-bearing exercises maintain bone mass.

A group of students are studying for an examination on joints. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as an example of a synarthroidial joint? A. Skull at the temporal and occipital bones B. Base of finger C. Hip D. Vertebrae

A. Skull at the temporal and occipital bones A synarthrodial joint is immovable and can be found at the suture line of the skull between the temporal and occipital bones.

Which of the following is an example of a gliding joint? A. Carpal bones in the wrist B. Knee C. Base of thumb D. Elbow

A. Carpal bones in the wrist Gliding joints allow for limited movement in all directions and are represented by the joints of the carpal bones in the wrist.

A client is scheduled to undergo an EMG. When performed, what will this test evaluate? A. Muscle weakness B. Bone density C. Muscle composition D. Metastatic bone lesions

A. Muscle weakness Electromyography tests the electric potential of the muscles and nerves leading to the muscles. It is done to evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration, pain, disability, and to differentiate muscle and nerve problems.

An instructor is describing the process of bone development. Which of the following would the instructor describe as being responsible for the process of ossification? A. Osteoblasts B. Cortical bone C. Osteoclasts D. Cancellous bone

A. Osteoblasts Osteoblasts secrete bone matrix (mostly collagen), in which inorganic minerals, such as calcium salts, are deposited. This process of ossification and calcification transforms the blast cells into mature bone cells, called osteocytes, which are involved in maintaining bone tissue.

The nurse is admitting an older adult to a skilled nursing facility. What assessment parameters will the nurse expect to find with the musculoskeletal assessment? Select all that apply. A. Joint stiffness B. Increase in height C. Decreased endurance D. Decreased range of motion E. Increased muscle strength

A. Joint Stiffness C. Decreased endurance D. Decreased range of motion Significant assessment findings of the musculoskeletal system in the older adult would include joint stiffness and decreased height, range of motion, muscle strength, and endurance.

A nurse is caring for a client with an undiagnosed bone disease. When instructing on the normal process to maintain bone tissue, which process transforms osteoblasts into mature bone cells? A. Ossification and calcification B. Remodeling C. Resorption D. Epiphyses and diaphysis formation

A. Ossification and calcification Ossification and calcifications the body's process to transform osteoblasts into mature bone cells called osteocytes.

A client has just undergone arthrography. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan? A. Avoid sunlight or harsh, dry climate. B. Report joint crackling or clicking noises occurring after the second day. C. Gently massage joints with any crackling or clicking joint noises. D. Avoid intake of dairy products.

B. Report joint crackling or clicking noises occurring after the second day. After undergoing arthrography, the client must be informed that he or she may hear crackling or clicking noises in the joints for up to 2 days, but if noises occur beyond this time, they should be reported. These noises may indicate the presence of a complication, and therefore should not be ignored or treated by the client.

The nurse is preparing a client for computed tomography. Which information should be given by the nurse? A. "Fluid will be removed from your affected joint." B. "A small bit of tissue will be removed and sent to the lab." C. "You must remain very still during the procedure." D. "A radioisotope will be given through an IV."

C. "You must remain very still during the procedure." In computed tomography, a series of detailed x-rays are taken. The client must lie very still during the procedure. A contrast agent, not a radioisotope, may or may not be injected

Which of the following describes a muscle that is limp and without tone? A. Flaccid B. Spastic C. Atonic D. Paralysis

A. Flaccid A muscle that is limp and without tone is described as flaccid.

A patient has had a stroke and is unable to move the right upper and lower extremity. During assessment the nurse picks up the arm and it is limp and without tone. How would the nurse document this finding? A. Flaccidity B. Atonic C. Rigidity D. Tetanic

A. Flaccidity

The nurse is caring for a client scheduled to have an MRI. The nurse contacts the HCP to cancel the MRI when the nurse reads which element in the client's medical history? A. Skin graft B. Cochlear implant C. Tumor removal D. Colostomy

B. Cochlear implant Nonremovable cochlear devices can become inoperable when exposed to MRI. Therefore, it is contraindicated for a client with a cochlear implant to have an MRI. Also, transdermal patches (e.g., nicotine patch, nitroglycerin transdermal, scopolamine transdermal, clonidine transdermal) that have a thin layer of aluminized backing must be removed before MRI because they can cause burns. The primary provider should be notified before the patches are removed. Additionally, the client should remove all jewelry, hair clips, hearing aids, credit cards with magnetic strips, and other objects containing metal; otherwise, these objects can become dangerous projectiles or cause burns.

