Ameritech High Acuity Immune and MS

live vaccines should not be given to who?

Patients with antibody deficiency disorders

A patient has a fracture that is being treated with open rigid compression plate fixation devices. How will the progress of bone healing be monitored? A. perform serial X-rays B. perform an arthroscopy C. remove the plate and determine if the bone is growing back D. the bone will heal on its own without intervention

Perform serial X-rays

A nursing student approaches an instructor following a needlestick to the finger form a needle used for an injection with a known HIV positive patient. which instructor statement is most accurate? A. Post exposure prophylaxis will need to be started within 1-2 hours B. HIV antibody testing will need to be done in 6 weeks and then again in 3 months C. A the end of the clinical shift, you should make and appointment to see your HCP D. Flush immediately with water for 10 min and cover with a bandage and glove

Post exposure prophylaxis will need to be started within 1-2 hours

when assessing the patient, the nurse notes swollen lymph nodes in the neck of the patient complaining of a sore throat. The nurse would recognize this patient is in the _____________phase of the response to invasion A. Proliferation B. Effector C. Response D. Recognition

Proliferation

Antibodies

Proteins that attach to antigens, keeping them from harming the body

Virchow's triad

Pulmonary embolism (triad = blood stasis, endothelial damage, hypercoagulation)

A patient has a fracture of the right femur sustained in a motor vehicle crash. The nurse is describing the process of healing to the family and patient. Which of the following would be included in the teaching? A. first intention secondary intention, tertiary intention B. reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase C. active phase, dormant phase, restructure phase D. primary phase, secondary phase, third phase

Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase

The patient diagnosed with RA is being seen in the outpatient clinic. Which preventive care should the nurse include in the regularly scheduled clinic visits? A.Perform joint x-rays to determine progression of the disease. B. Recommend the flu and pneumonia vaccines. The key word is preventive which would include the vaccines. C. Assess the patient for increasing joint involvement. D. Send blood to the lab for an erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

Recommend the flu and pneumonia vaccines. (key word is preventative)

Stages of bone healing

STAGE !-Hematoma formation (1-2 days after fx) STAGE 2 -Fibrocartilaginous callus formation (fibroblasts and osteoblasts migrate to fracture site) STAGE 3 -bone callus formation (ossification begins during 3rd or 4th week) STAGE 4 -remodeling ( osteoclasts remove necrotic bone)

active natural immunity

develops when the body produces antibodies in response to exposure to a live pathogen that enters the body naturally

antedote to anaphylaxis?

epinephrine

how often do you perform a neurovascular assessment?

every 1-2 hours

Type IV delayed or cellular reaction

happens 1-3 days afterwards Ex- contact dermatitis, graft-vs.-host

how to assess circulation?

observe color, temperature and capillary refill of the exposed area. nerve function is assess by observing the patients ability to move the toes and by asking about sensations in the area. numbness, tingling and burning may indicate nerve injury resulting from pressure

VTE prophylaxis

occurs with immobility. the nurse should educate the patient on how to perform ankle and foot exercises within the limits of traction therapy every 1-2 hours. encourage the patient to drink fluids to prevent dehydration , the nurse should promptly report finding to primary care provider. pt

what is the most likely reason to get osteomyelitis?

open bone fracture, or infection. biggest culprit is MRSA

Homan's sign

pain in *calf upon dorsiflexion* of foot and may indicated thrombophlebitis

what two bones lead to a fat embolism?

pelvix and femur

Bone scan

performed to detect metastatic and primary bone tumors, osteomyelitits, some fractures and aseptic necrosis, and to monitor the progression of degenerative bone disease. uses a contrast to find abnormalities

After a bone density test, an older adult female patient tells the nurse, "I don't understand why I have osteoporosis because I well and take my calcium." What is the best response by the nurse? A. "In order to prevent bone loss, you will have to take hormones" B. "Everyone get osteoporosis and there is nothing you can do about it" C. "Men lose more bone mass than women but women still lose some" D. "The loss is from decrease of estrogen and a decrease in activity level"

"The loss is from decrease of estrogen and a decrease in activity level"

Role of T-cells ( T lymphocytes)

