AT 2356: Final Exam Study Guide
______ is not an example of prolonged immobilization. A. Decreased motor neuron efficiency B. Decreased cardiovascular endurance C. Weaker bones D. Muscle hypertrophy
D. Muscle Hypertrophy. p. 423. Muscles atrophy (get smaller). Hypertrophy means that they get bigger.
Which of the following is a common apophyseal injury? A. Hip pointer B. Epiphyseal fracture C. Dislocated finger D. Osgood Schlatter's Disease
D. Osgood Schlatter's Disease
When a fracture of the lower leg is suspected, what test can be done to reaffirm your suspicions? A. Auscultation Test B. Range-of-Motion Test C. Cutaneous Sensation Test D. Percussion Test
D. Percussion Test. p. 543 - The percussion/tap and compression tests are all fracture tests
Which of the following areas of the pre-participation exam includes the assessment of height, weight, blood pressure, pulse, vision and body composition? A. Medical History B. Wellness Screening C. Maturity Assesment D. Physical Examination
D. Physical Examination
T/F: Gathering a through history prior to initiating your evaluation of an injury is just as important as the evaluation itself.
True.
T/F: It is possible to drink to much water/fluid.
True. Drinking too much water/fluid can dilute your sodium concentration resulting in exertional hyponatremia.
T/F: LCL sprains are more common than MCL sprains.
True. MCL sprain occur at a much higher rate than LCL sprains because the MCL MOIs are more common. Valgus stress, and tibial ER (cutting off that leg).
T/F: Gamekeeper's thumb involves forceful adduction of the proximal phalanx causing a sprain of the ulnar collateral ligament.
False
T/F: Healthcare facilities should mandate that all employees wear latex gloves to prevent spread of disease.
False
Thorough record keeping will prevent a clinician from being sued.
True
The ability of the body to undergo prolonged whole body, large muscle activity is: A. Strength training B. Power C. Cardiorespiratory endurance D. Circuit training
C. Cardiorespiratory endurance
When performing the valgus and varus stress tests the knee should be in ____ degrees flexion if you are trying to assess ligament integrity. A. 30 B. 90 C. 15 D. 45
A. 30
Select all the possible mechanisms for a person to contract a bloodborne disease. A. Sharing needles B. Cleaning up dried blood from a patient that was profusely bleeding 2 days ago with soap and water. C. Unprotected vaginal or anal sex. D. Life-saving blood transfusion after surviving a near-fatal car accident E. Getting a tattoo from a licensed or unlicensed artist.
A, B, C, D, E
Select all of the organs that are found in the left upper quadrant in a four quadrant abdominal sectioning. A. Stomach B. Large intestine C. Liver D. Gallbladder E. Heart F. Spleen G. Appendix
A, B, C, F
Hip flexor tightness commonly results in _____. (Select all that apply) A. groin pain B. a positive Kendall Test C. antalgic gait D. lumbar lordosis
A, B, D
Your patient is recovering from an ankle sprain and you want to improve their neuromuscular control in their foot, ankle and lower leg. Which of the following exercises would be appropriate. Select all that apply. A. Completing a cone drill for time B. Jumping rope C. Using a tilt board to improve dorsiflexion D. Manually assisted plantar flexion stretching E. Jogging 800m on a track F. A 5 minute ultrasound treatment over the lateral ankle.
A, B, E
If the quads can lift 100 lbs, the hamstrings should be able to lift ____ lbs. A. 70 B. 100 C. 30 D. 50
A. 70
f the quads can lift 100 lbs, the hamstrings should be able to lift ____ lbs. A. 70 B. 100 C. 30 D. 50
A. 70. Hamstings should have about 60-80% of the strength of the quads.
If an athlete has a maximum heart rate of 180, then their stroke volume will plateau at ____ beats per minute. A. 72 B. 46 C. 90 D. 108
A. 72. Stroke volume plateaus as 40% of max heart rate
The ligament that stabilizes and encircles the head of the radius is the: A. Annular ligament B. Medial collateral ligament C. Quadrate ligament D. Lateral collateral ligament
A. Annular ligament
If the flash to bang is 15 seconds, how far away is lightening occurring? A. 3 Miles B. 5 Miles C. 1 Mile D. 6 Miles
A. 3 Miles
A common foot condition with a sudden onset of pain in the arch region that is relieved by becoming non weight-bearing and gives extreme point tenderness at the plantar surface of the calcaneus may be indicative of: A. A plantar fascia strain B. A stress fracture C. A bruised instep D. A plantar neuroma
A. A Planter Fascia Strain. This injury is commonly associated with significant pain with the 1st few steps in the morning as well.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by pain and discomfort during and immediately after exercise? A. Acute onset muscle soreness B. Neuropraxia C. Delayed onset muscle soreness D. Myositis Ossificans
A. Acute onset muscle soreness
This test will result in pain if the patient has a torn meniscus: A. Apley's Compression B. Apley's Distraction C. Posterior Sag D. Lachman's
A. Apley's Compression
The Golgi tendon organs respond to increased tension after: A. At least 6 seconds B. 60 to 70 seconds C. 10 to 20 seconds D. 20 to 30 seconds
A. At least 6 seconds
Axial loading combined with flexion of the cervical vertebrae from a force to the top of the head could lead to a fracture of which vertebrae? A. C5-C6 B. T2-T3 C. C1-C2 D. L4-L5
A. C5-C6. Fractures (Fx) usually occur to the 4-6th cervical vertebra from axial loading with flexion of the neck. This MOI can result in anterior compression fx or dislocation.
