BD - Ch. 11 Quiz

Which of the following lower-extremity postures places an increased compressive force on the lateral patellar facets? a. Genu recurvatum b. Genu varum c. Genu valgum d. Forefoot pronation

b. Genu varum

In a weight-bearing situation, excessive foot pronation will increase internal rotation of both the hip and the femur, resulting in what effect on the patella? a. It increases medial force. b. It increases lateral force. c. It has no effect on patellar tracking. d. The femur and hip can't both move in the same direction.

b. It increases lateral force.

Which of the following is most reliable in determining who will have patellofemoral pain? a. Measuring anatomical leg length b. Levels of anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) c. Tibia length d. Femur length

b. Levels of anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

With the knee extended, which direction should a patella be moved in order to palpate the odd facet? a. Lateral or medial b. Medial c. The patella does not need to be moved. d. Lateral

b. Medial

In which of the following patellar orientations is the patella positioned in the frontal plane, which is considered a deviation from the patella being centered between the medial and lateral condyles? a. Anterior/posterior patellar tilt b. Medial/lateral patellar glide c. Medial/lateral patellar tilt d. Patellar rotation

b. Medial/lateral patellar glide

With the patient short sitting, observe the relationship between the tibial tuberosity and the inferior patellar pole. If the angle is more than _____, the person is susceptible to lateral tracking. a. 10° b. 2° c. 1° d. 5°

a. 10°

When does the patella become seated within the groove as the knee moves from flexion into extension in an open chain? a. 10° to 20° b. 45° to 60° c. 60° to 75° d. 20° to 30°

a. 10° to 20°

During open-chain knee movement, at what degree does the patella begin to track laterally when moving from flexion into extension? a. 18° b. 23° c. 45° d. 5°

a. 18°

If a knee effusion is present, what effect does it have on patellar tracking? a. It neurologically inhibits the vastus medialis oblique. b. It causes the patella to be ballottable and therefore nonfunctioning. c. It has no effect. d. It neurologically inhibits the rectus biceps femoris.

a. It neurologically inhibits the vastus medialis oblique.

Which of the following helps to maintain the patella's position and originates off the vastus lateralis tendon and the iliotibial (IT) band? a. Lateral retinaculum b. Medial patellofemoral ligament c. Medial retinaculum d. Lateral patellofemoral ligament

a. Lateral retinaculum

When differentiating between meniscal and patellar pain, which characteristic is more indicative of patellar pain? a. Pain when kneeling b. Inability to "duck walk" c. Pain associated with going upstairs d. Pain localized over joint line

a. Pain when kneeling

Which of the following techniques measures the Q angle? a. Proximal arm: ASIS; axis: midpoint of patella; distal arm: tibial tuberosity b. Proximal arm: greater trochanter; axis: midpoint of patella; distal arm: tibial tuberosity c. Proximal arm: anterior inferior iliac spine; axis: tibial tuberosity; distal arm: lateral malleolus d. Proximal arm: ASIS; axis: midpoint of patella; distal arm: medial malleolus

a. Proximal arm: ASIS; axis: midpoint of patella; distal arm: tibial tuberosity

Which of the following would increase the patellofemoral joint force? a. Tight hamstrings b. Weak hip adductors c. Tight soleus d. Weak hip abductors

a. Tight hamstrings

Which of the following muscles is responsible for preventing lateral patellar subluxation? a. Vastus medialis b. Gracilis c. Vastus intermedius d. Vastus lateralis

a. Vastus medialis

The patella's anatomical design allows for all of the following except a. increased strength of the quadriceps muscle group. b. absorption and transmission of the joint reaction forces. c. increased mechanical efficiency of the quadriceps muscle group. d. protection of the anterior portion of the knee joint.

a. increased strength of the quadriceps muscle group.

An athlete presents to the athletic training room complaining of knee pain. Upon evaluation you notice the athlete's patella is high riding and sitting laterally. What patellar alignment problem does the athlete have? a. Patella baja b. "Frog-eyed" patella c. Squinting patella d. Patella alta

b. "Frog-eyed" patella

Which of the following patellar malalignments results in increased patellar glide, a tight lateral retinaculum, and patellar maltracking? a. Patella baja b. "Frog-eyed" patella c. Squinting patella d. Patella alta

b. "Frog-eyed" patella

Which of the following pieces of information may make you suspect patellofemoral pain syndrome? a. "I run 15 miles per week." b. "I changed shoes about 3 weeks ago." c. "I run on asphalt." d. "I have lost 15 pounds."

b. "I changed shoes about 3 weeks ago."

