ATI FINAL

Chapter 2 questions

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Chapter 3 Questions

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Chapter 4

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Chapter 1 Questions

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A nurse is caring for a couple who is being evaluated for infertility. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates understanding of the infertility assessment process? A: You will need to see a genetic counselor as part of the assessment B: It is usually the female who is having trouble, so the male does not have to be involved. C: The male is the easiest to assess, and the provider will usually begin there. D: Think about adopting first because there are many babies that need good homes.

A: A referral to a genetic counselor occurs if there is a reason to suspect birth defects or other physiological concerns. It is not included in all infertility assessment processes. B: The cause of infertility is almost evenly divided between men and women. C: CORRECT: A sperm analysis is one of the first steps in the infertility assessment process and can identify a cause of infertility in a less invasive and costly manner. D: Adoption is an option for the infertile couple after identifying a possible cause for infertility.

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of female clients who are being evaluated for infertility. Which of the following clients should the nurse anticipate the provider will refer to a genetic counselor? A: A client whose sister has alopecia B: A client whose partner has von Willebrand disease C: A client who has an allergy to Sulfa D: A client who had rubella 3 months ago

A: Alopecia is a nonhereditary disorder and does not warrant referral to a genetic counselor B: Correct: Von Willebrand disease is a genetic bleeding disorder and warrants a client being referred to a genetic counselor. C: Allergy to sulfa is a nonhereditary condition and does not warrant referral to a genetic counselor. D: A recent episode of rubella in a non pregnant female does not warrant a referral to a genetic counselor.

A nurse in a obstetrical clinic is teaching a client about using an IUD for contraception. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? A: An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam B: I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child C: I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed. D: I will check to be sure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.

A: An IUD will be replaced every 3-5 years, dependent upon the type of IUD used. B: Client's do not have to have given birth prior to the insertion of the IUD> It will be necessary for the client to have a negative pregnancy test prior to the insertion of the IUD. C: Fertility will resume immediately following removal of the IUD. D: Correct: The client should check for presence of IUD strings following each menstruation to ensure the device is still present. A change in the length of the strings should be reported to the provider.

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A: This is due to an increase in blood volume B: This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm C: This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava D: This is due to increased cardiac output

A: An increase in blood volume during pregnancy results in cardiac hypertrophy B: Pressure from the gravid uterus on the diaphragm might cause the client to experience shortness of breath. C: Correct: Maternal hypotension occurs when the client is lying in the supine position and the weight of the gravid uterus places pressure on the vena cava. D: An increase in cardiac output during pregnancy results in cardiac hypertrophy.

Question 1: A nurse in a health clinic is reviewing contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding? A: A water-soluble lubricant should be used with condoms. B: A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse C: Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne D: A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month

A: CORRECT Condoms are used with water-soluble lubricants. B: A diaphragm should be removed no sooner than 6 hr and no later than 24 hr after intercourse C: Acne is reduced when taking oral contraceptives D: Contraceptive patches are replaced once a week.

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that their last menstrual period was April 1st. Which of the following is the client's estimated date of delivery? A: January 8th B: January 15h C: February 8th D: February 15th

A: Correct: April 1st minus 3 months plus 7 days and 1 year equals an estimated date of delivery of Jan 8th B-DThis is incorrect usinc Nagele's rule

A nurse in an infertility clinic is providing care to clients who have been unable to conceive for 18 months. Which of the following data should the nurse assess? (SATA) A: Occupation B: Menstrual history C: Childhood infectious diseases D: History of falls E: Recent Blood Transfusions

A: Correct: Occupational hazards include exposure to teratogenic substances in the workplace (radiation, chemicals, herbicides, pesticides). B: Correct: menstrual history can identify hormone-related patterns (anovulation, pituitary disorder, endometriosis). C: Correct: Childhood infectious diseases can identify the male partner having had the mumps. D: A history of falls is not a consideration in the assessment. E: A recent blood transfusion is not a consideration in the assessment.

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is postoperative following a salpingectomy due to an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client requires clarification? A: It is good to know that I won't have a tubal pregnancy in the future B: The doctor said that this surgery can affect my ability to get pregnant again C: I understand that one of my fallopian tubes had to be removed D: Ovulation can still occur because my ovaries were not affected.

A: Correct: The risk of recurrence of an ectopic pregnancy is increased following an ectopic pregnancy. B: Infertility can occur as a result of an ectopic pregnancy C: A salpingectomy involves the removal of a fallopian tube. D: A salpingectomy does not involve the removal of the ovaries.

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and reviewing manifestations of complications the client should promptly report to the provider. Which of the following complications should the nurse include? A: Vaginal bleeding B: Swelling of the ankles C: Heartburn after eating D: Lightheadedness when lying on back

A: Correct: Vaginal bleeding indicates a potential complication of the placenta such as placenta previa. Instruct the client to notify the provider immediately. B: Swelling of the ankles is a common occurrence during pregnancy and can be relieved by sitting with the legs elevated. C: Heartburn occurs during pregnancy due to pressure on the stomach by the enlarging uterus. It can be relieved by eating small meals. D: Supine hypotension can be experienced by the client who feels lightheaded or faint when lying on their back. Instruct the client about the side-lying position to remove pressure of the uterus on the vena cava.

