BDCS - K-Plan Final Exam
1. C Wired glass is sheet or plate glass into which a thin wire mesh has been embedded. It has great resistance to impact and resists shattering when exposed to high heat. Therefore, it is used in fire doors, exterior walls, vertical shafts, and areas leading to fire escapes.
1. Which type of glass is appropriate to use in areas exposed to fire hazards? A. Heat-absorbing glass B. Heat-strengthened glass C. Wired glass D. Tempered glass
10. D Iron did not become an important construction material until it could be produced in great quantity. When the Englishman Abraham Darby developed the blast furnace around 1750, mass production became possible. Prior to that time, iron was difficult to produce in quantity (C), and it was also unpopular because of its poor resistance to weather (A) and its lack of historical precedent (B). Iron ore was plentiful, however, and relatively simple to mine. At first, mass-produced iron was __ _ used for machines, utensils, and rails, and shortly thereafter, the first cast iron bridges were constructed in England.
10. Prior to the 18th century, iron was used only sparingly, for fastenings or in decorative ways. All of the reasons below account for this limited use EXCEPT A. it offered poor resistance to weather exposure. B. it lacked classical precedents and therefore was unpopular. C. it could not be produced in large sizes or in great quantity. D. iron ore was scarce and difficult to mine.
11. A Portland cement is manufactured in several types, each with characteristics that make it preferred for a particular set of conditions. For example, the low-heat cement of this question would be suitable where slow setting is desired and where the heat generated by ordinary cements would be excessive and lead to serious cracking. This situation often exists in massive concrete work (correct answer A). For general use (B) one would use Type I (nonnal). During very cold weather (C) one would use Type ill (high early strength) in order to generate greater heat and offset low temperatures. In alkaline areas (D) the best choice would be Type V (sulfate-resisting), which is better able to withstand chemical attacks from sulfates found in the ground or in some building materials. While the different types of cement have different rates of strength gain, they all eventually reach about the same strength.
11. Concrete made from Type IV low-heat portland cement would be MOST appropriately used A. in massive concrete pours. B. for general overall use. C. during very cold weather. D. in high alkaline areas.
12. C Bulb tees are used in gypsum concrete construction as structural sub-purlins. The bulb tees are fastened to the primary framing and provide support for the form boards that receive the gypsum concrete. They also anchor the deck against uplift forces, restrict deck movement due to temperature changes, and provide lateral bracing for the roof structure. Gypsum concrete roof decks are lightweight, they set rapidly (30 minutes), and when used over gypsum or mineral fiber form boards, they are classified as noncombustible.
12. Bulb tees are generally used A. in foundation work involving caissons. B. in underpinning as a form of temporary support. C. in gypsum concrete roof deck construction. D. as water stops in below-grade concreting.
13. B An unprotected, partially finished masonry wall that may be saturated by rain can cause problems. The wall may take months to dry out, and during this drying period, efflorescence may appear on the wall surface. If there is a threat of rain, the wall should be positively protected, as described in correct answer B. Incidentally, when the outside temperature drops below 40 degrees (C), no further masonry work should be performed unless adequate precautions are taken against freezing.
13._ At the conclusion of a workday, a masonry wall remains unfinished. As the weather report calls for a rainstorm that evening, you should advise the contractor to A. cover the exposed top of the unfinished wall with loose boards OF roofing paper. B. protect the exposed top with a positive Waterproof cover, securely weighted down and hung over each side ·of the wall at least two feet. C. ignore the rain unless the temperature drops below 40 degrees. • D. ignore the rain, as masonry, whether. finished or not, cannot be harmed by water.