- Assist B cells -secrete substances that destroy target cells and stimulate macrophages. -Digest antigens and remove debris

PrEP (pre-exposure prophylaxis)

- Taking a particular HIV treatment (i.e. Truvada) can significantly reduce the risk of getting infected with HIV. - It is recommended for HIV- people who are in relationships with HIV+ people.Men who have sex with men, and sexual workers.

nursing interventions for electromyelography

- assess for use of anticoagulants, electrodes that may cause bleeding -active skin infection

how to care for a patient with an external fixation device

- elevate to reduce edema -monitor for signs and symptoms of complications including infection -pin care (clean around pins, do not remove crust) -traction

nursing interventions for arthrography

- may feel discomfort and tingling - may experience clicking or cracking in joints 24-48 hours after after

nursing interventions for MRI

- may hear knocking sound - assess for contraindications (pacemakeretc) -assess for allergies for contrast (shellfish allergy)

nursing interventions for arthroscopy

- post procedure wrap joint with compression dressing to control swelling - monitor neuro status -instruct family to monitor signs and symptoms of complications

nursing interventions for arthrocentesis

- remove hair from procedure site - administer analgesics -apply ice for 24-8 hours after procedure

The nurse who suspects the patient is having a rebound anaphylactic reaction occur after an initial attack even when epinephrine has been give, would assess the patient in which of the following time frames? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours

4 hours, a rebound anaphylactic reaction can occur 4-10 hours after an initial attack even when epinephrine has been given

The nurse newly hired to an arthritis clinic would indicate which patients below are at risk for developing osteoarthritis? (select all that apply) A. A 60 year old female with high uric acid levels B. A 55 year old male with a history of repeated right knee injuries. C. A 35 years old female with chronic fibromyalgia D. A 59 year old female with a history of taking long term doses of corticosteroids E. A 65 year old male with a BMI of 35.

55 year old male with a history of repeated right knee injuries. 65 year old male with a BMI of 35

The nurse who is exposed to patient blood needs to receive Post Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) treatment within which specific time period? A. 2 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours

72 hours

The nurse asks the student nurse to identify which patient below is at MOST risk for developing gout: A. A 27 year old female with ulcerative colitis. A 56 year old male who reports consuming foods low in purines. C. A 39 year old female hospitalized with bulimia that has a BMI of 24. D. A 45 year old male with a BMI of 40 who reports taking hydrochlorothiazide and aspirin.

A 45 year old male with a BMI of 40 who reports taking hydrochlorothiazide as aspirin. (overweight and male are two risk factors)

active immunity

A form of acquired immunity in which the body produces its own antibodies against disease-causing antigens.

Dupuytren's contracture

A gradual thickening and tightening of tissue under the skin in the hand. causes flexion of the fourth and fifth and sometimes middle finger

The patient admitted with HIV wasting exhibits which of the following? (Select all that apply) A. Weakness for > 10 days B. Loss of both muscle and fat C. Diarrhea for > 30 days D. Fever for > 30 days E. Loss of more than 10% of body weight

A. Weakness for > 10 days B. Loss of both muscle and fat C. Diarrhea for > 30 days D. Fever for > 30 days E. Loss of more than 10% of body weight

A patient tells the healthcare provider about shoulder pain that is present even without any strenuous movement. The healthcare provider identifies a sac filled with synovial fluid. What conditions should the nurse educate the patient about A. a fracture of the clavicle B. chronic bursitis C. osteoarthritis of the shoulder D. Ankylosing spondylitis ankylosing spondylitis

Chronic bursitis

The 26-year-old female patient is complaining of low-grade fever, arthralgias, fatigue, and a facial rash. Which laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate the provider to order? A. Complete blood count and antinuclear antibody tests. B. Cholesterol and lipid profile tests. C. Complete metabolic panel and liver function tests. D. Blood urea nitrogen and glomerular filtration tests.