A nurse in a clinic is teaching a client about a new prescription for medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? (SATA) A: Weight fluctuations can occur B: You are protected against STIs C: You should increase your intake of calcium D: You should avoid taking antibiotics E: Irregular vaginal spotting can occur

A: Correct: Weight fluctuations can occur when taking medroxyprogesterone. B: Medroxyprogesterone does not provide protection against STIs C: Correct: Clients should take calcium and vitamin D to prevent loss of bone density, which can occur when taking medroxyprogesterone D: Antibiotics are not contraindicated when taking medroxyprogesterone E: Medroxyprogesterone can cause irregular vaginal bleeding.

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy. The client's health record includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L!. How should the nurse interpret this information? (SATA). A: Client has delivered one newborn at term B: Client has experienced no preterm labor C: Client has been through active labor D: Client has had two prior pregnancies E: Client has one living child.

A: CorrectT1 indicates the client has delivered one newborn at term. B: P0 indicates that the client has had no preterm deliveries. C: A1 indicates the client has had one miscarriage. D: Correct: G3 indicates the client has had two prior pregnancies and the client is currently pregnant. E: Correct: L1 indicates the client has one living child

a nurse is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the nurse include? (SATA) A: Avoid any lifting B: Perform Kegel exercises twice a day C: Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day D: Use proper body mechanics E: Avoid constrictive clothing

A: Lifting can be done by using the legs rather the back. B: Kegel exercises are done to strengthen the perineal muscles and do not relieve backache C: Correct: The pelvic rock or tilt exercise stretches the muscles of the lower back and helps relieve lower back pain D: Correct: Use of proper body mechanics prevents back injury due to the incorrect use of muscles when lifting. E: Avoiding constrictive clothing helps prevent urinary tract infections, vaginal infections, varicosities, and edema of lower extremities

A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (SATA) A: Motgomery's glands B: Goodell's sign C: ballottement D: Chadwick's sign E: Quickening

A: Montgomery's glands are a presumptive sign of pregnancy B-D correct E: Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

A nurse is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report to the provider. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include? A: Reduced menstrual flow B: Breast tenderness C: Shortness of breath D: Increased appetite

A: Reduced menstrual flow is a common adverse effect of oral contraceptives and usually subsides after a few months of use. B: Breast tenderness is a common adverse effect of oral contraceptives and usually subsides after a few months of use. C: Correct: Shortness of breath can indicate a pulmonary embolus or myocardial infarction and should be reported to the provider immediately. D: Increased appetite is a common adverse effect of oral contraceptive and does not have to be reported to the provider.

A nurse is teaching a client about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include? (SATA) A: Tinnitus B: Irregular vaginal bleeding C: Weight Gain D: Nausea E: Gingival hyperplasia

A: Tinnitus is not an adverse effect of implantable progestins B: Correct: Irregular vaginal bleeding is a potential adverse effect of implantable progestins. C: Correct: Weight gain is a potential adverse effect of implantable progestins. D: Correct: Nausea is a potential adverse effect of implantable progestins E: Gingival hyperplasia is not a potential adverse effect of implantable progestins.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is to undergo hysterosalpingography. Which of the following data alert the nurse that the client is at a risk for a complication related to this procedure. VS: temp 97 F, HR 60/min History and physical: Employed as a radiology technician Allergy to shrimp Tonsillectomy at 18 Lab findings: Glucose 103mg/dL Hgb: 13.1 g/dl Total cholesterol 265 mg/dL Medications Rosuvastatin Magnesium oxide Mafenide acetate A: VS B: history and physical C: Lab findings D: medications

A: an elevated heart rate or temp could indicate infection, which would be a contraindication to the procedure. B: Correct: An allergy to seafood is a contraindication to the dye used in hysterosalpingography. C: The clients total cholesterol is elevated, but this does not place the client at risk for a complication related to the procedure. D: There are no contraindications related to the medications the client is taking.

A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who would like to be tested in the clinic to confirm a pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client? A: You should wait until 4 weeks after conception to be tested. B: You should be off any medications for 24 hours prior to the test. C: you should be NPO for at least 8 hours prior to the test D: you should collect urine from the first morning void.

A: the production of HCG can be detected as early as 7-8 days before expected menses. B: Do not advise the client to stop taking medications in preparation for pregnancy tests. Review the clients medications to determine whether they can affect the results. C: Do not advise the client to remain NPO prior to pregnancy testing. Blood tests are not affected by food or fluid intake. D: Correct: Urine pregnancy tests should be done a on a first-voided morning specimen to provide the most accurate results.