AH PrepU 3

Synovectomy

excision of synovial membrane

Ankylosis

fixation of immobility of a joint

T-cell deficiency occurs when which gland fails to develop normally during embryogenesis?

Thymus

A client with chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, an autosomal recessive disorder, asks the nurse, "Will my children have this disease?" Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

"All of your children will be carriers of the recessive gene but may not develop the disease." rare T-cell disorder affects both males and females autosomal recessive appearance of phenotype child will be phenotypically normal but carry the recessive trait skips a gen

A nurse is assessing a woman with vaginal discharge. The nurse suspects bacterial vaginosis when the client states which of the following?

"I noticed a strange fishy odor during my period."

A client asks the nurse what the difference is between osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which response is correct?

"OA is a noninflammatory joint disease. RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints."

There are major differences between primary and secondary immunodeficiencies. Select the most accurate statement the nurse would use to explain the cause of a secondary immunodeficiency.

"Your immune system was most likely affected by an underlying disease process."

Infectious diseases

....

Autoimmune deficiency

.....

Rheumatic Disorder

.......

HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) return visit

6 weeks viral load measured again in 2-8 weeks by 16-20 weeks viral load should be dropping below detectable levels

A client has been admitted with primary syphilis. Which signs or symptoms should the nurse expect to see with this diagnosis?

A painless genital ulcer that appeared about 3 weeks after unprotected sex

A client with AIDS has become forgetful with a limited attention span, decreased ability to concentrate, and delusional thinking. What condition is represented by these symptoms?

AIDS dementia complex (ADC)

The side effect of bone marrow depression may occur with which medication used to treat gout?

Allopurinol

The nurse is educating a client about the risks of stroke related to the new prescription for a COX-2 inhibitor and what symptoms to report. Which COX-2 inhibitor is the nurse educating the client about?

Celecoxib

Which of the following describes microorganisms present without host interference or interaction?

Colonization

A nurse is assesing a client with Kaposi's sarcoma. What initial sign does the nurse know to look for during assessment?

Deep purple cutaneous lesions localized lesions= hIV related malignancy lesions increase in size and spread to other locations

A patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to a dose of penicillin. What should the nurse look for in the patient's initial assessment?

Dyspnea, bronchospasm, and/or laryngeal edema.

A patient who has been treated for uric acid stones is being discharged from the hospital. What type of diet does the nurse discuss with the patient?

Low-purine diet

A client with lupus has had antineoplastic drugs prescribed. Why would the physician prescribe antineoplastic drugs for an autoimmune disorder?

For their immunosuppressant effects

KS is diagnosed by biopsy of the suspected lesions. Prognosis depends on the extent of the tumor, the presence of other symptoms of HIV infection, and the CD4+ count.

HIV is a retrovirus that carries its genetic material in the form of RNA rather than DNA. HIV consists of a viral core containing the viral RNA, surrounded by an envelope consisting of protruding glycoproteins.

Which of the following indicates that a client with HIV has developed AIDS?

Herpes simplex ulcer persisting for 2 months A diagnosis of AIDS cannot be made until the person with HIV meets case criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The immune system becomes compromised. The CD4 T-cell count drops below 200 cells and develops one of the opportunistic diseases, such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, candidiasis, cytomegalovirus, or herpes simplex.

The nurse advises the patient with chronic pyelonephritis that he should:

Increase fluids to 3 to 4 L/24 hours to dilute the urine.

Which of the following is the most effective treatment for trichomoniasis?

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A client with a history of chronic cystitis comes to an outpatient clinic with signs and symptoms of this disorder. To prevent cystitis from recurring, the nurse recommends maintaining an acid-ash diet to acidify the urine, thereby decreasing the rate of bacterial multiplication. On an acid-ash diet, the client must restrict which beverage?

Milk

A patient has had surgery to create an ileal conduit for urinary diversion. What is a priority intervention by the nurse in the postoperative phase of care?

Monitor urine output hourly and report output less than 30 mL/hr

Which medication may be ordered to relieve discomfort associated with a urinary tract infection?

Phenazopyridine

A client has had skin testing and the results are inconclusive. The nurse would expect to prepare the client for which type of testing?