Complete blood count and antinuclear antibody tests. (The common findings for SLE is an elevated WBC and a positive ANA with the distinctive signs/symptoms )

3. The nurse is educating the parents and her 15-year-old patient about the stages of healing of the bone. The patient states he has a basketball playoff at the end of the school year and wants to know why he has to wear a cast. The nurse indicates the bone must be stabilized and immobile for the ossification process to knit the bone back together properly. She identifies which stage as when this occurs? A. Stage one B. Stage two C. Stage three D. Stage four

Stage 3

10. The nurse is anticipating return of a patient from surgery in 10 minutes. The nurse has a new graduate nurse orienting with her. The patient had a total right knee replacement. The nurse questions the new grad on which interventions will need to be done for this patient. Which of the following statements indicates the new graduate needs further education? A. Compression bandage on knee B. Stand the patient at the bedside within 1 hour of return C. Assess neurovascular status every 2 to 4 hours D. Monitor for complications; VTE, infection, bleeding

Stand the patient as the bedside within 1 hour of return

5. The patient being admitted has hands that are represented in the picture. The nurse would document this as which of the following? A. Heberden's nodes B. Bouchard's nodes C. Swan-neck deformity D. Raynaud's formation

Swan-neck deformity

PEP (post exposure prophylaxis)

Taking a certain mixture of HIV treatment medications for six months can significantly reduce the risk of infection after an expose has occurred

Tinel sign (wrist)

Tap over volar carpal ligament Dx: Carpal tunnel syndrome

The nurse is caring for patients on a medical floor. Which patient should the nurse assess first? A. The patient diagnosed with scleroderma who has hard, waxlike skin near the eyes. B. The patient diagnosed with RA complaining of pain of "3" on a 1-10 pain scale. C.The patient diagnosed with SLE who has a rash across the bridge of the nose. D. The patient diagnosed with advanced RA who is receiving antineoplastic drugs IV

The patient diagnosed with advanced RA who is receiving antineoplastic ( priority because this is very caustic to veins)

4. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with scoliosis who is scheduled for surgery to correct her spinal deformity. How would the nurse describe the curvature of the spine? A. The patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spins B. The patient has an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine C. The patient has microfractures in the neck which causes the head to dip down D. The patient has a lateral curving deviation of the spine

The patient has a lateral curving deviation of the spine

The nurse assesses soft subcutaneous nodules along the line of the tendons in a patient's hand and wrist. What does this finding indicate to the nurse? A. The patient has rheumatoid arthritis B. The patient has osteoarthritis C. The patient has neurofibromatosis D. The patient has lupus erythematosus

The patient has rheumatoid arthritis

7. The nurse caring for a patient following a bone marrow biopsy would identify which of the following as requiring immediate intervention? A. The patient has a small amount of serosanguinous drainage at the biopsy site. B. The patient states he is having difficulty breathing with a SaO2 of 94% C. The patient has a HR of 110 and a BP of 100/57 D. The patient is complaining of a headache.

The patient states he is having difficulty breathing with a SaO2 of 94%

The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient diagnosed with SLE. Which goal is a priority for this patient? A. The patient will maintain reproductive ability. B. The patient's skin will remain intact and have no irritation. C. The patient will verbalize feelings of body-image changes. D. The patient will have no deterioration of organ function

The patient will have no deterioration of organ function

allergic reaction

allergen triggers the B cell to make IgE antibody, which attaches to the mast cell. when that allergen reappears, it binds to the IgE and triggers the mast cells to release its chemicals

4 stages of immune response

1. recognition- 2. proliferation 3. response 4. effector

a nurse is providing information to a client who has OA of the hip and knee. which of the following information should the nurse include in the information? (SATA) A. apply heat to joints to alleviate pain B. ice inflamed joints following activity C. install an elevated toilet seat D. take tub baths E. complete high energy activities in the morning

-Apply heat to joints to alleviate pain -ice joints following activities -install elevated toilet seats -complete high energy activities in the morning

A nurse is discussing gout with a client who is concerned about developing the disorder. which of the following findings should the nurse identify as risk factors for this disease? (SATA) A. diuretic use B. obesity C. deep sleep deprivation D. Depression E. Cardiovascular disease