The most efficient source of energy is? A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Fats D. Water
A. Carbohydrates
Which of the following are qualities of a synovial joint? Select all that apply. A. Has a capsule or ligaments B. Lined with a synovial membrane C. Has a joint space D. Slightly movable
A. Has a capsule or ligaments B. Lined with a synovial membrane and C. Has a joint space
The primary purpose of a pre-participation health exam is: A. Identify whether an athlete is at risk before he/she participates B. Determine body fat percentages for coaches C. Reveal qualifying conditions D. Satisfy insurance and liability issues
A. Identify whether an athlete is at risk before he/she participates.
In which of the phases of rehabilitation does the patient feel fearful and may be in denial? A. Immediate post-injury B. Advanced rehabilitation C. Early postoperative D. Post rehabilitation
A. Immediate post-injury
Following an injury or surgery, when should the rehabilitation process be initiated? A. Immediately after the injury occurs B. 24 hours later C. When pain subsides D. 3 to 4 days later
A. Immediately after the injury occurs. p. 432. Phase I of the rehabilitation plan should begin immediately after the injury occurs. Primary focus in Phase 1 is reducing pain, swelling, and creating an environment that encourages healing (PRICE).
Sharp or burning pain is characteristic of what type of injury? A. Nerve injury B. Muscular problems C. Bone fractures D. Joint injury
A. Nerve injury
The constant ongoing remodeling of bone is caused by the: A. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts B. Osteocytes and fibroblasts C. Fibroblasts and osteoblasts D. Monocytes and fibroblasts
A. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
When a patient tells you that moving their knee into flexion is what causes them pain they are describing their injury: A. provocation B. severity C. referral D. quality
A. Provocation
Which of the following cervical tests is positive if dizziness and nystagmus are present? A. Vertebral Artery Test B. Sprullings Test C. Brachial Plexus Test D. Shoulder Abduction Test
A. Vertebral Artery Test
Injury to the ____ will result in decreased strength in hip extension, knee flexion, and IR of the knee. A. Semimembranosus B. rectus femoris C. vastus medialis D. biceps femoris
A. Semimembranosus
Classification of modalities include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Shockwave Energy B. Mechanical Energy C. Sound Energy D. Thermal Conductive Energy
A. Shockwave Energy
The stretching method that uses an extreme stretch that is held for a long period of time is: A. Static stretch B. Dynamic stretch C. Ballistic stretch D. PNF stretch
A. Static Stretch
The anterior cruciate ligament is most vulnerable to injury when: A. The knee is valgus and the tibia is externally rotated B. The knee is varus and the tibia is externally rotated C. The knee is varus and the tibia is internally rotated D. The knee is valgus and the tibia is internally rotated
A. The knee is valgus and the tibia is externally rotated
When squeezing the calf muscle with the leg extended and the foot hanging over the edge of the table, you are performing which test for Achilles tendon rupture? A. Thompson Test B. Babinski Test C. Apley Squeeze Test D. Compression Test
A. Thompson Test
The screw home mechanism is when the: A. knee extends and the lower leg externally rotates B. knee flexes and the lower leg internally rotates C. knee extends and the lower leg internally rotates D. knee flexes and the lower leg externally rotates
A. knee extends and the lower leg externally rotates
Method by which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized and eliminated from the body is known as? A. pharmacokinetics B. pharmacology C. drug vehicle D. pharmacodynamics
A. pharmacokinetics
The most discernible difference between a cervical dislocation and a cervical fracture is: A. position of the neck B. muscle weakness C. numbness D. pain
A. position of the neck. Dislocations are associated with the head being tilted toward the dislocation side (unilateral dislocations)
Biofeedback can be used for both neuromuscular _____ and muscular _____ following injury. A. relaxation, reeducation B. reeducation, relaxation C. relaxation, spasm D. stimulation, enhancement
A. relaxation, reeducation
T/F: It is necessary take vitamin supplements if you want to maximize your health and well-being because it is nearly impossible to intake the DRIs through normal eating habits.
False
T/F: Rehabilitation of an athlete should center on recovery of the affected part only.
False
T/F: Visually observing an elbow at a 45-degree angle of flexion will show the olecranon process and both humeral epicondyles in a straight horizontal line.
False
Strength, and ROM, and cardiovascular endurance development occur primarily during the ________________. A. Pre-surgical phase B. Remodeling phase C. Repair phase D. Acute phase
C. Repair phase. p. 432. "Phase 2: Fibroblastic Repair Phase" 2nd paragraph
Raul, a 45 year-old man, is attempting to conquer Mt. Everest. He and his group are two-thirds up the mountain (it is 29,000 ft tall). He begins complaining of a severe headache, 20 minutes later he's chasing leprechauns, and but keeps falling. Two hours later he lays down and you cannot wake him. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute Mountain Sickness B. High Altitude Cerebral Edema C. Sickle-Cell Trait Reaction D. High Altitude Pulmonary Edema
B. High Altitude Cerebral Edema
The most crucial stage in maturity is the _______ stage because of ________________. A. 2nd, growth plate weakness B. 3rd, increased speed of bone growth C. 4th, increased speed of bone growth D. 3rd, decreased tendon strength
B. 3rd, increased speed of bone growth
Which of the following best describes malfeasance (act of commission)? his/her legal duty A. A legal wrong that is committed when an individual fails to perform a legal duty B. A legal wrong that is committed when an Individual performs an act that is not C. A legal wrong that occurs by chance or without intention D. An act that a reasonably prudent person would do
B. A legal wrong that is committed when an individual perfors an act that is not
A critical consideration in avoiding heat stress during fall pre-season (2-a-day) workouts: A. Eat a well balanced diet B. Acclimatization C. Use electrolyte solutions D. Identify susceptible athletes
B. Acclimatization
Which of the following are environmental considerations that are more pertinent to those living in a city? A. particulate matter B. acid rain C. malignant hyperthermia D. low levels of hydrocarbons
B. Acid Rain
During stress the threat is immediate and the body's response is instantaneous. A. Chronic B. Acute C. Anxiety D. Exhaustive
B. Acute
Which of the following nerve fibers transmit impulses from nocioceptors toward the brain? A. Efferent fibers B. Afferent fibers C. Substantia gelatinosa D. Central biasing
B. Afferent fibers
A positive anterior drawer test at the ankle indicates damage to which ligament? A. Anterior tibiofibular B. Anterior talofibular C. Calcaneofibular D. Posterior talofibular
B. Anterior Talofibular
The ____ is the largest tarsal bone. A. cuboid B. calcaneus C. talus D. navicular
B. Calcaneus
Stroke volume and heart rate determine the _____________ of the heart. A. Cardiorespiratory endurance B. Cardiac output C. Aerobic capacity D. VO2 max
B. Cardiac Output
Patellar tendonitis is an example of : A. Fibroblastic repair B. Chronic inflammation C. Acute inflammation D. Maturation
B. Chronic inflammation
When ordering expensive supplies it is important to have vendors quote prices before making a decision. This is known as: A. Direct buy B. Competitive bidding C. Lease agreement D. Expendable purchase
B. Competitive bidding
The most effective method of improving neuromuscular control after an injury is: A. plyometrics B. increasing repetitions C. increasing weights D. electrical stimulation
B. Increasing Repetitions
The major value of a vapocoolant spray is: A. Reduction in the pain threshold. B. Its ability to reduce muscle guarding and increase range of motion. C. Reduction in edema. D. Increase in collagen tissue extensibility.
