anatomy exam 1
steps of maturation of female gamete in ovary
-primordial germ cell -oogonium -primary oocyte -oogonial cluster -single oogonia -single primordial follicle in diplotene state - primordial follicle -maturing follicle - primary follicle - vesicular stage follicle - mature vesicular follicle
3 arterial anastamoses around the elbow
-superior and inferior ulnar collateral a to posterior and anterior ulnar recurrent a -middle collateral a to recurrent interosseous a -radial collateral a to radial recurrent a
how many primary follicles reach full maturity
1
what happens during follicular phase and during what days
1-14 period of follicle growth
4 steps of neurulation
1. neuroectodermal tissue differentiate from ectoderm and thickens into neural plate 2. neural plate bends dorsally with the two ends joining at neural plate borders-now becoming neural crest 3. closure of neural tube disconnects the neural crest from epidermis, neural crest forms peripheral NS 4. notochord degenerates and only persists as nucleus pulposus, other mesoderm cells differentiate into somites
3 phases of fertilization
1. penetration of corona radiata 2. penetration of zona pellucida 3. fusion of oocyte and sperm cell membranes
order of ovarian cycle- no pregnancy
1. primordial follicle 2. primary follicle 3. secondary follicles 4. vesicular follicle 5. ovulation 6. corpus luteum 7. corpus albicans
how does the hypothalamus control ovarian cycle
1. release GnRH 2. GnRH act on anterior pituitary gland 3. anterior pituitary release FSH and LH
what happens during luteal phase and during what days
14-28 period of corpus luteum activity
amniocentesis: -when performed? -determines what? -risk of?
15-18 wks fetal karyotype spontaneous abortion
infertility is a problem for what percent of couples
15-30%
when are fetal movement felt by mother
17-20 wks
Intrinsic muscles of hand (palmar surface) "A OF A OF A": · Thenar, lateral to medial:
Abductor pollicis longus Opponens pollicis Flexor pollicis brevis Adductor pollicis. · Hypothenar, lateral to medial: Opponens digiti minimi Flexor digiti minimi Abductor digiti minimi
20. If a given range of contiguous somites develop into the upper limb, which of the following represents the most probable somite range by vertebral level? A. C1 to C5 B. C5 to T1 C. T1 to T5 D. L3 to L5
B. C5 to T1
10. Which one of the following is involved in the somite segmentation clock process? A. VEGF B. NOTCH signaling pathway C. PAX1 D. MYOD
B. NOTCH signaling pathway- segmentation clock established by cyclic expression of multiple genes such as notch and wnt signaling pathways
13. Capillary hemangiomas are: A. extremely rare B. most common C. only is expressed with limb deformities D. only occurs in 3rd world countries
B. most common- in 10% of births
4. What two interacting structures are required to induce the neural plate? A. primitive groove + primitive pit B. notochord + prechordal mesoderm C. amniotic sac + the chorion D. pericardial bulge + the umbilical cord
B. notochord + prechordal mesoderm- FGF signaling present in primitive nod, notochord, and prechoral mesoderm... causes induction of neural plate
12. Which one of the following induces the process of lateral body wall folding in the ventral direction? A. parietal layer + embryonic endoderm B. parietal layer + overlying ectoderm C. visceral layer + embryonic endoderm D. visceral layer + overlying ectoderm
B. parietal layer + overlying ectoderm
3. What clinical condition arises from neural tube closure defects? A. capillary hemangioma B. spina bifida C. absence of one lower extremity D. defective malanocytes
B. spina bifida
noggin and chordin act as ___ and upregulates ___ and ___
BMP inhibitor FGF and WNT
FGF signaling represses ____ and upregulates ____, _____, and ____ (these also inhibit ___)
BMP4 transcription chordin, noggin, and follistatin BMP4
while walking to class pt fell and fractured his humerus mid shaft. what pair of structures are most likely injured a. median n and brachial a b. axillary n and posterior circumflex H A c. radial N and deep brachial A d. suprascapular N and A e. long thoracic N and lateral thoracic a
C
t/f umbilical cord knots are commonn
true
two pathways of NC cells that come from the ___ portion of NT migration
trunk dorsal and ventral pathway
the scaphoid has a prominent___ on its ___ surface
tubercle palmar
trapezium has a distinct ___ on its ___ surface, and is ____ by the tendon of____
tubercle palmar grooved medially FCR
spina bifida occulta
tuft of hair on back with unfused vertebral arches
BMP4 signaling function
turns ectoderm into epidermis, and mesoderm into intermediate and lateral plate mesoderm
examples of abnormal male gamete
two headed, two tailed, short tail, large head, small head
princeps pollicis artery divides into ____ at the level of the _____
two palmar digital branches head of 1st metacarpal
after the median nerve supplies the thenar muscles it divides into ___ that supply the ____
two palmar digital nerves lateral two lumbricals
what is the largest terminal branch of brachial a
ulnar a
the palmar and dorsal carpal branches anastomose with corresponding branches of ____ forming the _____ and ____
ulnar a palmar and dorsal carpal arches
total claw hand deformity is seen in
ulnar and median nerve injury at wrist or Klumpke's paralysis
ligaments of elbow joint
ulnar collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament, annular ligament
adductor pollicis nerve
ulnar n
flexor carpi ulnaris nerve
ulnar n
hypothenar muscles nerve
ulnar n
superior ulnar collateral accompanies the
ulnar nerve
ulnar claw hand is a result of
ulnar nerve injury
what imaging technique can examine flow
ultrasound
poorly oxygenated blood leaves fetus by
umbilical arteries to placent
the connectin stalk is the precursor for
umbilical cord
velamentous insertion of placenta
umbilical cord inserts on fetal membranes
what motions are paralyzed if thoracic nerve is injured
unable to do pushing action or abduct arm above horizontal
what can cause distal bicep tendon rupture
unanticipated loading of tendon
trisomy 18 is caused by
unbalanced translocation
where is the common site of bone spurs on vertebral column
uncovertebral joints
inferior radioulnar joint is what type of joint
uniaxial pivot joint
superior radioulnar joint is what type of joint
uniaxial pivot joint
palmar interossei are ___ and function to ___ fingers
unipennate adduct
the thoracoacromial artery emerges at the ___ border of the ____ and pierces the ____ and then divides into four branches
upper pectoralis minor clavipectoral fascia deltoid, acromial, pectoral, clavicular
teres minor origin
upper 2/3 of lateral scapular border
medial wall of axilla
upper 4 ribs with intercostal muscles, upper digitations of serratus anterior
serratus anterior origin
upper 8 ribs and fascia of intercostal spaces
supraspinatous insertion
upper impression of greater tubercle of humerus
branches of the posterior cord of brachial plexus and what spinal nerves
upper subscapular nerve-C5 thoracodorsal nerve- C6, 7, 8 lower subscapular nerve- C6 axillary nerve- C5,6 radial nerve-C5,6,7,8,T1
triceps brachii insertion
upper surface of olecranon process of ulna
brachioradialis origin
upper two thirds of supracondylar ridge
notch proteins are ___ in pre somatic mesoderm
upregulated
increase in NOTCH results in
upregulates other segment patterning genes, patterned concentration of retinoic acid, FGF8, and WNT3a
induction of neural plate is caused by
upregulation of FGF and downregulation of BMP4
the intermediate mesoderm form
urogenital system
In a normal pregnancy, where does fertilization occur? uterine tube ovary body of uterus cervix of uterus
uterine tube
where does capacitation occur and how long is it
uterine tube- 7 hours
blood vessels arise in 2 ways
vasculogenesis and angiogensis
the axillary vein receives the ___ of the ____ artery
venae comitantes brachial
brachial plexus is formed from the ___ rami of spinal nerves:
ventral C5-8, T1
NC cells from cranial neural folds migrate through ___ pathway and become:
ventral craniofacial skeleton, cranial ganglia neurons, glial cells, melanocytes
lesser occipital nerve comes from ____, and supplies the -_____
ventral rami of C2-3 skin of superoposterior neck and scalp to external ear
NOGGIN and SHH induces
ventromedial somite portion --> sclerotome cells --> PAX1
17-20 wks: skin now covered with ____ and ____; ___ forms
vernix caseosa lanugo brown fats
the anterior spinal A branches from the ____ aa and lies in the ____ and gives rise to___ aa
vertebral anterior median fissure sulcal aa
what does the suboccipital triangle contain
vertebral artery and suboccipital nerve
where are basivertebral veins located and where they drain
vertebral bodies internal venous plexus
A 32-year-old man was involved in a fight suffered a non-penetrating knife wound at the medial wall of his right axilla. During examination in the ER, the treating surgeon noticed that the inferior angle of the right scapula is more prominent than the left. What nerve is most likely to be injured? a. suprascapular b. medial pectoral c. long thoracic d. thoracodorsal
c
Which of the following muscles acts on the radioulnar joints? a. Coracobrachialis b. Brachialis c. Biceps brachii d. Triceps brachii
c
a 44 yom was penetrated by a arrow and transected the axillary artery just beyond the origin of the subscapular artery. wound is compressed to stop bleeding. what collateral artery pathways are available to bypass injury a. supraclavicular with circumflex scapular A b. dorsal scapular with thoracodorsal a c. posterior circumflex humeral a and deep brachial a d. lateral thoracic and brachial a e. supreme thoracic a with thoracoacromial a
c
an exam of a 62 yof showed erosion of the tendon within the glenohumeral joint. what tendon was this a. glenohumeral b. long head of triceps c. long head of biceps d. infraspinatus e. coracobrachialis
c
which of the following muscles helps form the medial wall of the axilla a. latissimus dorsi muscle b. teres major muscle c. serratus anterior muscle d. pectoralis major muscle
c
a 35 yom is admitted to ER after a severe car crash. doc concluded serratus anterior muscle is damaged. which of the following functions does the serratus anterior muscle serve a. adducts scapula b. depresses ribs c. protraction/ retraction of scapula d. elevation of scapula e. adducts, extend, medially rotate arm
c a- rhomboids b- posterior serratus d- levator scapulae e. latissimus dorsi
2. Regarding the applied anatomy of the elbow joint one statement is wrong A. aspiration is done posteriorly on either side of the olecranon B. dislocation of the elbow is usually posterior C. effusion into the bursa over the olecraonon process results in tennis elbow D. posterior part of the capsule is weak E. subluxation of the head of the radius occurs in children when forearm is suddenly pulled in pronation
c Inflammation around the lateral epicondyle involving common extensor tendon results in the tennis elbow.
2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about which muscles belong to which group of back muscles? a. Trapezius is a superficial extrinsic back muscle. b. Splenius cervicis and splenius capitis are superficial intrinsic back muscles. c. Erector spinae muscles deep intrinsic back muscles. d. Serratus posterior superior and serratus posterior inferior are intermediate extrinsic back muscles.
c erector spinae muscles are intermediate intrinsic back muscles
4. Regarding the inferior radioulnar joint one statement is wrong A. fibrocartilaginous articular disc lies inside it B. head of ulna articulates with the ulnar notch of radius C. it is a ball and socket type of joint D. its synovial membrane extends as recessus sacciformis E. supination and pronation take place inside it
c it is a pivot type of joint
5 Regarding the coracobrachialis one statement is wrong A. it arises from the tip of the coracoid process B. it arises in common with the short head of the biceps C. it helps in the abduction of the arm D. it is inserted into the middle of the medial border of the humerus E. it is pierced by the musculocutaneous nerve
c it is an adductor
7 Regarding the brachialis muscle one statement is wrong A. it arises from the lower half of the front of the humerus B. it flexes the elbow joint C. it is inserted into the radial tuberosity D. it is supplied by the musculocutaneous E. radial nerve is supposed to be proprioceptive to the muscle
c it is inserted into the rough anterior surface of the coronoid process of ulna
Regarding the shoulder joint one statement is wrong A. coracoacromial arch offers protection to this joint B. glenoidal labrum deepens the cup of the shoulder C. long head of biceps is intrasynovial D. musculotendinous cuff of the shoulder is a very important support of this joint E. this is a synovial joint of ball and socket type
c long head of biceps is intracapsular and extrasynovial
Following are the posterior relations of the shoulder joint except A. deltoid B. infraspinatus C. long head of triceps D. teres minor
c long head of triceps is inferior to joint
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the lumbar vertebrae? a. Lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies compared to cervical and thoracic vertebrae. b. There are typically 5 lumbar vertebrae in the vertebral column. c. Lumbar vertebrae are characterized by long, relatively thin spinous processes. d. Lumbar vertebrae have mammillary processes.
c lumbar vertebrae are characterized by short, sturdy spinous processes
What term is used to describe the collection of spinal nerve roots that extend beyond the conus medullaris? filum terminale externum cauda equine filum terminale internum denticulate ligaments
cauda equine
trilaminar disc formation and their correlation to germ layers
cells that displace the hypoblast- endoderm intermediate cells- mesoderm remaining epiblast cells- ectoderm
what are lutein cells
cells that give the corpus luteum a yellow pigment
where does the umbilical cord normally attach to placenta
center
what drains into the humeral group of axillary lymph nodes
cephalic vein
the deltopectoral groove contains what
cephalic vein,
what curves of the spine are lordosis
cervical and lumbar
semispinalis insertion
cervical and thoracic spinous processes
rotatores origin
cervical, thoracic, and lumbar transverse process
number of spinal nerves per division of spinal cord
cervical- 8 thoracic- 12 lumbar- 5 sacral- 5 coccygeal- 1
spinal cord enlargements and at what levels
cervical- C4/5- T1 lumbosacral- L1/2- S3
how many vertebrae in each section of vertebral column
cervical-7 thoracic-12 lumbar- 5 sacrum- 5 coccygeal- 4
as the brachial plexus passes through the _____ each trunk divides into ____ and ___divisions
cervicoaxillary canal anterior and posterior
subluxation of radial head can also be caused by
child holding onto something and then falling - body weight pulling down
after a hydatidiform mole, all trophoblast tissue must be removed or may form ____
choriocarcinoma
the extraembryonic mesoderm form
chorion
the extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and two layers of trophoblast form the
chorion
the appearance of primary chorionic villi is the first stage of development of
chorionic villi of placenta
placenta percreta
chorionic villi penetrate full thickness of myometrium to or through perimetrium
by end of 34 wks the limbs have
chubby appearance
triangular space contains
circumflex scapular artery
the subscapular artery divides into
circumflex scapular artery and thoracodorsal artery
the neurovascular structures pass through axilla: inferiolaterally via ____, deep to ___ and the____ then inferiolaterally into ____
cirvicoaxillary canal clavipectoral fascia, pectoralis muscles limb itself
pectoralis major origin
clavicular head- medial half of clavicle sternocostal head- anterior manubrium and body of sternum, adjacent costal cartilage of rib 1-7, and external oblique muscle
deformity seen in Klumpke's paralysis
claw hand
blastomeres are a result of
cleavage
what is the allantois
cloacal membrane formed at caudal end of embryonic disc
anatomy of interest should be ____ to detection plate due to what
closest anatomy further away will be magnified
cranial- caudal flexion and two left/right lateral folds extending ventrally leads to ____ and _____- this bending results in _____
closure of ventral body wall NT lengthening embryo to become located in amniotic cavity
describe maternal surface of placenta
cobblestone appearance due to cotyledon
klinefelters syndrome symptoms
cognitive impaired, sterility, testicular atrophy, gynecomastia, abnormally tall
symptoms of vessel compression
coldness, weakness, fatigability
what is the most common fracture of forearm of people older than 50
colles fracture
epiblast layer has ____ cells adjacent to ___
columnar amniotic cavity
extensor carpi radialis brevis origin
common extensor origin
extensor carpi ulnaris origin
common extensor origin
extensor digiti minimi origin
common extensor origin
extensor digitorum orign
common extensor origin
flexor carpi radialis origin
common flexor origin
palmaris longus origin
common flexor origin
the posterior interosseous artery is a branch of the _____, accompanies ____
common interosseous artery posterior interosseous nerve
amelia
complete absence of limb
2 types of hydatidiform mole
complete mole fertilized with no egg resulting in overgrowth of trophoblast with no fetus, partial mole occurs when embryo is partially develops but does no survive
colles fracture is what
complete transverse fraction of distal radius
how to perform allen test
compress radial and ulnar arteries at wrist and have pt clench fist then artery pressure is released
result of carpal tunnel syndrome
compression of median n
anterior dislocation of lunate can cause
compression of median nerve, carpal tunnel syndrome, avascular necrosis due to poor blood supply
thoracic outlet syndrome refers to what
compression of subclavian vessels and brachial plexus at the superior aperture of thorax
ulnar canal syndrome causes
compression of ulnar nerve at wrist where is passes between pisiform and hook of hamate and handlebar neuropathy
lateral surface of coronoid process has a ___ called the ___ for the ___
concave facet radial notch head of radius
the palmar aspect of carpal bones forms a ____ (the carpal ___)
concavity carpal arch
MCP joints are what type
condylar
atlanto-occipital joint type:
condyloid synovial
what does the alar ligament do
connect den to medial surface of occipital condyle
as the primary follicle increases in size, the adjacent ____ organizes into a capsule called the ____
connective tissue theca folliculi
mesoderm forms
connective tissue proper, bone, cartilage, endothelium of blood vessels, muscle, tubule in kidney, RBC, synovial membrane
two parts of coracoclavicular lig
conoid lig and trapezoid lig
why does the uterine contract after expulsion
constrict arteries to prevent excessive bleeding
chromosome site affected by structural abnormalities is called
contiguous gene complex
what is Volkmann's ischemic contracture
contractures of forearm musclse
causes of radial nerve injury in arm
contusion, fracture of humeral shaft
the posterior end of spinal cord is called
conus medullaris
two mechanisms that allow neural plate and body axis lengthening
convergent extension or planar cell polarity pathway
the three palmar metacarpal arteries arise from the ____ of the ____ which anastamose with the ___ of the ____
convexity deep palmar arch common palmar digital branches superficial arch
what ligament prevents superior dislocation of shoulder joint
coraco-acromial lig
the angular rotation of scapula occurs around the
coracoacromial lig
musculocutaneous n pierces the ___ and continues distally between __ and ____; it emerges ___ to the biceps as the _____
coracobrachialis biceps and brachialis lateral lateral cutaneous n of forearm
muscles of the anterior compartment of arm
coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis
injury to musculocutaneous n would result in paralysis of
coracobrachialis, biceps, and brachialis
imaging shows a pt's acromion process is below the lateral end of clavicle- what is most likely injured
coracoclavicular lig
what ligament stabilizes the AC joint
coracoclavicular lig
brachialis insertion
coronoid process and tuberosity of ulna
the ruptured follicle forms the
corpus luteum
the egg's 3 responses to sperm entrance
cortical and zona reaction, resumption of second meiotic division, metabolic activation of egg
where do ribs articulate on spine
costal facets of thoracic V
serratus anterior insertion
costal surface of medial border of scapula
what ligament of SC joint is the main stabilizer for this joint
costoclavicular
ligamentous support of SC joint
costoclavicular lig, interclavicular lig, anterior/ posterior sternoclavicular lig
the clavipectoral fascia between the clavicle and pectoralis minor forms the ____ which extends from the ____ to the ____
costocoracoid ligament 1st costochordal junction to coracoid process
fetal surface of placenta
covered with amnion with the chorionic vessels visible
the extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm is the portion that
covers yolk sac
neural crest forms
cranial and sensory ganglia and nerves, medulla of suprarenal gland, pigment cells, etc
when do the neuropores close
cranial- 25th day posterior- 28th day
what can be identified once primitive streak is formed
craniocaudal axis, cranial and caudal ends, dorsal and ventral surface, and right and left sides
capillary hemangiomas occur in ____ structure, with high amounts of ____ found in lesions
craniofascial insulin like growth factor 2
what is required for induction and organ formation
crosstalk
estimating fetal age- which are most common in 2nd and 3rd trimesters
crown rump length, crown heel length -biparietal diameter (between skull parietals), head circumference, abdominal circumference, femur length, foot length
what can cause nerve transections
cut, iatrogenic, fractures, traction injury
what lies in the roof of the anatomical snuffbox
cutaneous branches of radial nerve and cephalic vein
segmentation clock is established by
cyclic expression of multiple genes
primary chorionic villi is formed by cells of _____ which ___ locally and penetrate into _____
cytotrophoblast proliferate syncytiotrophoblast
trophoblast differentiates into two layers and describe each
cytotrophoblast- inner layer of mononucleated cells syncytiotrophoblast- outer multinucleated zone without barriers
after 20 wks what happens to the placenta
cytotrophoblastic cells disappear making the placenta have only 3 layers, syncytial knot
4 structurs of placenta
cytotrophoblastic shell, placental septa, cotyledons, intervillous space
A 42 yo man is brought to the ED with a crushed 2nd vertebra that he suffered after a large stack of pallets fell on him at work. Which of the following structures would be intact after the accident A alar ligament B cruciform ligament C semispinalis cervicis muscle D rectus capitis posterior minor muscle E obliquus capitis inferior
d
A 53-year-old male visits the orthopedic clinic complaining of a swelling over the dorsal aspect of his right elbow. The swelling is gradually increasing in size, and is cystic in consistency. The patient feels pain in the swelling when he fully flexes the elbow. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Aneurysm of the brachial artery b. Ulnar nerve neuroma c. Dislocation of the elbow d. Olecranon bursitis
d
A forceps delivery was conducted on a baby girl due to shoulder stuck (dystocia). A health care provider applied the forceps to the baby's head to help pull and guide the baby out of the birth canal. After delivery, the baby presents with her right upper limb adducted and medially rotated. Which part of the brachial plexus was most likely injured during this difficult delivery? a. root of middle trunk b. root of lower trunk c. medial cord of brachial plexus d. roots of the upper trunk
d
In addition to carpal tunnel, the median nerve can be compressed as it passes: a. through the supinator muscle. b. through the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. c. through the triangular interval. d. between the two heads of pronator teres.
d
One of the following is correct regarding the radiocarpal (wrist) joint: a. pure abduction could be performed when flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris act together. b. the head of the ulna articulates directly with the pisiform bone. c. it is synovial joint, ball and socket variety. d. the distal surface of the radius articulates with the scaphoid and lunate bones.
d
disruption of the AC joint results in a "shoulder separation". what ligament is the main stabilizer of the AC joint a. coracoacromial ligament b. acromioclavicular ligament c. superior glenohumeral ligament d. coracoclavicular ligament
d
in postfixed brachial plexus which of the following structures may be compressed by the 1st rib a. upper trunk of brachial plexus b. lateral cord of brachial plexus c. posterior cord of brachial plexus d. lower trunk of brachial plexus
d
the R shoulder of a 78 YOF when abducted caused her to wince from pain. Palpation of deltoid muscle produced exquisite pain. imaging studies reveal intermuscular inflammation extending over head of humerus. what structure: a. subscapular bursa b. infraspinatous muscle c. glenohumeral joint cavity d. subacromial bursa e. teres minor muscle
d
the pectoral girdle articulates with the axial skeleton at the: a. acromioclavicular joint b. glenohumeral joint c. sacroiliac joint d. SC joint
d
the weakest aspect of the shoulder joint that is not supported by the rotator cuff is a. superior aspect b. anterior aspect c. posterior aspect d. inferior aspect
d
a 62 YOM basketball player is admitted after injuring his shoulder during a game. it is revealed total shoulder separation. which of the following structures is most likely torn a glenohumeral lig b. coracoacromial lig c. tendon of long head of bicep d. acromioclavicular lig e. transverse scapular lig
d AC joint connect the scapula to the clavicle
1. Regarding the elbow joint one statement is wrong A. carrying angle disappears in full flexion and pronation of the forearm B. it is a synovial joint of hinge type C. it is continuous with the superior radioulnar joint D. radial and coronoid fossae are outside the joint E. the capitulum and trochlea of the humerus take part in the joint
d Radial, coronoid and olecranon fossae are all intracapsular and extrasynovial.