-Diuretic use -obesity -cardiovascular disease

Type II (Cytotoxic) Reactions

-Involve IgG or IgM antibodies and complement -Complement activation causes cell lysis or damage by macrophages ex- myasthenia gravis, pernicious anemia, hemolytic disease of newborn, transfusion reaction

11. The nurse is caring for a patient after a total hip replacement. The nurse would monitor the patient frequently for potential postop complications. (Select all that apply) A. Low BP with high HR, pale, diaphoretic skin B. Rapid shallow breathing with bilateral crackles in posterior lungs ½ way up D. Bladder distended, no urine output X 6 hours D. T 98.4, HR 89, RR 18, BP 123/73 E. Lower left leg painful, swollen, flushed with increased pain when foot is dorsiflexed. F. Soft, formed brown stool 2 hours after surgery

-Low BP with high HR, pale diaphoretic skin -rapid shallow breathing with bilateral crackles in posterior lungs 1/2 way up -bladder distended, no urine output C 6 hours -lower left leg painful, swollen, flushed with increased pain when foot is dorsiflexed

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who has SLE. The client reports fatigue, joint tenderness, swelling, and difficulty urinating. which of the of the following findings should the nurse anticipate? (SATA) A. positive ANA titer B. increased hemoglobin C. 2+ urine protein D. increased serum C3 and C4 E. elevated BUN

-Positive ANA titer -2+ urine protein -Elevated BUN

The nurse caring for a patient who has humoral immunity knows this is related to which of the following? (SATA) A. Production of antibodies by B cells B. T cells are activated by an antigen C. The body's response to an antigen D. Sensitized T cells destroy the antigen E. Helper T cells activate phaygocytosis

-Production of antibodies by B cells -The body's response to an antigen -Helper T cells activate phagocytosis

A nurse working in an outpatient clinic is assessing a client who has RA. The client reports increased joint tenderness and swelling. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Recent influenza B. Decreased range of motion C. Hypersalivation D. Increased BP E. Pain at rest

-Recent influenza -Decrease in range of motion -Pain at rest

The nurse caring for a patient identifies which of the following as able to provide innate immunity? A. Skin and mucous membranes B. Lungs C. heart D. Tears and Saliva E. Natural intestinal and vaginal flora F. Stomach acid

-Skin and mucous membranes -Tears and saliva -Natural intestinal and vaginal flora -Stomach acid

HIV/AIDS prevention

-Use of condoms or abstinence -Male circumcision (keep it clean and doesn't harbor bacteria) -needle exchanges -Avoid pregnancy -avoid breast feeding -don't share needles

Manifestations of a fracture

-acute pain -loss of function -deformity -shortening of extremity -crepitus local swelling and discoloration --diagnosed by radiographs

signs and symptoms of a fracture

-acute pain -loss of function -shortening of the extremity -crepitus -local swelling and discoloration

nursing interventions for bone scan

-assess for allergies to radioisotopes -encourage fluids to distribute isotope

nursing interventions for a patient in skin traction?

-assess skin atleast 3 times a day -assess for sensation and movement -assess for indicators of DVT -assess for indicators of infection -assess for pulse, color, CRT and temperature

HIV/AIDS transmission

-contact with body fluids - sexual contact - direct contact with infected blood - blood transfusions - infected mother to her child during pregnancy - childbirth - or breast-feeding. -Seminal fluid - vaginal secretions (Blood, seminal fluids, vaginal fluids, amniotic fluids, breast milk)

how to prevent hip dislocation of hip prosthesis?

-correct positioning using splint, wedge pillows -keep hip in abduction when turning and rotating -limited flexing of the hip, lessthan 90 degrees

Delayed complications of a fracture

-delayed union, malunion and nonunion -avascular necrosis of the bone -complex regional pain syndrome -heterotrophic ossification

nursing interventions for skeletal traction

-maintain body alignment -report pain promptly -trapeze to help with movement -assess pressure point in skin 3 times a day -perform active foot exercises and leg exercises every hour

nursing interventions for biopsy

-monitor site for bleeding and edema -administer analgesics and antibiotics

nursing interventions for traction

-never interrupt skeletal traction -weights are not removed -any factor that might reduce the effectivepull or alter its resultant line of pull must be eliminated -patient must be in good body alignment when traction is applied -ropes must be unobstructed -weights must hang freely and not rest on the bed or floor -knots or the footplate must not touch the foot of the bed