The nurse working in the orthopedic surgeon's office is asked to schedule a shoulder arthrography. The nurse determines that surgeon suspects which finding? A. Decreased bone density B. Fracture of the clavicle C. Injury to radial nerve D. Tear in the joint capsule

D. Tear in the joint capsule Arthrography is useful in identifying acute or chronic tears of the joint capsule or supporting ligaments of the knee, shoulder, ankle, hip, or waist.

During the interview an older adult client reports joint pain w/ movement. The client states, "But if I rest, the pain gets better." What is the most likely cause of client's pain? A. Relaxation of ligaments B. Increase in collagen C. Deterioration of the cartilage D. Decreased muscle mass

A. Relaxation of the ligaments. The client's pain is most likely due to the relaxation of the ligaments resulting in postural changes and joint pain with movement that improves with rest.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension. When assessing the reflexes in the ankle, the nurse observes rhythmic contractions of the muscle when dorsiflexing the foot. What would the nurse document this finding as? A. Positive Babinski reflex B. Hypertrophy C. Ankle reflex D. Clonus

D. Clonus The nurse may elicit muscle clonus (rhythmic contractions of a muscle) in the ankle or wrist by sudden, forceful, sustained dorsiflexion of the foot or extension of the wrist.

A client is diagnosed with a fracture of a diarthrosis joint. What is an example of this type of joint? A. Elbow B. Fifth thoracic vertebrae C. Skull D. Symphysis pubis

A. Elbow A diarthrosis joint, like the elbow, is freely movable.

Which cells are involved in bone resorption? A. Osteoclasts B. Chondrocytes C. Osteocytes D. Osteoblasts

A. Osteoclasts Osteoclasts carry out bone resorption by removing unwanted bone while new bone is forming in other areas.

Which hormone inhibits bone resorption and increases calcium deposit in the bone? A. Growth hormone B. Calcitonin C. Sex hormones D. Vitamin D

B. Calcitonin Calcitonin, secreted by the thyroid gland in response to elevated blood calcium concentration, inhibits bone reabsorption and increases the deposit of calcium in the bone.

The nurse is reporting on the results of client bloodwork to the oncoming nurse. Upon reviewing the data, it is noted that the client has an elevated uric acid level. Which inflammatory process would the nurse screen for on shift rounds? A. Lupus erythematosus B. Gout C. Osteoporosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Gout Gout is a medical condition with symptoms of acute inflammatory arthritis that is caused by high levels of uric acid in the blood. The client has uric acid crystal deposits in the joint. The nurse would assess joint areas for pain, redness, and swelling.

The nurse is employed at a long-term care facility caring for geriatric clients. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an age-related change? A. Depressive symptoms B. Loss of height C. Increased muscle mass D. Cognitive decline

B. Loss of height A common age-related change is the loss of height due to the loss of bone mass and vertebral collapse.

A client is having repeated tears of the joint capsule in the shoulder , and the HCP orders an arthrogram. What interventions should the nurse provide after the procedure is completed? Select all that apply. A. Apply heat to the area for 48 hours B. Inform the client that a clicking or crackling noise in the joint may persist for a couple of days. C. Apply a compression bandage to the area. D. Administer a mild analgesic E. Actively exercise the area immediately after the procedure.

C. Apply compression bandage to the area D. Administer mild analgesic B. Inform the client that a clicking or crackling noise in the joint may persist for a couple of days. The client having an arthrogram may feel some discomfort or tingling during the procedure. After the arthrogram, a compression elastic bandage may be applied if prescribed, and the joint is usually rested for 12 hours. Strenuous activity should be avoided until approved by the primary provider. The nurse provides additional comfort measures (e.g., mild analgesia, ice) as appropriate and explains to the client that it is normal to experience clicking or crackling in the joint for 24 to 48 hours after the procedure until the contrast agent or air is absorbed.

The nurse is working on an orthopedic floor caring for a client injured in a football game. The nurse is reviewing the client's chart noting that the client has previously had an injured tendon . The nurse anticipates an injury between the periosteum of the bone and which of the following ? A. Joint B. Cartilage C. Muscle D. Ligament

C. Muscle Tendons attach muscles to the periosteum of bone.

What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle? A. Atrophy B. Hypertrophy C. Crepitus D. Clonus

D. Clonus Clonus is a rhythmic contraction of the muscle.