a 17 yof fell from uneven bar and briefly grabbed lower bar then fell painfully to the floor. MRI showed injury to medial cord of brachial plexus, which nerve level was affected a. C5,6 b C6,7 c. C7,8 d. C7, 8, T1 e. C8, T1
e
after forceps delivery a boy, the baby presents with his left limb adducted, internally rotated, and flexed at the wrist. which part of brachial plexus was most likely injured a. lateral cord b. medial cord c. ventral rami of lower trunk d. ventral rami of middle trunk e. ventral rami of upper trunk
e injury is Erb-Duchenne paralysis
a 47 yof tennis player is informed she has a rotator cuff injury that requires surgery. her doc explains a shoulder ligament has gradually caused damage to underlying muscle. which ligament is he referring a. acromioclavicular lig b. coracohumeral lig c. transverse scapular lig d. glenohumeral lig e. coracoacromial lig
e this ligament is very strong and prevents superior displacement of humeral head. thus it is rarely damaged but the muscles underneath are
7. Regarding the classification of joints of hand one is wrong A. first carpometacarpal joint is a saddle type of synovial joint B. metacrpophalangeal joint belongs to condylar variety C. proximal interphalangeal joint is a hinge type of joint D. midcarpal joint belongs to plane variety of synovial E. distal interphalangeal joint is an ellipsoid joint
e distal interphalangeal joint belongs to hinge variety of synovial joints
13 Regarding the triceps muscle one statement is wrong A. it is a powerful extensor of the elbow B. medial head arises from the posterior surface below the radial groove C. the lateral head arises from the upper part of the posterior surface of the humerus D. the long head arises from the infraglenoid tubercle E. when radial nerve is injured in the spiral groove the triceps is completely paralysed
e injury does not cause complete paralysis
1 Regarding the pectoralis major one statement is wrong A. it adducts and medially rotates the arm B. it arises from the anterior surface of the medial part of the clavicle C. it is inserted into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove D. medial and lateral pectoral nerves supply it E. sternocostal part is the primary flexor of the arm
e sternocostal part helps bring in the extended arm into normal position
Regarding the shoulder joint one statement is wrong A. clavicular fibers of deltoid flex the shoulder joint B. middle fibers of deltoid abduct the joint C. infraspinatus, posterior fibers of deltoid and teres minor laterally rotate the shoulder joint D. pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi adduct the shoulder joint E. sternocostal part of the pectoralis major is the primary flexor of the joint
e sternocostal part of the pectoralis major flex the extended arm and extends the fully flexed arm
6. What one of the following regulatory proteins does not induce neural crest migration, proliferation and differentiation? A. BMP B. TGF-beta C. BLASPHEME D. FGF
C. BLASPHEME- not a regulatory protein
7. WHEN IS THE PROCESS OF NEURULATION COMPLETE? A. CLOSURE OF THE CRANIAL NEUROPORE B. CLOSURE OF THE CAUDAL NEUROPORE C. CLOSURE OF BOTH CRANIAL AND CAUDAL NEUROPORES D. NEUROPORE CLOSURE IS NOT A FACTOR SIGNALING THE END OF NEURULATION
C. CLOSURE OF BOTH CRANIAL AND CAUDAL NEUROPORES- open neural tube ends are called neuropores, and neurulation is complete when both NT are closed
8. Which one of the following structures/spaces does the intraembryonic coelom develop into? A. CRANIAL CAVITY B. SENSORY GANGLIA C. THORACIC AND ABDOMINAL CAVITIES D. THE DIAPHRAGM
C. THORACIC AND ABDOMINAL CAVITIES- intraembryonic coelom= thoracic and abdominal cavities
11. Which of the following embryonic tissue types becomes, in part, nephrotomes? A. lateral plate mesoderm B. paraxial mesoderm C. intermediate mesoderm D. neurectoderm
C. intermediate mesoderm
1. Which of the following structures is NOT a derivative of the ectodermal germ layer? A. CNS B. PNS C. the femur D. the eye
C. the femur- the skeleton is derived of paraxial mesoderm
why is there no C1 dermatome
C1 spinal nerve is purely motor
splenius cervicis insertion
C1-3 transverse process
what vertebrae have transverse foramen, short bifed spinous processes, and large triangular vertebral foramen
C1-6
which spinal nerves exit superior to vertebrae
C1-C7
What dermatome provides innervation to the posterior side of the head? C2 T2 C1 T1
C2
what dermatome is for posterior head
C2
levator scapulae innervation
C3, C4 and dorsal scapular
what dermatome is for skin overlying the clavicle
C4
the dorsal scapular nerve contains what spinal nerves
C4 and C5
the suprascapular nerve is compromised of what spinal nerve roots
C4, 5, 6
semispinalis origin
C4-T12 transverse processes
what is the level of clavicle dermatome
C5
Erb Duchenne palsy is caused by injury to _____ which results from ___ in angle between ___ and ____
C5 and C6 (superior part) excessive increase shoulder and neck
the axillary nerve is compromised of what spinal nerve roots
C5, 6
spinal nerves of musculocutaneous n
C5,6,7
radial nerve spinal nerves
C5-T1
spinal nerves of median nerve
C5-T1
what spinal nerves are included in thoracodorsal nerve
C6,7, 8
ulnar nerve spinal nerves
C7, 8, T1
Klumpke's paralysis is caused by injury to _____ which results from _____ of arm
C8 and T1- inferior part undue abduction
what spinal nerves exit inferior to vertebae
C8-Co
the carpometacarpal (___) joint the first joint is a ___ type but the medial four are ____
CMC saddle less mobile
neural tube forms
CNS, retina, pineal body, posterior part of pituitary gland
what is in subarachnoid space
CSF
A 36 yof is in labor and is admitted to the hospital. She requests an epidural for pain. What are the structures the needle must pass through- superficial to deep subcutaneous tissue ligamentum flava skin supraspinous ligament interspinous ligament
Correct order Skin Subcutaneous tissue Supraspinous ligament Interspinous ligament Ligamentum flava
main derivative of endodermal layer
GI system
Which of the following is a branch of the third part of axillary artery? Subscapular artery Thoracoacromial artery Superior thoracic artery Pectoral artery
Subscapular artery
Which one of the following names the two basic types of fascia linking the dermis to underlying muscles? Superficial, deep Superficial, cervical Deep, cervical Deep, perineal
Superficial, deep
1 Regarding the cephalic vein one statement is wrong A. it is accompanied by the musculocutaneous nerve in the roof of the cubital fossa B. it is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein C. it opens into the axillary vein D. it pierces the clavipectoral fascia
a the cephalic vein is accompanied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
Regarding the acromioclavicular joint one statement is wrong A. in shoulder separation, the clavicle dislocates downwards behind the acromion B. it is a plane synovial joint C. lateral supraclavicular nerve supplies it D. medial margin of the acromion takes part in the joint
a the clavicle dislocated at the AC joint
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about estimation of fetal age? a. Growth in weight is particularly striking during the third, fourth, and fifth months, whereas an increase in length is most striking during the last 2 months of gestation. b. Crown-rump length, also known as sitting height, is used to indicate length of the fetus. c. Crown-heel length, also known as standing height, is used to indicate length of the fetus. d. Some of the most common measurements used in the 16th to 30th weeks are biparietal diameter, abdominal circumference, and femur length.
a the growth in length is striking during third, fourth, and fifth month whereas an increase in weight occurs during the last 2 months of gestation
2 Which one of the following cutaneous nerves of the arm is not derived from the brachial plexus? A. intercostobrachial nerve B. lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm C. medial cutaneous nerve of arm D. posterior cutaneous nerve of arm E. upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
a the intercostobrachial nerve is derived from the second thoracic nerve
6. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the spinal meninges? a. The arachnoid mater gives rise to the denticulate ligaments. b. The arachnoid trabeculae are delicate strands of connective tissue that span the subarachnoid space connecting the arachnoid and pia mater. c. The dura mater gives rise to the spinal dural sac, the dural root sheaths, and the coccygeal ligament. d. The pia mater is the thin, transparent innermost membrane.
a the pia mater gives rise to the denticulate ligaments
6. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the formation of the notochord? a. The notochordal process lengthens by addition of cells at its caudal end. b. As the notochordal process elongates, the primitive streak shortens. c. The notochordal process and adjacent mesoderm induce the overlying embryonic ectoderm to form the neural plate. d. At the end of the third week, the notochordal process is transformed into the notochord.
a the primitive streak lengthen by addition of cells at caudal ends. the notochordal process lengthens by the migration of cells from the primitive node
a 35 YOM body builder has enlarged his muscles to such a degree that the size of the quadrangular space is greatly reduced. which structure is most likely compressed a. axillary nerve b. anterior circumflex humeral artery c. cephalic vein d. radial nerve e. subscapular artery
a the quadrangular space is borders by long head of tricep, surgical neck of humerus, teres major, teres minor, and subscapularis muscle. the only two structures that pass through this space is the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery
a 34 YOF is admitted after car crash. during exam, pt presents with inability to abduct arm and flex at elbow and shoulder. which is most likely portion of brachial plexus to be injured a. superior trunk b. middle trunk c. inferior trunk d. lateral cord e. medial cord
a the superior trunk gives rise to suprascapular nerve which innervates supraspinatous which is the primary abductor
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the joints of the vertebral bodies? a. The uncovertebral joints are symphyses. b. The uncovertebral joints are the joints between the unci of C3 or C4-C6 or C7. c. The intervertebral discs are composed of the annulus fibrosus and the nucleus pulposus d. Intervertebral joints are symphyses.
a the uncovertebral joints are synovial joints
6 Regarding the clavipectoral fascia one statement is wrong A. clavipectoral fascia is also called the suspensory ligament of the axilla B. it lies deep to the pectorais major C. it occupies the gap between the clavicle and pectoralis minor D. the upper part of the fascia is thickened to form the costocoracoid ligament E. upper part splits to enclose the subclavius muscle
a the whole clavipectoral fascia is not called suspensory ligament- only a part is called that
a 41 YOF is scheduled for a latissimus dorsi muscle flap to cosmetically augment the site of her absent L breast after mastectomy. part of latissimus dorsi muscle is advanced to the anterior thoracic wall. base upon arterial supply provided in part by the artery that passes through the triangular space of the axilla. which artery form the vasculature for the flap a. circumflex scapular artery b. dorsal scapular artery c. transverse cervical artery d. lateral thoracic artery e. thoracoacromial artery
a the circumflex scapular artery passes through the triangular space of axilla
3 days after fertilization the blastomere divides into
a 16 cell morula
2 Regarding the pronator teres muscle one statement is wrong A. it is inserted into the upper 1/3 of the lateral surface of the radius B. its humeral head arises from the medial epicondyle of the humerus C. median nerve passes between the two heads of the pronator teres D. the median nerve supplies it E. ulnar head arises from the medial margin of the coronoid process of the ulna
a It is inserted into the maximum convexity on the lateral surface of the radius.
the spinal cord segment gives rise to
a pair of bilateral spinal nerves
the radial nerve passes ___ of lateral epicondyle and divides into two terminal branches:
anterior superficial branch- radial deep branch- posterior interosseous
radial fossa of humerus function and location
anterior and above the capitulum- accommodates head of radius when elbow is flexed
coronoid fossa of humerus function and location
anterior and above trochea- accommodates coronoid process of ulna when elbow is flexed
the roots of brachial plexus pass between ___ and __ with the ___
anterior and middle scalene muscles with the subclavian artery
annular ligament attaches to the __ and ___ margins of ___ of ____- it has no attachment to ___ but keeps it close to the ulna
anterior and posterior radial notch of ulna radius
segmental spinal aa give rise to
anterior and posterior radicular aa at every vertebral level and segmental medullary aa at various vertebral levels
C1 features
anterior and posterior tubercles, anterior and posterior arches, vertebral artery groove, transverse foramen, superior articular facets
branches of ulnar artery
anterior and posterior ulnar recurrent a, common interosseous a, unnamed muscular branches
location of glenohumeral lig
anterior aspect of joint b/n lesser humeral tubercle and capusule
what is the inferior most part of the axillary anterior wall
anterior axillary fold
what band on ulnar collateral ligament is the strongest
anterior band
arteries that branch off the third part of axillary artery
anterior circumflex humeral artery, posterior circumflex humeral artery, subscapular artery
the anterior division of brachial plexus supplies the
anterior compartment of UL
the medial cord is formed by the ____ of the ____
anterior division inferior trunk
the lateral cord is formed by the union of the ____ of the ___ and ___
anterior divisions superior and middle trunks
flexor pollicis longus nerve
anterior interosseous n
pronator quadratus nerve
anterior interosseous n
blastocyst implants in the endometrium along the ___ or ___ wall of the body of uterus where it becomes embedded between ______
anterior or posterior openings of the glands
where is the anterior longitudinal ligament located
anterior side of vertebral body
flexor pollicis longus origin
anterior surface of radius and adjacent interosseous membrane
location of ulnar collateral ligament bands
anterior- medial epicondyle to sublime tubercle on medial border of coronoid process posterior- medial border of olecranon to sublime tubercle middle- connect posterior and anterior band
the elbow articular capsule is weak ___ and ____ but it is strengthened on each side by ____
anteriorly posteriorly collateral ligaments
thalidomide was used for
anti nausea and sleepin
primary follicle becomes vesicular follicle when ___ appears and ____ surrounds oocyte
antrum cumulus oophorus
aneuploid means
any number not euploid
along with total claw hand, klumpke's has
ape thumb
palmaris longus insertion
apex of palmar aponeurosis
what are leptomeninges
arachnoid and pia mater together
what encloses the CSF filled space
arachnoid mater
what meninge is a delicate, avascular membrane lining the dural sac and dural root sheaths
arachnoid mater
what is the triangle of auscultation and its location
area of thin musculature for auscultion inferior to scapula between 6th and 7th rib
deformity seen in Erb Duchenne palsy
arm adducted and medially rotated - policeman's/ waiter's tip hand
superficial palmar arch is an ___ that lies superficial, it is formed by the continuation of ___ beyond the ____
arterial arcade ulnar a flexor retinaculum
supraspinatous action
assist deltoid in abduction initiation between 0-15 degrees
extensor digiti minimi action
assist extensor digitorum in extension of little finger
anconeus action
assist in elbow extension
coracobrachialis action
assist in flexion and adduction of arm
teres minor action
assist is lateral rotation and abduction
a surgeon exposes a muscle in the supraspinatus fossa. as the muscle was reflected, she saw an artery exposed crossing the ligament that bridges the notch in the superior border of the scapula. what artery a. subscapular b. transverse cervical c. dorsal scapular d. posterior circumflex humeral e. suprascapular
e suprascapular artery goes over the superior transverse scapular ligament while the suprascapular nerve goes under
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about teratogenic infectious agents? a. Microcephaly, visual impairment, intellectual disability and fetal death are potential effects of cytomegalovirus on the fetus. b. Rubella virus is a serious threat particularly since often the mother has no symptoms but the effects on the fetus can be devastating. c. Toxoplasmosis gondii is a parasite found in the feces of domestic animals, especially cats, which may produce cerebral calcifications in the fetus. d. Intrauterine infection with varicella causes scarring of the skin, limb hypoplasia, and defects of the eyes and central nervous system.
b. Cytomegalovirus is a serious threat particularly since often the mother has no symptoms but the effects on the fetus can be devastating.
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about teratogenic pharmaceutical drugs and chemical agents? a. While insufficient information is available to judge the safety of approximately 90% of pharmaceutical drugs taken during pregnancy, relatively few have been positively identified as teratogenic. b. Only 20% of women take any type of medication while pregnant. c. Thalidomide was the first drug recognized that could cross the placenta and cause birth defects specifically limb defects. d. Organic mercury and lead can both lead to neurological issues.
b. Only 20% of pregnant women used no drugs during their pregnancy.
9. Regarding the thenar space one statement is wrong A. fascia over the adductor pollicis and first dorsal interossei lie behind B. it contains the flexor tendon of middle finger C. it contains the palmar digital nerves and vessels of thumb and lateral side of index finger D. it is bounded anteriorly by the palmar aponeurosis E. it is triangular space situated in the lateral part of the palm
b. it does not contain the flexor tendon of middle finger1
6. Regarding the first carpometacarpal joint one statement is wrong A. it is a saddle variety of synovial joint B. it is a uniaxial joint C. radial artery lies medial to the joint as it passes from the dorsal to palmar side D. the distal surface of trapezium takes part in the joint
b. it is a modified biaxial joint
4. Following muscles are supplied by the median nerve except A. abductor pollicis brevis B. adductor pollicis C. first lumbrical of the hand D. flexor pollicis brevis E. opponens pollicis
b. the adductor pollicis is supplied by the ulnar nerve
location of conoid lig
b/n coracoid process and conoid tubercle of clavicle
2 girdle spaces of scapulothoracic joint
b/n subscapularis and serratus anterior b/n serratus anterior and thoracic wall
the glenohumeral joint has two openings
b/n tubercles of humerus and anterior gap
location of trapezoid lig
b/n upper surface of coracoid process and trapezoid line of inferior clavicle
extensor pollicis brevis origin
back of radius and adjacent interosseous membrane
extensor indicis origin
back of ulna
extensor pollicis longus origin
back of ulna and adjacent interosseous membrane
abductor pollicis longus origin
back of ulna and radius and intervening interosseous membrane
common interosseous a passes __ to reach the upper border of ____ then dividing into:
backward interosseous membrane anterior and posterior interosseous a
two types of translocations and result of each
balanced- no genetic material lost- normal unbalanced- genetic material lost- abnormal
glenohumeral joint is what type
ball and socket
steps of somite formation: -initially is is a ____ -they then undergo ____: forming _____ -form their own ___, ___, and ____
ball of mesodermal cells epthelization- intraembryonic coelom sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome
klinefelters syndrome shows a ___ in 80% of cases
barr body
5 types of contraceptive methods
barrier method, hormonal method, IUD, emergency contraceptive pills, sterilization
extensor carpi ulnaris insertion
base of 5th metacarpal
flexor pollicis longus insertion
base of distal phalanx of thumb
extensor carpi radialis longus insertion
base of second metacarpal bone
flexor carpi radialis insertion
base of second metacarpal bone
brachioradialis insertion
base of styloid process of radius
extensor carpi radialis brevis insertion
base of third metacarpal bone
the axillary vein is a continuation of teh
basilic vein
when does the zona pellucida disappear and why
bastocyst formation allow implantation
if only 1 follicle reaches maturity, what happens to the rest
become atretic
when does fetus contribute to amniotic fluid
beginning of wk 11
where is subacromial bursa located
below coraco-acromial arch and above the supraspinatous tendon
subarachnoid space location
between arachnoid and pia mater
where is the epidural space located
between bone and dural sac
location of costoclavicular lig
between clavicle and costal cartilage
location of sternoclavicular lig
between clavicle and manubrium
where is the deltopectoral groove located
between deltoid and pectoralis major
where is the subscapular bursa located
between joint capsule and subscapularis tendon and coracoid process
where are ligamentum flava located
between lamin around verterbral canal
subtendinous olecranon bursa is located
between olecranon and tricep tendon
where is the interspinous lig located
between spinous processes
what is the weakness in the anterior glenohumeral joint
between the superior and middle bands of the glenohumeral lig
location of interclavicular lig
between the two clavicles
the ulnar n enters the anterior compartment by passing
between the two heads of flexor carpi ulnaris
where are intertransverse lig located
between transverse processes
what type of joint is radiocarpal joint
biaxial ellipsoid
the gap in the humeral tubercles allows for passage of
bicep long head tendon
what muscles supinate forearm
biceps brachii and supinator
what muscles flex the elbow
biceps brachii, brachialis, pronator teres, brachioradialis
causes of long head tendon rupture of bicep brachii
biceps tendinitis or erosion of long head tendon of bicep
the pectoralis major inserts via ____ tendon which has to heads: anterior ___ which recieves the ___ and ____ part of pectoralis major and posterior ____ which recieves the ____ part of pectoralis major
bilaminar anterior lamina- clavicular and manubrium posterior lamina- sternocostal
embryoblast differentiates into ____ which consists of two layers
bilaminar disc hypoblast and epiblast layers
start week 3 with
bilaminar disc, definitive yolk sac, small amniotic cavity, primary villi
dorsal interossei are ____ and function to ___ fingers
bipennate abduct
placenta previa
blastocyst implants close to or overlying internal os of uterus
what has happened by the end of week 1
blastocyst initiate implantation, inner cell mass has become embryoblast and outer cell mass has become trophoblast
what happens in days 11 and 12
blastocyst is completely embedded producing slight protrusion, establish uteroplacental circulation, extraembryonic mesoderm splits, endometrial cells undergo decidua reaction
What are the cells called that result from cleavage? morula blastomeres theca interna oocytes
blastomeres
fetal transfusion for hemolytic disease
blood injected through needle inserted into fetal peritoneal cavity
vasculogenesis
blood island formation leading to vessel formation
where do ribs articulate on vertebra
body and transverse process
where does implantation occur
body of uterus
the lateral plate mesoderm form
body wall
what is present in 30% of cases of thoracic outlet syndrome
bondy abnormalities such as cervical rib or bifed first rib
hematopoietic stem cells from liver colonize the ___ in ____ month
bone marrow 7th month
what is BMP4
bone morphogenetic protein 4
how to tell the difference between CT and MRI
bones are bright in Ct bones are dark in MRI
in order to produce pure flexion of hand at the wrist use what
both ulnaris and radialis at once
regulation of NC functions depends on ____ between ___ and ____ (___)
boundary status NP and surface ectoderm- epidermis
serratus anterior is also known at the ____ muscle
boxer's
blood pressure is measured using what artery
brachial
the superior and inferior ulnar collateral a to posterior and anterior ulnar recurrent a anastomosis connects what main arteries
brachial a ulnar a
most nerves of the UL are derived from the
brachial plexus
blood supply of anterior compartment of arm
brachial vessels
the superficial branch of radial N descend deep to ___ and is associated with ___, then crosses the roof of the ___
brachioradialis radial a anatomical snuffbox
role of flexion/ folding in endodermal differentiation
brain vesicle expansion- the embryonic disk bulges into amniotic sac
free villi are
branch from stem villi that exchange nutrients
in a CT: changes in window affect ____ changes in leveling affect ___
brightness contrast
the surge of LH causes the surface of ovary to ____ and at the apex the ____ appears, the primary oocyte then _____
bulge stigma complete meiosis I and initiate meiosis II
what separates the bicep brachii tendon from anterior part of radial tuberosity
bursa
when do intestines return to abdoment
by week 9
"Hand of benediction" deformity is associated with injury of which of the following nerves: a. Radial nerve b. Ulnar nerve c. Median nerve d. Posterior interosseous nerve
c
establishment of trilaminar disc steps
epiblast proliferate and migrate toward primitive streak, cells turn inward and detach form epiblast and migrate beneath epiblast to establish 2 new layers, hypoblast is displaced and additional cells assume an intermediate postition
ectoderm forms
epidermis, gland on skin, neurons, anus, pigment cells
Where is the internal vertebral venous plexus located? subarachnoid space between the dura mater and arachnoid mater between the pia mater and the spinal cord epidural (extradural) space
epidural (extradural) space
difference between epidural and lumbar anesthesis
epidural is more local
internal vertebral venous plexus location
epidural space
three spinal cord spaces
epidural space, dural-arachnoid interface (subdural space), subarachnoid space
neural crest cells can form ___ which then can form ____
epithelial cells mesenchymal cells
the two epicondyles and tip of olecranon form
equilateral triangle
what group of muscles are intermediate back muscles
erector spinae
SHH function
establish concentration gradient, gluides cells towards tissues and organs, development of vasculature, left-right axis, cerebellum, neural patterning, limb development, heart, gut, lungs
in females, prader willi syndrome causes the body to not produce wnough
estrogen
the follicular/ proliferative phase is under the influence of ____ and parallels growth of ____
estrogen ovarian follicle
euploid means
exact multiple of 23