Role of B-cells / B- lymphocytes ( plasma cells)

-programed to produce one specific antibody - stimulates production of plasma cells; antibody production - results in outpouring of antibodies

early complications of a fracture

-shock -fat embolism -compartment syndrome -VTE, PE

A nurse is assessing client who has SLE. which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. weight loss B. petechiae on thighs C. systolic murmur D. alopecia

Alopecia

anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock)

An extreme, life-threatening systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure.

passive immunity

An individual does not produce his or her own antibodies, but rather receives them directly from another source, such as mother to infant through breast milk

Type III (Immune Complex) Reactions

Antibodies form against soluble antigens in the serum Form immune complexes that lodge in the basement membranes beneath the cells Activate complement, causing inflammation Ex- SLE, nephritis, and RA

How do you test for HIV?

Antibody tests, antigen/antibody test (tests directly for HIV) NAT tests (directly detects HIV) - western blot

A patient is having repeated tears of the joint capsule in the shoulder and the physician prescribes an arthrogram. What interventions should the nurse provide after the procedure is completed? (Select all that apply) A. apply a compression bandage to the area B. apply heat to the area for 48 hours C. administer a mild analgesic D. inform the patient that a clicking or cracking noise in the joint may persist E. activity exercise the area immediately after the procedure

Apply a compression bandage to the area Administer a mild analgesic Inform the patient that a clicking or cracking noise in the joint may happen for a couple days after the procedure

A nurse is preparing to administer a varicella immunization to a client. which of the following questions by the nurse is appropriate? A. are you allergic to eggs? B. are you allergic to bakers yeast? C. Are you pregnant? D. do you have a history of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

Are you pregnant? This vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy

8. The nurse caring for a patient in traction would monitor for which of the following? (Select all that apply) A. Atelectasis and pneumonia B. Diarrhea C. Urinary stasis Infection D. DVT

Atelectasis urinary stasis infection DVT

The nurse caring for the 89 y/o patient would expect which change in the immune system? A. depressed bone marrow B. T cells become hyperactive C. B cells show deficiencies in activity D. increase in the size of the thymus

B cells show deficiencies in activity

A patient is post-op from surgery. The patient has a history of gout. While performing a head-to-toe assessment, you assess the patient for signs and symptoms of gout. As the nurse, you know that gout tends to start at what site?* A. Knees B. Elbow C. Thumb or index finger D. Big toe

Big toe

The nurse caring for the patient diagnosed with HIV-1 would use precautions with which of the following fluids? (Select all that apply) 1. Seminal fluid 2. Saliva 3. Blood 4. Urine 5.Vaginal secretions

Blood, seminal fluid, vaginal secretions

The nurse as a member of the care team for a patient with HIV-1 would relate which of the following tests to the physician to identify viral load and level of immune dysfunction? A. RBCs B. WBCs C. CBC D. CD4

CD4

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient who may have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. What signs/symptoms would indicate to the nurse that the patient has impaired circulation? (Select all that apply) A. tenting skin turgor B. capillary refill > 3 seconds C. limited range of motion (ROM) D. cool temperature of the extremity E. pale, cyanotic, or mottled color

Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds, Cool temperature of the extremity, pale, cyanotic or mottled color

the nurse is precepting a student nurse on the orthopedic floor. the nurse asks the preceptor what the function of the musculoskeletal system entails. the nurse would know the student needs further education when which of the following is included in student responses? A. protects the patients body organs B. acts as a framework to support body structures and mobility C. assists in the return of blood to the heart D. acts as a reservoir for mature blood cells

D. acts as a reservoir for mature blood cells

HIV encephalopathy

Diffuse atrophy is most common manifestation. White matter lesions are seen with AIDS dementia complex. Diffuse pattern of increased T2 signal in deep white matter or multiple small punctate white matter lesions.