14. A Type II N is considered noncombustible construction. The rest are considered combustible.
14. Combustible types of construction include all but which of the following? A. Type II N B. Type III N C. Type V N D. Type V one hour
15. C Choice I is correct: Designing with native landscaping is preferred to using exotic or imported plant types. Indigenous plants tend to survive longer, use less water, and cost less. Choice II is not correct: Placing any structure in a floodplain, even those that resist floodwater, is not desirable. Placing buildings in a floodplain can increase flooding further downstream. Choice ill is also correct: Buildings sensitive to the benefits of solar orientation and passive and active solar gain techniques save energy and are more visually aligned with local climatic conditions. Choice IV is correct as well: In-fill development and proximity to a variety of transportation options are design principles that benefit the inhabitants and their environment.
15. The planning phase of sustainably designed architecture project should include which of the following elements? I. Native landscaping that is aesthetically pleasing and functional I. Designing structures in the floodplain that can resist the forces of flood waters II. Consideration of sun orientation, topographic relief, and the scale of adjacent buildings. IV. Locating projects within existing neighborhoods that are adjacent to public transportation I and I. I and III C. I, III, and IV All of the above
16. B Three exits are required where there are more than 500 occupants and four exits are required where there are more than 1,000 occupants. Other areas typically require only two exits, but where the path to the first exit exceeds the allowable travel distance, a third exit would be required.
16. The need for three exits can be based on which of the following? I. Occupant Type I. Type of construction II. Number of occupants (more than 500 but not more than 1,000) IV. Travel distance to an exit V Intervening rooms I and II III and IV III and V IV and V
17. B Fire door requirements are covered in Chapter 43 of the UBC, as well as corresponding sections of other building codes. Class A doors (three-hour rating) are used in openings in fire walls or division walls between buildings or sections of buildings. Class B doors (1 Yi -hour rating) are used in openings in enclosed vertical shafts, such as stairs or elevators. Class D doors are also rated 1 Yi hours, but are intended for severe fire exposure in exterior walls, and no glass is permitted. Statements A, C, and D are true, while statement B, the correct answer, is false.
17. Which of the following statements concerning fire doors is NOT true? A. Class A fire doors are rated for 3 hours and are not permitted to have windows in them. B. A 1 1/2hour-rated fire door may be either Class B or Class D, and is permitted to have up to 100 square inches of wired glass per leaf. C. Class E doors are rated 3/4-hour fire resistance in exterior walls with up to 720 square inches of wired glass. D. Carpeting is .not permitted to pass under any fire door, regardless of t4_e rating of the door, the flame spread rating of the carpet, or whether the door is arranged to be he1d open by a magnetic release device to permit self-closing in the event of fire.
18. C There are few definitions as clear as that for incombustible. It simply means incapable of igniting or supporting combustion when exposed to fire, usually at an air temperature of 1,200 degrees. An incombustible building material, therefore, is simply one that will not bum.
18. An 'incombustible building material is one that A. has at least A.one-hour fire rating. B. is not made of wood, fabric, or paper. C. will not bum. D. will smolder but not support flames.
19. A In the application of built-up composition asphalt roofing materials, the use of angled cant strips is standard procedure. The reason for this is stated in correct answer A. When 15# felts are bent at a 90-degree angle, they have a tendency to crack or rupture. The resulting weakness, when combined with the natural shrinkage Examination Answers 287 and expansion due to weather and other movements of the building, may produce serious roofing failures. Cant strips are generally cut from wood or manufactured from a variety of lightweight, inexpensive materials.
19. <IMAGE>With reference to the detail shown below, the cant strip is indicated as a continuous filler piece cut on a 45-degree angle. The purpose of this angle is to <IMAGE> A. provide a moderate bend in the roofing sheets and thereby avoid potential damage to the roofing. B. assure that roofing water will run off the gravel stop and flow away from the roof edges, toward the drains. C. avoid 90-degree angle creases or pockets in which water may collect and possibly freeze in the winter. D. conserve material, as two cant strips may be cut from a single rectangular block.
2. B Because the lack of a full bed or head of mortar can cause a masonry joint to leak, incomplete joints must be repaired while the mortar is still fresh. This process is called pointing. When similar repairs are made to old work, the process is referred to as tuck pointing.