spectophotomeric studies
examination of amniotic fluid to assess degree of eythroblastosis fetalis
subtendinous olecranon bursitis is a result from
excessive friction b/n triceps tendon and olecranon due to repeated flexion and extension
what forms the primary yolk sac
exocoelomic membrane and hypoblast form the lining
disadvantage of fluoroscopy
exposure to radiation
function of anchoring villi
extend from chorionic plate to decidua basalis
semispinalis action
extend head and upper vertebral column, rotate contralaterally
erector spinae action
extend vertebral column and neck, laterally flex column
the anatomical snuffbox is when the thumb is ____, the extensor tendons are __
extended drawn up
extensor pollicis brevis action
extends MPJ and carpometacarpal joint of thumb
splenius capitis and cervicis action
extends and laterally bends neck, rotates head
extensor indicis action
extends index finger
extensor pollicis longus action
extends the IPJ, MPJ and carpometacarpal joint of thumb
pectoralis major sternocostal head action
extends the flexed arm
latissimus dorsi action
extends, adducts and medial rotates humerus
extensor carpi radialis brevis action
extensor and abductor of wrist
extensor carpi radialis longus action
extensor and abductor of wrist
extensor carpi ulnaris action
extensor and adductor of wrist
in lateral epicondylitis the _____ is weakened from overuse causing ____ which leads to ___ and ____
extensor carpi radialis brevis microscopic tears at origin inflammation and pain
what muscles extend wrist
extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor indicis
what muscles extend pinky
extensor digiti minimi
what muscles extend digits
extensor digitorium
extension of the MPJ and proximal IPJ is by ___ ( and ____ and ____ in certain fingers)
extensor digitorum extensor indices and extensor digiti minimi
lumbricals are inserted into ___ and flex the __ and extends the ___
extensor expansion MPJs IPJs
what muscles extend index finger
extensor indicis
triceps brachii action
extensor of forearm
extensor digitorum action
extensor of wrist, MPJs, and IPJs
what muscles extend thumb
extensor pollicis brevis and longus
the anatomical snuffbox lies between ____ on medial side, _____ and ___ on lateral side
extensor pollicis longus abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
which part of filum terminale embeds itself in sacrum
external
characteristics seen by 16th week
external ears close to definitive position, eyes are anterior, ovaries are differentiated and contains oogonia
what happen by week 12
external genitalia established, urine formation and discharge begin
the extraembryonic coelom splits the ___ into 2 layers:
extraembryonic mesoderm extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm
primitive streak forms 4 things
extraembryonic mesoderm, embryonic mesoderm, notochordal process, embryonic endoderm
the connecting stalk is formed from
extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
the lower humeral fossae and annular ligament is located how in respect to elbow synovial membrane
extrasynovial
subacromial bursa function
facilitates movement between coraco-acromial arch and supraspinatous, and movement between deltoid and joint capsule
teratogens
factors that cause birth defects
what result of allen test indicates inadequate connection of vessel
failure of change of hand color when opened
omphalocele is caused by
failure of intestines to move from umbilical cord into abdomen
anterior dislocation of lunate is usually a result of
fall on extended wrist
dislocation of elbow is due to
falling on hands with elbows flexed
subcutaneous bursitis is due to what
falls, infections, excessive pressure and friction
the scapulothoracic J is what type of joint
false
turner syndrome pt looks like what gender
female
___+_____= zygote
female and male gamete
sacrococcygeal teratomas affect who more
female infants
what is assisted reproductive technologies
fertility treatment where both egg and sperm are handled in lab
AFP is synthesized in
fetal liver, umbilical vessels and gut
by 18 wks if female
fetal uterus is formed, canalization of vagina
two components of placenta and what forms them
fetal- villous chorion maternal- decidua basalis
4 families of GDF
fibroblast growth factor (FGF), WNT family, HH family, transforming growth factor beta (TGF- beta) family
the articular surface of AC joint is covered with
fibrocartilage
describe suture joints
fibrous and between skull bones
what connect the humero-ulnar head and radial head of flexor digitorum superficialis
fibrous arch
the flexor retinaculum is a strong ___ that lies across _____
fibrous band front of carpus
describe gomphosis joint
fibrous, between bone and tooth
describe syndesmosis joint
fibrous, link two adjacent bones
the fibers that connect end of spinal cord to sacrum and two types
filum terminale internum and externum
what is lanugo
fine downy hair
fetuses born at 35 wks have
firm grasp and spontaneous orientation to light
vasculogenesis at 3 wks
first blood island appears in mesoderm surrounding wall of yolk sac
flexor carpi radialis action
flexes and abducts hand
flexor carpi ulnaris action
flexes and adducts hand
pectoralis major clavicular head action
flexes arm
flexor pollicis longus action
flexes distal IPJ of thumb and MPJ of thumb
brachioradialis action
flexes elbow
brachialis action
flexes elbow joint
flexor digitorum superficialis action
flexes proximal interphalangeal joint, and assist in flexion of metacarpophalangeal joint and wrist joint
flexor pollicis brevis action
flexion
pain is most severe in subtendinous olecranon bursitis during ___ and why
flexion pressure exerted on bursa by triceps tendon
abductor digiti minimi action
flexion and abduction of pinky
flexor digiti minimi brevis action
flexion of MCP
biceps brachii action
flexor and supinator of forearm
what muscles abducts wrist
flexor carpi radialis and extensor carpi radialis brevis
in the distal forearm the radial a lies immediately lateral to _____ and is covered by only __ and ____, then winds around ___ aspect of the ___ and crosses the ___ to pierce the first ____
flexor carpi radialis tendon skin and fascia lateral radius anatomic snuffbox interosseous muscle
what muscles flex wrist
flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longis, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus
what muscles adducts wrist
flexor carpi ulnaris, extensor carpi radialis, extensor carpi ulnaris
what muscles flex pinky
flexor digiti minimi
what is the chief gripping muscle
flexor digitorum profundus
what muscles cause flexion at DIP
flexor digitorum profundus
deep muscles of anterior forearm
flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis long, pronator quadratus
intermediate muscles of anterior forearm
flexor digitorum superficialis
what muscles flex digits
flexor digitorum superficialis
what muscles cause flexion at PIP
flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus
what muscles cause flexion at MP
flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus, lumbricals, palmar and dorsal interossei
flexor digitorum profundus action
flexor of 2-5 distal phalanges
all superficial and intermediate muscles of anterior forearm have a common _____ from the ____
flexor origin front of medial epicondyle
what muscles flex thumb
flexor pollicis longus and brevis
the skin of the palm is characterized by
flexure crease and papillary ridges
latissimus dorsi insertion
floor of intertubercular groove of humerus
what is the antrum
fluid filled space
shortly after morula enters the uterus a _______ appears known as the ____ or ___
fluid filled space blastocystic cavity or blastocele
Neural tube lengthens --> neural ___ --> neural ___--> neural ___---> ___
folds groove fusion neural tube
the preovulatory female gamete is housed within
follicle
steps of in vitro fertilization
follicle growth stimulated by administering gonadotropins, oocytes removed and has sperm added to it, fertilized egg monitored until 8 cell stage and then transplanted into uterus
FSH stands for
follicle stimulating hormone
endometrium passes through what phases
follicular/proliferative phase, secretory/ progestational phase, menstrual or gravid phase
colles fracture is due to
forced extension of hand- trying to ease fall by outstretching upper limb
FGF signaling induces _________ tissue types
forebrain and midbrain
at end of week 5
forelimbs and hindlimbs are paddle shaped buds, C5-T1 somites develop into forelimbs, lumbosacral somites develop into hindlimbs
what is gametogenesis
formation of gametes from germ cells
first morphologic sign of gastrulation
formation of primitive streak on surface of epiblast in caudal region
importance of paraxial mesoderm
forms axial skeleton and dermatomes, myotomes, and sclerotomes
MYF5 function
forms dermomyotomes
the coronoid process projects __ from upper end of shaft with its anterior surface forming ____
forward ulnar tuberosity
below the radial notch of the ulna is a ___ that accommodates the ____ during pronation
fossa radial tuberosity
lumbricals are ____ muscles -the lateral two are___ and innervated by ____ -the medial two are ___ and innervated by ____
four -unipennate, digital branch of median n -bipennate, deep branch of ulnar n
epiphyseal injury is due to ___ and ___ of ___ which is common in ___ because of ____
fracture and separation distal radial epiphyseal children frequent falls
Volkmann's ischemic contracture is due to
fracture of distal end of humerus or fractures of radius and ulna
what can cause an ulnar nerve injury
fracture of humeral medial epicondyle, cubital tunnel syndrome (entrapment syndrome)
how can axillary nerve be injured
fracture of humeral surgical neck, dislocation of shoulder, compressed during incorrect use of crutched
injury of forearm ulnar n can be caused at what sites
fracture of medial epicondyle, cubital tunnel, aponeurotic arch
brachialis origin
front of lower half of humerus and medial intermuscular septum
low birth weight can be caused by
full term due to intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and preterm due to shortened gestation
when does the carrying angle of elbow disappear
fully pronated
cervical and upper thoracic intermediate mesoderm forms
future nephrotomes
a synovial cyst of wrist can be called
ganglion
what is exchanged between mother and fetus
gases, nutrients, electrolytes, maternal IgG antibodies
development during 3rd week
gastrulation, appearance of primary streak, development of notochord, further development of trophoblase
factors that determine the affect of teratogens
genotype, developmental stage at exposure, dose and duration of exposure,
a teratoma is a
germ cell tumor containing all 3 germ layers
3 ligaments of glenohumeral joint
glenohumeral lig, coracohumeral lig, coraco-acromial lig
how does the large humeral head stay articulated when glenoid cavity
glenoid cavity is deepened by fibrocartilage called glenoid labrum
the vesicular follicle is also known as what two things
graafian follicle and antral follicle
compression neuropathy leads to
gradual loss of function
after ovulation, ____ cells remaining in the wall of ruptured follicle plus the _____ cells are ___ by surrounding ___
granulosa theca interna vascularized vessels
cumulus oophorus is a group of closely associated _____with some of them rearranging themselves around the_____ to form the ____
granulosa cells zona pellucida corona radiata
movement of vertebral column is due to what 3 things
gravity, back muscles, anteriolateral abdominal muscles
structures associated with sympathetic NS of the spinal cord
gray ramus communicans, white ramus communicans, sympathetic ganglion
a posterior dislocation of clavicle at SC joint may cause
great vessels in the root of neck to be impinged
nerves of posterior cervical region
greater occipital nerve and lesser occipital nerve
subclavis insertion
groove on inferior surface of middle 3rd of clavicle
trisomy 21 symptoms
growth retardation, intellectual disabilites, upward slanting eyes, flat facies, small ears, and hypotonia
Which of the following functions could the Sonic Hedgehog signal protein accomplish? guides cell sets towards tissues and organs protect oogonia from nondisjunction events causes single gene mutations signaling cells via gap junctions
guides cell sets towards tissues and organs
molar pregnancy produces high amounts of
hCG
protein hormones produced by placenta
hCG, progesterone and estrogenic hormones
what is the hand deformity associated with median nerve injury
hand of benediction
motor results of injury to forearm median N
hand of benediction, thenar muscle functions lost
by 36 wks the
head and abdomen circumferences are approx equal
when oocyte and sperm fuse, what enters the ooctye
head and tail of sperm
characterisitcs at begining of week 9
head half of CRL, face is broad, eyes wide, ears low, eyelids fused, intestines in umbilical cord, sex indetermined
ulnar N enters forearm by passing between ___, descends under cover of ____ , the ulnar ___ emerge ___ to the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon and crosses ____ to the flexor retinaculum ___ to the pisiform bone
heads of flexor carpi ulnaris FCU neurovascular bundle lateral superficial lateral
The coronary circulation refers to the arterial supply system of the: Heart Pancreas Liver Lungs
heart
fetal transfusions are to treat
hemolytic disease of the newborn, anemia
polyhydramnios
high amniotic fluid volume commonly associated with maternal diabetes, inability of fetus to swallow, esophageal atresia, anencephaly
disadvantages of MRI
high cost, problem for claustrophobic pts, increased scanning times, increased image noise, strong magnetic field
disadvantages of CT
high dose of radiation, small artifacts and lesions are not seen, only axial images
FGF and WNT3 signaling induces _______ tissue types
hindbrain and spinal cord
IPJ are what type
hinge
elbow joint type
hinge
hamate has a ____ and is ____ by the ___ branch of the ____
hook grooved deep branch ulnar n
what prevents the corpus luteum from degenerating initially
human chorionic gonadotropin- hCG
traumatic injury to brachial a is associated with
humeral fracture in distal third, puncture while performing ABG resulting in hematoma compressing artery
pronator teres origin
humeral head- common flexor origin ulnar head- medial side of coronoid process
flexor carpi ulnaris origin
humeral: common flexor origin ulnar: medial aspect of olecranon process and posterior border of ulna
flexor digitorum superficialis origin
humero-ulnar: common flexor origin and adjacent margin of coronoid process radial: anterior oblique line of radial shaft
joints of the elbow and between what
humeroulnar joint: trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulna humeroradial joint: capitulum of humerus and upper surface of radius
congenital malformations associated with toxoplasmosis
hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, micropthalmia
what layer of trilaminar disc do not contribute to embryo's development
hypoblast
the secondary yolk sac is formed by
hypoblast cells
caudal dysgenesis results in
hypoplasia and fusion of lower limbs, vertebral abnormalities, renal agenesis, imperforate anus, anomalies of genital organs
the ovarian cycle is controlled by the ____
hypothalamus
the ulnar nerve gives motor branches to the ____ and ulnar ____, all the ___ and the ____
hypothenar muscles two lumbricals interossei adductor brevis
the septum arising from ulnar border of palmar aponeurosis is medial to
hypothenar space
prader wili syndrome symptoms
hypotonia, obesity, intellectual disabilities, hypogonadism
erector spinae muscle in order from lateral to medial
iliocostalis longissimus spinalis
advantages of X ray
images denser tissue, quick, noninvasive, painless, can assist in disease diagnosis, excellent resolution of fractures, use in musculoskeleton
advantages of fluoroscopy
imaging of viscera using contrast, quick, non invasive, helps in disease diagnosis
What major event is completed during the second week of development? implantation capacitation acrosome reaction fertilization
implantation
palmaris brevis function
improve grip by steadying skin of ulnar hand side
congenital malformations associated with DES (synthetic estrogen)
in female:carcinomas of vagina/cervix and congeitial malformation of uterus, uterine tube, upper vagina in males: malformation of testes and abnormal sperm
subcutaneous olecranon bursa located
in subcutaneous connective tissue over olecranon
if a ultrasound has a high frequency then ____ spacial and ___ depth
increase decrease
an increase in radiodensity leads to
increase is opacity
disadvantages of x ray
increased risk of cancer
the radialis indicis artery supplies
index finger
teratogens broad classifications
infectious agents, physical agents, chemical agents, hormonal agents
what is the weakest part of the glenohumeral joint
inferior
in the ___ part of neck the roots of brachial plexus unite to form _____
inferior three trunk
anterior and posterior ulnar recurrent anastamosis with the ___ and ____
inferior and superior ulnar collateral a
rhomboid minor origin
inferior in of ligamentum nuchae, spines of C7-T1
where can axillary artery be palpated
inferior part of lateral wall of axilla
the rotator cuff protect all sides of glenohumeral joint except
inferiorly
where is the synovial membrane of glenohumeral joint redundant and why
inferiorly- to accomodate abduction of arm
radial a descends ___ under cover of the ___ then descends ___ to the tendon of ___
inferolaterally brachioradialis medial brachioradialis
ulnar a descends ____ deep to the superficial and intermediate layers of the ____; in the lower third of forearm it descends ___ to reach the palm by passing ___ to the flexor retinaculum
inferomedially flexor muscles vertically superficial
what causes trigger finger
inflammation narrows space within sheath that surrounds the tendon
impingement syndrome is caused by
inflammation of supraspinatus tendon
what is biceps tendinitis
inflammation of tendon
what is De Quervain's tenosynovitis
inflammatory disorder involving abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
PTC normal function
inhibits the receptor like protein smoothened (SMO)
PAX1 function
initiates cascade of bone and cartilage genes for vertebral formation
what is a brachial plexus block
injection of anesthesia into axillary sheath interrupting conduction of all structures supplied by cords of brachial plexus
complications of shoulder dislocation
injury to axillary nerve and stretching of radial nerve
finger drop is caused by
injury to deep branch of radial or posterior interosseous
what are the two layers of 16 cell morula and what they form
inner cells form inner cell masses which give rise to embryo proper outer cells form trophoblast which becomes placenta
the exocoelomic membrane lines the
inner surface of cytotrophoblase
what are the inner and outer cell mass of blastocyst called
inner- embryoblast outer- trophoblast
three layers of uterus wall
innermost- endometrium middle-myometrium outer- perimetrium
with an MRI the signal originates ____- magnet causes ___ in body to ___, then ____ disturb them and the ______ is measured
inside the body protons, align radiowaves, time it takes to realign
primitive streak diminishes and becomes an ___ structure in the ___ region of embryo
insignificant sacrococcygeal
gravid phase occurs
instead of menstrual phase if fertilization occurs
caudal dysgenesis occurs when
insufficient mesoderm is formed in caudal region
male infertility is usually due to
insufficient number of sperm or poor motility
angelman's syndrome symptoms
intellectual disabilites, no speech abilites, poor motor development, prone to unprovoked and prolonged laughter
trisomy 13 symptoms
intellectual disabilities, holoproencephaly, cleft lip, micropthalmia, anopthalmia, colobama
congenital malformations associated with syphillis
intellectual disability, hearing loss
trisomy 18 symptoms
intellectual disability, low set ears, continual flexion of fingers and hands, microagnathia, syndactyly
the prenotochordal cells become ___ in the ____ for a short time forming the ____
intercalated hypoblast notochordal plate
what is the cutaneous innervation of the lateral thoracic sides
intercostal nn
how do theca interna and theca externa differ
interna- internal vascular and glandular layer, produce estrogen externa-capsule like, no endocrine function
what is in the epidural space
internal vertebral venous plexus and fat
the radius and ulna are joined by
interosseous membrane
the arterial supply of extensor compartment is supplemented by anterior interosseous artery which pierces the ___ just above the upper border of ____ then it ends in the ____
interosseous membrane pronator quadratus dorsal carpal anastomosis
posterior interosseous a gives off the ___ which anastamoses with the middle ____
interosseous recurrent a collateral a
three minor deep back muscles
interspinalis, intertransversii, and levatores costarum
the anterior circumflex humeral artery passes in front of the ____ and anastamoses with the ___
intertubercular sulcus posterior circumflex humeral artery
the SC joint cavity is divided into
intra-articular discs
the bicep brachii long head tendon and its location within glenohumeral joint
intracapusular but extrasynovial
layers of lateral plate mesoderm line
intraembryonic coelom
three olecranon bursa
intratendinous, subtendinous, subcutaneous
muscles paralyzed in Klumpke's paralysis
intrinsic muscles of hand, ulnar flexor of wrist and fingers
ectopic pregnancies are due to the ____ nature of the _____
invasive trophoblast
vasculogenesis after 3 wks
islands arise from mesodermal cells are induced to form hemangioblasta
internal vertebral venous plexus is clinically important because
it is a potential route for infection
if BMP4 is removed from ectoderm, then
it's default state would be to become neural tissue
extensor digiti minimi insertion
joins tendon of extensor digitorum to the little finger
describe synovial joints
joint capsule and hyaline cartilage
extensor indicis insertion
joints dorsal extensor expansion of index finger
the thoracic nerve is vulnerable to
knife wounds, mastectomy, axillary lymph node clearance
principles of localization of site of nerve injury
knowing order in which nerve gives off branches, functional deformities, radiologic images
how es uteroplacental circulation established
lacunae fill with maternal blood as syncytiotrophoblast erodes uterine vessels, sinusoids become contineous with lacunae
the extraembryonic mesoderm soon develops ___ that coalesce and form ______
large cavities extraembryonic cavity
radial nerve is ___ to radial artery
lateral
median nerve runs distally on the ___ side of _____, when it reaches the middle of the arm it crosses ____ to the artery and descends on the ___ aspect of arm
lateral brachial artery anteriorly medial
the median nerve is formed by what roots
lateral and medial
injury to musculocutaneous n results in loss of sensation of the
lateral aspect of forearm
Erb Duchenne palsy results in loss of sensation where
lateral aspect of forearm and thumb
parietal layer plus overlying ectoderm induce _____- which eventually ____
lateral body wall folds and head and tail flexion ventral body wall
axillary artery begins at the ____ as a continuation of the ____ and it ends at the _____ where it continues as the ____
lateral border of 1st rib subclavian artery inferior border of teres major brachial artery
three cords of brachial plexus
lateral cord, medial cord, posterior cord
intercostobrachial n is from
lateral cutaneous branch of second intercostal n and medial cutaneous nerve of arm
the flexor retinaculum two slips and their attachments and function
lateral deep slip- medial lip of trapezium groove- tunnel for FCR tendon medial superficial slip (palmar carpal ligament)- pisiform- for ulnar canal
what part of scapula is moved during elevation/ depression, protraction/ retraction
lateral end
components of AC joint
lateral end of clavicle, medial border of acromion
common extensor origin
lateral epicondyle
anoconeus origin
lateral epicondyle of humerus
supinator origin
lateral epicondyle, radial collateral and annular ligament, supinator crest of ulna
triceps brachii origin
long- infraglenoid tubercle medial- posterior surface of humerus, inferior to spiral groove lateral- posterior humerus above the spiral groove
mesenchyme are
loosely organized embryonic connective tissue regardless of origin
loss of sensation results of injury to forearm median n
loss in radial side of palm, palmar aspects of lateral 3.5 fingers
if there is not a good anastomosis when there is a traumatic injury to brachial a- can result in
loss of forearm and hand
rotator cuff syndrome symptoms
loss of initiation of abduction, pain
transecting lesion of C6-8 results in
loss of lower limb function combined with loss of variable amount of hand and upper limb function, may be able to eat or propel wheelchair
effect of injury to median nerve in arm
loss of pronation, ulnar deviation, loss of flexion of the thumb, index, and middle finger joint, thumb is laterally rotated and adducted, loss of opposition of thumb, wasting of thenar eminance
oligohydramnios
low amniotic fluid volume due to fetal renal agenesis
teres major nerve
low subscapular C5,6
the lateral thoracic artery emerges at and runs along the _____
lower border of pectoralis minor
the subscapular artery runs along the _____ and terminates near ____
lower border of subscapularis inferior angle of scapula
the medial and lateral intermuscular septa are well defined only in____ and are attached to __ and ___ of the ____
lower half of arm medial and lateral supracondylar ridges humerus
inferior ulnar collateral arises in the
lower part of arm
extensor carpi radialis longus origin
lower thirds of supracondylar ridge
teres minor insertion
lowest impression of greater tubercle of humerus
which vertebra have massive bodies and short spinous processess
lumbar
what vertebra have mamillary processes and what are they for
lumbar- attach to multifidus and intratransversii muscles
what muscles cause flexion at IP
lumbricals
extension of proximal and distal IPJs is by
lumbricals and interossei
flexion of MPJ is by
lumbricals, interossei, FDS, FDP
anterior dislocation of lunate is when____
lunate is pushed out of its place in floor of carpal tunnel toward palmar surface
26-29 wks
lung and pulmonary vasculature developed enough to provide gas exchange, CNS can direct rhythmic breathing and body temp control
LH stands for
luteinizing hormone
A surge in what hormone triggers ovulation? growth hormone (GH) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) luteinizing hormone (LH)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
difference between corpus luteum and corpus albicans
luteum- yellow pigment, secrete progesterone and estrogen albicans- if no pregnancy, luteum degenerates, no hormonal output
how does the zona pellucida changes once the sperm contacts the oocyte
lysosomal enzymes released from oocyte plasma membrane, properties of zona pellucida alter preventing more sperm presentation
function of progesterone
maintain endometrium
heterotaxy is an example of what type of abnormality