At what degree of knee flexion is the patella most likely to dislocate? a. 40° to 50° b. 20° to 30° c. 0° to 10° d. 60° to 70°

b. 20° to 30°

Which of the following malalignments causes a hypermobile patella? a. Extension lag b. Genu recurvatum c. Genu varum d. Genu valgum

b. Genu recurvatum

Which of the following comments may lead you to think the patient is suffering from chondromalacia? a. "My knee hurts all the time." b. "My knee hurts when I straighten out my leg." c. "When I walk up and down stairs, my kneecap feels like it is grinding." d. "My knee hurts when I sleep."

c. "When I walk up and down stairs, my kneecap feels like it is grinding."

When performing a patellar tilt assessment, a patella that tilts more than ______ is considered hypermobile. a. 2° b. 10° c. 15° d. 5°

c. 15°

When discussing patellar movement, which of the following best describes the J sign? a. As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides superiorly and tracks slightly medially. b. As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides inferiorly and tracks slightly medially. c. As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides superiorly and tracks slightly laterally. d. As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides inferiorly and tracks slightly laterally.

c. As the knee moves from flexion into extension, the patella glides superiorly and tracks slightly laterally.

Internal rotation of the tibia has what effect on Q angle? a. It doesn't have an effect on Q angle. b. It increases it. c. It decreases it. d. It depends on whether the person is weight-bearing versus non-weight-bearing.

c. It decreases it.

Which test can be completed to assess tension of the iliotibial band? a. Stutter test b. Clarke's sign c. Ober test d. Navicular drop test

c. Ober test

Which patellar alignment problem would an athlete have with a congenitally short patellar tendon? a. Squinting patella b. Patella alta c. Patella baja d. "Frog-eyed" patella

c. Patella baja

What injury is indicated by a positive apprehension test? a. Patella alta b. Patella baja c. Patellar subluxation or dislocation d. Patellar malalignment

c. Patellar subluxation or dislocation

Which bursa lies deep at the distal end of the quadriceps femoris muscle group and is an extension of the knee's joint capsule? a. Prepatellar bursa b. Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa c. Suprapatellar bursa d. Deep infrapatellar bursa

c. Suprapatellar bursa

Which of the following is not true when considering Q angle? a. Taller people tend to have lower Q angles than shorter people. b. The Q angle typically decreases as the knee is flexed. c. The Q angle is the relationship between the long axis of the patella and the tibial tuberosity. d. The Q angle helps quantify the line of pull of the quadriceps and the patellar tendon.

c. The Q angle is the relationship between the long axis of the patella and the tibial tuberosity.

By what degree of knee flexion is the patella firmly seated in the trochlear groove? a. 10° b. 5° c. 15° d. 30°

d. 30°

When performing the test for medial synovial plica, over what range will the examiner be more likely to feel the plica? a. 45° to 30° b. 90° to 60° c. 30° to 0° d. 60° to 45°

d. 60° to 45°

Patellofemoral pain syndrome typically presents with pain in what area of the knee? a. Medial b. Posterior c. Lateral d. Anterior

d. Anterior

What is the name for a high-riding patella indicated by what appears to be a "camel's hump" on the knee? a. Bipartite patella b. Patella baja c. Squinting patella d. Patella alta

d. Patella alta

Which of the following patellar malalignments results in increased patellar mobility, decreased quadriceps strength, and increased patellofemoral compressive forces? a. "Frog-eyed" patella b. Squinting patella c. Patella baja d. Patella alta

d. Patella alta

An athlete goes down on the field and you run out to evaluate her. She states that her knee is hurting. You know the athlete has received three cortisone injections in the last 6 months. Which injury may you initially suspect given this information? a. Meniscal injury b. Medial collateral ligament sprain c. Anterior cruciate ligament sprain d. Patellar tendon rupture

d. Patellar tendon rupture

Which of the following occurs at the insertion of the patellar tendon into the inferior pole and is caused by a stress fracture or avulsion due to repetitive forces? a. Synovial plica b. Patellofemoral bursitis c. Osgood-Schlatter disease d. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease

d. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease

Which of the following is not true about the patella and its articulations? a. During flexion, the patella increases its angle of lateral tilt. b. The lateral border of the femoral trochlea forms a strong barrier against lateral patellar movement. c. When the knee is fully extended, the patella is vulnerable to dislocating forces. d. The patella moves on the femur when weight-bearing.

d. The patella moves on the femur when weight-bearing.

Patellar tendinopathies most often have an insidious onset and are common in all of the following activities except: a. running sports. b. jumping activities. c. weight lifting. d. swimming.

d. swimming.