2. Masonry joints that lack sufficient mortar are often repaired by adding fresh mortar while the surrounding mortar is still green. This process is called A. raking. B. pointing. C. troweling. D. jointing.
20. A I is correct: Solar shading, whether from landscaping or architectural elements, can regulate the insulation to increase winter light and reduce warm summer sunlight. II is also correct: Urban heat island effect is the tendency of a building roof to absorb solar radiation during the day and then emit heat radiation during the evening. Roof systems with grass or light-colored roofing material reduce the urban heat island effect. III is not correct: Sustainable design encourages approaches that reduce the area allocated to parking. IV is correct: The type, location, and size of building fenestration are a key aspect of architectural design for sustainable projects.
20. Sustainably designed architecture requires attention to which of the following building elements? I. Solar shading devices Il. Urban heat island effect II. Increased parking IV. Fenestration and glazing A. I, II, and IV B. I and IV C. I and II D. All of the above
21. C In the same order as the statements, laminated members are generally manufactured from short and narrow lengths of lumber. One of the great advantages is that these small pieces may be end-joined to form almost any length desired with no loss in strength. Concerning the thickness of lumber used, laminations rarely exceed two inches in thickness, but they may be thinner. In the case of some curved members, for example, where the bending radius is short, %-inch thick laminations are often used. The next statement (C) is the correct answer. Simply supported single spans of 60 feet or more are not uncommon. In the form of arches or simple trusses, clear spans may reach 100 feet or more in length. The last statement is false. The very best appearance grade is called "premium," which is specifically intended for use in exposed construction. In descending order of appearance grade, next comes "architectural" grade and then "industrial" grade.
21. Among the following statements concerning glued laminated timber, which is TRUE? A. Laminated members are manufactured from the longest pieces of lumber commonly available. B. Laminations may vary in thickness, but in no case are they ever less than I~ inches thick. C. Glued laminated timbers in straight lengths can readily span 60 feet or more. D. The classification for the finest appearance of glued laminated members is "architectural" grade.
22. D Objects that project from walls constitute a hazard to those with sight disabilities. Therefore, projections are limited to four inches when such hazards are mounted between 27 and 80 inches from the floor. When located below 27 inches, however, wall-mounted projections are easily contacted by a hand-held cane before the blind person reaches the object. Therefore, the ANSI standards permit these objects to protrude any amount, so long as the object does not reduce the clear minimum width of an accessible route.
22. According to the ANSI handicapped standards, objects projecting from walls, such as public telephones, which are mounted between 27 and 80 inches above the finished floor, may not protrude more than 4 inches into passageways. Objects lower than 27 inches, such as trash receptacles, may protrude A. an equal amount. B. no amount at all. C. a variable amount. D. any amount.
23. C The ancient Egyptians employed stone because it was available and its use resulted in stable and permanent structures. The immense stone blocks were difficult to handle (A), but the vast armies of unpaid laborers, prisoners, and slaves solved that problem, as well as the problem of cost (B). Finally, stone does have a high value of insulation appropriate for a warm climate (D), but that quality was incidental to the ancient Egyptians.
23. An abundance of native stone was used in ancient Egyptian architecture because it A. was relatively easy to handle. B. was low in cost, relative to other materials. C. was the most stable and permanent material available. had a high insulating value.
24. D All of the statements are true with the exception of the last one. As the water cement ratio increases, the strength of the concrete decreases. The densest and strongest concrete, therefore, is obtained by using a workable mix with the lowest water-cement ratio that will enable the mix to be thoroughly compacted.
24. Which of the following statements concerning the water-cement rapo of a concrete mix is NOT true? A. The water-cement ratio is based on volume, not weight. B. A low water-cement ratio reduces the shrinkage of concrete and increases its durability. C. The strength of concrete remains the same for a given water-cement ratio, irrespective of the amount of aggregate. D. Provided there is sufficient water to hydrate the cement and to avoid air being trapped because the mix is too stiff to compact thoroughly, the strength of concrete increases as the water-cement ratio increases.