malformation
3 types of birth abnormalities
malformation, disruption, deformatino
PAX3 function
marks demomytome sub region
congenital malformations associated with synthetic progestins
masculinization of genitalia in female embryos
____ and ___ procedure may result in significant disruption of lymph drainage of upper limbs
mastectomy and axillary node clearance
splenius capitis insertion
mastoid process
intervillous space
maternal blood filled spaces between villi in cotyledons
what is a sinusoids
maternal capillaries that are congested and dilated
substances that do not cross placenta
maternally derived cholesterol, triglycerides, and phospholipids, protein hormones, drugs such as heparin, and most bacteria
what is atretic
means without opening and has undergone degeneration
abduction 90-120 degrees at shoulder joint results in a _____ thus needing what muscles (____ and ____) to ___ rotate
mechanical infraspinatous and teres minor laterally
compression neuropathy can be due to
mechanical compression or entrapment
deformations result from
mechanical forces that mold part of fetus over prolonged period
ulnar nerve is ___ to ulnar artery
medial
axillary veins lies on the ____ aspect of the -____ and at the ___ it becomes the ___ vein
medial axillary artery 1st rib subclavian
ulnar nerve descends on the ___ aspect of the ____ and around the middle of the arm it pierces the _____ and descends between the ___ and ____ then it runs __ to the medial epicondyle
medial brachial artery medial intermuscular septum septum and medial head of tricep posteriorly
infraspinatous origin
medial 2/3 of infraspinatous fossa
subscapularis origin
medial 2/3 of subscapular fossa
supraspinatous origin
medial 2/3 of supraspinatous fossa
pectoralis major nerve
medial and lateral pectoral nerve
the main sensory nerves of anterior forearm are the ____ (derived from ____ of brachial plexus and the ______(continuation of _____)
medial antebrachial cutaneous n medial cord lateral antebrachial cut. n musculocutaneous n
loss of sensation in Klumpke's paralysis
medial aspect of forearm and little finger
pectoralis minor insertion
medial border and upper surface of coracoid process
rhomboid minor insertion
medial border of scapula at root of scapular spine
levator scapulae insertion
medial border of scapula from superior angle to spine
rhomboid major insertion
medial border of scapula inferior to scapular spine
medial cutaneous n of arm is a branch of
medial cord of brachial plexus
SC joint is composed of what 3 elements
medial end of clavicle, clavicular notch of manubrium, 1st costal cartilage
flexor digitorum profundus nerve
medial half- ulnar n lateral half- anterior interosseous n
rectus capitis posterior minor insertion
medial inferior nuchal line
teres major insertion
medial lip of intertubercular sulcus of humerus
pectoralis minor nerve
medial pectoral nerve
branches of medial cord of brachial plexus and what spinal nerves
medial pectoral nerve- C8, T1 medial cutaneous nerve of arm and forearm- C8, T1 ulnar nerve- C7,8, T1 medial root of median nerve- C8, T1
subscapularis action
medial rotator and adductor
medial cutaneous n supplies
medial side of arm below axilla
coracobrachialis insertion
medial surface of middle humerus
trapezius origin
medial third of the superior nuchal line, external occipital protuberance, ligamentum nuchae, spinous processes of vertebrae C7-T12
the intercostobrachial n pierces the ___ of the ___ and crosses into ___ of arm
medial wall of axilla medial arm
flexor retinaculum is attached to what medially and laterally
medially- pisiform and hook of hamate laterally- tubercle of scaphoid and ridge of trapezium
pronator syndrome is when the ___ nerve gets ____ as it passes between the __ (or due to ___, ___, or ____) -the pt complains of pain in ___ aspect of anterior forearm - ___ motions exacerbate symptoms
median compressed two heads of pronator teres muscle trauma, muscular hypertrophy, fibrous band crossing over nerve -proximal -pronation
the anterior compartment of forearm is served mainly by the __ and partially by the___ nerve
median ulnar
flexor pollicis brevis nerve
median and ulnar n
the bicipital aponeurosis separates what
median cubital v from brachial a and median n
what vein is often chosen for venipuncture
median cubital vein
abductor pollicis nerve
median n
flexor carpi radialis nerve
median n
flexor digitorum superficialis nerve
median n
opponens pollicis nerve
median n
palmaris longus nerve
median n
pronator teres nerve
median n
the anterior interosseous n (branch of ___) runs deep to ___ and down with the ____ artery
median n flexor digitorum superficialis anterior interosseous
cutaneous innervation of palm
median n and its palmar branch, superficial and palmar branches of ulnar nerver
cubital fossa contents
median n, brachial a and its terminal branches ulnar and radial a, tendon of biceps, radial n
when you see a nerve that bleeds what nerve is it
median nerve
ape thumb is a result of
median nerve injury
hand of benediction is a result of
median nerve injury
structures passing deep to flexor retinaculum
median nerve, FDS and FDP tendons, FPL tendon, ulnar and radial bursa
after sperm enters oocyte, the oocyte finishes ____ resulting in addition of a ____ and ____ oocyte- the chromosomes then arrange themselves into a _____
meiosis II second polar body definitive female pronucleus
what type of abnormal event that leads to chromosomal abnormalities increase with maternal age
meiotic nondisjunction
trisomy 13 is caused by
meiotic nondisjunction of chromosome 13
numerical chromosomal abnormalities are mostly due to
meiotic nondisjunction or mitotic nondisjunction
NC cells that undergo dorsal pathway they become
melanocytes in skin and hair follicles
follicular/ poliferative phase is right after
menstration
what occurs in the uterine (___) cycle
menstrual endometrial layer undergoes changes
why is it an either/ or for menstrual and gravid phase
menstrual occurs if there is no fertilization; however if fertilization occurs gravid phase happens instead
definitive hematopoietic stem cells are derived from the
mesoderm surrounding the aorta
somatomeres consist of
mesodermal cells in concentric swirls, neuromeress
congenital malformations associated with zika virus
microcephaly, intracranial calcifications, eye abnormalities
congenital malformations associated with ionizing radation
microcephaly, spina bifida, cleft palate, limb defects, etc
congenital malformations associated with cytomegalovirus
microcephaly, visual impairment, intellectual disability, fetal death
prader willi syndrome is caused by
microdeletion in paternal chromosome 15
angelman's syndrome is caused by
microdeletion occurs in maternal chromosome 15
miller dieker syndrome is caused by
microdeletion of gene 13 of chromosome 17
congenital malformations associated with herpes simplex virus
micropthalmia, microcephaly, retinal dysplasia
ovulation occurs
midcycle
the roots of the brachial plexus receives sympathetic fibers from
middle and inferior cervical ganglia
what band of ulnar collateral ligament lodges the ulnar nerve
middle band
what finger does not have palmar interossei
middle finger
infraspinatous insertion
middle impression of greater tubercle of humerus
pronator teres insertion
middle of lateral surface of radius
trisomy 21 is due to
mitotic nondisjunction
the anterior and posterior ramus are ___
mixed
hydatidiform mole is also known as
molar pregnancy
ovarian cycle refers to
monthly series of events associated with maturation of an egg
how does the carrying angle differ in men and women
more pronounced in woman making it more vulgus where as males are more varus
gastrulation is the beginning of ___
morphogenesis
disruptions result in
morphological alterations of already formed structures
why roles of pharmaceutical drugs are difficult to assess for teratogenic
most studies are retrospective, pregnant woman take a large amount of medication
ectopic pregnancies can occur where and where is it most likely
most- uterine tube peritoneal cavity, ampulla, isthmus of uterine tube, cervix, ovary
anterior rootlets and roots are ____
motor
posterior interosseous nerve entrapment syndromes exhibit
motor and sensory deficits resulting in pain in forearm, weakness of finger and wrist extension, muscle atrophy
trapezius innervations
motor by accessory nerve sensory by C3 and C4
De Quervain's tenosynovitis is associated with pain when
moving the thumb
three categories of birth defects and the most common
multifactoral- most common environmental genetic
three muscles of transversospinalis
multifidus, semispinalis, rotatores
flexor digitorum superficialis insertion
muscle divides into 4 tendons that divide into two slips which are inserted into sides of middle phalanges of 2-5 digits
entrapment can be due to
muscle, crossed by fibrous bands, passing through osseous, fibro-osseous tunnels
branches of ulnar nerve and what they innervate
muscular branch- FCU and media half of FDP
branches of radial n in spiral groove
muscular branches to lateral and medial head of tricep and anconeus, inferior lateral cutaneous n of arm, posterior cutaneous n of forearm
how are sperm propelled up unterus and uterine tube
muscular contraction of uterus and uterine tube
just distal to the carpal tunnel the median nerve gives a ____ which curls around the ___ of the ___ to supply the ___
muscular recurrent branch distal border flexor retinaculum thenar muscles
branches of axillary nerve- muscular and cutaneous
muscular- deltoid and teres minor cutaneous- superior lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
biceps brachii nerve
musculocutaneous n
coracobrachialis nerve supply
musculocutaneous n
brachialis nerve supply
musculocutaneous n and part by branch of radial nerve
nerve supply of anterior compartment of arm
musculocutaneous nerve
structures passing through anterior compartment of arm
musculocutanous, median, ulnar and radial nerves; brachial vessels; and basilic vein
what changes at 9 weeks
name changes from embryo to fetus
axilla lateral wall is very ___ and is a ___ wall formed by the ______
narrow bondy intertubercular groove
why are lateral thoracic arteries larger in women
need to supply the lateral breast
fetal transfusion for anemia
needle inserted into umbilical vein
caudal intermediate mesoderm form
nephrongenic cord
neuroectoderm divides into
neural crest and neural tube
somite signaling proteins arise from
neural crest, neural tube, epidermis, lateral plate mesoderm
what is the default tissue state of ectoderm
neural tissue
open NT ends are called
neuropores
the fascial plane b/n intermediate and deep layers of anterior forearm muscles makes up the primary _____ of anterior compartment
neurovascular plane
notochordal process induces
neurulation
extraembryonic mesoderm is formed by a ___ of cells that appeared between the inner surface of ___ and outer surface of ____
new population cytotrophoblast exocoelomic cavity
rotatores insertion
vertebral laminas and transverse processes 1-2 vertebral levels superior to origin
the posterior spinal A is a branch of either ____ or ___a and lies in the ____
vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar posterolateral sulci
the segmental medullary aa arises from either ___, __, ___, or ____ artery depending of spinal cord level
vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, or sacral
angiogensis
vessel branch budding and growth from existing vessels
how does the ovary attach to the uterus
via ligament
herpes zoster is a ___ that produces ____
virus chickenpox
the chorion forms the
wall of chorionic sac
motor impairment from compression neuropathy
weakness, wasting, atrophy
IUGR can be caused by
placental insufficiency, preeclampsia, multiple gestations, infectious disease, cardiovascular anomalies, inadequate maternal nutrition, teratogens, hormones
cotyledons divided by
placental septa
AC joint is what type
plane
zygapophysial joint type:
plane synovial
Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with maternal diabetes? umbilical knots polyhydramnios battledore placenta oligohydramnios
polyhydramnios
what is seen when the bicep long head tendon rupture
popeye sign- bicep muscle belly forms a ball at center of arm
suprascapular nerve passes ___ through suprascapular ____ to reach ___ then it ___ through __ to reach the ____
posteriolaterally, foramen supraspinatous fossa, descends, greater scapular notch infrascapular fossa
when cloacal membrane appears the____ wall of the yolk sac forms a small ___ that extends into the ____
posterior diverticulum connecting stalk
What part of the spinal nerve houses sensory neuron cell bodies? ventral (anterior) horn anterior (ventral) root dorsal (posterior) horn posterior (dorsal) root ganglion
posterior (dorsal) root ganglion
what forms the arterial circle around the surgical neck of humerus
posterior and anterior circumflex humeral artery
branches of radial n
posterior antebrachial cut and superficial radial n
what is the inferior most part of the axillary posterior wall and what is it formed by
posterior axillary fold teres major and latissimus dorsi
biceps brachii insertion
posterior border of radial tuberosity and bicipital aponeurosis that inserts into deep fascia of forearm
the posterior division of brachial plexus supplies teh
posterior compartment of UL
branches of radial n in axilla
posterior cutaneous n of arm, muscular branches to long and medial head of triceps
the posterior cord is formed by the ___ of the ____
posterior division all three trunks
abductor pollicis longus nerve
posterior interosseous
extensor carpi ulnaris nerve
posterior interosseous n
extensor digitorum nerve
posterior interosseous n
extensor indicis nerve
posterior interosseous n
extensor pollicis longus nerve
posterior interosseous n
extensor digiti minimi nerve
posterior interosseous nerve
extensor pollicis brevis nerve
posterior interosseous nerve
supinator nerve
posterior interosseous nerve
Which of the following ligaments is found on the posterior surface of the vertebral bodies and lines the anterior surface of the vertebral canal? posterior longitudinal ligament supraspinous ligament ligamentum flava ligamentum nuchae
posterior longitudinal ligament
erector spinae origin
posterior sacrum, iliac crest, lumbar and sacral spinous processes
artery of adamkiewicz provides blood to
posterior spine
the apex/inlet/cervicoaxillary canal of axilla is bounded by
posterior surface of clavicle, lateral border of 1st rib, and superior border of scapula
olecranon fossa location and function
posterior surface of distal humerus accommodates olecranon process of ulna when elbow is extended
rectus capitis posterior minor origin
posterior tubercle of C1
radial nerve passes ___through the ___ then downward and ___ in the ___ of humerus between the __ and __ heads of ___; at the lateral border of humerus it pierces the _____ to reach the ___ then it decends in a ____ between the ___ and __ muscles
posteriorly triangular interval laterally spiral groove lateral and medial triceps lateral intermuscular septum anterior compartment deep groove brachialis and brachioradialis
the posterior cutaneous n of arm supplies
posteromedial aspect of arm
rectus capitis posterior and obliquus capitis action
posture, extend head on C1, rotate head on C2
the dural arachnoid interface is a
potential space
what is the intermuscular space
potential spaces
at the end of week 2 the hypoblast cells form a thick circular area known as ____
prechordal plate
hemangioblasta
precursors of vessels/ RBCs
variations in brachial plexus
prefixed and postfixed
congenital malformations associated with cocaine
premature labor, intrauterine growth retardation, spontaneous abortion
cells that move through the cranial aspect of the node and migrate in the midline toward oropharyngeal membrane form what and their function
prenotochordal cells critical for inducing the brain and establishing the midline
formation of notochord steps
prenotochordal cells invaginate primitave node and move forward cranially until reach prechordal plate
function of fibrous digital sheaths
prevent tendons from bowstringing
what is the function of the flexor retinaculum
prevents enclosed tendons from bowstringing anteriorly during grasping action
the end of the second week is characterized by appearance of
primary chorionic villi
at start of 3rd week the trophoblast is characterized by ____, then ___ cells penetrate core and grow toward ___ forming _____ -by end of 3rd week, ___ cells differentiate into ___ and ____ forming _____( this is the ___)
primary villi mesodermal decidua secondary villi mesodermal blood cells and blood vessels villous capillary system- tertiary villus
proctodeum
primitive anal canal below pectinate line
somatodeum
primitive mouth
cloaca
primitive rectum and upper anal canal
Which of the following phenotypes would a child suffering from Turner's Syndrome exhibit? intellectual disabilities webbed neck gynecomastia cat-like cry
webbed neck
By what week of gestation is the external genitalia established? week 12 week 3 week 6 week 9
week 12
limb movement becomes coordinated by
week 14
what happens when coracoclavicular lig is torn
weight of upper limb pulls the scapula downward so the acromion process is inferior to lateral end of clavicle
the vessels of umbilical cord is surrounded by
wharton jelly
when is neurulation complete
when NT is closed
what is an acoustic shadow
when a bone wont allow image of other side due to sound not being able to pass
trigger finger
when finger gets stuck in bent position and straightens with a snap
what is an acoustic window
when fluid allows to see both side of structure
when does a ootid become a zygote
when pronuclei fuse into single diploid chromosome aggregation
what is the luteal phase of ovarian cycle
when ruptured follicle becomes corpus luteum or degenerates into corpus albicans
what is a prefixed brachial plexus
when superior most root is C4 and the inferior most root is C8
when does the embryo become the bastocyst
when the blastocele appears
what is colobama
whole or defect in iris of eye
the axillary nerve leaves the axilla by ___ the ___ border of ___ and exits through ____, it then passes deep to ____ and on the ____ surface of the ____
winding around, lower, subscapularis, quadrangular deltoid, posterior, humeral surgical neck
paralysis of serratus anterior results in
winged scapula
lumbar puncture is a procedure to
withdraw CSF
when is the risk of birth defects the highest
wk 3-8 (embryonic period)
effect of arm radial n injury
wrist drop deformity, impairment of sensation over dorsal aspect of lateral hand
what increases pain of synovial cyst of wrist
wrist flexion
what is the best type of imaging to use for a pt that has a potential fracture
x ray
physical agent teratogens
x rays or hyperthemia
how embryonic disc change during week 3
primitive steak lengthens cuadally, notochordal process lengthens due to primitive node cells, neural plate forms, as notochordal process elongates the primitive streak shortens, notochordal process transformed into notochord
intermediate mesoderm form
primordial excretory and reproductive organs
example of abnormal female gamete
primordial follicle with two oocytes or trinucleated oocyte
what is fertilization
process by which male and female gametes fuse forming a zygot
gatrulation
process of establishing the 3 primary germ layers and axial orientation of embryo
what is parturition
process of fetus, placenta, and fetal membranes being expelled from mother
what is the largest blood vessel branch in the arm
profunda brachii a
the middle collateral a to recurrent interosseous a anastomosis connects what main arteries
profunda brachii a posterior interosseous a
the radial collateral a to radial recurrent a anastomosis connects what main arteries
profunda brachii a radial a
triangular interval contains
profunda brachii artery and radial nerve
branches of brachial artery
profunda brachii artery, superior ulnar collateral, inferior ulnar collateral, unnamed muscular branches and then its terminal branch into ulnar and radial a
blood supply of posterior compartment of arm
profunda brachii vessel
corpus luteum secretes what
progesterone and estrogens
hCG stimulates ___ by ___; excreted in ___, is a ____ to fetus, regulates maternal __ and ___ metabolism, and promotes ___ for __ production
progesterone production by corpus luteum maternal urine growth hormone carbohydrate and protein breast development for milk production
dupuytren's contracture results in
progressive shortening of palmar fascia, fingers assume a flexed position generally 4 and 5th digit
placental septa are ___ formed by ____ by ___
projection of decidua basalis formed by erosion of decidua basalis by chorionic villi
lateral epicondyle is a
prominent bony projection on lateral distal end of humerus
medial epicondyle is a
prominent bony projection on medial distal end of humerus
pronator quadratus action
pronate forearm, bind lower ends of radius and ulna
pronator teres action
pronates forearm
injury to median n of elbow/forearm can cause _____ (_____)
pronator syndrome- median nerve entrapment
what muscles pronate forearm
pronator teres and pronator quadrates
superficial muscles of anterior forearm
pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnars
function of placenta and fetal membranes
protection, nutrition, respiration, excretion, hormone production
three mechanisms of juxtacrine signaling
protein on inducer cell surface interacts directly with responder cell membrane receptor, ligands in ECM secreted by one cell interact with receptors on neighboring cells, signaling via gap junctions
3 types of MRI image aquisition and describe each
proton density weighting- shows different densities T1- fluid is dark and fat is light T2- fluid is light and fat is dark
what is the primary fucntion of decidua reaction
provide nutrition for early embryo and immunologically privileged sites
fracture of scaphoid bone- owing to the poor blood supply to _____ part of scaphoid it could take ___ to heal
proximal more than 3 months
flexor digitorum profundus origin
proximal 3/4ths of the anterior medial surface of ulna and adjoining part of interosseous membrane
two dominant skin creases on front of wrist
proximal and distal flexor creases
what joints allow pronation and supination of hand
proximal and distal radioulnar joints
attachments of extensor retinaculum
proximally- anterolateral border of radius above styloid process distally- pisiform and triquetral
lumbar puncture procedure steps
pt lays lateral, asked to flex back, needle is inserted into lumbar cistern between L3 and L4 in adult
subclavis action
pull clavicle medially to stabilize SC joint during shoulder movement
trochlea is ___; extended to the ___ and more distal than ___; articulates with ____
pulley shaped posterior surface capitulum ulna
the radial a is used for
pulse, cardiac Cath, or tap for ABGs
30-34 wks
pupillary reflex can be elicited
transecting lesion of C4-5 results in
quadriplegia but can independently breath
disadvantages of ultrasound
quality and interpretation depends on the technician, factors such as air, plaque, and body size affect images, use of probe sometimes required, special prep such as fasting or full bladder
the posterior compartment of forearm is mainly served by the ____ nerve
radial
the posterior interosseous n (the deep branch of ___) passes between heads of ___ to reach ___
radial supinator posterior compartment
cut wounds of wrist may transect what
radial a, ulnar a, median n., ulnar n
structures passing through posterior compartment of arm
radial and ulnar nerves
what lies on the floor of anatomical snuffbox
radial artery
the deep palmar arch is formed by the
radial artery and deep branch of ulnar artery
the radial recurrent a anastomoses with ___
radial collateral a
anconeus nerve
radial n
extensor carpi radialis brevis nerve
radial n
extensor carpi radialis longus nerve
radial n
the inferior lateral cutaneous n of arm is a branch of
radial n
brachioradialis nerve
radial nerve
nerve supply of posterior compartment of arm
radial nerve
triceps brachii nerve
radial nerve
posterior interosseous nerve entrapment syndrome is due to entrapment of ___ in the ___
radial nerve radial tunnel
wrist drop is caused by
radial nerve injury in spinal groove
branches of radial a
radial recurrent a, palmar and dorsal carpal branches, superficial palmar branches, unnamed muscular branches
median nerve injury in the arm results in loss of sensation where
radial side of palm, palmar aspect of lateral 3 and 1/2 fingers, distal part of dorsal surface of lateral 3.5 fingers
the dorsal carpal arch is an anstomosis between
radial, ulnar, and anterior interosseous arteries
the radial artery gives off what between the first dorsal interosseous and adductor pollicis
radialis indicis artery and princeps pollicis artery
fetal period is primarily concerned with
rapid body growth and differentiation of tissues, organs, and systems
cleavage is when there is
rapid division but no growth
advantages of CT
rapid imaging, good hard vs soft tissue contrast, good tumor staging, 3D model
follicular/ proliferative phase- what happens
rebuilding of endometrium after shedding of layer
boundaries of suboccipital triangle
rectus capitis posterior major, obliquus capitis superior and inferior
what suboccitpital muscle is the only one not to connect to skull
rectus capitis posterior minor
what muscles maintain posture of head
rectus capitus posterior major and minor
each spinal nerve gives rise to 2-4 small _____ nerves that ___ the intervertebral foramen to supply ___, ___, ___, and ____
recurrent meningeal nerves reenter dura, ligaments, intervertebral discs, and blood vessels
how are syndrome and association similar
refers to group of anomalies that occur together
the spinal cord is the major ___ and ___ between body and brain
reflex center and conduction pathway
what is planar cell polarity pathway
regulation of cells shape
when sperm enters egg there is a ___ of cortical ____ which prevents ____
release granules polyspermy
what allows penetration of zona pellucida
release of acrosomal enzymes
what happens during acrosome reaction
release of enzymes needed to penetrate zona pellucida
bursitis is mostly caused by
repetitive movement and those over 40 years old
tonic contractions of agonist and antagonist across a joint results in
resting/ relaxed position of joint
main results of fertilization
restoration of diploid chromosome number, determination of sex, initiation of cleavage
transecting lesion of L2-3 results in
retention of most leg function which may allow walking with short leg braces
organizing of cranial-caudal axis by ___ which upregulates ____
retinoic acid SHH homeobox genes-HOX
rhomboid major and minor action
retract scapula, downward rotation of scapula
what muscles retract the scapula
rhomboid major and minor and trapezius
what muscles medially rotates scapula
rhomboid minor and major, and subscapularis
levatores costarum insertion
ribs
serratus posterior superior insertion
ribs 1-4, lateral to the angles
serratus posterior inferior insertion
ribs 9-12, lateral to angles
what are demi facets due to
ribs connecting with 2 vertebrae
CVS determines what? performed when? risk of?