Radioallergosorbent test If there is doubt about the results of skin tests, a radioallergosorbent test (RAST) or provocative challenge test would be done. Serum immunoglobulin E levels, eosinophil count, and complete blood count with differential would most likely be done prior to skin testing to provide supportive data to suggest an allergic disorder.

Which organism is responsible for impetigo?

Staphylococcus aureus Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is the responsible organisms for impetigo. Histoplasma capsulatum is responsible for histoplasmosis. Bacillus anthracis is responsible for anthrax. Clostridium difficile is responsible for some diarrheal diseases.

Impetigo

S.aureus

The nurse working in the emergency department is asked to explain allergy testing to a client who experienced an allergic reaction to an unknown allergen. Which test indicates the quantity of allergen necessary to evoke an allergic reaction?

Serum-specific IgE test

A client with rheumatoid arthritis has infiltration of the lacrimal and salivary glands with lymphocytes as a result of the disease. What does the nurse understand that this clinical manifestation is?

Sicca syndrome

Painless chancres are associated with which systemic disease

Syphilis

Which of the following disorders is characterized by an increased autoantibody production?

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

When assisting the client to interpret a negative HIV test result, what does the nurse tell the client that this result means?

The body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus.

The nurse is assisting in the transport of a client with an indwelling catheter to the diagnostic studies unit. Which action made by the nursing assistant would require instruction?

The nursing assistant places the drainage bag on the client's abdomen for transport.

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which symptom, if reported by the client, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion?

Tightness in the chest flank pain tightness in chest hypotension

During early pregnancy, herpes simplex infection may cause spontaneous abortion or premature birth.

True

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of a sudden onset of sharp, severe flank pain. During the physical examination, the client indicates that the pain, which comes in waves, travels to the suprapubic region. He states, "I can even feel the pain at the tip of my penis." Which of the following would the nurse suspect?

Urinary calculi sudden flank pain that travels to suprapubic region The pain comes in waves that radiate to the inguinal ring, the inner aspect of the thigh, and to the testicle or tip of the penis in men, or the urinary meatus or labia in women.

Which newer pharmacological therapy, used to treat osteoarthritis, is thought to prevent the loss of cartilage and repair chondral defects, as well as have some anti-inflammatory effects?

Viscosupplementation

The nurse recognizes that urinalysis results that most likely indicate a urinary tract infection include:

WBC 50

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

acquired clonal stem cell disorder mutation in hematopoietic stem cells hemoglobinuria that increases during sleep (indolent) can be life threatening intravascular hemolysis- hemolysis happens mainly in vasculature, blood cells are released into general circulation cytopenia- 1 or more RBC types is lower than it should be VT (commonly in abdominal veins) bone marrow hyperplasia

osteotomy

alters distribution of weight within a joint

normal IgE serum levels

below 1.0 mg/mL

treatment for SCID- severe combined immunodeficiency disease

bone marrow transplantation

acute hemolytic anemia

check for lower back pain assess for anxiety and mental status changes notify the healthcare provider

The nurse practitioner who is monitoring the patient's progression of HIV is aware that the most debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS patients is:

chronic diarrhea related to HIV effect on cells lining the intestine lots of GI manifestation leads to weight loss and electrolyte imbalances

The nurse is caring for a client with a new onset of gout. What medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider?

colchicine

genital herpes

consistently use condoms

More than 50% of people with CVID- common variable immunodeficiency

develop pernicious anemia

A client with end-stage acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has profound manifestations of Cryptosporidium infection caused by the protozoa. What client need should in the nurse focus on when planning this client's care?

fluid replacement cyptosporidum is a protozoal infection tha results in watery diarrhea ART is better with no opportunistic infections

Coinfection

gonorrhea and chlamydia

preventing UTIs= 1,000 mg of vita C a day

helps acidify the urine

Pelvic infection is most commonly caused by which of the following?

sexual transmission

immunocompromised diet

should avoid raw fruit and vegetables- bacteria that can increase the risk of infection foods must be thoroughly cooked avoid products that contain alcohol avoid people who have just gotten vaccines

Arthrodesis

surgical fusion of the joint

Tenorrhapy

suturing of a tendon

measles

warrants airborne isolation (also varicella and tb) droplet isolation: mumps contact isolation: impetigo enteric isolation: cholera

The anticipated outcome of desensitization is that repeated exposure to the:

weak antigen promotes the production of IgG, an antibody that blocks IgE so it cannot stimulate mast cells.