25. D All of the above. Building codes are intended to protect the public health, safety, and welfare.
25. Building codes are intended to protect which of the following? A. Public health B. Public welfare C. Public safety D. All of the above
26. B Aluminum is highly resistant to corrosion from normal weathering because of the tough film of aluminum oxide that rapidly forms on exposed surfaces. It is subject to attack by alkalies, however, and must therefore be protected from contact with wet concrete, mortar, and plaster. Various temporary plastic coatings are used for this purpose. Aluminum is also subject to galvanic action (A), and therefore where it comes in contact with other metals, the meeting surfaces should be insulated by gasketing or by painting with asphaltic or bituminous paint.
26. Aluminum window sections are frequently coated with methacrylate lacquers or strippable plastic coatings prior to installation in a rough-framed structure. The purpose of these temporary coatings is to A. minimize corrosive damage from galvanic action. B. minimize corrosive damage from alkalies. C. reduce deterioration caused by normal weathering. D. keep the sections clean until construction is completed.
27. C The most important consideration in the selection of roofing nails is that they be non-corrosive, such as copper or aluminum (correct answer C). The danger in using steel nails (A) is that they may eventually rust, discolor the tiles, or even corrode to the point of failure. Annular or helical nails (B), whether manufactured from a noncorrosive metal or not, have great holding power, but strength of this magnitude is generally unnecessary. Elastic cement (D) is often used to seal a roof tile joint, but it does not have sufficient holding power for roof tile application.
27. Clay roofing tiles are generally attached by means of A. steel or hardened steel nails. B. annular or helical nails. C. copper or aluminum roofing nails. D. elastic cement or mastic.
28. B A needle beam is used in the situation described in correct answer B. A hole is cut into an existing masonry wall, through which the needle beam is placed at right angles to the wall. Each end of the beam is supported at some distance from the wall and serves as temporary support while the required opening is cut. After the new lintel or arch is formed, the needle beam is removed and the original hole is patched. Needling may require more than one temporary beam if the opening is very wide.
28. In which of the situations described below would you MOST likely employ a needle beam? A. To support the spandrel section in a conventional metal curtain wall B. To support the load above an opening cut into an existing masonry wall C. To support vertical plywood forming sections for poured-in-place concrete walls D. To support cantilevered roof loads in exposed plank-and-beam construction
29. A Non-load-bearing partitions are made from either solid or cored gypsum blocks that are 12 inches high, 30 inches wide, and from 1 1/2 to 6 inches thick. They are generally set on a waterproof base course and joined by a mortar consisting of one part neat, unfibered gypsum to three parts sand (correct answer A). Portland cement mortar (B) is used for brick or concrete block construction and is classified as type A, B, or C (answer D), depending on its resistance to weather exposure.
29. Gypsum partition tiles, otherwise known as plaster blocks, are frequently used for lightweight, fire-resistant interior partitions. Such units are generally held together with A. gypsum mortar. B. portland cement mortar. C. waterproof mortar. D. type A or B mortar.
3. D Heat-strengthened glass is plate or patterned glass to which a colored ceramic glaze has been fused. It is strong, opaque, and used almost exclusively in panels for spandrel glazing in curtain wall construction.
3. Spandrel glazing in a curtain wall system should be A. double-strength glass. B. tempered glass. C. heat-absorbing glass. D. heat-strengthened glass.
30. A A number of patterns and dimensions of trim are produced in a variety of hard and soft woods, for both interior and exterior use .. Each was originally developed for a specific appearance when covering the joint where two surfaces meet. At a wall and ceiling intersection, for example, a crown mold is often used (correct answer A). Casing molds are used around openings, comer beads are used at exterior comers, and chair rails are applied at the mid-height of walls to protect them from furniture damage.