risk of chromosomal abnormalities, inborn errors of metabolism, x linked disorders 10-12 wks spontaneous abortion, limb reduction defects
what stabilizes the glenohumeral joint
rotator cuff muscles
the radial tuberosity has a ___ posterior part and ____ anterior part
rough smooth
the capitulum is ___ and projects __ and ___; articulates with __
rounded forward and inferiorly radius
examples of infectious agent teratogens
rubella virus, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, varicella virus, zika virus, syphilis, toxoplasmosis
in humans the allantois remains ___ but may be involved in ___ of ____ development- fibrous remnant forms the ___ in fetus and ___ in adults
rudimentary abnormalities of bladder urachus median umbilical ligament
amniotic band syndrome
rupture of amnion causing defects such as digital constriction, major scalp, craniofascial, visceral defects
what is rotator cuff syndrome caused by
rupture of supraspinatous tendon due to repetitive use of upper limb above horizontal
pectoral fascia attachments
s- clavicle m- sternum i- continous with fascia over thorax and rectus sheath i-l- continous with axillary fascia
borders of triangular interval
s- teres minor l- humeral shaft m- long head of tricep
quadrangular space boundaries
s- teres minor and subscapulars i- teres minor l- surgical neck of humerus m- long head of tricep
triangular space borders
s-m- teres minor i- teres major l- triceps long head
what happens if primitive steak does not degenerate
sacrococcygeal teratoma
what is the most common tumor in newborns
sacrococcygeal teratoma
multifidus origin
sacrum, ilium, C4-12 transverse process
SC joint is a ____ type but functions as a ____ joint
saddle ball and socket
wrist- triangular region of disc articulates with ____, the quadrangular region articulates with ___
scaphoid lunate
proximal row- lateral to medial- row of carpal bones
scaphoid lunate triquetral pisiform
the muscles that form the rotator cuff arise from____ and attach to _____
scapula greater and lesser tubercles of humerus
serratus anterior action
scapula protraction, abduction, keep costal surface of scapula close to thorax
abduction 120-180 degrees at shoulder joint requires ____ rotation that is by
scapular trapezius and serratus anterior
what 3 joints make up pectoral girdle joint
scapulothoracic J, AC J, SC J
at end of week 7-8
second contriction divides proximal limb portion into 3 parts of adult extremity
when the stigma ruptures, it expels the ____ which is due to ____ and possible contraction of _____
secondary oocyte intrafollicular pressure theca externa
at time of implantation, the mucosa of uterus is in the
secretory phase
segmental spinal a are branches off of the
segmental a
internal vertebral venous plexus drains in ___ in ___ and ____; also it communicates with ____
segmental veins in thorax and abdomen intracranial veins
pre somite mesoderm transformation into somites depends on
segmentation clock
two main molecular regulation of somite formation
segmentation clock and cyclic genes
overlapping expression gradients control for somite formation
segmentation clock, notch signaling pathway
spermatid formation is in the
seminiferous tubules
what muscles stabilize the vertebrae
semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores
what muscles rotate head to opposite side
semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores, obliquus capitis superior, sternocleidomastoid
posterior rootlets and roots are ____
sensory
NC cells that under ventral pathway they become
sensory ganglia, sympathetic neurons, enteric neurons, schwann cells, adrenal medulla cells
the dorsal root ganglion houses
sensory neuron cell bodies
the lymph not that initially receives lymph from breast is called ___ and its location is derived by ____
sentinel node dye injection
cloacal membrane
separates cloaca and proctodeum
oropharyngeal membrane
separates somatodeum and primordial pharynx
what muscles depress the scapula
serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
what muscles protract the scapula
serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
what muscles depress the ribs
serratus posterior inferior
what are the two intermediate extrinsic back muscles
serratus posterior superior and inferior
what muscles elevates the ribs
serratus posterior superior and levatores costarum
what muscles of back are for proprioception
serratus posterior- superior and inferior
pisiform is a ___ bone in the tendon of _____
sesamoid FCU
what is holoproencephaly
severe failure of brain to develop along with craniofascial abnormalities
retention of cotyledon after birth can lead to
severe uterine hemorrhage
where is the medial supracondylar ridge
sharp median margin above medial epicondyle
what happens in menstrual phase
shedding of endometrium
biceps brachii origin
short head- coracoid process long head- supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
turner syndrome symptoms
short stature, webbed neck, lymphoma, broad chest with wide set nipples
what is the most commonly dislocated joint in the body and why
shoulder joint head of humerus is too large for glenoid cavity and joint capsule is lax for motility
what is crosstalk
signaling between inducer and responder
in thoracic V what increases has it moves inferiorly
size
by 20 wks what is seen
skin and eyebrows are visible, male testes have begun to descend
what are cutaneous innervations
skin areas innervated by particular peripheral nerves
intercostobrachial n supplies
skin of axilla, and upper part of medial arm
inferior lateral cutaneous n of arm supplies
skin over lateral side of arm below deltoid
superior lateral cutaneous n of arm supplies the
skin over lower 1/2 of deltoid
congenital malformations associated with varicella virus
skin scarring, limb hypoplasia, intellectual disability, muscle atrophy
the base of axilla is formed by
skin, subcutaneous tissue, axillary fascia
roof of cubital fossa
skin, superficial fascia, median cubital vein joining cephalic and basilic vein, lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm, medial cutaneous nerve of forearm, deep fascia, bicipital aponeurosis
what is a tonic contraction
slight contraction that does not produce movement
____ occurs at 14 weeks
slow eye movement
hypoblast layer has ___ cells adjacent to ____
small cuboidal bastocyst cavity
what is microagnathia
small jaw
1 yo infant with upper resp track infection developed a high fever and a reduced level of consciousnesses. Her parents took her to the hospital. On examination, the physician detected lethargy, nuchal rigidity, and back pain.Meningitis is suspected and a lumbar puncture is needed to confirm the diagnosis. Where would they do the lumbar puncture a. L1-l3 b. L2-l3 c. L3-l4
c
effects of injury to forearm ulnar n
small muscles of hand paralyzed, claw hand, loos of sympathetic control, MPJ become hyperextended
palmaris brevis is a
small subcutaneous muscle that covers hypothenar muscles
what are collaterals
smaller vessels that supply an organ if the main vessels are damaged
congenital malformations associated with fetal alcohol syndrome
smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, short distance between eye corners, growth problems, CNS problems
lateral plate mesoderm splits into
somatic/parietal and visceral/splanchnic
how to remember the carpal bones- lateral to medial, proximal to distal
some lovers try positions that they can't handle scaphoid lunate triquetral pisiform trapezium trapezoid capitate hamate
transecting lesion of T10-L1 results in
some thigh muscle function which may allow walking with long leg braces
WNT induces
somite dorsomedial sub region, secretes MYF5
two ways to determine gestational age
somite method, crown-rump length
paraxial mesoderm form
somites
somatomeres will become ____ and forms in the ____ direction
somites cranial--> caudal
the paraxial mesoderm form
somitomeres and somite
what are intervertebral foramina and their function
spaces between vertebral arches - allow spinal nerves to exit
what causes Volkmann's ischemic contracture
spasm of localized segment of brachia a reducing blood flow to flexors and extensors causing isshemic necrosis leading to replacement by fibrous tissue
what muscles extend the head
spenius capitis and cervicis, spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis, semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores, obliquus capitis superior and inferio, sternocleidomastoid, rectus capitis posterior major and minor
what happens during capacitation
sperm's membranes become fragile allowing their hydrolytic enzymes to be released
primordial componenets
sperm, oocyte, and zygote
what are male germ cells called after meiosis
spermatocytes
what is the final processing of spermatid into a mature sperm
spermiogenesis
high AFP in amniotic fluid are indicative of
spina bifida, anecephaly, amniotic band syndrome, sarcococcygeal teratoma, intestinal atresia
spina bifida with meyloschisis
spinal cord is open to posterior, no posterior vertebral formation
contents of vertebral canal
spinal cord, spinal meninges, spinal vasculature, spinal nerve roots
dura mater forms what 3 things
spinal dural sac, dural root sheath, coccygeal ligament
radicular aa supply the
spinal roots
a pt has narrowing of vertebral foramen- diagnosis
spinal stenosis
what muscles extend the vertebral column
spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis, semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores, interspinales
what muscles lateral flex the vertebral column
spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis, semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores, intertransversarii
rhomboid major origin
spines of T2-5
latissimus dorsi origin
spines of T7-L5, posterior third of iliac crest, lower 3 ribs, ligamentum nuchae
35 yom complaining of excruitiating pain in R shoulder. During exam pt was unable to move injured limb. radiology shows that the humerus is displaced. which would be the most likely direction of discplacement a. anteriorly b. posteriorly c. inferiorly d. superiorly e. medially
c
multifidus insertion
spinous process 2-4 vertebral levels superior to their origin
obliquus capitis inferior origin
spinous process of C2
rectus capitis posterior major origin
spinous process of C2
interspinales origin and insertion
spinous processes
what muscles rotate head to same side
splenius capitis and cervicis, rectus capitis posterior major and minor, obliquus capitis inferior
what muscles lateral flex the head
splenius capitis and cervicis, sternocleidomastoid, semispinalis, multifidus, rotators
two superficial intrinsic back muscles
splenius capitis and splenius cervicis
what eventually happens to dermomyotomes
split into dermotomes and myotomes
a pt has a dislocation of intervertebral disc- not herniation- what is the diagnosis
spondylolithesis
a pt has a fracture in pars interarticulars and have a scotty dog on imaging- diagnosis
spondylolysis
exposure to mercury, lead, solvents, cigarette smoking have been linked to
spontaneous abortion, low birth weight, birth defects
adverse outcomes of ART
spontaneous abortion, multiple births, adverse prenatal outcomes, increase risk of birth defects
function of rotator cuff
stabilize the glenohumeral joint
9 Regarding median nerve one statement is wrong A. it arises from two roots B. it does not give muscular branches to the muscles of the arm C. it lies on the brachialis muscle D. median nerve is directly related to the front of the medial epicondyle E. two roots join to form the median nerve in front of the third part of axillary artery
c
A 24-year-old male mechanic was admitted to the emergency department after a crush injury to his forearm. He was complaining of severe burning pain on the front of his forearm. Radiologic studies revealed tissue edema but no fractures. Base on the history and clinical examination, the provisional diagnosis was Acute Compartment Syndrome. What is the cause of Acute Compartment Syndrome? a. musclulovenous pump dysfunction b. joint dislocation c. increased intracompartmental pressure results in muscle and nerve ischemia d. tear in the deep fascia
c
multifidus action
stabilize vertebral column
rotatores action
stabilize, assist with extension, rotation, proprioception
what are euchromatin
state where heterochromatin is uncoiled to DNA may be transcibed
what muscles flex the neck
sternocleidomastoid
function of estrogenic hormones
stimulate unterine growth and development of mammary glands
what are the bony points palpable on floor of anatomical snuffbox from proximal to distal are
styloid process of radius, scaphoid, trapezium, and base of thumb metacarpal
what is the largest bursa in the body
subacromial bursa
calcific supraspinatous tendonitis can lead to
subacromial bursitis
3 bursas of glenohumeral joint
subacromial, subscapular, infraspinatous bursa
subclavis nerve
subclavis nerve of upper trunk of brachial plexus
what muscles stabilize the SC joint
subclavius
rectus capitis posterior and obliquus capitis nerve
suboccipital nerve- dorsal rami of C1
axilla posterior wall
subscapluaris, teres major, latissimus dorsi
the circumflex scapular A is a branch of
subscapular A which arises from 3rd part of axillary A
the thoracodorsal artery is a continuation of the
subscapular artery
what is the largest branch of the axillary artery
subscapular artery
the synovial cavity of glenohumeral joint communicates with
subscapular bursa
the glenohumeral joint anterior gap allows for communication between what two things
subscapular bursa and synovial cavity of joint
the axillary nerve lies on the
subscapularis
mallet/ baseball finger is what
sudden severe tension of long extensor tendon may cause avulsion from phalanx attachment due to hyperflexion
how does the palmaris longus pass the flexor retinaculum
superficial
the tendon of FDS enters the fibrous sheath ___ to the tendons of FDP
superficial
in cubital fossa the radial nerve divides into __ and ____
superficial and deep (posterior interosseous n) branches
the ulnar nerve in hand divides into
superficial branch and deep branch
palmaris brevis is innervated by
superficial branch of ulnar nerve
during secretory phase what are the three layers of endometirum
superficial compact layer (endometrial epithellium), intermediate spongy layer (functional layer), thin basal layer
the lateral thoracic vein is joined to ___ by the ____ ; this venous anastomosis provides a route that allows blood to ____ in the presence of a blockage of ____
superficial epigastric vein by the thoraco-epigastric vein return to heart inferior vena cava
what completes the superficial palmar arch
superficial palmar branch of radial a
location of coracohumeral lig
superior aspect b/n root of coracoid proces to greater tubercle of humerus
what is a postfixed brachial plexus
superior most root is C6 and the inferior most root is T2
branches of the 1st part of axillary artery
superior thoracic artery
where is the clavipectoral triangle
superior to deltopectoral groove and inferior to clavicle
suprascapular nerve arises from
superior trunk of brachial plexus
3 trunks formed by the brachial plexus roots and what roots go to which
superior trunk- C5-6 middle trunk- C7 inferior trunk- C8-T1
how to fix subluxation of radial head
supinating forearm and flexing elbow will return radial head to normal position
supinator action
supination when elbow is extended
posterior interosseous nerve passes between the two layers of ____ to reach the ____compartment then is descends over ____ and then runs on the ___ then it ends in a ___
supinator posterior abductor pollicis longus interosseous membrane small nodule
cutaneous nerves of pectoral region
supraclavicular nerve, intercostal n,
what is the cutaneous innervation of the superior shoulder
supraclavicular nn
injury to median n at elbow is due to
supracondylar fractures
the anastomoses around scapula is formed by
suprascapular A, dorsal scapular A, and circumflex scapular A
what accompanies the suprascapular nerve and how do their paths differ
suprascapular artery artery goes above transverse scapular ligament while nerve goes under 'army goes over the bridge, navy goes under'
branches of the brachial plexus superior trunk and what spinal nerves
suprascapular nerve- C4, 5, 6 subclavius nerve- C5, 6
supraspinatous nerve
suprascapular- C4,5,6
infraspinatous nerve
suprascapular- C5, 6
suprascapular nerve innervates what muscles
supraspinatous and infraspinatous
what muscles stabilize the shoulder joint
supraspinatous, infraspinatous, teres minor, subscapularis
ectoderm divides into
surface ectoderm and neuroectoderm
three zones of BMP concentration and what layer they are
surface ectoderm layer- high BMP junctional interface layer- intermediate BMP neural plate layer- low BMP
ovulation is triggered by
surge of LH
how to treat dupuytren's contracture
surgical removal of palmar aponeurosis
spinal meninges function
surround, support, and protect spinal cord and nerve roots
the ____ is attached to the fascial floor of axilla from above
suspensory ligament
the clavipectoral fascia becomes the ___ of the __ which attaches to _____
suspensory ligament axilla dome of axillary fascia
after sperm enters oocyte, the sperm's nucleus ___ and become ____ (the sperm's tail ___ and ___)
swells male pronucleus detaches and degenerates
significance of amniotic fluid
symmetric external growth, barrier to infection, normal lung development, cushions fetus, control temp, enables fetus to move freely, assists in fluid and electrolyte homeostasis
intervertebral joint type: components:
symphyses annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus
until 20 wks the placenta consists of what 4 layers
syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, connective tissue of villus, endothelium of fetal capillaries
cytotrophoblastic cells in the villi will penetrate ___ until they reach ____ and this will form a ___ around the entire ___ and attaches the ___ to the ____
syncytiumtrophoblast maternal endometrium shell cytotrophoblast chorionic sac materal endometrium
how does syndrome and association differ
syndrome- one specific cause association- cause is not determined
uncovertebral joint type: location:
synovial between unci of C3-7
dislocation of elbow can result in
tearing of ulnar collateral ligament, fracture head of radius, coronoid process, or olercranon process of ulna, injury to ulnar nerve
radial bursa surrounds
tendon of FPL
intratendinous olecranon bursa is present in the
tendon of triceps brachii
the ulnar bursa surrounds
tendons of FDS and FDP
what is sclerotome
tendons, cartilage, bone
lateral epicondylitis (or ____ or ____) involves the ___ and the most common tendon involved is the ___
tennis elbow, lateral elbow syndrom extensor muscles extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon
palmaris longus action
tenses palmar aponeurosis, flexes hand
what is the study of birth defects called
teratology or dysmorphology
cutaneous innervation of dorsal hand
terminal branches of radial nerve and dorsal branch of ulnar nerve
at end of week 6
terminal limb buds flatten, first circular constiction separates distal bud from proximal limb, initial digit development
in males prader willi syndrome causes the body to not produce enough
testosterone
what is competance
the ability to repsond
ovarian gamete is
the actual gamete in the enclosing follicle structure
what is the pain caused by in rotator cuff syndrome
the head of humerus rubbing against the coraco-acromial ligament
what can happen in postfixed brachial plexus
the inferior trunk may be compressed by the 1st rib
what is attenuation
the reduction of energy
what is a laminectomy
the removal of one or more spinous process and adjacent laminae
The intercostobrachial nerve is a branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. the median nerve in the axilla. the second intercostal nerve (T2). the axillary nerve.
the second intercostal nerve (T2).
theca folliculi differentiates into
theca interna and theca externa
the superficial palmar branches passes through ___ and ends by joining the terminal part of ___ to complete the ___
thenar muscles ulnar a superficial palmar arch
the septum arising from radial border of palmar aponeurosis separates the
thenar space and midpalmar space
what happens as the female and male pronuclei grow
they replicate DNA
what is decidua
thick layer of modified mucous membrane that lines uterus during pregnancy
dupuytren's contracture is caused by
thickening and fibrosis of palmar aponeurosis
intraembryonic coelom will develop into
thoracic and abdominal cavities
spinalis insertion
thoracic and cervical spinous processes
longissimus insertion
thoracic and cervical transverse processes, mastoid process
what curves of the spine are kyphosis
thoracic and sacral
what curves of the spine are primary
thoracic and sacral
branches of the second part of axillary artery
thoracoacromial artery and lateral thoracic artery
latissimus dorsi innervation
thoracodorsal nerve
serratus posterior inferior origin
thoracolumbar fascia, spines of T11-L2
the dorsal digital veins drains into ____ which unite to form a ____- this lies ___ to the extensor tendons and drain on the radial side into the ___ and the ulnar side into ____
three dorsal metacarpal veins dorsal venous network superficial cephalic vein basilic vein
thumb movement of opposition is when
thumb crosses palm to touch the other digits
the suprascapular A is a branch of the
thyrocervical trunk
what holds the blastomere in a tight compact ball
tight junctions
what are heterochromatin
tightly coiled chromatin
coracobrachialis origin
tip of coracoid process
you can feel what in the clavipectoral triangle
tip of coracoid process
what is the allen test
to check patency of palmar arches and for occlusions of radial and ulnar artery
why is there a great deal of redundancy in signaling
to counteract mutations
linked genes are inherited ____
together
when long head tendon of bicep ruptures it is ______
torn from supraglenoid tubercle
X ray exhibits _____ imaging which is where the signal comes from ______
transmission outside of body
3 types of adjustable contrast mechanisms with imaging
transmission, transmission and reflectance, and emmision
the dorsal scapular A is a branch of
transverse cervical A which is a branch of thyrocervical trunk
Which characteristic is unique to cervical vertebrae? transverse foramen costal facets massive bodies mamillary processes
transverse foramen
what bridges the gap between humeral tubercles
transverse humeral lig
levatores costarum origin
transverse process
obliquus capitis inferior insertion
transverse process of C1
obliquus capitis superior origin
transverse process of C1
levator scapulae origin
transverse process of C1-4
intertransversii origin and insertion
transverse processes
two additional septa in the anterior compartment of arm and their locations
transverse septa- b/n brachialis and bicep brachii anteroposterior septum- b.n brachialis, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus
cruciform lig- 3 types, location
transverse- holds dens onto atlas superior and inferior- longitudinal bands between atlas and axis
deep intrinsic back muscle group
transversospinalis
distal row- lateral to medial- row of carpal bones
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
Which of the following muscles are considered part of the superficial extrinsic back muscles? Semispinalis iliocostalis serratus posterior superior trapezius
trapezius
what muscles elevate scapula
trapezius and levator scapulae
what muscles laterally rotates scapula
trapezius and serratus anterior
what are the 5 superficial extrinsic back muscles
trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboid major and minor, latissimus dorsi
the radial collateral ligament is a ____ band with its apex attached to ___ and base attached to ____
triangular lateral epicondyle annular ligament
the ulnar collateral ligament is a ___ ligament made of ____
triangular 3 bands
the distal surface of radius and the attached ____ articulate with the surfaces of ___, ___ and ___
triangular articular disc scaphoid, lunate, and triquetral bones
in the inferior radioulnar joint there is a ____ that is attached by its base to the ulnar___ of the radius and by its apex to a fossa at base of ____- the proximal surface of disc articulates with___
triangular disc notch ulnar styloid ulnar head
profunda brachii a leaves via ____ to run in the ___ of humerus; then is divides into ___ and ____
triangular interval spiral groove radial collateral and middle collatera
anoconeus is a small _______
triangular muscle on posterolateral aspect of elbow
the circumflex scapular artery passes through the _____ and gives branches to the ___ and ____
triangular space infraspinatous and subscapular fossae
palmar aponeurosis is a ___ of deep fascia, its apex blends with ____ and continous with tendon of _____, the base is ____ and is continuous with ____,
triangular thickening flexor retinaculum palmaris longus divided into 4 slips fibrous digital sheaths
the profunda brachii a supplies the
triceps
muscles of posterior compartment of arm
triceps brachii
what muscles extend the elbow
triceps brachii and anconeus
gastrulation establishment of _____
trilaminar disc
why is week 3 called week of 3s
trilaminar disk- 3 germ layers 3 cavities: amnion, yolk sac, extraembryonic coelom 3 new structures: primitive streak, notochord, neural tube
what is causative factor for the carrying angle at elbow
trochea medial part being more distal than the capitulum
what is the articular surface between olecranon and coronoid process and function
trochlear notch- grip humeral trochlea
what occurs at day 9
trophoblast deeply embedded, vacuole form in syncytium and fuse into large lacunae, exocoelomic membrane formed at abembryoinic pole, primitive yolk sac formed
week 2 is known as week of 2's due to
trophoblast divide into cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast, embryoblast divides into epiblast and hypoblast, extraembryonic mesoderm splits into somatic and splanchnic, 2 cavities form: amniotic and yolk sac
S1 was injured while L5 was likely spared because L5 exited superior to the level of the herniation - T or F
true
location of coraco-acromial lig
overlies humeral head
a 22 YOF had difficulty getting pregnant. labs show low levels of LH, her physician explains that LH is necessary for_____
ovulation
then tendon of FCR passes through it's
own compartment
umbilical vein carries
oxygen rich blood to fetus
supraspinatous canal borders
p- scapular spine and acromion a- coracoid process s- coraco-acromial ligament
how to tell calcific supraspinatous tendonitis and subacromial bursitis
pain during abduction but no pain during adduction
symptoms of nerve compression
pain or/and paresthesia
inflammation / calcification of subacromial bursa can cause
pain, tenderness, ROM, increased local pressure
the ligamentous support of MCPJ and IPJ are the
palmar and collateral ligaments
what muscles cause extension at IP
palmar and dorsal interossei
pulp spaces of palm are on the
palmar aspect of finger tips and thumbs
in distal forearm, above the flexor retinaculum the median n gives off the ___ branch which passes ___ to the flexor retinaculum to supply skin over _____
palmar cutaneous superficial thenar muscles
structures passing superficial to flexor retinaculum
palmar cutaneous branch of median n, palmaris longus tendon, palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar n, ulnar nerve and vessels
the superficial palmar arch gives off what from its convexity
palmar digital artery of pinky, three common palmar digital arteries
what muscles adducts digits
palmar interossei
the superficial ulnar branch supplies the ___ and then divides into ____ that supply the _____
palmaris brevis two digital nerves ulnar 1.5 fingers
2 cell signaling essential for crosstalk, induction and competance
paracrine and juxtacrine
transecting lesion of T1-9 results in
paraplegia with variable amount of trunk control
3 types of mesoderm at day 17
paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral plate mesoderm
ulnar canal syndrome symptoms and signs
paresthesia, hypoesthesia, anesthesia in median 1.5 of digits, clawing of 4th and 5th digits
symptoms and signs of carpal tunnel syndrome
paresthesia, hypoesthesia, anesthesia, weakness of thenar muscles, wasting of thenar eminence, unable to oppose thumb
sensory impairment gradient
paresthesia--> hypoesthesia --> anesthesia
lateral plate mesoderm 2 layers and space and what each form
parietal layer- bones, muscles, dermis intraembryonic coelom- thoracic and abdominal cavities visceral layer- gut tube wall
meromelia
partial absence of limb
cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by
partial deletion of C5p
effects of ulnar nerve injury
partial ulnar Claw hand deformity
how does the anterior interosseous vessel pass through interosseous membrane
pass posteriorly through opening of distal end
the median nerve leaves the cubital fossa by
passing between the two heads of pronator teres
the ulnar nerve leaves the cubital fossa by
passing deep to both heads of pronator teres
the clavipectoral fascia is pierced by what 4 structures and how each pierces it
passing inward: cephalic vein, lymphatics from infraclavicular node to apical axillary node passing outward: lateral pectoral nerve and thoracoacromial artery and its branches
SHH receptor name
patched- PTC
joint of shoulder includes joints of ___ and ____
pectoral girdle and glenohumeral
axillary lymph nodes are divided into 5 groups
pectoral, subscapular, humeral, central, apical
the pectoral fascia encloses
pectoralis major
anterior wall of axilla
pectoralis major and minor, clavipectoral fascia,
what muscles depress shoulder
pectoralis minor
what muscle crosses the axillary artery and what does this do
pectoralis minor divides it into 3 parts
superior thoracic artery descends between ____ and ____ ; ___ these
pectoralis minor and major supplying
in X ray, image is produced due to ____
photon attenuation
what are anastomosis
physical connection between vessels
what meninge is the thin, transparent innermost membrane
pia mater
flexor carpi ulnaris insertion
pisiform, hook of hamate, base of 5th metacarpal bone
if pregnancy occurs the corpus luteum persists until ____ takes over ____ in about ____
placenta hormone production 3 months
3 placental abnormalities
placenta accreta, percreta, and previa
what is the master morphogen
SHH
the transmembrane protein dispatched releases
SHH from plasma membrane
what are the rotator cuff muscles
SITS supraspinatous, infraspinatous, teres minor, subscapularis
adductor pollicis action
adduction of MCP joint of thumb, flexion
teres major action
adductor and medial rotators
what muscles adducts thumb
adductor pollicis
the radial artery passes between the two heads of ____ to form the ____
adductor pollicis deep palmar arch
pectoralis major action
adducts and medial rotates
venipunture is used for
administering fluids and IV drugs, obtaining blood for labs
at what level does the spinal cord end in adults and at birth
adults- L1/2 brith-L3
at what levels in adults and children are lumbar puncture
adults- L3/L4 children- L4 or below
PUBS when performed? can detect?