B. Its ability to reduce muscle guarding and increase range of motion.
The primary concern for any emergency life-threatening injury is ___. Select all that apply A. Breathing B. Maintaining adequate blood/nutrient circulation C. Central nervous system function D. Having a well-practice EAP. E. Wound care
B. Maintaining adequate blood/nutrient circulation C. Central nervous system function
The most common form of internal drug administration is: A. Sublingual B. Oral C. Intravenous D. Transdermal
B. Oral
An approach to conditioning that attempts to bring about peak performance while reducing injuries and overtraining is known as: A. Cross training B. Periodization C. Constancy D. Specificity
B. Periodization
The process of ingesting microorganisms, other cells, or foreign particles commonly performed by monocytes is called: A. Permeability B. Phagocytosis C. Synthesis D. Margination
B. Phagocytosis
Which phase of the rehabilitation should include functional progressions? A. Phase I B. Phase III C. Pre-operative Phase D. Phase II
B. Phase III
Medical records should include which of the following? (Select all that apply) A. their roommate's habits B. previous surgeries C. the date of the patient's last tetanus shot D. number of drinks per week
B. Previous Surgeries C. The date of the patient's last tetanus shot and D. Number of drinks per week
Heat is eliminated by the body in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A. Conduction B. Conversion C. Radiation D. Evaporation
B. Radiation
The purpose of a sling psychrometer is to measure: A. Air pressure B. Relative humidity C. Barometric Pressure D. Air temperature
B. Relative Humidity
Anorexia Athletica is characterized by all of the following signs EXCEPT? A. Weight loss greater than 5% B. Self starvation C. Absence of medical illness explaining weight loss D. Gastrointestinal complaints\
B. Self Starvation
What is/are the movements of the Metatarsophalangeal joints? A. flexion, extension, abduction B. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction C. abduction, adduction D. flexion, extension
B. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction
T/F: When massaging a lower extremity you should always stroke toward the feet and when massaging an upper extremity you should a always stroke toward the heart to assist venous and lymphatic drainage.
False.
Select the three most common sites for avulsion fractures in the pelvic region. A. Pubic tubercle B. Posterior inferior iliac spine C. Anterior superior iliac spine D. Tibial tuberosity E. Anterior inferior iliac spine F. Ischial tuberosity
C, E, F
Your patient presents with dilated pupils, grayish mouth, white skin, and a rapid, weak pulse. What is their most likely diagnosis? A. Heat exhaustion B. Chillblains C. Cardiogenic shock D. Heart attack
C. Cardiogenic shock
When using cryotherapy, if the temperature is 38.3 F, muscle temperatures can be reduced as deep as: A. 1 cm B. 3 cm C. 4 cm D. 2 cm
C. 4 cm
The stance phase accounts for ____ % of the normal gait cycle. A. 40 B. 85 C. 60 D. 20
C. 60
In Texas, to practice Athletic Training you need ____. A. certification only B. NATABOC recognition C. a License D. Both your certification and license
C. A License
Movement that is performed solely by the athlete is called: A. Assistive B. Eccentric C. Active D. Resistive
C. Active
The following are physiological responses to massage EXCEPT: A. Reflex Effects B. Neural Stimulation C. Decreased Circulation D. Muscle Relaxation
C. Decreased Circulation
When dealing with a possible unconscious athlete, the first action that must be taken is: A. Roll the athlete onto his back B. Stop any bleeding that may be severe C. Determine the level of consciousness and unresponsiveness D. Check the athlete's carotid pulse
C. Determine the level of consciousness and unresponsiveness
All of the following exercise could be used to help improve strength after an ankle sprain except: A. Picking up marbles with their toes B. Fanning a towel lengthwise out in front of a seated patient and have them used their toes to "scrunch" the towel up while keeping their heel on the floor until the entire towel is under their foot. C. Having a patient swim with a bouy between their legs. D. Slow and controlled toe raises E. All of these would be helpful foot/ankle strengthening exercises.
C. Having a patient swim with a bouy between their legs.
The process whereby ions in solution are carried through the intact skin by an electrical current is called: A. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation B. Iontophoresis C. Phonophoresis D. Ultrasonic transfer
C. Iontophoresis
The mechanism of injury that leaves the posterior cruciate ligament at greatest risk for injury is: A. Falling with the knee bent and the foot dorsiflexed B. Hyperextension of the knee C. Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantarflexed D. A valgus stress with the knee fully extended
C. Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantarflexed
If resistance is applied to an athlete's extended wrist with the elbow flexed at a 45-degree angle, the athletic trainer is testing for: A. Biceps tendinitis B. Capsular pain C. Lateral Epicondylitis D. Medial Epicondylitis
C. Lateral Epicondylitis
All of the following are disinfectants except: A. Alcohol Incorrect B. Flouride C. Macrolides D. Phenol
C. Macrolides
The tennis team is leaving for the national championship next week. The coach has brought in a therapist to help the girls focus for their matches. The therapist tells the girls to lie on the floor, she shuts the light off, and then talks the girls through relaxation techniques starting with their feet and working up to their head. This is an example of: A. Yoga B. Altering pain sensation C. Meditation D. Progressive relaxation
C. Meditation
OSHA stands for: A. Occupational Safety and Housing Administration B. Organization for Safety and Health Administration C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration D. Organization for Standards on Health Administration
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Epiphyseal growth plate injuries have been classified into five types by? A. Severe B. Hilton C. Salter-Harris D. Wolff
C. Salter- Harris
Traction is indicated for which of the following conditions? A. Joint diseases B. Osteoporosis C. Spinal nerve root impingement D. Tumors
C. Spinal Nerve Root Impingement
Which of the following correctly lists examples of the 6 major nutrient classes? Choose the BEST answer A. Dr. Pepper, Pepperoni pizza, gummy bears, Reece's Peanut Butter Cups, hot Cheetos, sea salt and caramel ice cream B. water, spinach, eggs, cauliflower, banana, pecans C. potatoes, salmon, kale, oranges, dark chocolate water D. corn, apple juice, watermelon, avocado, sirloin, broccoli
C. potatoes, salmon, kale, oranges, dark chocolate water
(Blank) insurance coverage begins when injury expenses reach $(blank) and will be extended over an entire lifetime.