30. At the intersection of a wall and ceiling, one might specify a wooden trim shape known as a A. crown mold. B. case mold C. comer bead. D. chair rail
31. D The door label designating a 1 1/2-hour fire-resistive rating is used in class B openings, generally in vertical stairwells. For that designation, the fire assembly (door frame, hardware, etc.) is required to be self-closing. This means that it is equipped with a mechanical closer that insures closing and latching after being opened. An automatic closing device, on the other hand, is used on a fire assembly that may remain open, but will close automatically if subjected to an increase in temperature. This is required for a three hour fire-resistive rating. Glazed openings in a class B assembly are permitted, providing they do not exceed 100 square inches. The correct answer therefore is D, as neither statement applies to the door label described.
31. If an Underwriters' Laboratories 1 1/2-hour B label were attached to a door, you would know that A. the door required an automatic closing device. B. glazed openings would not be allowed in the door. C. Both of the above statements are true. D. Neither of the above statements is true.
32. B The amount of water vapor that the air can hold increases with the temperature. Within a building, this moisture can come from mechanical equipment, perspiration, and even breathing. The amount of moisture held in the air is usually expressed as relative humidity. The temperature at which the air becomes saturated and vapor condenses is known as the dew point. Although air in a room is generally well above its dew point, the temperature of some surfaces is not, and that is why we usually see condensation first appearing on the inside of windows, which may be cold. Because vapor flows from high to low pressure, it can pass through porous construction, cool to its dew point, and condense as water within the structure. This can be prevented by the use of a vapor barrier. The barrier itself, usually a plastic film or metal foil, must be at a temperature above the dew point, and therefore it is always installed on the warm or room side of the construction beneath the interior finish (correct answer B).
32. <image> Along which line in the diagram above should a vapor barrier be located? A. II only, B. III only, C. I or II D.III or IV
33. B I is correct: LEED has several options for improving Indoor Air Quality (IAQ) including filtering the air system and installing low Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) paints and caulking. II is also correct: Methods to store, recirculate, and locally distribute rainwater are encouraged. III is correct: Innovative solutions to energy conservation, such as fuel cells, photovoltaic panels, and gas turbine energy production, are encouraged in the LEED accreditation system. IV is incorrect: Unfortunately, the LEED system awards no points for designs with strong aesthetics.
33. LEED, the name of a program that environmentally evaluates sustainable projects, is a checklist that is concerned with which of the following? I. Indoor air quality I. Storm water II. Innovative energy systems IV. Aesthetic design A.I B. I, II, and m C. II and III D. All of the above
34. C The standard sizes of metal casement windows are all based on brick masonry modules (correct answer C), as these windows were originally developed for use in brick wall construction.
34. Metal casement windows, regardless of the manufacturer, are generally available in identical stock sizes. The standard dimensions of these windows are based en A. standard metric measurements. B. a standard four-inch module. C. standard brick masonry modules. D. traditional English measurements.
35. D Intumescence is the formation of a charred, foam like material on a coated surface that has been subjected to intense heat. Paints that are able to sacrifice themselves and form this char are called intumescent paints (correct answer D). These special paints are formulated to protect underlying flammable surfaces by insulating them from the intensity of heat, thus delaying ignition. Generally, the fire is not extinguished, but merely retarded. However, delaying the flame spread by even 15 to 30 minutes may save many lives in the evacuation of a school or hospital. Concerning the other choices, other coatings are available that satisfy these special requirements.
35. If you specified the use of an intumescent paint, you would expect the coating to A. inhibit rust on ferrous metal surfaces. B. provide damp proofing on concrete to masonry above grade. C. resist abrasion and impact when used on floor surfaces. D. retard the spread of fire and the effects of intense heat.
36. B Perret's eight-story apartment building, built in 1903, was the first to use reinforced concrete frame construction. Although the concrete columns and beams were sheathed in terra cotta, the structure was revealed to a degree unprecedented in domestic architecture. The infilling panels were ceramic tile decorated in relief, and the building's glass areas were more extensive than usual for that time.