A patient comes to the clinic with an inflamed wrist. How should the nurse splint the joint to immobilize it?

Slight dorsiflexion

side effects of oral corticosteroid therapy

adrenal suppression fluid retention weight gain glucose intolerance hypertension gastric irritation

once HIV enters cell

attachment occurs glycoproteins of HIV bind to uninfected CD4+ receptors and chemokine coreceptors

pelvic infection usually begins with

dyspareunia

Osteoarthritis

herberden nodes

ACE inhibitors

hypertension medication can cause angioedema

Epipen use

jab Epipen autoinjector firmly into outer thigh after admin, massage area for 10 seconds hold auto injector against thigh for 10 seconds

A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is exhibiting shortness of breath, cough, and fever. What type of infection will the nurse most likely suspect?

pneumonia pneumocystitis jiroveci

didanosine

take half an hour or 2 hours after you eat abacavir, emtriciabine, lamivudine- can be taken without regard to meals amprenavir- avoid high fat meals atazanavir- take with food, do not take with antacids

Gonorrhea

typically asymptomatic

rheumatoid nodules

typically located over a bony prominence

Hypruricemia

uric acid concentration above 6.8 mg/dL

The balance between the amount of HIV in the body and the immune response is the

viral set point.

While interviewing a client with an allergic disorder, the client tells the nurse about an allergy to animal dander. The nurse knows that animal dander is what type of substance?

Complete protein antigen

A female client comes to the clinic and tells the nurse, "I think I have another vaginal infection and I also have some wartlike lesions on my vagina. This is happening quite often." What should the nurse consult with the physician regarding?

testing the client for the presence of HIV Abnormal results of Papanicolaou tests, genital warts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and persistent vaginitis may correlate with HIV infection.

before IVIG infusion

age underlying condition: ex migrane, cvd Vitals- before, after, during premeditate 30 mi before with acetaminophen and diphenhydramine

skin testing route

intradermal

joint abnormalities

most obvious manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis

genital herpes

not easily treated

A client has just undergone a urinary diversion procedure. What management issues related specifically to urinary diversion would be included in this client's care plan? Select all that apply.

observe for leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis maintain renal function assess for signs and symptoms of peritonitis

diarrheal disorders

oral rehydration salts (ORS)

Early indicator of bladder cancer

painless hematuria cancer cells destroy normal bladder tissue polyuria= w/alc or caffiene prostatic hypertrophy= nocturne dysuria= UTI

major side effect of antihistamines

sedation

RA

swan neck deformity boutinnaire deformity ulnar deviation

Type III

hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes forming when antigens bind to antibodies

ELISA- enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

initial HIV screening test if positive twice --> western blot test

law mandates reporting of

syphillis chlamydia gonorrhea chancroid HIV/AIDs

Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through

biopsy. KS is diagnosed by biopsy of the suspected lesions. Prognosis depends on the extent of the tumor, the presence of other symptoms of HIV infection, and the CD4+ count.

Stages of syphilis

latency- no signs or symptoms primary- 2-3 weeks after secondary- generalized infection tertiary- inflammatory disease and affect on multiple organs

Rhinitis medicamentosa

rebound reaction from overuse of sympathomimetic nose drops or sprays that worsen the congestion, causing the client to use more of the medication, thereby leading to more nasal congestion. This differs from tolerance, when more medication is needed to achieve the desired effect.

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an allergic reaction. What will the nurse identify as resulting from the release of histamine?

Histamine causes erythema, localized edema in the form of wheals, pruritus, contraction of bronchial smooth muscle resulting in wheezing and bronchospasm, dilation of small venules and constriction of larger vessels, and increased secreation of gastric and mucosal cells, resulting in diarrhea. Vasodilation and hypotension result from bradykinin release.