Catastrophic, $25,000
Decisions on how to progress an athlete through a rehabilitation program should be based on: A. The strength of the musculature B. The desire of the athlete C. The pressure from the coach D. The healing process
D. The healing process
Which of the following substances is appropriate for cleaning tables in the athletic training room? A. A 1:10 solution of alcohol and water B. Soap and water C. A 1:20 solution of bleach and water D. A 1:10 solution of bleach and water
D. A 1:10 solution of bleach and water
Which of the following would be the "healthiest" choice at a fast food restaurant? A. Big Mac Large Fries, Coke, and a baked apple pie B. Large all meat pizza with extra cheese on thin wheat crust with a light adult beverage C. Wendy's BBQ Ranch chicken salad (Full Size) with a diet coke D. 6" Subway turkey breast sandwich loaded with veggies, light mayo, and mustard with a side of apples and a water
D.
If one thinks they have been infected by a bloodborne pathogen they should be tested at __weeks, __ months, and __ year(s). A. 1,3,6 B. 3,1,2 C. 1,2,3 D. 6,3,1
D. 6,3,1
Damage to the _____ ligament is commonly associated with syndesmotic tears resulting in a high ankle sprain and prolonged recovery. A. Deltoid B. ATF C. PTF D. AITF
D. AITF. When the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament and the posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament are damaged during external rotation and DF of the ankle a high ankle sprain results. It is common for the syndesmosis/interosseus membrane to also be torn resulting in a very painful injury that may take months to heal. - from lecture only
Your roommate has a fever and you want to give him/her an over-the-counter medication that will help their fever, but not have other actions on their body. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate? A. Motrin B. Naproxen C. Acetylsalicylic acid D. Acetaminophen
D. Acetaminophen
There are several steps through the infection process. Which stage is the person in when they feel bad and cannot get out of bed? A. Recovery stage B. Incubation stage C. Decline stage D. Acute stage
D. Acute stage
What is the Committee for accreditation of Athletic Training education, called? A. CAHEA B. NATA C. JRC-AT D. CAATE
D. CAATE
Which of the following is not a disorder associated with little league elbow? A. Nonunion stress fracture of the olecranon epiphysis B. Avulsion of the medial epicondyle C. Accelerated apophyseal growth D. Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
D. Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Stenosing tenosynovitis of the first tunnel of the wrist through which the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus move is characteristic of: A. Forearm splints B. Bowler's thumb C. Volkmann's contractures D. De Quervain's disease
D. De Quervain's disease
A pes planus foot is associated with: A. Pes cavus B. Fallen metatarsal heads C. Tight Achilles cord D. Excessive pronation
D. Excessive pronation
When an athlete walks into the athletic training room you notice that he/she is walking with the toe in. This could be a result of: A. Femoral retroversion B. Hip flexor contracture C. ITB contracture D. Femoral anteversion
D. Femoral anteversion
Running, turning, figure-eights, backing up, and stopping are what types of test? A. Range of motion B. Stress C. Muscle strength D. Functional
D. Functional
___ is the act that says medical records can not be release unless permission is given. A. CSCS B. FERPA C. OSHA D. HIPAA
D. HIPAA
Maximum muscle loading at a fixed speed (consistent velocity) with accommodating resistance throughout the entire range of motion is characterized by what method of exercise? A. Isometric B. Plyometric C. Isotonic D. Isokinetic
D. Isokinetic
___ is common in people who have experienced psychologically traumatic events, like surviving terrorist attack, a near-death experience, or abuse. A. Impulsivity B. Panic attacks C. Depression D. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Posttraumatic stress disorder
The motion(s) that occur at the proximal radioulnar joint? A. Inversion and eversion B. Radial and ulnar deviation C. Flexion and Extension D. Pronation and supination
D. Pronation and supination. The proximal and distal radioulnar joints must move in unison. Motion between these bones is only in pronation and supination.
All of the following are considered medications to fight pain EXCEPT: A. Ibuprofen B. Acetaminophen C. Aspirin D. Proventil
D. Proventil. Proventil (albuterol) is a fast acting asthma medication.
Which of the following mechanisms would not be used to assess the "P" on the AVPU scale? A. Poking a toe with a sharp object B. Sternal chest rub C. Pinching their arm D. Pupillary response
D. Pupillary response
If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action that should be taken for the athlete to continue participation? A. The uniform should be changed at half-time B. Nothing, the athlete should continue without interruption C. The blood should be rinsed off with water D. The uniform should be changed immediately
D. The uniform should be changed immediately
Which of the following is not a sign for a fractured femur? A. Internally rotated hip B. Loss of function C. Swelling of soft tissues D. Thigh deformity
D. Thigh deformity
Which nerve can become irritated secondary to cubitus valgus present at the elbow? A. Radial B. Musculocutaneous C. Median D. Ulnar
D. Ulnar
Which of the following is correct about Progress Notes? A. should review all the same parts as the initial evaluation B. can be done monthly C. uses HOPS format D. follows SOAP format
D. follows SOAP format
In transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal or pelvic injury the athletic trainer should .......... A. carry the athlete with the help of three assistants, one supporting each leg and the B. use an ambulatory aid C. use manual conveyance D. use a spine board and move under medical direction
D. use a spine board and move under medical direction
T/F: A hydrocollator pack would be the best modality to heat an injured finger.