after 18 wks chromosomal abnormalities, blood disorders, some metabolic disorders, infections, IUGR
what is compaction
after 3rd cleavage where blastomeres maximize their contact with each other
when does the acrosome reaction occur
after binding to zona pellucida
zona pellucida appears when
after primordial follicle has started to grow
what is the syncytial knot and its function
aggregates of nuclei in syncytiotrophoblast reduce placental transfer
interspinales action
aid in extension and rotation
intertransversii action
aid in lateral felxion
levatores costarum action
aid respiration and lateral flexion
what is darkest to lightest in an x ray
air--> fat --> water --> bone--> contrast media--> metal
what is the leading cause of intellectual disability
alcohol
thalidomide causes
amelia, meromelia, phocomelia
____ separate from epiblast to from amnion which encloses the ____
amnioblasts amniotic cavity
amniotic fluid is secreted by
amnion cells
fetal membranes include
amnion, chorion, yolk sac, allantois
disruption abnormality example
amniotic band around limb restricting blood flow
where does fertilization take place
ampullary region
If two arterial systems are structurally joined, the point of joining is referred to as a/an: Collateral Anastomoses Distal joint Proximal joint
anastomoses
the radial artery of hand crosses the ___ and passes to the ___ of the hand where is runs ___ between the two heads of ____
anatomical snuffbox dorsum deeply first dorsal interosseous
denticulate ligaments function
anchor spinal cord to the center of the vertebral canal
what muscles stabilize the elbow
anconeus
what prevents the elbow joint capsule from being pinched during extension
anconeus
two NTD
anencephaly or spina bifida
congenital malformations associated with hyperthermia
anencephaly, spina bifida, NTD
FGF function
angiogenesis, axon growth, mesoderm differentiation
iliocostalis insertion
angle of lower ribs and cervical transverse processes
articular surfaces of distal humerus
capitulum and trochlea
the flexor retinaculum converts the convavity of palm into
carpal tunnel
describe symphsis joint
cartilaginous, connect pubic bones
describe synchrondosis joint
cartilaginous, growth plates
cri-du-chat syndrome symptoms
cat like cry, microencephaly, microagnathia, intellectual disabilites, congenital heart disease
congenital malformations associated with rubella virus
cataracts, glaucoma, heart defects, hearing loss, tooth abnormalities
nerve fibers that extend past end of conus medullaris
cauda equina
mesoderm are cells
derived from epiblast and extraembryonic cells
palmaris brevis is attached to the ___ and functions to____
dermis improve grip by steadying the ulnar side of palm
collagen fibers connect ___ and ___ in the skin
dermis to invested/deep fascia
disruption is caused by
destructive process
GDF regulate
development and differentiation of organ systems
why are ectopic pregnancies dangerous
development may proceed for several weeks or month before it ruptures the site and can result in severe hemorrhaging leading to maternal and fetal death
what is morphogenesis
development of body form
paracrine is the signaling by ___ called ____ or _____ (____)
diffusible protein paracrine factor growth and differentiation factor GDF
paracrine signaling involves ____ also called _____
diffusible proteins growth and differentiation factors (GDFs)
what emerges through the intervals between the palmar aponeurosis slips
digital vessels and nerves, tendon of lumbrical muscles
3 stages of birth
dilation of cervix, expulsion, placental stage
function of inducer tissues/ organs
direct another group of responder cells to change their fate by signalling and/or contact
juxtacrine factor signal by ___using ___ or ____
direct contact intracellular ligand cytoplasm based ligand
a pt falls on outstretched hand, usually the clavicle will fracture due to force, but what can occur- rare
dislocation of SC joint
the deep ulnar branch grooves the ___ border of ____ and arches deeply in the palm with the ____
distal hook of hamate deep palmar arch
web spaces of palm lies in __ part of hand between the proximal ___ of fingers
distal phalanges
pronator quadratus insertion
distal 1/4 of anterior surface of radius
pronator quadratus origin
distal 1/4 of anterior surface of ulna
dislocation of elbow is usually where
distal end of humerus is driven through anterior part of joint capsule and radius and ulna dislocate posteriorly
results of colles fracture
distal fragment is displaced dorsally, resulting in dinner fork deformity
flexor retinaculum has a proximal limit at the level of _____
distal, dominant skin crease of wrist
the common palmar digital arteries runs ___ to the webs between fingers and then they divide into ____
distally two proper palmar digital ateries
extensor digitorum insertion
divides into 4 tendons insert into dorsal aspect of bases of 2-5th phalanges
herpes zoster can remain ____ in the cells of the ____ until it is activated and then it affects that nerve's____
dormant spinal ganglia dermatome
spinal cord structures
dorsal horn, ventral horn, lateral horn, anterior median fissure, posterior median sulcus, posterolateral sulcus, central canal
what muscles abducts digits
dorsal interossei
erector spinae innervation
dorsal rami
transversospinalis innervation
dorsal rami
minor deep back muscle innervation.. exeption
dorsal rami intertransversii has some ventral rami
splenius capitis and cervicis innervation
dorsal rami of C2-6
rhomboid major and minor innervation
dorsal scapular N
What nerve provides innervation to rhomboid major muscle? dorsal scapular nerve accessory nerve posterior rami of spinal nerves thoracodorsal nerve
dorsal scapular nerve
branches of the brachial plexus roots and what spinal nerves
dorsal scapular nerve- C5 long thoracic nerve- C5, 6, 7
extensor pollicis longus insertion
dorsal surface of base of distal phalanx of thumb
extensor pollicis brevis insertion
dorsal surface of base of proximal phalanx of thumb
teres major origin
dorsal surface of the inferior scapular angle
congenital malformations associated with advanced paternal age
down syndrome, structural defects
low MSAFP are indicative of
down syndrome, trisomy 18, sex chromosomal abnormalities
what meninge is a tough outer covering
dura mater
superficial to deep- spinal meninges
dura mater arachnoid mater pia mater
lumbar puncture goes into the
dural sac
a myelogrom combines the use of
dyes with X ray or CT scans in spinal region
fluoroscopy is a ____ using ____ (for ____) and ____ ( for ____)
dynamic X ray barium sulfate-intestines iodine- blood vessels and urinary tract
3 Which one of the following cutaneous nerves of the arm is a branch of the axillary nerve? A. intercostobrachial nerve B. lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm C. medial cutaneous nerve of arm D. posterior cutaneous nerve arm E. upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm
e
steps of maturation of male gamete
- gamete - A spermatogonia -B spermatogonia - primary spermatocyte - secondary spermatocyte - spermatids - spermatozoa
locations of erythropoiesis -2-10 wks -6-30 wks -12-28 wks -28-birth
-2-10 wks- yolk sac -6-30 wks-liver -12-28 wks- spleen -28-birth- bone marrow
the inferior trunk of brachial plexus lies on the ____ and posterior to the ____
1st rib subclavian artery
subclavis origin
1st rib at costochondral junction
umbilical cord vessels
2 arteries and 1 vein
atlanto-axial joint is compromised of 3 joint: location and type
2 lateral- gliding synovial 1 median- pivot synovial
secretory/ progestational phase begins _____ after ____ in response to ___ produced by the ____
2-3 days ovulation progesterone corpus luteum
only _____% of pregnant women do not take medications
20
at end of week 4
20 somites, increasing head size, limb formation, development of face, ears, nose and eyes
rapid eye movement begins when
21 wks
substantial weight gain of fetus occurs when
21-25 wks
when do type 2 pneumocytes begin secreting surfactant
21-25 wks
blink and startle response at
22 and 23 wks
fingernails are present at
24 wks
ovarian cycle is approx. _____ and can be broken down into 3 categories
28 days follicular phase, luteal phase, and ovulation
implantation of blastocyst is completed during
2nd week
primordial germ cells are formed during
2nd week
at beginning of week ___: paraxial mesoderm begins organizing themselves as ____
3 somatomeres
pectoralis minor origin
3, 4, 5 rib and deep fascia that covers intercostal spaces
when can fetuses survive premature birth
32 wks and older
when is fetal foot length larger than femoral length
37 wks
on average a pregnant woman takes __ medications
4
flexor digitorum profundus insertion
4 tendons that pass between slips of flexor digitorum superficialis and inserts on the palmar surface of the base of distal phalanx
advanced paternal age is at what age
40
normally the primitive streak disapears by end of
4th week
when does cloacal membrane rupture
7th week
deltoid origin
A- lateral 1/3 of clavicle L- lateral border of the acromion P- lower lip of scapular spine
5. What regulatory protein pathway causes induction of the neural plate? A. FGF signaling pathway B. WNT protein C. retinoic acid protein D. BMP4 signaling pathway
A. FGF signaling pathway
14. The main organ system that differentiates from the endodermal layer is: A. GI system B. respiratory system C. cardiovascular system D. limb musculature
A. GI system
13. Which one of the following induces the differentiation of hemangioblasts from competent mesodermal cells? A. VEGF B. BMP C. SHH D. PROX1
A. VEGF
. Patterning of the anteroposterior axis is regulated by which one of the following? A. homeobox gene clusters B. BMP4 C. VEGF D. NOTCH signaling pathway
A. homeobox gene clusters- HOX gene
a 35 yom is admitted to ER after a severe car crash. doc concluded serratus anterior muscle is damaged. which of the following nerves innervates the serratus anterior muscle a. long thoracic b. axillary c. spinal acessory d. dorsal scapular e. thoracodorsal
A. long thoracic axillary innervates deltoid spinal accessory innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius dorsal scapular innervates rhomboid and levator scapulae thoracodorsal innervates rhomboid, levator scapulae, latissimus dorsi
16. Which one of the following denotes the primitive mouth? A. stomatodeum B. oropharyngeal membrane C. cloaca D. cloacal membrane
A. stomatodeum
what ligaments are torn during shoulder separation
AC and coracoclavicular lig
pt falls on shoulder or outstretched upper extremity with shoulder pain after would most likely have
AC dislocation
pt suffers severe blow to superolateral part of back- could have
AC dislocation
what joint is dislocated during shoulder separation
AC joint
Elbow: muscles that flex it: Three B's Bend the elBow:
Brachialis Biceps Brachioradialis
19. A CRL measurement of an embryo's age of 28-30 millimeters indicates an age of: A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
D. 8
21. During the second month, which one of the following is normally not apparent? A. increasing head size B. limb formation C. facial development D. fully developed fingers and toes
D. fully developed fingers and toes
15. Craniocaudal flexion and lateral body wall folding results in the closing of the ventral body wall and which one of the followiing: A. rupture of the cloacal membrane B. rupture of the oropharyngeal membrane C. repositioning of the primordial heart caudally D. neural tube lengthening
D. neural tube lengthening- craniocaudal flexion and the two lateral folds extending ventrally leads to closure of the ventral body and neural tube lengthening
17. Which one of the following develops into the anal canal below the pectinate line? A. cloaca B. stomatodeum C. allantois D. proctodeum
D. proctodeum
2. What structures to neural crest cells first delaminate from during their differentiation? A. the notochord B. the primitive pit C. endoderm D. the dorsal edges of the converging ectodermal neural folds
D. the dorsal edges of the converging ectodermal neural folds- NF edge cells dissociate into NC cells
____+_____= chromatin
DNA histone
TGF- beta function
ECM formation, epithelial branching, bone morphogenesis
flexion of distal IPJ
FDP
the lumbricals originates from
FDP tendons
flexion of proximal IPJ
FDS
_____ is the main cause of neural plate induction
FGF
the ovarian cycle starts when ___ promotes growth of _____ into ____
FSH several primordial follicles into primary follicles
___ and ___ stimulate and control cyclic changes in the ovaries
FSH and LH
what genes control anterior/posterior patterning in early development
HOX
deltoid action
L- powerful abductor after 15 degrees A- flexor and medial rotator, adduction P- extensor and lateral rotator, adduction
55 yom was lifting a heavy table when he felt a sudden pain in his lower back with immediate pain radiating down the lateral aspect of his R leg to his little 2, despite pain meds and rest, the pain became worse in is back and numbness in the lateral aspect of foot Which disc is likely involved l1/l2 L2/l3 L3/l4 L4/l5 L5/s1
L5/s1
Arthroscopic examination of the shoulder of a 62-year-old woman clearly demonstrated erosion of the tendon within the capsule of the glenohumeral joint. What tendon was this? Subscapularis tendon Long head of biceps brachii Short head of biceps brachii Long head of triceps brachii
Long head of biceps brachii
In postfixed brachial plexus which of the following structures may be compressed by the 1st rib? Upper trunk of the brachial plexus Lateral cord of brachial plexus Posterior cord of brachial plexus Lower trunk of brachial plexus
Lower trunk of brachial plexus
what imaging used for a pt needing an angiography but is allergic to contrast
MRI
which imaging used for soft tissue contast
MRI
posterior shoulder dislocation is associated with
MVC, seizures, and electric shock therapy
A 32-year-old woman was injured in an automobile accident. Flexion and supination in her right forearm were severely weakened. She also has impairment of sensation on the lateral side of her right forearm. What nerve is most likely to have been injured? Musculocutaneous nerve Lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm Radial nerve Median nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
what induces PAX1 production
NOGGIN and SHH
what concentrations define somite boundaries
NOTCH, RA, FGF8, and WNT3a
dorsal NT and WNT induce
PAX3 formation
lymphatic vessel formation due to
PROX1
what happens when SHH binds to PTC
PTC activity is eliminated, SMO becomes uninhibited, SMO upregulates the GLI family of TF that control expression of target genes
_____+_____= uncoil of heterochromatin
RNA polymerase promoter region
Which one of the following is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus? Radial nerve Musculocutaneous nerve Median nerve Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
spina bifida with meningocele
enlarged posterior subarachnoid space, no posterior vertebral formation, caudal neuropore fails to close
A forceps delivery was conducted on a baby girl due to shoulder stuck (dystocia). A health care provider applied the forceps to the baby's head to help pull and guide the baby out of the birth canal. After delivery, the baby presents with her right upper limb adducted and medially rotated. Which part of the brachial plexus was most likely injured during this difficult delivery? Root of the middle trunk Roots of the lower trunk Medial cord of brachial plexus Roots of the upper trunk
Roots of the upper trunk
the midcarpal joint is ___ shaped
S shaped
55 yom was lifting a heavy table when he felt a sudden pain in his lower back with immediate pain radiating down the lateral aspect of his R leg to his little 2, despite pain meds and rest, the pain became worse in is back and numbness in the lateral aspect of foot What nerve caused numbness in lateral aspect of foot L2 L3 L4 L5 S1
S1
which is more rare: dislocation of SC or AC joint
SC
circumduction of shoulder occurs around the
SC joint
what is the only articulation between axial skeleton and upper extremities
SC joint
what is determines left-right axis formation of the midline
SHH
Which of the following muscles helps form the medial wall of the axilla? Latissimus dorsi muscle Teres major muscle Serratus anterior muscle Pectoralis major muscle
Serratus anterior muscle
Anatomically, a "dermatome" is most directly related to which one of the following? Rectus sheath Surgical tool for removing skin Spinal segmental nerve Spinal cord
Spinal segmental nerve
What type of joints are intervertebral joints? Symphyses condyloid synovial gliding synovial gomphosis
Symphyses
which MRI weighting used for fatty tumor
T1
which vertebrae have full costal facets and demi facets on lateral transverse process
T1
muscles of hand have what myotome
T1, and some from C8
what is the level of the umbilicus dermatome
T10
what vertebra lack tubercles and have only one point of articulation with ribs
T11-12
what is the most commonly fractured vertebrae
T12
what dermatome is for region of manubrium
T2
innervation of serratus posterior superior
T2-5
what vertebra have 2 demi facets on posterior transverse process
T2-8
splenius cervicis origin
T3-6 spinous process
what is the level of the nipple dermatome
T4
what dermatome is for nipples
T4-5
what dermatome is for skin over xiphoid process
T6
serratus posterior inferior innervation
T9-12
Interossei muscles: actions of dorsal vs. palmar in hand "PAd and DAb":
The Palmar Adduct and the Dorsal Abduct. · Use your hand to dab with a pad.
which of the following is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus a. radial nerve b. musculocutaneous nerve c. median nerve d. ulnar nerve
a
which of the following is a branch of the third part of axillary artery a. subscapular artery b. thoracoacromial artery c. superior thoracic artery d. pectoral artery
a
Which of the following structures passes through the gap between the oblique cord and the upper border of the interosseous membrane? a. Posterior interosseous artery b. Ulnar artery c. Radial artery d. Anterior interosseous artery
a
a 24 YOF basketball player is admitted to ER after injury to her shoulder. images reveal shoulder dislocation. what is the most commonly injured nerve in shoulder dislocation a. axillary b. radial. c. median d. ulnar e. musclulocutaneous
a
the lateral border of the quadrangular space is the: a. surgical neck of humerus b. teres major muscle c. teres minor muscle d. tendon of the long head of triceps brachii muscle
a
what accomplishes the penetration of corona radiata and what helps in dispersal
acrosomal enzyme tubal mucosal enzymes
competance requires
activation of competance factor
what are the key regulatory proteins of vasculogenesis and angiogenesis
VEGF
what induces MYF5 secretion
WNT
Which of the following structures lies within the carpal tunnel? a. Tendon of the flexor pollicis longus muscle b. Ulnar nerve c. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve d. Superficial branch of the radial nerve
a
what imaging and contrast would be used to inspect the intestines
X ray fluoroscopy- barium salts and carbonation
35 yof has a breast nodule. which lymph node would be the first to receive lymph from the tumor in her breast a. anterior axillary node b. rotter's interpectoral node c. parasternal node d. central axillary node e. apical/ infraclavicular node
a
A 44-year-old woman is diagnosed with posterior interosseous nerve palsy. When muscle function is examined, what findings are most likely to be present? a. Inability to extend the digits at the metacarpophalangeal joints b. Inability to abduct the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint c. Inability to extend the elbow joint d. Inability to extend the wrist joint
a
An internervous plane is one between muscles supplied by different motor nerves. One such internervous plane associated with the scapula lies between the: a. infraspinatus muscle and teres minor muscles b. rhomboid major and minor c. supraspinatus and infraspinatus d. middle and posterior parts of the deltoid
a
Dinner fork deformity is seen in: a. fracture of the distal end of the radius b. fracture of the scaphoid c. dislocation of the lunate d. fracture of the head of the radius
a
Physical exam of a 20 YOM demonstrated abnormalities of his limbs. Hx revealed that his mother had taken a drug during her pregnancy. What is the most likely name of the drug a. Thalidomide b. Phenytoin c. Topomax d. Lithium e. opiods
a
Which of the following actions do the suboccipital muscles aid in when they contract? a. Extend the head at the atlanto-axial joint. b. Flex the vertebral column at the zygapophysial joints between C2 and C3. c. Rotate the vertebral column at the zygapophysial joints between C2 and C3. d. Extend the vertebral column.
a
Which of the following is the leading cause of intellectual disability? a. alcohol b. cocaine c. cigarettes d. LSD
a
Which of the following muscles acting on the 1st digit (thumb) receives motor innervation from the recurrent branch of the median nerve? a. Opponens pollicis b. Adductor pollicis c. Abductor pollicis longus d. Extensor pollicis longus
a
Which of the following structures lies in the floor of the anatomic snuffbox? a. Radial artery b. Ulnar artery c. Cutaneous branches of radial nerve d. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve
a
a 35 yom is admitted to ER after a severe car crash. doc observes a winged scapula, which nerve is most likely injured a. long thoracic b. axillary c. spinal accessory d. dorsal e. thoracodorsal
a axillary innervates deltoid spinal accessory innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius dorsal scapular innervates rhomboid and levator scapulae thoracodorsal innervates rhomboid, levator scapulae, latissimus dorsi
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the first 2 cervical vertebrae? a. C1 contains the dens. b. The axis contains transverse foramina. c. The atlas contains no body. d. C2 contains a bifed spinous process.
a C2 contains dens
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about dermatomes? a. C1 dermatome is found on the posterior side of the head. b. C5 dermatome if found at the level of the clavicles. c. T10 dermatome is found at the level of the umbilicus. d. T12 dermatome is found at the inguinal or groin regions.
a C2 dermatomes is found on the posterior side of head
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the thoracic vertebrae? a. T10 is the most commonly fractured vertebra. b. There are typically 12 thoracic vertebrae in the vertebral column. c. The thoracic vertebrae increase in size as you move inferiorly. d. All thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.
a T12 is the most commonly fractured vertebra due to transitional stresses
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the umbilical cord? a. A velamentous insertion of the placenta is when the umbilical cord attaches near the margin of the placenta. b. The developing intestines are temporarily pushed into the umbilical cord causing a physiological umbilical hernia which is resolved by the intestines moving back into the abdominal cavity at approximately the end of the third month. c. When the allantois and vitelline duct and its vessels are obliterated, then all that remains in the umbilical cord are the umbilical vessels surrounded by Wharton jelly. d. Wharton jelly is a mucoid connective tissue that functions as a protective layer for the blood vessels.
a a battledore placenta is when the umbilical cord attaches near the margin of the placenta
10 Regarding the cubital fossa one statement is wrong A. brachialis and anconeus form the floor B. medial border of the brachioradialis forms the lateral boundary C. pronator teres forms the medial boundary D. the union of lateral and medial boundaries forms apex E. this is a triangular fossa situated in front of the elbow
a brachialis and supinator form the floor
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the surface anatomy of the back? a. Curvatures of the vertebral column are readily visible when the back is viewed from behind. b. The spine, medial border, and inferior angle of the scapula are often visible and easily palpable. c. The spinous process of C7 is usually visible as a prominent eminence in the midline at the base of the neck. d. The erector spinae muscles are visible as two longitudinal columns separated by a furrow in the midline.
a curvatures of the vertebral column are readily visible when the back is viewed from the side
1. which of the following statements is incorrect about the completion of implantation? a. trophoblast differentiates into the hypoblast and epiblast layers b. amnioblasts separate from the epiblast layer and form the amnion, which encloses the amniotic cavity c. syncytiotrophoblast is an outer mutlinucleated zone without distinct cell bodies d. the hypoblast layer is a layer of small cuboidal cells adjacent to the blastocyst cavity
a embryoblast differentiates into the hypoblast and epiblast layers
2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the process of fertilization? a. In a normal pregnancy, fertilization occurs in the isthmus of the uterine tube. b. Sperm must undergo capacitation and the acrosome reaction prior to fertilization. c. Release of acrosomal enzymes allows sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida. d. Metabolic activation of the egg is one way the egg responds to the sperm's entrance
a fertilization occurs in ampullary region of uterine tube
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about herpes zoster? a. Herpes zoster is the virus that produces measles. b. In some patients the virus can remain dormant in the cells of the spinal ganglia. c. Under certain circumstances, the virus becomes activated and travels along the neuronal bundles to the areas supplied by that nerve (the dermatome). d. A rash appears along the area of skin supplied by the affected dermatome.
a herpes zoster is the virus that produces chicken pox
8 Regarding the musculocutaneous nerve one statement is wrong A. it continues as the medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm B. it is derived from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus C. it lies between the brachialis and biceps brachii muscles D. it pierces the coracobrachialis muscle E. it supplies the coracobrachialis muscle
a it continues as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about back muscle innervation? a. Levator scapulae and rhomboid major are innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve. b. Serratus posterior superior muscle is innervated by the 2nd-5th intercostal nerves. c. Splenius cervicis and splenius capitis are innervated by posterior rami of spinal nerves. d. Semispinalis and multifidus are innervated by posterior rami of spinal nerves.
a levator scapulae and rhomboid major muscles are innervated by scapular nerve
27 yom admitted to ER after car crash, he suffered a fracture of the lateral border of scapula. 6 weeks later, physical exam revealed weakness is medial rotation and adduction of humerus. which nerve was most likely injured a. lower subscapular b. axillary c. radial d. spinal accessory e. ulnar
a lower subscapular nerve innervates subscapularis, teres minor which both adduct and medial rotate
8. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about assisted reproductive technologies? a. Multiple births are less likely to occur when a couple conceives using assisted reproductive technologies. b. Female infertility can have many causes including occluded uterine tubes and hostile cervical mucus. c. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection refers to a single sperm being directly injected into an egg's cytoplasm. d. Adverse outcomes of assisted reproductive technologies may include an increased risk of birth defects and adverse perinatal outcomes such as preterm birth or low birth weight.
a multiple births are more likely to occur when a couple conceives using assisted reproductive technologies
neural crest cells leave neurectoderm via
active migration and displacement of contiguous cell populations in underlying mesoderm
nerve transection results in
acute loss of function
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about teratogenic physical and hormonal agents? a. Hyperthermia has not been shown to cause any teratogenic effects. b. Ionizing radiation kills rapidly proliferating cells, so it is a potent teratogen, producing virtually any type of birth defect depending upon the dose and stage of development of the conceptus at the time of exposure. c. Synthetic progestins were frequently used during pregnancy to prevent abortion but have been linked to the masculinization of the genitalia in female embryos. d. The synthetic estrogen diethylstilbestrol (DES) raised the incidence of carcinomas of the vagina and cervix of women exposed to the drug in utero.
a. Hyperthermia is teratogenic.
2. Which of the following terms is defined INCORRECTLY? a. Associations refer to a group of anomalies occurring together that have a specific common cause. b. Malformations occur during the formation of structures usually during weeks three through eight of gestation. c. Disruptions result in morphological alterations of already formed structures. d. Deformations result from mechanical forces that mold a part of the fetus over a prolonged period.
a. Syndrome refers to a group of anomalies occurring together that have a specific common cause.
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the completion of implantation? a. Trophoblast differentiates into the hypoblast and the epiblast layers. b. Amnioblasts separate from the epiblast layer and form the amnion, which encloses the amniotic cavity. c. Syncytiotrophoblast is an outer multinucleated zone without distinct cell boundaries. d. The hypoblast layer is a layer of small cuboidal cells adjacent to the blastocyst cavity.
a. The embryoblast differentiates into the hypoblast and the epiblast layers.