36. The apartment building on the Rue Franklin in Paris, designed by Auguste .Perret, is famous as the first such building to A. eliminate all decorative ornament. B. employ reinforced concrete framing. C. reach great heights using load-bearing masonry walls. D. make use of extensive glass areas.
37. A What is shown is an expansion-type dividing strip, the purpose of which is described in correct answer A. This type of strip is manufactured from a variety of expandable materials, which are used wherever such joints are required. The joint width depends on the total anticipated structural movement.
37. <IMAGE> Shown below is a section through a terrazzo floor installation. The purpose of the neoprene filler is to A. allow for expansion, contraction, or structural movement. B. provide a waterproof joint at a point of stress in the floor. C. provide a durable accent strip of contrasting color and texture. D. provide a preformed cold joint for pouring a large area of terrazzo.
38. D Blisters may be caused by all of the factors listed (correct answer D). Most of the moisture comes from exposure during construction or from poured roof decks that have not had enough time to dry adequately before the application of roofing. Blisters may also result from failure to cement the felts securely to each other, to the insulation, and to the deck, all of which create air bubbles.
38. In built-up composition roofing systems, one of the principal causes of roofing failure is the presence of blisters, which may be caused by I. air between the roofing felts. I. moisture in the roofing insulation. II. moisture in the roof deck. IV. air between the roofing felt and the roof deck. A. I only B. II and III C. I, ill, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV
39. C A concrete masonry unit is specified by its width, height, and length, in that order. The actual dimensions are generally 3/8 inch less, to allow for a mortar joint. The correct dimensions are therefore shown in answer C.
39. What are the actual dimensions of a nominal 8" x 8" x 16" concrete masonry unit? A. 8" x 8" x 15 5/8" B. 8" x 7%" x 15 5/8" C. 7 5/8" x 7 5/8" x 15 5/8" D. 8" x 8" x 16"
4. D I is correct: While first cost is not the primary concern of life cycle costing, it is one of the economic factors considered. II is correct: The cost of maintenance is part of the evaluation. III is correct: The durability of a product or system is considered in the cost of repair and is part of the overall evaluation. IV is correct: The comparison of product or system life is one of the factors evaluated in life cycle costing.
4. Life-cycle costing is an economic evaluation of architectural elements that include which of the following factors? I. First cost I. Maintenance and operational costs II. Repair costs IV. Replacement cost A.I B. II, III, and IV C. II and IV D. All of the above
40. A Of the types of paint in this question, only acrylic latex (correct answer A) is completely solvent-free, and therefore presents no flammability hazard in either storage or application. Polyester-epoxy combines the physical toughness, adhesion, and chemical resistance of epoxy with the color retention and clarity of polyester. Alkyd paints are made by combining synthetic materials with various vegetable oils to produce clear, hard resins. Polyurethane contains flammable solvents, but is highly resistant to abrasion, impact, and chemicals.
40. Which of the following paints would you select if low-flame-spread rating were the MOST important consideration? A. Acrylic latex B. Polyester-epoxy C. Alkyd D. Polyurethane
41. B The Crystal Palace was designed by Joseph Paxton to house the Great Exhibition of 1851 in London. Although it employed cast iron framing (I), and exhibited great spans (Il), it was not the first building to do so, as it was preceded by several bridges, factories, and warehouses. It was, however, standardized, prefabricated, and erected in only three months (III); and in 1851, it was the largest building the world had ever seen (IV), enclosing nearly a million square feet. Finally, the Crystal Place was not fireproof (V), and in fact, the entire iron and glass structure was totally destroyed in a rapid fire in 1937.