False. A paraffin bath or underwater ultrasound are more appropriate heating modalities for small body parts.
All of the following can be cured by taking antibiotics EXCEPT: A. Herpes zoster B. Lyme disease C. Measles D. Tetanus E. A & C F. B & D G. Antibiotics can't help with any of these diseases
E. A&C
Which of the following are not included under the sports medicine umbrella? A. Exercise Physiology B. Strength and Conditioning C. Athletic Training D. Sports Massage E. All of the above are found under the Sports Medicine Umbrella
E. All of the above are found under the Sports Medicine Umbrella
Electrical energy modalities have multiple current parameters. Which of the following CANNOT be altered by a clinician? A. Waveform B. Intensity C. Duration D. Frequency E. All of these can be adjusted by the clinician
E. All of these can be adjusted by the clinician pgs 398-399. Wave form is the shape of the electric wave (see Figure 15-9). It I can be many different shapes based on the setting. Intensity is the strength of the current (how many volts are passed from the machine into the patient). Duration is how long the treatment lasts. Frequency is defined as cycles/pulses per second, also known as Hertz (Hz). It is how fast the wave travels. The smaller the Hz the slower the wave.
Electrical energy modalities have multiple current parameters. Which of the following CANNOT be altered by a clinician? A. Waveform B. Intensity C. Duration D. Frequency E. All of these can be adjusted by the clinician
E. All of these can be adjusted by the clinician.
T/F: Because the talus is wider posteriorly than anteriorly, the most stable position of the ankle is with the foot in plantarflexion.
False.
A systematic plan for accessing the emergency medical system and associated transportation of injured athletes to an emergency care facility is referred to as a(n).
Emergency Action Plan
T/F: Flexibility and range of motion are the same thing
False.
T/F: The abdominal muscles are the key to core stability.
False.
T/F: The hunting's response is a increase in tissue temperature as a result of prolonged exposure to cold.
Frue
Damage to the body that restricts activity or causes disability is a(n)
Injury
Eccentric
Lengthening
( Blank) -patient is a relationship of mutual trust and understanding.
Rapport
T/F: Water is the most essential nutrient and accounts for 60% of the body's total weight.
True
T/F: A cervical sprain may not cause pain until the day after the trauma and may stem from tissue tears and a protective muscle spasm that restricts motion.
True
A hip sprain is best revealed through the athlete's inability to: A. Circumduct the thigh B. Squat C. Hop on the injured leg D. Flex the thigh
A. Circumduct the thigh
The ____ an injury is to a nerve ______ the less likely it is to heal. A. closer, cell body B. further, cell body C. closer, synaptic cleft D. closer, distal axon
A. Closer, Cell Body
A wrist fracture resulting from the distal radius being forced backward and upward (hyperextension), is called a: A. Colles' fracture B. Bowler's fracture C. De Quervain's fracture D. Smith's fracture
A. Colles' fracture
Medicare is an insurance program for whom? A. disabled and aged B. low income C. disabled only D. aged only
A. Disabled and aged
______ contractions are critical for deceleration of high-velocity limb motions during dynamic activity such as the follow-through phase of a throwing motion. A. Eccentric B. Isokinetic C. Concentric D. Progressive resistance
A. Eccentric
Which of the following is/are true of plyometrics? Select all that apply. A. Examples include box jumps and clap pushups B. They should be incorporated into rehabilitation programs at a very early stage. C. Rapid concentric contraction followed by a rapid eccentric contraction D. Rapid eccentric contraction followed by a rapid concentric contraction
A. Examples include box jumps and clap pushups D. Rapid eccentric contraction followed by a rapid concentric contraction
Which of the following tendons is involved with mallet finger? A. Extensor Digitorum B. Flexor Digitorum Profundus C. Lumbricals D. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
A. Extensor Digitorum
National Strength and Conditioning Association oversees the drug testing programs in NCAA. A. False B. True C. Unsure D. can't answer
A. False
1932 Cramer family published the ____and has played a major role in Athletic Training since then. A. First Aider B. NATA newsletter C. water bottle digest D. trainers bible
A. First Aider
What is/are the movements of the Metatarsophalangeal joints? A. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction B. flexion, extension C. flexion, extension, abduction D. abduction, adduction
A. Flexion, extention, abdusction, adduction
___________ is the act that regulates the dissemination of health information and protects patient's privacy. A. HIPAA B. NATA C. FERPA D. CAATE
A. HIPAA
Which of the following is NOT an adverse reaction to aspirin and NSAIDS? A. Inhibition of Prostaglandin Release B. Gastric irritation C. Dizziness D. Tinnitus
A. Inhibition of Prostaglandin Release
When an immediate reaction to a drug is necessary, it should be administered: A. Intravenously B. Intradermally C. Intramuscularly D. Sublingually
A. Intravenously. p454 - 1st sentence under intravenous. Straight into the blood stream and will be circulated throughout the body MUCH faster via this administrative route.