A patient is diagnoses with PCP secondary to AIDS. Upon assessment for the specific symptoms of PCP the nurse should Expect to see which of the following? A. dyspnea, fever, nonproductive cough and fatigue B. weight loss, night sweats, persistent diarrhea, and hypothermia C. dysphagia, white-yellow plaque in the mouth and sore throat D. crackles in the lungs, chest pain, and small painless purple-blue skin pigmentation

Dyspnea, fever, nonproductive cough and fatigue

A nurse is caring for a client who has RA. which of the following lab tests are used to diagnose this disease? (SATA) A. urinalysis B. ESR C. BUN D. ANA titer E. WBC count

ESR, ANA, and WBC count

Continuous Passive Motion (CPM)

Exercises that are performed by motorized exercise machinery that keeps a joint in constant slow motion

The nurse caring for a post stroke patient is performing a physical assessment. When the left arm is lifted it is limp, without tone, and when released falls immediately to the bed with the patient having no ability to it up against gravity. Which of the following would the nurse document on the chart? A. Tetanic B. Flaccidity C. Atonic D. Rigidity

Faccidity

Kaposi's sarcoma

Form of skin cancer frequently seen in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) patients. Consists of brownish-purple papules that spread from the skin and metastasize to internal organs.

A nurse is assessing a client who has OA of the knees and fingers. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (SATA) A. herberdens nodes B. swelling of all joints C. small body frame D. Enlarged joint size E. limp when walking

Herberdens nodes enlarged joint size limp when walking

The patient presents with complaints of severe urticaria and large hives over the chest and arms. When questioned about the use of any new products the wife admits she started using a new laundry soap. The nurse would note which of the following on the patient chart? A. Anaphylaxis B. Autoimmunity C. Hypersensitivity D. Natural immunity

Hypersensitivity

The nurse provides home care instructions to the parent of a child with AIDS. which statement by the parent indicates the need for further teaching? A. I will wash my hands frequently B. I will keep my childs immunizations up to date C. I will avoid direct unprotected contact with my childs body fluids D. I can send my child to day care if he has a fever, as long as it is a low grade fever

I can send my child to day care if he has a fever, as long as it is a low grade fever

A nurse is teaching a client who has SLE about self-care. which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. I should limit my time to 10 min in the tanning bed B. I will apply powder to any skin rash C. I should use mild hair shampoo D. I will inspect my skin once a month for rashes

I should use a mild hair shampoo

a home care nurse provides instructions regarding basic infection control to the wife of a man with HIV. which statement if made by the wife, indicates the need for further instruction? A. I will wash the dishes in the dishwasher B. I will clean up any fecal matter on the toilet seat with full strength alcohol C. I will be sure to prepare foods that are high in calories and high in protein D. I will be sure to wash my hands carefully before and after any close contact with my husband

I will clean up any fecal matter on the toilet seat with full strength alcohol

acquired immunity

Immunity that is present only after exposure and is highly specific.

A patient indicates they are taking prednisone for a recent asthma attack. The nurse would want to take which of the following into consideration? A. Immunosuppression B. Lack of edema or swelling C. WBCs 9,500 D. Normal fingerstick blood sugar (FSBS0

Immunosuppression

How do babies get HIV?

In utero delivery and breast milk

Bursitis and Tendonitis

Inflammation of bursae or tendon sheath Caused by injury or over extension Symptoms: pain/ swelling Treatment: rest, ice, anti-inflammatory

passive artificial immunity

Injection of antibodies Short-term protection. Given to individuals who require immediate protection. like- following a bite from poisonous snake, or animal who has rabies

The nurse assessing the patient with osteoarthritis commonly would anticipate which of the following? A. Joint pain that worsens when used. B. Straw colored synovial fluid. C.Gradual weight loss. D. Elevated WBC count

Joint pain that worsens when used. (due to the bone on bone grinding the pain get worse with use)

The nurse caring for an HIV/AIDS patient notes brownish pink to deep purple spots on the back of her patient. The nurse would notify the physician she suspects the patient has which of the following? A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B. Tuberculosis (TB) C. Kaposi sarcoma (KP) D. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP

Kaposi sarcoma (KP)