41. Which of the following features apply to the Crystal Palace in London •. built in 1851? I. . It was the first building to employ iron framing. I. It was the first building to exhibit great spans. II. It was standardized and prefabricated. IV. It was, in 1851, the largest building in the world. V. It was completely fireproof. A. I and II C. I, II, and V B. III and IV D. III, IV, and V
42. D All of the statements are true and therefore D is the correct answer.
42. Select the correct statements. I. The principal factors affecting the strength of concrete are the water cement ratio and the extent of hydration. I. Air-entrained concrete is more resistant to freezing and thawing than non-air-entrained concrete. II. Concrete having a low water-cement ratio is stronger and more resistant to freezing and thawing than concrete with a high water-cement ratio. IV. The length of time during which concrete is moist-cured affects its strength and water tightness. V. Excessive bleeding tends to make the surface of concrete weak. A. I, ill, and V B. I, II, and IV C. II, IV, and V D. I, II, III, IV, and V
43. C The decking shown and the concrete floor slab placed over it act together as a composite member (correct answer C). This type of action is made possible by the deformations in the deck, which function as mechanical connectors between the slab and deck.
43.<image> A section through steel floor decking is shown above. What is the purpose of the deformations in the deck? A. They simplify the fabrication of the deck. B. They improve the safety of the decking. during construction by making the surface non-skid. C. They lock the concrete slab and decking together to achieve composite action. D. They increase the section modulus of the decking.
44. A Handrails and grab bars that are required by the ANSI handicapped standards must have a diameter of gripping surface between 1 1/4 and 1 1/2 inches. When they are mounted adjacent to a wall, the clear space between the handrail or bar and wall must be no less than 1 1/2 inches (correct answer A). In addition, the gripping surfaces must be continuous and free of any sharp or abrasive element.
44. The clear space between a handrail or grab bar used by the handicapped and the wall on which it is installed should be no less than A. 1 Y2 inches. B. 3 inches. C. 6 inches. D. 10 percent of its height from the floor
45. A Although all of the choices are valid and might be implemented to reduce the heat loss in this old building, the most important first step is to reduce the U factor in that portion of the building envelope that constitutes 85 percent of the exterior wall surface. In this case, applying insulation and gypsum board to the interior surface of the exterior walls will reduce its U value from approximately .56 to .24 (correct answer A). Similarly, double glazing (B) will reduce the U factor from 1.13 to .45; however, it affects only 15 percent of the building envelope, and therefore it would be a secondary consideration. Caulking at windows and doors (C) as well as re-grouting the masonry walls (D) will reduce or eliminate leakage, or infiltration, and these are additional considerations in reducing heat loss.
45. A school district has asked you to reduce the heat loss for a 35-year-old classroom building. The construction of the exterior · walls is eight-inch hollow concrete block with no interior finish. Natural light consists of 3-foot by 5-foot wood sash window frames with single glazing in the masonry walls, and these constitute approximately 15 percent of the exterior wall surface. Without preparing a detailed study, you suggest that the MOST important first step is to apply rigid insulation and gypsum board to the interior surface of the exterior walls. Replace all single glazing with double glazing. Caulk around all the windows and doors Re-grout the masonry
46. C No excavation for the new footings should be started until the footings of the existing building are first extended down to the level of the proposed building's footings. This is accomplished by using temporary supports, such as timber shores or steel needle beams, to carry the weight of the existing building until the new and lower foundation is in place. When the entire weight of the existing wall is transferred to the new section of the foundation, the shoring and underpinning are removed and the foundation for the new building may proceed. The new work is generally performed on all sides simultaneously.
46. A new Building is being constructed adjacent to an existing building whose• footings are sha110wer than those planned for the new structure. The foundation for the new building should be constructed A. in the usual way, as the existing building's footings will be minimally disrupted. B. to the same depth as the footings in the existing building. C. after the footings of the existing building have been extended down to the depth of the footings of the proposed building. D.in two steps: first on the three non-adjacent sides and then on the remaining side.
47. B The L-shaped extrusion forms a continuous condensate gutter (correct answer B). Under certain temperature conditions, moisture vapor, or humidity, changes to liquid through condensation. Generally, moisture vapor flows from high to low pressure independent of airflow. The formation of condensation is particularly prevalent during winter months on glass surfaces that are heated on one side. In a skylight, this moisture must be removed by condensation gutters or else the moisture may cause damage in other parts of the structure.