Electrolyte replacement is necessary in all cases EXCEPT? A. Just before exercise B. After running a marathon C. After extreme water loss D. During exercise for an unfit person
A. Just before exercise
An avascular necrosis of the femoral head seen in children 4 to 10 years of age is called: A. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease B. Femoral epiphysitis C. Osteomyelitis dessicans D. Osteopyroxymia
A. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
Which of the following postures results from an increased curve in the lumbar spine? A. Lordosis B. Kyphosis C. Flatback D. Swayback
A. Lordosis. characterized by increased curve of the lumbar spine, and an increase in pelvic anterior tilt and hip flexion
All of the following are functions of bone EXCEPT? A. Mineral production other than calcium B. Organ protection C. Hematopoiesis D. Body support
A. Mineral production other than calcium
Systolic blood pressure indicates: A. The pressure on the blood vessel walls when the left ventricle contracts B. The residual pressure present in the arteries between beats of the heart C. The pressure on the blood vessel walls when the right ventricle contracts D. The pressure on the blood vessel walls when the blood enters the left ventricle
A. The pressure on the blood vessel walls when the left ventricle contracts
Fast-twitch fibers are primarily anaerobic and do not depend on oxygen for their energy supply. A. True B. False C. All of the Above D. None of the above
A. True
During the inflammatory response phase there is a period of ________________ followed by _______________. . A. Vasoconstriction, vasodilation B. Vessel permeability, vasoconstriction C. Vasodilation, vasoconstriction D. Vasoconstriction, phagocytosis
A. Vasoconstriction, vasodilation
An athlete sprains his/her ankle during a soccer practice. If the athletic trainer fails to provide care for this athlete he/she can be held liable for such negligence. A. True B. False C. None of the Above
B. False
When doing muscular endurance training, the athlete needs to reach a repetition maximum 8 times in each set. A. True B. False C. None of the Above D. All of the Above
B. False
Most athletes (and parents/guardians when applicable) are required to sign an assumption of risk prior to athletic participation. Therefore athletes who sustain injuries while participating in sports ___________ sue/suing schools, administrators, coaches, and athletic trainers. A. are still allowed to B. must prove fraud, misrepresentation, or duress when C. are prevented from D. are discouraged from
B. Must prove fraud, misrepresentation, or duress when
Pronation and supination primarily occur at what joint? A. Tarsometatarsal joint B. Subtalar joint C. Tibiofibular joint D. Talocrural joint
B. Subtalar Joint
A grade II lateral ankle sprain indicates damage to which ligaments? A. Posterior Talofibular and Anterior Talofibular B. Anterior Tibiofibular and Anterior Talofibular C. Anterior Talofibular and Calcaneofibular D. Deltoid and Anterior Tibiofibular
C. Anterior Talofibular and Calcaneofibular
Which of the following drug classes is used to fight infection? A. Analgesics B. Anti-emetic C. Anti-fungals D. Corticosteroids
C. Anti-Fungals. p465. Corticosteroids are good for inflammation. Analgesics are good for pain. Anti-emetics reduce nausea and vomiting.
Which of the following drug classes is used to fight infection? A. Corticosteroids B. Analgesics C. Anti-fungals D. Anti-emetic
C. Anti-fungals. Corticosteroids are good for inflammation. Analgesics are good for pain. Anti-emetics reduce nausea and vomiting.
This test will result in pain if the patient has a torn meniscus: A. Apley's Distraction B. Posterior Sag C. Apley's Compression D. Lachman's
C. Apley's Compression. Distraction p. 584 Lachman's p. 585 Posterior Sag and Apley's Compression test p. 587
All of the following would be performed during the primary survey EXCEPT: Select the BEST answer A. Determine the cause of shock B. Carotid pulse C. Bandage a lower leg laceration that is 1/8" deep. D. Assess scene safety E. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
C. Bandage a lower leg laceration that is 1/8" deep. A laceration that is 1/8" deep is not a life-threatening injury. Treatment for this injury should be delayed until the secondary survey.
Evidence-Based Practice is the integration of _______ and _______ to ensure improved patient values and experiences. A. clinical experience, patient signs and symptoms B. best available research, physician protocols C. best available research, clinical experience D. clinical competencies, departmental policies
C. Best available research, clinical experience
______ contractions are critical for deceleration of high-velocity limb motions during dynamic activity such as the follow-through phase of a throwing motion. A. Concentric B. Progressive resistance C. Eccentric D. Isokinetic
C. Eccentric
Your patient sustained a lower spinal cord injury as well as soft tissue damage to his lower extremities. He is having trouble contracting his quad. You want to determine if the case is caused by a decreased electrical signal to the muscle, or if the muscle itself has been damaged. What diagnostic test would be most appropriate in assisting your decision? A. Electrocardiogram B. Ultrasonogram C. Electromyogram D. Electroencephalogram
C. Electromyogram. Using an EMG and assessing the patient's nerve conduction velocity would be the two tests you would want to select. Since nerve conduction velocity is not an answer, EMG is your only/BEST option.
What is the job of the T cells? A. locate the infection B. produce antibodies C. fight D. make blood
C. Fight
The motions of the humeroulnar joint are : A. Pronation and supination B. Inversion and eversion C. Flexion and extension D. Radial and ulnar deviation
C. Flexion and extension. "Articulations" - the humeroulnar joint is a simple hinge joint, which means that it can only move into flexion and extension.
A preferred therapeutic massage for areas around joints, other areas where tissue is thin, and over adhesions would be: A. Tapotement B. Effleurage C. Friction D. Petrissage
C. Friction
As a clinician you may have to treat patients suffering from _______ which is associated with a persistent and irrational fear of a specific event. A. Depression B. Paranoia C. Phobias D. Panic attacks
C. Phobias
All athletic trainers must practice under the direction of a(n) ____________. A. athletic director B. head athletic trainer C. physician D. head coach
C. Physician
_________ is a passive technique that places a patient's affected muscle in a shortened position for 90 seconds to decrease muscle spasm and guarding. A. Myofascial release B. Soft-tissue mobilization (ART) C. Strain-counterstrain D. Mulligan technique
C. Strain-counterstain
In managing a hamstring strain, which of the following should be avoided? A. Use eccentric exercise in muscle rehabilitation B. Immediately apply an ice pack C. Stretch by ballistic movements D. Apply compression with an elastic wrap
C. Stretch by ballistic (bouncing) movements
The anterior cruciate ligament is most vulnerable to injury when: A. The knee is varus and the tibia is internally rotated B. The knee is varus and the tibia is externally rotated C. The knee is valgus and the tibia is externally rotated D. The knee is valgus and the tibia is internally rotated
C. The knee is valgus and the tibia is externally rotated
In an effort to accurately assess the extent of a musculoskeletal injury, it is vitally important to know: A. The athlete's medical history B. The conditions of the playing field C. The mechanism of the injury D. Pre-existing congenital conditions
C. The mechanism of the injury
When an athlete is being placed on a spine board, which of the following personnel is in control? A. The physician B. The head athletic trainer C. The person stabilizing the victim's head D. The EMT who arrives on the scene
C. The person stabilizing the victim's head
Death is imminent if the core body temperature rises above 104 F for an extended period of time or drops between 77º F and 85º F. A. False, the core temperature must rise above 105 degrees F for an extended time B. False, the core temperature must drop below 65 degrees F for an extended time C. True
C. True
The muscle that is the main stabilizer for patellar tracking is the: A. Vastus lateralis B. Vastus intermedius C. Vastus medialis D. Rectus femoris
C. Vastus medialis
When one has a back injury the first thing that should be evaluated and ruled out is ___. A. shock B. sprain C. fracture D. disloaction