4. Regarding the supinator muscle one statement is wrong A. it is inserted into the supinator crest of the ulna B. it is a supinator of the forearm C. posterior interosseous nerve runs between the superficial and deep layers D. the posterior interosseous nerve supplies it
a. it is inserted into the upper one third of the lateral surface of the radius
8. Regarding the deep palmar arch one statement is wrong A. it gives radialis indicis artery B. it gives three metacarpal arteries C. it is an anastomoses between the radial and ulnar arteries D. it is situated deep to the tendon flexor tendons E. the radial artery mainly forms it
a. radialis indicis is a branch of radial artery
2. Following structures lie superficial to the flexor retinaculum except A. anterior carpal branch of ulnar artery B. palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve C. tendon of palmaris longus D. ulnar artery E. ulnar nerve
a. the anterior carpal branch of ulnar artery does not lie superficial to the flexor retinaculum
abductor pollicis action
abduction
mechanism of antero-inferior dislocation of shoulder
abduction at 90 degrees accompanied by excessive extension and lateral rotation driving the humeral head anteriorly
what muscles abducts pinky
abductor digiti minimi
structures in the extensor retinaculum
abductor pollicic longus, extensor pollicis brevis, radial extensors- longus and brevis, extensor pollicus longus, exensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi ulnaris
thenar muscles
abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis
what muscles abducts thumb
abductor pollicis longus and brevis
abductor pollicis longus action
abducts thumb
placenta accreta
abnormal adherence of chorionic villi to myometrium
what is micropthalmia
abnormally small eyes
where is teh lateral supracondylar ridge
above lateral epicondyle
anencephaly is
absence of brain
what is anopthalmia
absence of one or both eyes
what is a laminectomy is for
access to the vertebral contents, relieve pressure on spinal cord or nerve root caused by a tumor, herneated disk, or bony hypertrophy
abduction 0-90 degrees at shoulder joint is by
acromial fibers of deltoid and supraspinatous
which vertebrae has a groove for vertebral artery
atlas
which vertebrae has facet for dens
atlas
which vertebrae has no body or spinous process, lateral masses for weight bearing
atlas
cytotrophoblast shell function
attaches fetal and maternal placental parts
fracture of scaphoid bone can lead to ___ of proximal fregement
avascular necrosis
inferior shoulder dislocation occurs after
avulsion of greater tubercle of
somites are precursors of
axial skeleton and skeletal muscle
teres minor nerve
axillary
anterior dislocation of humerus may compress
axillary arteries, cords and branches of brachial plexus
contents of axilla
axillary artery and branches, axillary vein and tributes, infraclavicular part of brachial plexus, axillary lymph nodes, intercostobrachial nerve, axillary fat
what passes through the apex/ inlet/ cervicoaxillary canal
axillary artery, axillary vein, lymphatics, nerves
the base of axilla is called the ____ and is ___ downwards
axillary fossa concave
the superior lateral cutaneous n of arm is a branch of what
axillary n
what is the cutaneous innervation of the dorsal deltoid
axillary n
the posterior circumflex humeral artery accompanies the _____ and exits the axilla through the ___
axillary nerve quadrangular space
what does the quadrangular space contain
axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery
deltoid nerve
axillary nerve- C5,6
the axillary artery and cords of brachial plexus are enclosed in ____ which is projected ___ from the ___ of the neck
axillary sheath downward prevertebral fascia
which vertebrae has dens
axis
malformation occur during
axis determination
55 yom was lifting a heavy table when he felt a sudden pain in his lower back with immediate pain radiating down the lateral aspect of his R leg to his little 2, despite pain meds and rest, the pain became worse in is back and numbness in the lateral aspect of foot What is the most likely cause of his pain A back sprain B herniated disc C spondylolysis D spondylolisthesis
b
A 18 yo male is admitted to the er after jumping from a 50 ft cliff into a lake. The MRI of his back reveals a lateral shift of the spinal cord to the left. Which of the following structures has most likely been torn to cause the deviation A conus medullaris B denticulate lig C. Ligamentum flava D Post. Longitudinal lig E Nuchal lig
b
A 24-year-old female basketball player is admitted to the emergency department after an injury to her shoulder. During history taking and the physical examination, it becomes apparent that she dislocated her glenohumeral joint with the dislocation occurring at the inferior portion of the joint. What nerve is likely to have been injured in such a dislocation? a. ulnar b. axillary c. radial d. suprascapular
b
A 45-year-old male injured his left elbow after falling from his bicycle. Imaging studies show that he has a fracture of the medial epicondyle. Which of the following muscles is most likely to have been affected because of a nerve injury? a. Biceps brachii muscle b. Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle c. Flexor digitorum superficialis muscle d. Brachioradialis muscle
b
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common clinical condition caused by a pinched a. Tendon of the flexor pollicis longus b. Median nerve c. Ulnar nerve d. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
b
Degeneration and wearing away of the supraspinatus tendon is common in middle-aged individuals. Such attrition of the supraspinatus tendon can lead to an open communication between the subacromial bursa and the: a. subscapular bursa b. glenohumoral joint cavity c. infraspinatus fossa d. suprascapular notch
b
During the preoperative planning period for a patient who requires total shoulder replacement (arthroplasty), the orthopedic surgeon decides to perform a procedure called the deltopectoral approach to the shoulder joint. The advantage of the deltopectoral plane used in this approach is that a. the axillary nerve could be easily identified and isolated b. there is no motor nerve crossing this plane c. the shoulder joint is very superficial at this plane d. there is no muscles or tendons deeper to this plane
b
Which period during gestation is the most sensitive time for birth defects to be induced? a. 6th-9th month b. 3rd-8th week c. 3rd-5th month d. 1st-2nd week
b
a 35 yom is admitted to ER after a severe car crash. doc observes a winged scapula, which of the following muscles are most likely injured a. levator scapulae b. serratus anterior c. trapezius d. rhomboids e. serratus posterior
b a- elevates s c- elevate and rotate d- elevate and retract
what is the lumbar cistern
enlarged subarachnoid space caudal to conus medullaris
55 yom examined after blunt trauma to R axilla in a fall. he has difficulty elevating R arm above shoulder. pts R inferior angle of scapula protrudes more than the L. R scapula protrudes more when the patient pushes. which neural structures was injured a. posterior cord of brachial plexus b. long thoracic nerve c. upper trunk of brachial plexus d. site of origin of middle and lower subscapular nerves e. spinal nerve ventral rami C7, 8 and T1
b deformity described is winged scapula- serratus anterior is not holding the scapula to the thorax
6. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about implantation? a. Blastocyst implants in the endometrium along the anterior or posterior wall of the body of the uterus. b. At the time of implantation, the mucosa of the uterus is in the follicular phase. c. The most common site of ectopic pregnancies is the uterine tube. d. Ectopic pregnancies are due to the invasive nature of the trophoblast and abnormal transport or recognition of the blastocyst.
b at the time of implantation, the mucosa of the uterus is in the secretory phase
10. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the vasculature of the vertebral column? a. After entering an intervertebral foramen, segmental spinal arteries give rise to anterior and posterior radicular arteries. b. Basivertebral veins drain mostly to the external venous plexuses. c. Radicular arteries are terminal branches that supply the nervous tissue. d. Segmental spinal arteries predominantly arise from the vertebral and deep cervical arteries in the neck, posterior intercostal arteries in the thorax, and lumbar arteries in the abdomen.
b basivertebral veins drain mostly to the internal venous plexus
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the trapezius muscle? a. The action of the trapezius muscle varies depending on which portion(s) of the muscle is activated. b. Contraction of the superior fibers of the trapezius muscle depresses the scapula. c. Superior and inferior fibers work together to rotate the lateral aspect of the scapula upward, i.e. rotate the glenoid cavity superiorly. d. Motor innervation is by the accessory nerve while sensory is from C3, C4 spinal nerves.
b contractions of the superior fibers of the trapezius muscle elevates the scapula
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the structure of the placenta? a. The placenta is developed from the chorion frondosum from the fetus and the decidua basalis from the mother. b. Decidual septa are formed during the fourth and fifth months that project into intervillous spaces and reach the chorionic plate thereby allowing maternal blood to directly contact fetal tissue. c. The decidual septa divide the placenta into a number of compartments called cotyledons. d. Surface area of the placenta increases in parallel to the expanding uterus but this results from arborization of existing villi and is not caused by further penetration into maternal tissues.
b decidual septa are formed during the fourth and fifth months that project into intervilous spaces but do not reach the chorionic plate
a baby presented with a waiter's tip arm. the baby had presented in the breech position and had to have considerable traction to complete delivery. which structure was most likely injured a. radial nerve b. upper trunk of brachial plexus c. lower trunk of brachial plexus d. median, ulnar and radial nerve e. b and c
b erb duchenne palsy
Regarding the sternoclavicular joint one statement is wrong A. costoclavicular ligament is one of its ligaments B. in protraction of the scapula, clavicle moves forwards at the sternoclavicular joint C. it has an intraarticular disc D. it is a synovial joint
b in protraction of the scapula, the clavicle moves backwards at SC joint
a 34 yof struck a tree while skiing. images give evidence of shoulder separation. which typically occurs a. displacement of head of H from glenoid cavity b. partial/complete tearing of coracoclavicular ligament c. partial/ complete tearing of coracoacromial ligament d. rupture of transverse scapular ligament e. disruption of glenoid labrum
b in shoulder separation, either or both acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments are torn letting the clavicle deviate upwards. shoulder separation is not dislocation so it is not A
3. Regarding the superior radioulnar joint one statement is wrong A. circumference of head of radius is surrounded by the annular ligament B. it has an articular disc C. it is a pivot type of synovial joint D. quadrate ligament closes the joint cavity from below E. supination and pronation take place in this joint
b it has no articular disc
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the sacrum? a. The sacrum is typically formed by 5 fused vertebrae. b. It is triangular in shape with the apex pointed superiorly and it is curved so that it has a convex anterior surface. c. The sacrum has 2 large auricular surfaces that are articulation sites for the pelvic bones. d. The sacrum has four sacral foramina for the passage of the anterior and posterior rami of S1 to S4 spinal nerves.
b it is triangular in shape with the apex pointed inferiorly and it is curved so that anterior surface is concave
8. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the further development of the trophoblast during weeks 2 and 3 of development? a. An outer cytotrophoblast shell is formed by cytotrophoblastic cells in the villi penetrating overlying syncytium until they reach the maternal endometrium. b. Endodermal cells penetrate the core of the primary villi and grow toward the decidua forming secondary villi. c. Stem or anchoring villi are villi that extend from chorionic plate to the decidua basalis. d. Free or terminal villi are those that branch from the sides of stem villi through which exchange of nutrients and other factors will occur.
b mesodermal cells penetrate the core of the primary villi and grow toward the decidua forming the secondary villi
11 Following are the contents of the cubital fossa except A. commencement of radial and ulnar arteries B. musculocutaneous nerve C. tendon of biceps D. termination of brachial artery E. the median nerve
b musclulocutaneous does not lie in the cubital fossa
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the ovarian cycle? a. Control of the ovarian cycle is ultimately by the hypothalamus. b. Ovarian cycle starts when luteinizing hormone (LH) promotes growth of several primary follicles. c. The cumulus oophorus is a group of closely associated granulosa cells that surround the oocyte. d. The corpus luteum is prevented from degenerating by human chorionic gonadotropin if pregnancy occurs.
b ovarian cycle starts when FSH promotes growth of several primary follicles
These two bony structures articulate to make up the shoulder joint a. spine of scapula b. head of humerus c. trochlea of humerus d. coracoid process e. capitulum of humerus d. glenoid cavity
b and d
6. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the amniotic fluid? a. Beginning in the 11th week, the fetus contributes to amniotic fluid by excreting urine into the amniotic cavity. b. Oligohydramnios refers to high volumes of amniotic fluid and is commonly associated with maternal diabetes. c. Amniotic fluid serves as a protective cushion for the developing fetus. d. The amniotic fluid prevents adherence of the amnion to embryo and fetus and enables the fetus to move freely.
b polyhydramnios refers to high volume of amniotic fluid and is associated with maternal diabetes
Regarding the applied anatomy of the shoulder joint one statement is wrong A. anteroinferior dislocation is the most common type. B. posterior dislocation is a common sport injury. C. pure inferior dislocation may complicate avulsion fracture of the greater tubercle D. the dislocation is commonly due to sudden movement that includes abduction, extension, and lateral rotation
b posterior location is rare
Following are the ligaments of the shoulder joint except A. capsule of the shoulder joint B. coracoclavicular ligament C. coracohumeral ligament D. glenohumeral ligaments E. transverse humeral ligament
b the coracoclavicular ligament is not a ligament of the shoulder joint
2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about what occurs at approximately days 11 and 12 of development? a. Endometrial cells undergo the decidua reaction which functions to provide nutrition for the early embryo and an immunologically privileged site for the developing embryo and associated structures. b. The extraembryonic mesoderm is formed by a new population of cells that appeared between the inner surface of the syncytiotrophoblast and outer surface of the exocoelomic cavity. c. During this time frame, the blastocyst is now completely embedded and produces a slight protrusion into the lumen of the uterus. d. During this time frame, the uteroplacental circulation is established.
b the extraembryonic mesoderm is formed by a new population of cells that appear between the inner surface of cytotrophoblast and outer surface of exocoelomic cavity
2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the cervical vertebrae? a. The first cervical vertebra does not have a body or spinous process. b. The second cervical vertebra contains a groove for the vertebral artery. c. One unique characteristic of cervical vertebrae is a bifed spinous process. d. The seventh cervical vertebra is also known as vertebra prominens since it possesses the most prominent spinous process in 70% of people.
b the first cervical vertebra contains a groove for the vertebral artery
after an orthopedic surgeon examine the MRI of the shoulder of a 42 YOF he informed her that the supraspinatous tendon was injured. which is true of supraspinatus a. inserts into lesser tubercle of humerus b. initiates adduction of shoulder c. innervated by C5 spinal nerve d. supplied by the upper subscapular nerve e. originates from lateral border of scapula
b the supraspinatous inserts into the greater tubercle of humerus
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the boundaries and contents of the suboccipital triangle? a. The medial border of the triangle is formed by the rectus capitis posterior major muscle. b. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries are located in the suboccipital triangle. c. The lateral border of the triangle is formed by obliquus capitis superior. d. The inferior border of the triangle is formed by the obliquus capitis inferior.
b the vertebral artery and the suboccipital nerve are located in the suboccipital triangle
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord? a. The gray matter of the spinal cord consists of the anterior and posterior horns which are rich in nerve cell bodies. b. The white matter that surrounds the gray matter is also rich in nerve cell bodies. c. The anterior median fissure extends the length of the anterior surface. d. The posterolateral sulcus on each side of the posterior surface marks where the posterior rootlets of spinal nerves enter the cord.
b the white matter that surrounds the gray matter is rich in cell nerve processes
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about spinal nerves? a. C2-C7 spinal nerves emerge superior to the pedicles of their respective vertebrae. b. There are 7 cervical spinal nerves and 12 thoracic spinal nerves. c. There are 5 lumbar and 5 sacral spinal nerves. d. T1-C0 spinal nerves emerge inferior to the pedicles of their respective vertebrae.
b there are 8 cervical spinal nerves and 12 thoracic
1 Following muscles of the forearm are supplied by the median nerve except A. flexor capi radialis B. flexor carpi ulnaris C. flexor digitorum superficialis D. palmaris longus E. pronator teres
b Flexor carpi ulnaris is supplied by the ulnar nerve.
9 Regarding the anterior interosseous artery one statement is wrong A. it gives nutrient branches to radius and ulna B. it is a branch of ulnar artery C. it is accompanied by the anterior interosseous nerve D. it lies between the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus
b It is a branch of common interosseous artery which arises from the ulnar artery.
3 Regarding the flexor carpi radialis muscle one statement is wrong A. it arises from the medial epicondyle of the humerus B. it is inserted into the base of the first metacarpal bone C. it is one of the abductors of the wrist D. it runs in a separate tunnel deep to the flexor retinaculum E. the median nerve supplies it
b It is inserted into the bases of the second metacarpal bones.
5 Regarding the flexor digitorum superficialis one statement is wrong A. each of its terminal four tendons split opposite proximal phalanx and inserted into the corresponding side of the middle phalanx B. it flexes the distal interphalangeal joints of the medial four fingers C. it forms the middle stratum between the superficial and deep muscles of the front of the forearm D. its radial head arises from the anterior oblique line of the radius E. median nerve and ulnar artery pass deep to the arch between its humeroulnar and radial heads
b It is the main flexor of the proximal interphalangeal joints and further it may flex metacarpophalangeal and wrist joints.
8 Regarding the ulnar artery one statement is wrong A. deep head of the pronator teres separtes this from the median nerve B. it lies deep to the flexor retinaculum C. it runs obliquely and medially from its origin from the brachial artery D. the lower half of the artery is superficial on the medial side of the forearm E. ulnar nerve lies medial to it in the lower part of the forearm
b It lies superficial to the flexor retinaculum.
most common tumors of infancy
capillary hemangiomas
2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the suboccipital muscles? a. The suboccipital muscles are all innervated by the suboccipital nerve (posterior rami of C1). b. Contraction of the suboccipital muscles extends the head at the atlanto-axial joint. c. The obliquus capitis inferior muscle originates on the spinous process of the axis and inserts on the occipital bone. d. The rectus capitis posterior minor originates on the posterior tubercle of the atlas and inserts on the occipital bone medial to rectus capitis posterior major.
c obliquus capitis inferior muscle originates on the spinous process of the axis and inserts on the transverse process of the atlas
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the establishment of the trilaminar disc? a. Cells that displace the hypoblast form endoderm. b. The 3 primary germ layers formed to establish the trilaminar disc will give rise to all of the tissues and organs in the embryo. c. Only cells from the hypoblast contribute to the embryo's development since all the cells of the epiblast are eventually replaced. d. As more and more cells move between the epiblast and hypoblast layers, they begin to spread laterally and cranially, gradually migrating beyond the margin of the disc and establishing contact with the extraembryonic mesoderm covering the yolk sac and the amnion.
c only cells from the epiblast contribute to the embryo's development since all the cells of the hypoblast are eventually replaced
5 regarding the serratus anterior muscle one statement is wrong A. it arises by eight digitations from the upper eight ribs B. it is inserted into the costal surface of the medial border of the scapula C. paralysis of serratus anterior results in drooping of the shoulder D. The lower digitations are inserted into a triangular area over the inferior angle of the scapula E. the nerve to serratus anterior arises from the roots of C5, 6 and 7 of the brachial plexus
c paralysis of serratus anterior results in winging of scapula
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about placental circulation? a. Maternal blood enter intervillous space through spiral endometrial arteries in the decidua basalis. b. Normally there is no mixing of maternal and fetal blood however small numbers of fetal blood cells occasionally escape across microscopic defects in the placental membrane. c. Poorly oxygenated blood leaves the fetus through the umbilical veins to the placenta. d. Umbilical arteries divide into chorionic arteries in the chorionic plate and then enter the chorionic villi.
c poorly oxygenated blood leaves the fetus through the umbilical arteries to the placenta
8. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the blood supply and venous drainage of the spinal cord? a. The anterior spinal artery gives rise to sulcal arteries. b. The internal vertebral venous plexus is valve-less veins located in the epidural space. c. Segmental medullary arteries arise from segmental spinal arteries at every vertebral level. d. The internal vertebral venous plexus drains to segmental veins in the thorax and abdomen and also communicate with intracranial veins.
c segmental medullary arteries arise from segmental spinal arteries at various vertebral levels
a 45 YOF admitted due to neck pain. CT reveals tumor on the left side of oral cavity. after surgery the patients left shoulder droops noticeably. physical exam showed weakness in turning head to the right and impairment of abduction of her left limb to the level of the shoulder. which structure was injured during surgery a. suprascapular nerve b. long thoracic nerve c. spinal accessory nerve d. junction of spinal nerves C 5 and 6 of brachial plexus e. radial nerve
c spinal accessory nerve innervates trapezius with lifts the shoulder
8. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about parturition? a. The first stage of labor is characterized by a progressive dilation and effacement of the cervix. b. The final stage of labor, the placental stage, begins as soon as the baby is born and ends with the expulsion of the placenta and fetal membranes. c. The expulsion stage of labor is accomplished primarily by uterine contractions with only a minor contribution made by intra-abdominal pressure. d. Labor is the sequence of involuntary uterine contractions that result in the dilation of the uterine cervix and expulsion of fetus and placenta from uterus.
c the expulsion stage of labor is assisted by uterine contractions, but the most important for is provided by intra-abdominal pressure from contraction of abdominal muscles
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about cleavage? a. Compacted embryo cells are able to communicate extensively via gap junctions. b. Morula is the term used to describe a 16-cell embryo. c. The inner cell mass eventually gives rise to the tissues of the placenta while the outer cell mass eventually gives rise to tissues of the embryo proper. d. Blastomeres is the term used to describe the cells that result from cleavage.
c the inner cell mass gives rise to tissue of embryo proper and outer mass gives rise to placent
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about blastocyst formation? a. Around the time the morula enters the uterus, a fluid-filled space appears known as the blastocele. b. Once the blastocele appears, the embryo is now known as the blastocyst. c. The inner mass cells of the blastocyst are now known as the trophoblast. d. During blastocyst formation, the zona pellucida disappears allowing implantation to begin
c the inner cell mass of blastocyst are now known as the embryoblast
a 55 YOM firefighter has blunt trauma to right axilla. exam reveals winged scapula and partial paralysis of R side of diaphragm. which of the following parts of brachial plexus is affected a. cords b. divisions c. ventral rami d. terminal branches e. trunks
c the long thoracic nerve rises from ventral rami of C5,6,7
2 Regarding the pectoralis minor one statement is wrong A. it arises from 3rd,4th and 5th ribs B. it elevates the ribs in forced inspiration C. it helps in flexion of the shoulder joint D. it is inserted into the coracaoid process E. the medial pectoral nerve supplies it
c the pectoralis major does not cross shoulder joint axis thus it has no effect
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the development of the chorionic sac? a. The extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and the 2 layers of trophoblast form the chorion. b. Suspended by the connecting stalk in the chorionic sac are the embryo, amniotic sac, and secondary yolk sac. c. Primary chorionic villi are formed by cells of the syncytiotrophoblast proliferating locally and penetrating into the cytotrophoblast. d. The appearance of primary chorionic villi is the first stage in development of the chorionic villi of the placenta.
c the primary chorionic villi are formed by cells of cytotrophoblast proliferating locally and penetrating into the syncytiotrophoblast
a 22 YOF suffered a severe knife wound to the upper lateral portion of pectoral region with entry at deltopectoral groove. pressure prevented profuse bleeding. in ER vascular clamps where applied to the axillary artery proximal and distal to site of injury, which occured between second and third parts of axillary artery. there was time to repair the wound due to rich collateral pathway which is between which of the following a. transverse cervical and suprascapular b. posterior circumflex humeral and profunda brachii c. suprascapular and circumflex scapular d. superior thoracic and thoracoacromial e. lateral thoracic and suprascapular
c the suprascapular is a branch off of the subclavian artery, the blood would flow from circumflex scapular artery, which originates from subscapular artery of the third branch of the axillary artery, in a retrograde direction to the axillary artery for the supply distal to injury
8. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the ligaments of the vertebral column? a. The ligament flava pass between the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. b. The ligamentum nuchae supports the head and resists flexion and facilitates returning the head to the anatomical position. c. The posterior longitudinal ligament connects and passes along the tips of the vertebral spinous processes from vertebra C7 to the sacrum. d. The anterior longitudinal ligament is attached to the anterior side of the vertebral bodies and intervertebral discs.
c the supraspinous ligament connects and passes along the tips of vertebral spinous processes from C7 to sacrum
27 yom fell off a ladder. exam shows pt unable to abduct his arm more than 15 degrees and cannot rotate laterally. he has sensory loss over the shoulder area. which injury would be most likely a. fracture of medial epicondyle b. fracture of glenoid fossa c. fracture of surgical neck of H d. fracture of anatomical neck of H e. fracture mid shaft H
c this is where the axillary nerve runs and injury to this nerve causes inability to abduct above 15 degrees
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the effects of lesions in spinal cord regions? a. Transection of the spinal cord at levels C1-C3 results in no function below head level. b. Transection of the spinal cord at levels C6-C8 results in loss of lower limb function combined with a loss of hand and a variable amount of upper limb function. c. Transection of the spinal cord at levels T1-T9 results in quadriplegia. d. Transection of the spinal cord at levels L2-L3 results in retention of most leg muscle function with short leg braces likely required for walking.
c transection of spinal cord at level T1-9 results in paraplegia
4 Regarding the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle one statement is wrong A. humeral head arises from the medial epicondyle of the humerus B. it is supplied by the ulnar nerve C. it lies inside a separate compartment deep to the flexor retinaculum D. ulnar head arises from the medial margin of the olecranon E. ulnar nerve passes between the two heads of this muscle
c It does not lie deep to the flexor retinaculum. It is inserted into the pisiform bone and through the pisohamate and pisometacarpal ligaments, it is inserted into the hook of the hamate and base of the fifth metacarpal bones.
11 Regarding the ulnar nerve one statement is wrong A. it lies behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus B. it passes between the two heads of flexor carpi ulnaris C. it runs medial to the pisiform bone D. it supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris E. it supplies the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus
c It lies lateral to the pisiform bone.
7 Following are the braches of the radial artery in the front of the forearm except A. muscular branches B. palmar carpal branch C. posterior interosseous artery D. radial recurrent artery E. superficial palmar branch
c Posterior interosseous artery is a branch of the common interosseous artery.
6. Regarding the posterior interosseous artery one statement is wrong A. it accompanies the posterior interosseous nerve B. it anastomoses with the anterior interosseous artery C. it gives radial recurrent artery D. it is the smaller terminal branch of the common interosseous artery
c it gives the interosseous recurrent artery
9. How many somites are attributed to the thoracic portion of the embryo? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 5
c. 12
6. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the effect of illicit drugs, alcohol, and cigarette use on the fetus? a. Pure LSD is moderate doses shows no evidence of teratogenic effects. b. Fetal alcohol syndrome refers to the severe end of the fetal alcohol disorder spectrum and includes structural defects, growth deficiency, and intellectual disability. c. Cocaine is the leading cause of intellectual disability. d. Cigarette smoking has been linked to an increased risk for orofacial clefts.
c. Alcohol is the leading cause of intellectual disability.
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the critical periods of development prenatally? a. The most sensitive time is the embryonic period during the third through eight weeks. b. During the first two weeks of gestation, the embryo is not susceptible to teratogens. c. The fetal period is when major congenital anomalies are most likely to occur. d. Most women do not have their first prenatal visit until after the critical time for prevention of most birth defects.
c. The embryonic period is when major congenital anomalies are most likely to occur. During the fetal period the risk for gross structural defects being induced decreases but organ systems may still be affected.