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult patient and observes the patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. The nurse would document which of the following? A. Scoliosis B. Kyphosis C. Lordosis D. osteoporosis D. Ostoeoporosis

Kyphosis

A nurse is caring for a client with a WBC count of 20,000/mm3. the nurse should conclude that the client has which of the following? A. neutropenia B. Leukocytosis C. left shift D. Leukopenia

Leukocytosis

Lordosis

Lumbar (swayback)

A nurse is reviewing the lab findings of a client who has measles. The nurse should expect to find an increase in which of the following? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. lymphocytes D. Eosinophils

Lymphocytes

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a positive measles titer due to active acquired immunity. the nurse knows this was accomplished by the patient having which of the following? (SATA) A. Chickenpox and mumps B. measles C. and extremely healthy immune system D. an inoculation against measles E. maternal antibodies against measles

Measles, and an inoculation against measles

A patient comes to the clinic and informs the nurse of numbness, tingling, and burning sensations in the arm from elbow down to the fingers. What type of symptom would this be documented as? A. Effusion B. Atonia C. Flaccidty D. Parasthesia

Parasthesia

The nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with RA. Which intervention should be implemented? A. Obtain an order for a sedative B. Maintain a keep open IV. C. Plan a strenuous exercise program. D. Order a mechanical soft diet.

Obtain an order for a sedative

Compartment syndrome

Occurs when excessive pressure builds up inside an enclosed space in the body. It can lead to muscle and nerve damage and problems with blood flow. -always do a neurovascular assessment before casting

2. The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis. The nurse is explaining the pathophysiology of the disease and tells the family there are cells that make bone and there are cells that reabsorb bone. She identifies the cells that reabsorb as which of the following? A. Osteoclasts B. Osteoblasts C.Osteocytes D. Osteon

Osteoclasts

A physician prescribes lab studies for an infant of a woman positive for HIV to determine the presence of HIV antigen in the infant. The nurse anticipates which lab study will be prescribed for the infant? A. Chest x-ray B. western Blot C. CD4+ cell count D. P24 antigen assay

P24 antigen assay

The nurse recognizes the following as clinical manifestations of HIV/AIDS. (Select all that apply) 1. Presence of PCP 2. Candidiasis 3. Night sweats 4. Weight gain 5. Nausea/Vomiting (N/V)

PCP, Candidiasis, Nausea/vomiting

9. The nurse caring for a patient in a cast, a splint, or in traction must monitor the neurovascular status of the extremity immobilized. The nurse would identify which of the following for this characteristics as part of this assessment? A. Pain B. Color C. Temperature D. Movement E. Capillary refill >3 seconds

Pain Color Temperature movements CRT

what are the 6P's of the neurovascular assessment?

Pain poikilothermia pallor paresthesia Pulselessness and paralysis

A nurse is caring for a client who has SLE and is experiencing an episode of Raynauds phenomenon. which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate? A. swelling of joints of the fingers B. pallor of toes with cold exposure C. feet that become reddened with ambulation D. client report of intense feeling of heat in the fingers

Pallor of toes with cold exposure

A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection of immune globulin to a client who has been exposed to Hepatitis A. which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate? A. This medication offers permanent immunity to Hep A. B. this medication involves three injections over several months C. this medication provided you with an immune response more quickly that your body can produce it D. this medication contains an attenuated virus to help you body create antbodies

This medication provides you with an immune response more quickly than your body can produce it

What is Buck's traction?

Type of skin traction Heels are off the bed - weights at end of bed - short term immobilization or correction for contracture or fx of hip/knee **Goal: to maintain alignments

The nurse identifies which of the following as signs and symptoms of immune dysfunction? (SATA) 1. Vomiting 2. Rash 3. edema 4. flaccid muscles 5. hypoventilation

Vomiting Rash Edema

During assessment of the patient with fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS), the nurse would expect the patient to report which of the following? (select all that apply) A. Widespread, bilateral, musculoskeletal pain B. Sleep disturbances C. multiple joint pain with inflammation and swelling D. Cardiac palpitations & tenderness E. Multiple tender points

Widespread, bilateral musculoskeletal pain (typical description, difficult for clients to pinpoint sometimes.), Sleep disturbances (yes this is present due to pain), Cardiac palpitations and tenderness, multiple tender joints.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of RA. which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. you can experience morning stiffness when you get out of bed B. you can experience abdominal pain C. you can experience weight gain D. you can experience low blood sugar

You can experience morning stiffness when you get out of bed

Allergy

abnormal hypersensitivity acquired by exposure to an antigen

allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

acts like a cold, red, itchy watery eyes, sneezing, congestion, sore throat, post nasal drip. most common form of respiratory allergy.

is calcitonin a vitamin?

no, its a hormone

6. The patient has an order for an MRI with contrast of the left knee. What is a priority nursing action prior to the patient being taken to the MRI suite? A. "Do you have any hearing problems?" B. "Are you experiencing any pain at this time?" C. "Are you allergic to anything?" D. "Do you have problems lying still?"

are you allergic to anything?

osteoclast

break bone down

closed fracture

broken bone with no open wound

osteoblast

build bone up

flaccid

cannot move.

open fracture

compound fracture; broken bone with an open wound that breaks the skin

Arthrography

contrast is injected into the joint cavity to visualize the joint structures, such as the ligaments, cartilage, tendons, and joint capsule. the joint is put through a range of motion to distribute the contrast agent while a series of x-rays are obtained

parathyroid hormone

increases blood calcium levels

impingement syndrome

inflammation of tendons that get caught in the narrow space between the bones within the shoulder joint

sprain

injury to a ligament

arthrocentesis

joint aspiration to obtain synovial fluid for purposes of examination or to relieve pain due to effusion

which type of vaccines should you not get if taking corticosteroids

live vaccines, steroids may prevent the body's immune system form responding correctly to the vaccines.

oseocytes

mature bone cells

good sources of calcium for bone health

milk products, almond

Atonic

no tone

pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

pneumonia caused by the Pneumocystis carinii organism, a common opportunistic infection in those who are positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Strain

pulled muscle injury, from overuse, overstretching, or excessive stress

RICE

rest, ice, compression, elevation. also, immobilize and antiinflammatory medications

flat bones

skull, pelvic bones, and sterunum

contusion

soft tissue injury produced by blunt force causing small blood vessels to rupture and bleed into soft tissue

humoral immunity

specific immunity produced by B cells that produce antibodies that circulate in body fluids

best way to get vitamin D

sunshine

peroneal nerve

tests for footdrop. Bending toes forward and backward

immunosenescence

the gradual advanced age-related deterioration of the immune system that increases the risk for, and severity of, infection in the elderly

HIV/AIDS

the virus that causes AIDS, spread through bodily fluids. Attack CD4+ cells. Categorized in stages, patient is considered to be in AIDS when CD4+ count is less than 200. attaches to RNA

Kyphosis

thoracic (hunchback)

passive natural immunity

transfer of antibodies from a mother to her fetus or baby. Placenta or milk

cell-mediated immunity

type of immunity produced by T cells that attack infected or abnormal body cells

traction

uses a pulling force to promote and maintain alignment to an injured part of the body. the goals of traction include decreasing muscle spasms and pain, realignment of bone fractures, and correcting or preventing deformities.

active artificial immunity

vaccination. Deliberate exposure to an antigen (vaccine). so the body will produce antibodies in response to the exposure of a killed or attenuated virus.

Type 1 (Anaphylactic) Reactions

vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, smooth muscle contraction, and eosinophilia. . Ex- extrinsic asthma, allergic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis and reactions to insect stings

what does histamine do?

vasodilator

wasting syndrome

weight loss, decrease in muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity; associated with AIDS

when is humoral immune response activated?

when first antigen challenge is between an antigen and a naïve B cell

The nurse caring for a patient with immunocompetence would expect to see which of the following? A. a child that is immune to measles because of an inoculation B. a person who has seasonal allergies every fall C. when the symptoms of a common cold disappear in 1 day D. a neonate having a natural immunity from maternal antibodies

when the symptoms of a common cold disappear in 1 day

when do you get PrEP if you think you have been exposed?

you have 72 hours for it to be effective