C. fracture. Always rule out fx (trauma to vertebra) and spinal cord injuries 1st (life-threatening injuries).
Your roommate has a fever and you want to give him/her an over-the-counter medication that will help their fever, but not have other actions on their body. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate? A. Motrin B. Naproxen C. Acetylsalicylic acid D. Acetaminophen
D. Acetaminophen. p. 469-470. Acetaminophen only has analgesic and antipyretic effects, but no anti-inflammatory. The other 3 have all 3 properties. Only use medications that will treat the problem at hand. You should not use medications that treat other issues as well.
An athletic trainer that burns an athlete because of improper use of a modality could be found to be _________________. A. Negligent B. In breach of a duty C. Liable D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What are some of the things one can do to reduce his/her risk of litigation? A. Have an EAP at each site B. Documentation C. Communication D. All of the abve
D. All of the above
Which of the following is (are) sign(s) of cervical neck fracture? A. Cervical pain B. Neck mid-line point tenderness C. Cervical muscle spasm D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Athletic trainers should work to improve their knowledge and satisfy their intellectual curiosity through: A. Reading journals B. open communication with the team physician(s) C. attending professional meetings D. all of the above are correct
D. All of the above are correct.
Athletes who sustain injuries that disable them from performing may experience: A. Fear B. Depression C. Anger D. All of the choices are correct
D. All of the choices are correct
Most serious cervical injuries in football result from purposeful: A. Hyperextension resulting from pushing the face mask up B. Hyperflexion as a result of tackling the legs of the opponent C. Opponents grabbing face masks and twisting them D. Axial loading as a result of spearing
D. Axial loading as a result of spearing
The application of mechanical forces, which may stem from within or outside of the body, to living organisms is called: A. Etiology B. Kinesiology C. Anatomy D. Biomechanics
D. Biomechanics
A deformity caused by a the extensor tendon slipping anteriorly to the side of the middle phalanx and is still attached on the distal phalanx is called: A. Bowler's finger B. Mallet finger C. Handlebar palsy D. Boutonniere deformity
D. Boutonniere deformity
Following an injury or surgery, when should the rehabilitation process be initiated? A. 3 to 4 days later B. 24 hours later C. When pain subsides D. Immediately after the injury occurs
D. Immediately after the injury occurs. p. 432. Phase I of the rehabilitation plan should begin immediately after the injury occurs. Primary focus in Phase 1 is reducing pain, swelling, and creating an environment that encourages healing (PRICE).
Which of the following are true concerning sunscreen? A. SPF 10 means you can be in the sun for 10 hours before reapplication is necessary B. Only fair-skinned, blondes/redheads need to wear sunscreen C. Sun exposure only causes squamous cell skin cancers in people who are 60+. D. Individuals with a personal or family history of skin cancer should always wear stronger sunscreens (SPF 30+) and should consider wearing light-colored long sleeves and hats to increase protection.
D. Individuals with a personal or family history of skin cancer should always wear stronger suncreen (SPF 30+) and should consider wearing light- colored long sleeves and hats to increase protection.
Which of the following results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon? A. Boutonniere deformity B. Gamekeeper's thumb C. Mallet finger D. Jersey finger
D. Jersey finger
The ligament that protects the knee from a valgus stress and external rotational forces is the: A. Anterior cruciate B. Lateral collateral C. Posterior cruciate D. Medial collateral
D. Medial collateral
Injuries to the musculotendinous unit commonly occur at all of the following sites except in the? A. Muscle belly B. Bony attachment C. Musculotendinous junction D. Mid-tendon area
D. Mid-tendon area
A condition in which cold exposure causes vasospasm of the digital arteries is known as: A. Normal B. Cold allergy C. Hunting response D. Raynaud's phenomenon
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
Pronation and supination primarily occur at what joint? A. Talocrural joint B. Tarsometatarsal joint C. Tibiofibular joint D. Subtalar joint
D. Subtalar joint. Feedback: Subtalar joint p.505-506 Tibiofibular joint is a diarrhetic joint that only allows some gliding. p.535 Talocrural joint is a hinge joint (dorsiflexion/plantar flexion) p.536 Tarsometatarsal joint is comprised by several saddle type joints that only allow for gliding in flexion, extension, abduction and adduction. p.500
A condition that has a gradual onset with diffuse tenderness, inflammation and usually crepitus of a tendon is called? A. Tenosynovitis B. Bursitis C. Myositis fascitis D. Tendinitis
D. Tendinitis
Which of the following would NOT be included in the observation part of a foot and ankle assessment? A. Gait B. Shoe wear patterns C. Arch type D. Discoloration E. Ligament laxity F. Swelling G. Toe deformities
E. Ligament Laxity. Observation is covered on p509-510. Ligament laxity would be performed during special tests.
Repetitive hyperextension of the great toe resulting in inflammation and pain under the great toe is known as, what condition(s)? A. Turf Toe B. Sesmoiditis C. Morton's toe D. Bunion E. This is a possible MOI and s/s for both A and B
E. This is a possible MOI and s/s for both A and B
Aquatic therapy can be beneficial: A. when initiating a rehabilitation program. B. for increasing ROM. C. for assisting with motion. D. improving or maintaining cardiovascular endurance. E. B & D F. All of the above.
F. All of the above
T/F: Although the menisci are, for the most part, avascular, the inner third receives direct circulation from the medial genicular artery.
False
T/F: Colles' fracture is a fracture of the proximal end of the radius.
False
T/F: During the inflammatory response phase of healing vasoconstriction causes swelling and redness.
False
T/F: Etiology refers to a perceptual change in an athlete's body that indicates injury or disease.