7. Regarding the extensor retinaculum of wrist one statement is wrong A. extensor carpi ulnaris is the most medial tendon, which lies deep to this B. it is an oblique band C. laterally it is attached to the scaphoid and trapezium D. there are six osteofascial compartments deep to it
c. laterally it is attached to the lower part of the anterior border of radius
5. Following muscles are supplied by the ulnar nerve except A. abductor digiti minimi B. four dorsal interossei C. four lumbrical muscles D. four palmar interossei E. palmaris brevis
c. only the third and fourth lumbricals are supplied by the ulnar nerve
what vertebrae is known as vertebra prominen
c7
calcific supraspinatous tendonitis and subacromial bursitis is caused by
ca deposits in supraspinatous tendon that irritates the overlaying subacromial bursa
what must happen to sperm before fertilization
capacitation and acrosome reaction
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about contraceptives? a. The hormonal intrauterine device releases progestin that causes thickening of the cervical mucus to prevent sperm from entering the uterus. b. Tubal ligation and vasectomy are forms of sterilization. c. A male "pill" contains a synthetic androgen that prevents LH and FSH secretion and either stops sperm production or reduces it to a level of infertility. d. Use of condoms is a more effective means of birth control than an implant or intrauterine device.
d an implant or intrauterine device are more effective means of birth control than condoms
2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about fetal development in the indicated time frame? a. By the beginning of week 9 the sex is still indeterminate and the intestines are located in the umbilical cord. b. By week 11, the intestines have returned to the abdomen. c. If the fetus is female, then by week 18 the fetal uterus is formed and canalization of the vagina has begun. d. During the third month, movement of the fetus can be felt by the mother.
d during the 5th month, movement cannot be felt by mother
2. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the structure of a typical spinal nerve? a. Anterior roots and rootlets carry motor fibers. b. Anterior rami carry mixed (i.e. motor and sensory) fibers. c. Posterior (dorsal) root ganglion house sensory neuron cell bodies. d. Gray rami communicantes are structures associated with the parasympathetic nervous system.
d gray rami communicantes are structures associated with the sympathetic nervous system
1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the functions of the vertebral column? a. One function of the vertebral column is to aid in maintaining posture and allowing bipedal locomotion. b. One function of the vertebral column is to protect the spinal cord. c. One function of the vertebral column is to provide a partly rigid and flexible axis for the body and base for the head. d. One function of the vertebral column is to support body weight inferior to the pelvis.
d one function of the vertebral column is to support the body weight superior to pelvis
9. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the curvatures of the vertebral column? a. Primary curvatures of the vertebral column are concave anteriorly. b. Primary curvatures are found in the thoracic and sacral regions. c. Secondary curvatures form in the cervical and lumbar regions. d. Secondary curvatures reflect the original shape of the embryo.
d primary curvatures reflect original shape of embryo
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the formation and fate of the primitive streak? a. The first morphologic sign of gastrulation is the formation of the primitive streak. b. The primitive streak appears on the surface of the epiblast and forms a shallow groove in the caudal region of the embryo. c. As soon as the primitive streak appears, it is possible to identify the embryo's craniocaudal axis, dorsal and ventral surfaces, and right and left sides. d. Caudal dysgenesis is the outcome if the primitive streak persists rather than degenerating by the end of the 4th week.
d sacrococcygeal teratoma is the outcome if the primitive streak persists rather than degenerating by the end of the 4th week
Following are the superior relations of the shoulder joint except A. coracoaromial arch B. deltoid C. subacromial bursa D. subscapularis bursa E. supraspinatus
d subscapularis bursa lies anterior to joint
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the allantois? a. The posterior wall of the yolk sac forms a small diverticulum that extends into the connecting stalk known as the allantois. b. The allantois appears around the 16th day of development at the same time the cloacal membrane appears. c. In humans the allantois remains rudimentary but may be involved in abnormalities of bladder development. d. The remnants of the allantois forms the urachus in the fetus and the medial umbilical ligament in the adult.
d the allantois forms the median umbilical ligament- the medial umbilical ligaments are separate structures
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the gross anatomy of the spinal cord? a. The distal end of the spinal cord is known as the conus medullaris. b. The cauda equina is a collection of spinal nerve roots that extend beyond the conus medullaris. c. The filum terminale continues inferiorly from the apex of the conus medullaris to anchor the spinal cord to the coccyx. d. The cervical enlargement occurs in the area of the spinal cord that gives rise to the spinal nerves that innervate the lower limb.
d the cervical enlargements occur in areas of the spinal cord that give rise to the spinal nerves that innervate the upper limb
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the function of the placenta? a. Two main functions of the placenta are the exchange of metabolic and gaseous products and hormone production. b. Examples of substances that are exchanged between the maternal and fetal bloodstream are oxygen, nutrients, electrolytes and maternal IgG. c. Protein hormones synthesized by the placenta include human chorionic gonadotropin and human chorionic somatomammotropin. d. The hormones most often used as an indicator of pregnancy is progesterone and estrogen.
d the hormone most often used has an indicator of pregnancy is human chorionic gonadotropin
6 Regarding the biceps brachii muscle one statement is wrong A. it is a strong supinator when the forearm is flexed B. it is inserted into the posterior rough part of the radial tuberosity C. the long head arises from the supraglenoid tubercle D. the long head lies intrasynovially in the shoulder joint E. the short head arises from the tip of the coracoid process
d the long head is intracapsular and extra synovial
4 Following structures pierce the clavipectoral fascia except A. cephalic vein B. lateral pectoral nerve C. lymph vessels D. medial pectoral nerve E. thoracoacromial artery
d the medial pectoral nerve does not pierce clavipectoral fascia but does pierce the pectoralis minor
4 Regarding the brachial artery one statement is wrong A. it begins at the level of the lower border of the teres major B. it divides at the level of the neck of the radius C. it is accompanied by two venae comitantes D. it lies medial to the tendon of biceps brachii E. median nerve lies medial to it in its upper part
d the median nerve lies lateral to it in its upper part and then crosses the brachial artery from lateral to medial side at level of coracobrachialis insertion
3 Regarding the subclavius muscle one statement is wrong A. it arises from the first rib at the costochondral junction B. it is inserted into the subclavian groove C. it steadies the clavicle during the movement of the shoulder D. nerve to subclavius comes from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
d the nerve to subclavius comes from the upper trunk of brachial plexus
6. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the clinical conditions of the vertebral column? a. Spondylolysis is a defect in the pars interarticularis. b. Spondylolithesis is a dislocation between adjacent vertebrae. c. Spinal stenosis is the narrowing of the vertebral foramen in 1 or more vertebrae. d. The "Scotty dog sign" is a radiographic feature that is used to determine if a patient has spondylolisthesis.
d the scotty dog sign is a feature to determine spondylolysis
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the uterine cycle? a. The endometrium assists in implantation and contributes to the formation of the placenta. b. The follicular phase is under the influence of estrogen. c. The follicular phase parallels growth of the ovarian follicles. d. The secretory phase begins 2-3 days after ovulation in response to luteinizing hormone (LH) produced by the corpus luteum.
d the secretory phase begins 2-3 days after ovulation in response to progesterone produced by corpus luteum
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the spinal cord spaces? a. The epidural space is filled with the internal venous plexus and fat. b. The dural-arachnoid space is a potential space. c. The epidural space is also known as the extradural space because it is located between the bone and dural sac. d. The subarachnoid space is located between the dural and arachnoid mater.
d the subarachnoid space is located between arachnoid and pia mater
4 which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the thoracolumbar fascia? a. The thoracolumbar fascia is critical to overall organization and integrity of the region. b. In the thoracic region, the thoracolumbar fascia covers the deep muscles and separates them from the muscles in the superficial and intermediate groups. c. Superiorly the thoracolumbar fascia passes anteriorly to the serratus posterior muscle and is continuous with the deep fascia of the neck. d. The thoracolumbar fascia consists of 2 layers in the lumbar region.
d the thoracolumbar fascia consists of 3 layers in the lumbar region
Regarding the movements of the scapula one is wrong A. rhomboids and middle fibers trapezius retract the scapula B. serratus anterior and pectoralis minor protract the scapula C. upper fibers of the trapezius and levator scapulae help in elevation D. upward rotation of scapula is brought about by the deltoid
d upward rotation of scapula is brought on by upper fibers of trapezius and lower fibers of serratus anterior
29 yof has a fractured clavicle and internal bleeding. what vessel is most likely injured a. subclavian a b. cephalic v c. lateral thoracic a d. subclavian v e. internal thoracic a
d vein instead of artery because it runs between the clavicle and 1st rib and is more superficial than the artery which is deep
6 Regarding the flexor digitorum profundus one is wrong A. each of the four tendons for the medial four fingers traverse the split part of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon opposite the proximal phalanx B. each tendon is inserted into the base of the distal phalanx of the corresponding digit C. it arises from the upper part of the anterior and medial surfaces of the ulna D. it arises from the upper part of the anterior surface of the radius E. lumbrical muscles take origin from the tendons of this muscle
d Flexor digitorum profundus does not arise from the radius.
8. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about procedures used to assess fetal status? a. Amniocentesis is usually performed between 15 and 18 weeks because prior to this time there is not enough amniotic fluid to withdraw for testing without harming the fetus. b. Chorionic villus sampling can be performed between weeks 10 and 12 of gestation but there have been indications that the procedure carries an increased risk for limb reduction defects. c. Percutaneous umbilical cord sampling is used to obtain fetal blood samples directly from the umbilical cord. d. High levels of alpha-fetoprotein from the maternal serum are found when the fetus has Down syndrome or Trisomy 18.
d. Lower than normal levels of alpha-fetoprotein from the maternal serum are found when the fetus has Down syndrome or Trisomy 18.
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the principles of teratology? a. Susceptibility to teratogens varies with the developmental stage at the time of exposure. b. Manifestations of abnormal development are death, malformation, growth retardation, and functional disorders. c. Manifestations of abnormal development depend on dose and duration of exposure to a teratogen. d. While the genotype of the conceptus and how it interacts with the environment affect susceptibility, the maternal genome is of little importance.
d. The genotype of the conceptus and how it interacts with the environment affect susceptibility and the maternal genome also plays an important role.
5. Regarding the wrist joint one statement is wrong A. line joining the styloid processes of radius and ulna represents the joint line B. the range of flexion is more than that of extension C. this is also called radiocarpal joint D. it is a hinge synovial joint.
d. it is an ellipsoid joint
1. Regarding the flexor retinaculum of the wrist one is wrong A. attached to scaphoid and trapezium laterally B. attached to the pisiform and hook of the hamate medially C. it bridges over the concavity of the carpus and converts it into a tunnel D. medially it encloses the flexor carpi ulnaris E. the lateral slip encloses the flexor carpi radialis
d. the flexor carpi ulnaris lies outside of the flexor retinaculum
7. Regarding the interossei of the hand one statement is wrong A. classified as palmar and dorsal interosseri B. dorsal interossei have two heads of origin C. palmar and dorsal interossei are supplied by the deep branch of ulnar nerve D. palmar interossei abduct the digits
d. the palmer interossei adduct and dorsal interossei abduct the fingers of the hand
greater occipital nerve comes from _____, supplies the ___, and runs through the ____
dorsal rami of C2 skin over neck and occipital bone semispinalis capitis
2. Regarding the brachioradialis muscle one statement is wrong A. arises from the upper two thirds of lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus B. inserted into the lateral side of the root of the styloid process C. it is crossed by the abductor pollicis longus and the extensor pollicis brevis D. posterior interosseous nerve supplies it E. radial artery lies between it and the tendon of flexor carpi radialis
d. the radial nerve supplies it
vernix caseosa is a mixture of _____ from _____ that functions to _____
dead epidermal cells and fatty secretion fetal sebaceous glands protects fetal skin
Which of the following is the maternal portion of the placenta? smooth chorion chorion frondosum chorionic villi decidua basalis
decidua basalis
amniochorionic membrane fuses with ___, adheres to ____
decidua capsularis decidua parietalis
if ultrasound has low frequency then ___ spacial and ___ depth
decrease increase
how doe the flexor pollicis longus pass the flexor retinaculum
deep
how does the extensor digitorum pass the extensor retinaculum
deep
how does the flexor carpi radialis pass the flexor retinaculum
deep
how does the flexor digitorum profundas pass the flexor retinaculum
deep
how does the flexor digitorum superficialis pass the flexor retinaculum
deep
brachial artery lies __ to the deep fascia in the ____ aspect of arm and passes deep into __ where it terminates by dividing into __ and ___
deep anteromedial cubital fossa ulnar and radial arteries
lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm pierces the ___ fascia proximal to the ____ to course along with the _____ and then continues on the ___ aspect of forearm
deep cubital fossa cephalic vein lateral
median n in forearm passes ___ to the fibrous arch of _____ and runs distally adherent to this muscle -above the wrist the nerve comes closer to ___ between the tendons of ___ and ____ and then passes into the hand by going ____ to the flexor retinaculum
deep flexor digitorum superficialis - surface palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis deep
the arm is divided by ___ fascia, the ___ and ___, which divides it into ___ and ___ compartments
deep medial and lateral intermuscular septa anterior and posterior
thoracolumbar fascia covers ____, critical for ___ and ____
deep back muscles organization and integrity
dorsal interossei are innervated by
deep branch of ulnar n
palmar interossei nerve
deep branch of ulnar n
the fibrous digital sheath is formed by ___ of ___, the ____ ligaments, and the _____ ligaments that are associated with ___ and ____
deep fascia fingers cruciate ligament MPJ and IPJ
the anterior interosseous a supplies the ___, gives nutrient branches to __ and ___ and a branch to ___
deep muscles ulna and radius median n
where is the clavipectoral fascia located- borders
deep to pectoralis major, superior part encloses subclavius muscle, and inferiorly it encloses the pectoralis minor
the suboccipital region is deep to
deep to trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, splenius, and semispinalis
what is the fascia called that covers muscles
deep/ invested
function of glenoid labrum
deepen the glenoid cavity
on each side of palmar aponeurosis a septum dips ___ into the palm
deeply
neural tube defects are due to
defects in neural tubes and neuropore closure
the solid cord of cells formed by notochordal plate form
definitive notochord
what happens to corpus luteum if pregnancy does not occur
degenerates, hormonal output ends, becomes a scar called corpus albicans
what are arachnoid trabeculae
delicate strands of connective tissue in the subarachnoid space that connecting spinal arachnoid and pia mater
what muscles abducts humerus
deltoid and supraspinatous
deltoid insertion
deltoid tuberosity of humerus
what muscles laterally rotates humerus
deltoid, infraspinatous, teres minor
what muscles flex humerus
deltoid, pectoralis major, bicep brachii, coracobrachialis
Erb Duchenne palsy results in what muscles paralyzed
deltoid, supraspinatous, biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis, and supinator
what are the intrinsic scapulohumeral muscles
deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatous, teres minor, teres major, subscapularis
what is known as the internervous plane in the shoulder and why
deltopectoral groove surgeons use this to reach the shoulder joint
C2 features
dens, transverse foramen, superior articular facets
pia mater forms what
denticulate ligaments and filum terminale internum
serratus posterior inferior action
depresses ribs and proprioception
pectoralis minor action
depresses tip of shoulder and assist with scapular protraction
12 Regarding the cubital fossa one statement is wrong A. blood pressure is recorded by auscultating the brachial artery in front of elbow B. median cubital vein is separated from the brachial artery by the bicipital aponeurosis C. median cubital vein is the choice of intravenous injections D. radial nerve and radial collateral artery lie between brachilais and brachioradialis E. this is the best place to compress the brachial artery to control hemorrhage
e the best place to compress brachial artery is in the middle of the arm
10 Regarding the applied anatomy of the median nerve one is wrong A. following the injury to this nerve, the terminal phalanx of the thumb cannot be flexed B. forearm is kept in supine position in the median nerve injury C. in supracondylar fractures it is injured above the level of the elbow D. it supplies most of the long muscles of the front of the forearm E. the hand remains abducted following median nerve injury
e The hand is adducted due to paralysis of the flexor carpi radialis.
when is the embryonic period and fetal period
e- 3-8 wks p- 9-birth
5. Regarding the posterior interosseous nerve one statement is wrong A. it is the chief nerve of the back of the forearm B. it passes between the two planes of the fibers of supinator C. it supplies deep muscles of the back of the forearm D. it supplies the supinator E. when the posterior interosseous nerve is injured it results in the wrist drop
e. posterior interosseous does not innervate the extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis so it does not cause wrist drop
3. Regarding the anatomical snuff box one statement is wrong A. cephalic vein crosses the roof B. it is a triangular depression on the lateral side of the wrist C. laterally it is bounded by the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis D. tendon of extensor pollicis longus forms the medial boundary E. the floor is formed by the base of the second metacarpal bones
e. the floor is formed by the radial styloid, scaphoid, trapezium, and base of 1st metacarpal
1. Following are the superficial muscles of the back of the forearm except A. anconeus B. brachioradialis C. extensor carpi radialis brevis D. extensor carpi radialis longus E. supinator
e. the supinator is a deep muscle
3. Following structures lie deep to the flexor retinaculum except A. median nerve B. tendons of flexor digitorum profundus C. tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis D. the tendon of flexor pollicis longus E. the tendon of palmaris longus
e. the tendon of palmaris longus lies superficial to the flexor retinaculum
6. Regarding the lumbrical muscles of the hand one statement is wrong A. there are four lumbricals in the hand B. they are inserted into the dorsal digital exapansions of the corresponding digit C. they are numbered from lateral to medial side D. they arise from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus E. they extend the metacarpophalangeal joint and flex the distal interphalangeal joint
e. they flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the distal interphalangeal joint as in writing position of hand
epiblast divide into 3 things
ectoderm of amnion, embryonic ectoderm, primitive streak
3 germ layers
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
Which germ layers are present by the end of the third week of development (by day 21)? epiblast and hypoblast epiblast, mesoderm, and hypoblast ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm ectoderm and endoderm
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
what accompanies neuropore closure
ectodermal thickening, ectodermal lens placodes become visible, ectoderm otic placodes become visible
levator scapulae action
elevate scapula, downward rotation of scapula
primitive node is a ___ on the ___ end of the primitive streak that surrounds the ____
elevated area cephalic small primitive pit
action of serratus posterior superior
elevates ribs, proprioception
trapezius action
elevating, depressing, retracting scapula and superiorly rotate glenoid cavity
6 major movements of pectoral girdle
elevation of scapula, depression of scapula, protraction of scapula, retraction of scapula, angular rotation of scapula, and circumduction
what is suspended by the connecting stalk
embryo, amniotic sac, secondary yolk sack
molar pregnancy is due to trophoblast with little ____
embryonic tissue
primordial pharynx is derived from
endoderm
as the hypoblast is replaced by ___ cells, cells of notochordal plate detach from ____
endoderm endoderm
the hypoblast--> ______--> _____
endoderm of yolk sac extraembryonic mesoderm
describe decidua reaction
endometrial cells become polyhedral and loaded with glycogen and lipids, tissues are edematous
blood returns to maternal circulation via
endometrial veins
what happens during gravid phase
endometrium assists in implantation and contributes to formation of placenta
the first part of axillary artery may become ____ causing compression of ______
enlarged brachial plexus trunks
spina bifida with myelomeningocele
enlarged anterior subarachnoid space with no posterior vertebral formation
forearm is divided into anterior and posterior compartments by
lateral intermuscular septum and interosseous membrane
pectoralis major insertion
lateral lip of intertubercular sulcus
branches of lateral cord of brachial plexus and what spinal nerves
lateral pectoral nerve- C5,6,7 musculocutaneous nerve- C5,6,7 lateral root of medial nerve- C5,6,7
infraspinatous action
lateral rotator of arm
abductor pollicis longus insertion
lateral side of thumb metacarpal
anconeus insertion
lateral surface of olecranon and superior part of posterior surface of ulna
supinator insertion
lateral surface of radius superior to anterior oblique line
trapezius insertion
lateral third of clavicle, medial side of acromion, upper crest of scapular spine, tubercle of scapular spine
what is convergent extension
lateral to medial cell movement in ectodermal and mesodermal plane
the deltoid is divided into
lateral, anterior and posterior part
cubital fossa boundaries
lateral- brachioradialis medial- pronator teres
floor of cubital fossa
laterally- supinator muscle medially- brachialis
what tendon goes around lower border of teres major and lies anteriorly to insertion
latissimus dorsi
what muscles medially rotates humerus
latissimus dorsi, deltoid, teres major, subscapularis, pectoralis major
what muscles extends humerus
latissimus dorsi, deltoid, triceps brachii, teres major
what muscles adducts humerus
latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major, coracobrachialis, triceps brachii
which is the most and least severe and rare spina bifida
least severe- spina bifida occulta most severe- spina bifida with myeloschisis rare- spina bifida with meningocele
carpal tunnel syndrome causes
lesion that reduces the size of the tunnel or increase the tendons, overuse of fingers, fluid retention inside tunnel
subscapularis insertion
lesser tubercle of humerus
where is the thoracic nerve located in respect to serratus anterior
lies on superficial aspect of serratus anterior
splenius capitis origin
ligamentum nuchae and C7-T3 spinous process
serratus posterior superior origin
ligamentum nuchae, spines of C7-T3
congenital malformations associated with LSD
limb abnormalities and malformation of CNS
WNT function
limb patterning, midbrain development, somite differentiation, urogenital differentiation
the extraembryonic somatic mesoderm is the portion that
lines the cytotrophoblast and amnion
endoderm forms
lining of airways and digestive system, glands, pancreatic cells, thyroid cells
miller dieker syndrome symptoms
lissencephaly, seizures, cardiac abnormalities, midface hypoplasia
definitive hematopoietic stem cells migrate to _____ (which is the _____ )
liver major hematopoietic organ
phocomelia
long bone are absent- hands and feet are attached to trunk
the fibrous digital sheath at MPJ contains what
long flexor tendons
what tendon helps resist inferior displacement of humeral head
long head tendon of triceps brachii
serratus anterior nerve
long thoracic
the upper end of radial shaft is characterized by an ____,(the ____) projecting towards the ____
oval prominence radial tuberosity ulna
what is lissencephaly
no development of brain gyri or sulci
transecting lesion of C1-3 results in
no function below head, require ventilator
advantages of MRI
no radiofrequency energy used, excellent soft tissue contrast, any plane images, angiography is possible without contrast
what is a synovial cyst of wrist
non tender cystic swelling on dorsum of wrist, contains clear fluid
if lymphatics drainage of upper limb is damage the arm may exhibit ___ ____
non-pitting edema
turner syndrome is mostly caused by
nondisjunction in male gamete
klinefelters syndrome is caused by
nondisjuntion in mother
advantages of ultrasounds
noninvasive, painless, no radiation, diagnosis of a range of disease, and checks fetus
as somites are established there is a decrease in
notch
what 3 things are needed to induce ectoderm to neural plate then to neural tube
notochord + prechordal mesoderm + FGF
two types of chromosomal abnormalities
numerical and structural
subluxation of radial head (____) is common in ___ due to ____ of ____ resulting in _____ and becoming ____
nursemaid's elbow small children pulling of prontated arm tearing of annular ligament trapped between radial head and capitulum of humerus
Which one of the following answers does NOT represent one of the standard orthogonal body planes? Sagittal Coronal Oblique Axial
oblique
as amnion enlarges it ___ and forms ____
obliterates chorionic cavity epithelial covering of umbilical cord
obliquus capitis superior insertion
occipital bone above inferior nuchal line
rectus capitis posterior major insertion
occipital potuberance
at day 20 the first somites appear in
occipital sub region
somite distribution be vertebral levels
occipital-4 cervical- 8 thoracic- 12 lumbar- 5 sacral- 5 coccygeal 8-10
female infertility is usually due to
occluded uterine tube, hostile cervical mucus, immunity to spermatozoa, absence of ovulation
projections of proximal ulna
olecranon and coronoid process
where is the posterior longitudinal lig located
on posterior side of vertebral body- inside canal
where are palmar interossei in relation to fingers
on the side toward the middle finger
where are suprspinous lig located
on top of the posterior side of spinous processes
when can sperm pass through corona cells of oocyte
once it is capacitated
the thumb only has ____ long tendon and that is ____
one FPL
what are nucleosomes
one octomer of histone with the DNA coiled around it
primordial GI system
one tube and 3 segments: foregut, midgut, and hindgut
polar body formation is due to
only one daughter cell in female meiosis becomes oocyte and the others become polar bodies
what is a Ootid
oocyte containing 2 pronuclei
what are female germ cells called after meiosis
oocytes
what muscles laterally rotates pinky
opponens digiti minimi
3 muscles of hypothenar
opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, abductor digiti minimi
what muscles medially rotate thumb
opponens pollicis
the oblique cord of interosseous membrane runs in ___ and results in an ____ that allows ___ to pass
opposite direction opening posterior interosseous vessel
opponens pollicis action
opposition
opponens digiti minimi action
opposition of pinky
prechordal plate function
organize head region and induction of forebrain
heterotaxy
organs are abnormally arranged
congenital malformations associated with cigarette smoke
orofascial cleft, intrauterine growth retardation, premature delivery
cyclic genes expressed in an
oscillating pattern
ultrasound's signal is transmitted form ____ and then ____
outside of body reflects