47. In the detail of an aluminum skylight frame illustrated here, an arrow is shown pointing to an L-shaped extrusion. The purpose of this extrusion is to A. strengthen the bending resistance of the overall section. B. provide a means for removal of condensate. C. provide an integral ledge on which sun control panels may be supported. D. provide a backup safety ledge capable of supporting the glass panel above.
5. B Conventionally laid wood strip floors are blind nailed in order to conceal the nails and tightly drive each strip closer to the preceding strip. At the wall, however, there is no room to drive a nail at a 45-degree angle. The final strip, therefore, is generally face nailed. It is also set about Y2 inch away from the wall in order to allow for expansion. This space is usually covered by the wood base.
5. In laying a conventional wood strip tongue and- groove floor, the strips are usually attached to the subfloor by blind nailing. With regard to the last strip, closest to the wall, it is A. attached with waterproof mastic. B. attached by face nailing. C. also attached by blind nailing. D. not attached, but left loose for expansion.
6. D The standard slump test measures the workability of concrete. The slump of a standard cone of fresh concrete is measured, and the stiffer the mix the less the slump.
6. The slump test is used to measure the A. compressive strength of concrete. B. tensile strength of concrete. C. soundness of concrete aggregates. D. workability of concrete.
7. B The finish of ferrous metals is of particular concern, as steel is susceptible to corrosion when exposed to air and moisture. Under these circumstances, alkyd-based paint is preferred over oilbased because it dries faster, harder, and with greater resistance to the weather. Furthermore, it is generally advisable for all coats of paint to be of the same base type. Incidentally, coal-tar enamel (A) should be specified where steel is installed underground or in water. In that case, the primer should also be a coal-tar product.
7. Structural steel members are to be used in a structure where they will be exposed to severe weather conditions. The members have been cleaned and prepared at the mill, where a priming coat of red-lead alkyd based primer has been applied. After they are in place, you should specify a finish coat of A. coal-tar enamel. B. alkyd enamel. C. oleoresinous paint. D. any of the above.
8. C The only true statement is correct answer C. The gravel fill in which the drain tiles are set (A) provides a porous material through which water may flow to the open joints between the tiles and then away from the building. The waterproof joint between slab and wall (B) provides a positive seal, as well as thermal insulation for the slab. It is sometimes omitted in temperate areas, but only when the temperature remains above freezing during the night, as well as the day. Finally, the capillary rise of ground moisture (D) should be effectively stopped by the waterproof membrane barrier; that is, in fact, its very purpose. Furthermore, capillary action rarely occurs in coarse granular fills, such as the one indicated in the detail shown.
8. <image>With reference to the detail shown below, which of the following statements is MOST correct? A. The foundation drain is placed in gravel fill in order to minimize the cracking or breakage of individual drain tiles. B. The waterproof rigid insulation between the concrete slab and foundation wall may be omitted in areas where the minimum daytime winter air temperature remains above freezing. C. The granular fill beneath the slab may consist of crushed stone, coarse slag, or gravel. D. Even with the waterproof membrane placed as shown, floor coverings may be damaged by the rise of capillary moisture from the ground.
9. B In the control of surface groundwater, the finish grade should be set at least six inches below the slab level, as shown (D). However, the grade should be sloped away from the foundation at all sides (correct answer B), in order to protect the structure. If the drain were set below the footing (A), there would be danger of undf?rmining the footing from the flow of running water. Therefore, foundation drains are always placed as shown. Finally, the waterproof membrane should never be set below the granular fill (C), because the purpose of the fill is drainage, insulation from the soil below, and most importantly, the reduction of capillary action.
9. Referring to the drawing of the previous question, what is the MOST obvious error in the detail, considering conventional practices? A. The foundation drain should be located just below the bottom of the footing. B. The finish grade should slope away from the foundation wall. C. The waterproof membrane should be located below the granular fill. D. The finish grade should be set at least 12 inches below the finish slab level.