False
T/F: Every time host is infected with an infectious microorganism they will immediately begin progressing through the 5 stages of pathogen infection.
False.
T/F: Osteoarthritis is caused by a genetic disorder and only afflicts elderly people.
False. It is the result of an injury to articular cartilage. Usually associated with joint injuries (Grade 3 ligament sprains, fractures, dislocations).
T/F: Ten to 25 percent of young pitchers develop little league elbow as a result of the repetitive stress caused by throwing curve balls.
False. It isn't caused by a specific pitch, just from repetitive microtrauma due to throwing.
T/F: Jones Fractures occur in the 2nd metatarsal bone.
False. Jones Fractures are at the neck of the 5th metatarsal.
T/F: Jones Fractures occur in the 2nd metatarsal bone.
False. Jones Fractures occurs in the 2nd metatarsal bone.
T/F: LCL sprains are more common than MCL sprains.
False. MCL sprain occur at a much higher rate than LCL sprains because the MCL MOIs are more common. Valgus stress, and tibial ER (cutting off that leg).
T/F: It would never be beneficial for a clinician to supervise/observe an athlete perform drills with their teammates who is recovering from an injury.
False. This could be HUGELY helpful to a clinician and to the athlete since it would allow the clinician to determine the athlete's level of readiness for return to play and also ease the athlete's anxiety about returning while boosting their confidence. p.430. Last paragraph "Incorporating functional progression"
T/F: In the underwater application of ultrasound, the transducer head may touch the skin because the water will serve as a coupling agent.
False. p 406. The US head should be approximately 1" (2.5cm) away from the treatment area. Direct contact with the skin could result in a burn
T/F: Only insecure females develop eating disorders.
Fasle. Individuals of all walks of life can develop eating disorders including but not limited to wrestlers, gymnasts, swimmers, track and field athletes, and individuals who have sustained significant psychological abuse.
Joe spends 15 minutes every day mentally rehearsing and perfecting his pitching technique since he cannot throw yet after his elbow UCL surgery. This is an example of (Blank) , which is utilized regularly by athletes at all levels.
Imagery
(Blank) current is the most commonly utilized electrical current in therapy clinics. It is used to reduce pain, muscle spasm, or move ions.
Monophasic
The (Blank) establishes all bloodborne safety standards that employers and employees must follow to ensure risks are minimized.
OSHA
Concentric
Shortening
T/F: A compression fracture of the lumbar vertebrae may occur as a result of violent hyperflexion of the trunk.
True
T/F: A deficiency in folic acid and iron can lead to anemia.
True
T/F: A football player removed the factory padding in his helmet and then sustained a skull fracture. This is an example of manufacturer liability.
True
T/F: A ganglion is a herniation of the joint capsule or of the synovial sheath of a tendon; it is often thought of as a cyst structure.
True
T/F: A wrist sprain is the most common wrist injury.
True
T/F: An open fracture poses different immediate care concerns compared to a closed fracture.
True
T/F: Fat provides more energy per gram than either carbohydrates or proteins.
True
T/F: In a postural examination, if the athlete bends over from the waist and the scoliotic curve in the spine straightens, the athlete has a functional scoliosis.
True
T/F: It is possible that your patient's decreased shoulder AROM after an anterior glenohumeral dislocation is due to reduced accessory motion secondary to ligamentous scarring/tightening.
True
T/F: Ligaments have the same healing process as other vascular soft tissues and bone.
True
T/F: People with foot and ankle injuries should progress to full weight bearing as soon as it is tolerated.
True
T/F: Racquetball elbow, golfer's elbow, and javelin throwers elbow refer to a medial epicondylitis.
True
T/F: The hip joint is the strongest and best protected joint in the human body.
True
T/F: The main symptom of forearm splints is a dull ache between the extensor muscles crossing the back of the forearm.
True
T/F: The radial collateral ligament does not attach to the radius, which is free to rotate.
True
T/F: To ensure that there is proper blood circulation to the foot, the pulse can be measured at the posterior tibial and dorsal pedal arteries.
True
T/F: When an athlete assumes the risk of the sport that means that they cannot sue for any accidents that may occur.
True
T/F: A 5-year-old boy is running away from his older brother. He falls and smashes his knee on stairs. His mother tells him to rub his "owie" to make it feel better. She is using a real-world example of the gate control theory to help reduce her son's pain
True The brain senses the signal that gets there first. The large ascending AB afferents can carry sensory information to the brain much faster than the small A-gamma and C pain fibers. So, by rubbing his knee the child will stimulate the sensory mechanoreceptors and over-ride the feeling of pain from hitting his knee.
T/F: Injury may affect an athlete as much psychologically as it does physiologically.
True.
T/F: Most narcotics used in medicine are derived from opium or are synthetically similar.
True.
T/F: The hunting's response is a increase in tissue temperature as a result of prolonged exposure to cold.
True.
T/F: The primary active ingredient of aspirin is acetylsalicylic acid.
True.
T/F: The progression of myofascial release should be from superficial to deep.
True.
T/F: The body's ability to maintain postural control is achieved by integration of information from muscle and joint mechanoreceptors, and visual and vestibular input.
True. p. 424. last paragraph (proprioception/position of a joint space) and p. 429. "Regaining Balance and Postural Control" - 1st paragraph
T/F: Improper footwear may cause a person to tear their ACL.
True. Shoes that cause too much traction can increase the rotational forces in the knee and cause significant knee injuries.
T/F: Medicaid benefits are determined by the federal government.
True. The federal government helps financially support medicaid, but eligibility and benefits are determined by the individual states.
T/F: Testing if a patient can generate enough strength to move through full knee flexion at a controlled speed without resistance is one way to determine if they have damage to their S1 Nerve Root.
True. You could also have them perform plantar flexion or eversion of their ankle, or hip extension. To make this test more difficult you could also resist their movement.
T/F: Some drugs that are abused overlap with those that are thought to be performance enhancing.
True. p484. 1st sentence of 2nd paragraph under psychological vs. physical dependence
T/F: As a result of staleness, athletes will exhibit higher blood pressure or an increased pulse rate, both at rest and during activity.
True: