Bio 2
A eukaryotic transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that... A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in eukaryotic DNA. B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code. C) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA. D) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process. E) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
A
During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction? A) RNA B) DNA C) protein D) sugar E) lipid
A
Embryonic lethal mutations result in A) phenotypes that are never born/hatched. B) failure to express maternal effect genes. C) phenotypes that prevent fertilization. D) homeotic phenotype changes. E) death during pupation.
A
Forms of the Ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? A) growth factor signaling to be hyperactive B) cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional C) DNA replication to be hyperactive D) DNA replication to stop E) cell division to cease
A
If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then... A) the amino acid acts as a corepressor B) the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes C) the amino acid inactivates the repressor D) the amino acid turns on transcription E) the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid
A
In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that ____________. A.) Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells. B.) Adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells. C.) Embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells. D.) Embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body.
A
In recent times, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). In order to make this conversion, what has been done to the adult cells? A) A retrovirus is used to introduce four specific regulatory genes. B) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells is injected into the adult cells. C) An adenovirus vector is used to transfer embryonic gene products into adult cells. D) The nucleus of an embryonic cell is used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell. E) The adult stem cells must be fused with embryonic cells.
A
Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells? A.) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division. B.) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections. C.) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk." D.) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes. E.) Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age.
A
Recently, it has been shown that adult cells can be induced to become pluripotent stem cells (iPS). Which strategy do you think was most successful in making this conversion? A.) A retrovirus was used to introduce four master regulator transcription factor genes. B.) The adult stem cells were fused with embryonic stem cells. C.) Cytoplasm from embryonic cells was injected into the adult cells. D.) The nucleus of an embryonic cell was used to replace the nucleus of an adult cell.
A
The HIV virus attacks only a certain type of white blood cells, and not other cell types. Why? A.) HIV receptors are not found on the other cell types. B.) Reverse transcriptase cannot transcribe RNA to DNA. C.) HIV mRNA cannot be transcribed from the integrated provirus D.) HIV cannot bud from the host cell. E.) HIV cannot synthesize capsid proteins.
A
The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur? A) Anterior structures would form in both sides of the embryo. B) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size. C) The embryo would develop normally. D) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs. E) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die.
A
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following? A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism. B) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids. C) DNA was the first genetic material. D) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids. E) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
A
The humans genome contains <21,000 genes, but there are many more polypeptides produced. How might this happen A) each mRNA is alternately and differentially spliced B) polypeptides are post-translationally modified C) genes are recombined in somatic cells D) multiple mRNAs are spliced together E) some polypeptides are made without mRNA
A
The statement that the genetic code encoding proteins is degenerate but not ambiguous refers to the which of the following? A.) Each amino acid can be specified by more than one codon, but one codon cannot specify more than one amino acid. B.) Only one codon, AUG, initiates protein synthesis. C.) There are multiple stop codons that terminate protein synthesis. D.) mRNAs must be translated 5' to 3' E.) mRNAs must be synthesized 5' to 3'
A
Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) other transcription factors B) repressors C) protein-based hormones D) tRNA E) ATP
A
What is the purpose of miRNAs and siRNAs? a) Bind to the mRNA to stop translation b) Bind to the DNA strand to stop transcription c) Plays a role in translation d) Both A and B
A
When a mutation caused by a nucleotide pair insertion occurs in a protein coding region, which of the following effects can not occur? A.) Silent B.) Frameshift C.) Missense D.) Nonsense E.) All are possible.
A
Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells? A) they can give rise to many cell types in the organism B) they can provide enormous amounts of information about the process C) they can continue to reproduce D) one aim of using them is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue E) they normally differentiate into only eggs and sperm
A
A drosophila mutant that failed to produce a functional bicoid protein would be expected to have larvae with ________________. A.) no head and no tail B.) two tails C.) two heads D.) None of the above
B
A particular ____________________ carry the information for making a specific polypeptide, but a ______________________ are used to make any polypeptide. A.) gene and ribosome........RNA and mRNA B.) gene and mRNA.......ribosome and tRNA C.) ribosome and mRNA.......gene and tRNA D.) gene and tRNA.......ribosome and mRNA E.) tRNA and ribosome.......gene and mRNA
B
After implanting, an embryo in a surrogate mother for development, a clone is born. The "clone" animal (Dolly was the first!) is genetically identical to _________________ A.) Enucleated egg donor B.) Nuclear donor C.) Surrogate mother
B
Alternative RNA splicing A) is due to the presence or absence of particular small RNAs in a spliceosome. B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA. C) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription. D) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs. E) increases the rate of transcription.
B
In eukaryotes general transcription factors a.) are required for the expression of specific protein-enconding genes. b.) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box c.) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter d.) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors e.) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription
B
Most of the human genome is made up of ______________ A) introns B) repetitive DNA sections C) non-repetitive non-coding DNA D) promoters and regulatory sequences such as enhancers E) repetitive DNA that does not jump to different chromosome locations
B
Retroviruses like HIV infect an organism for the entire lifetime of their host because a) these viruses infect the host immune cells preventing the host from fighting back. b) their genomes are integrated into the host cell DNA and become a permanent part of the host genome. c) these viruses carry the enzyme reverse transcriptase which copies the genome from RNA into DNA which cannot then be destroyed. d) A & B e) A, B & C
B
Sickle-cell disease is caused by a point mutation. One base-pair is changed from a T to an A. This causes an amino acid in the beta-globin protein to change from glutamate to valine. What kind of mutation is this? a) Silent Mutation b) Missense Mutation c) Nonsense Mutation d) Frameshift Mutation
B
The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that A) differentiated cells contain masked mRNA. B) differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote. C) differentiation does not occur in plants. D) genes are lost during differentiation. E) the differentiated state is normally very unstable.
B
The lac operon is a inducible operon that is A.) permanently turned on. B.) turned on only when lactose is present in the growth medium. C.) turned off whenever lactose is present in the growth medium.
B
What answer below has the ribosomal sites in the correct order that tRNA will travel? a) AEP b) APE c) EPA d) PAE
B
What best describes viruses's infection ability? a) One-size-fits-all b) Lock-and-key c) Induced fit d) One-species
B
What is proteomics? A) The study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein B) The study of the full protein set encoded by a genome C) The study of how a single gene activates many proteins D) The linkage of each gene to a particular protein E) The totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein
B
What is the purpose of reverse transcriptase in RT-PCR analysis? a) Make more copies of the mRNA b) Convert the mRNA into DNA for PCR and gel electrophoresis c) Used as a probe to label the mRNA during the process d) Prevents DNA from making more mRNAs
B
When a mutation caused by a nucleotide pair substitution occurs in a protein coding region, which of the following effects can not occur? A.) Silent B.) Frameshift C.) Missense D.) Nonsense E.) All are possible.
B
When is a cell considered completely differentiated? A.) When the cell begins pattern formation. B.) When the cell synthesizes proteins that are specific to a particular cell type. C.) When the cell is part of recognizable tissues or organs. D.) When the cell reaches the correct destination in the body. E.) All of the above are true.
B
Which of the following molecules are NOT produced by transcription? A.) Ribosomal RNA B.) Ribosomal proteins C.) Messenger RNA D.) Transfer RNA E.) All of these are produced by transcription
B
Which of the following molecules is (are) the product(s) of translation? A.) The amino acid glycine B.) Ribosomal proteins C.) Transfer RNA D.) A & C E.) A, B & C
B
Which of the following responses correctly lists the order of events in a generalized viral replicative cycle? A)enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA, the virus enters the cell, host enzymes replicate the viral genome B)the virus enters the cell, host enzymes replicate the viral genome, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA C)host enzymes replicate the viral genome, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA, the virus enters the cell D)the virus enters the cell, enzymes transcribe the viral genome into mRNA, host enzymes replicate the viral genome
B
Which of the following statement(s) is an accurate about the role of distal control elements (enhancers)? A.) Region of DNA upstream near the promoter of a specific gene that regulate its transcription B.) Regions of DNA upstream far from a promoter that bind different activators to enhance transcription C.) DNA elements within the promoter that bind activator proteins which interact with mediator proteins to enhance transcription. D.) A & B E.) A, B & C
B
Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of protein's activity? A) It might substitute the N terminus of the polypeptide for the C terminus. B) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site. C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon. D) It might result in a chromosomal translocation. E) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.
B
A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes? A) ubiquitin B) operon C) corepressor D) inducer E) promoter
C
A particular triplet of bases in the codonof mRNAis 5'-UUC-3'. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is ________. A.) 3'-TTG-5' B.) 3'-GTT-5' C.) 3'-AAG-5' D.) 3'-GAA-5' E.) 3'-TTC-5'
C
Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways? A.) Organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order B.) Allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times C.) Allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions D.) Allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms E.) Allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote's genome
C
Apoptosis involves all but which of the following? A) activation of cellular enzymes B) fragmentation of the DNA C) lysis of the cell D) digestion of cellular contents by scavenger cells E) cell-signaling pathways
C
Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? A) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. B) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. D) Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization. E) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell.
C
Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? A.) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. B.) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell. C.) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. D.) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. E.) Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization.
C
If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to A) be replicating nearly continuously. B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis. C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. D) be very actively transcribed and translated. E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.
C
In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein? A) ligase B) primase C) RNA polymerase II D) RNA polymerase III E) RNA polymerase I
C
Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts? A) Inducers B) Segmentation genes C) Homeotic genes D) Morphogens E) Egg-polarity genes
C
The fact that different kinds of cells in an individual have the same genes, and therefore any cell should have the potential to generate a genetically identical, complete new organism (clone)refers to which of the following concepts? A.) Pleuripotency B.) Multipotency C.) Totipotency D.) Determination
C
The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about A) segmentation. B) the dorsal-ventral axis. C) the anterior-posterior axis. D) the left-right axis. E) lethal genes.
C
The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to A) bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it. B) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter. C) bind to the repressor protein and activate it. D) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter. E) increase the production of inactive repressor proteins.
C
The trp operon is a repressible operon that is A) permanently turned on. B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. C) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium. D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium. E) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
C
The trp operon is a repressible operon that is A.) permanently turned on. B.) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. C.) turned off whenever tryptophan is present the growth medium.
C
What is a good test to compare patterns of gene expression in breast cancer tumors and noncancerous breast tissue? a) Nuclei acid hybridization b) RT-PCR c) DNA microarray assay d) All of the above
C
What is a prion? a) A "good" virus b) A protein that aides in fighting viruses c) A "bad" protein that can cause disease d) Viruses that infect plants
C
What is bioinformatics? A) Software programs available from NIH to design and synthesize genes B) A procedure that uses software to order DNA sequences in a variety of comparable ways C) The application of computational methods to the storage and analysis of biological data D) A technique using 3-D images of genes to predict how and when they will be expressed E) A series of search programs that allow a student to identify which labs around the world are trying to sequence the genome of a given species
C
What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized? A)The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end. B) DNA ligase works only in the 3' to 5' direction. C) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand. D) Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time. E) Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
C
What is the big takeaway from the Beadle experiment?a) That you can induce mutations in cells with UV light b) That mutated cells lose function c) That one gene code for one protein d) That cells need essential amino acids to grow
C
What is the main difference between prophage and provirus? a) The type of virus it comes from b) The type of host it works on c) The fate of the viral DNA or RNA d) The proteins it transcribes for
C
What is the reason that CC did not look exactly like her mother, Rainbow? a) CC's nucleus is from a different mother b) CC inherited it from her father c) CC got it due to environmental factors and other phenomena d) Both A and C
C
What process results in the pattern formation of your hand? a) Differentiation b) Positional processing c) Apoptosis d) Induction
C
What type of nucleic acid does retroviruses have? a) Single-stranded DNA b) Double-Stranded DNA c) Single-stranded RNA d) Double-Stranded RNA
C
What would be the result if the bicoid gene is not being transcribed? a) You would have formation of head and have normal offspring b) You would have formation of tail and have normal offspring c) You wouldn't have formation of head, so offspring will die d) You wouldn't have formation of tail, so offspring will die
C
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the response of E. coli gene expression immediately after you consume a bowl of cereal with milk & sugar? A.) Glucose in the sugar is metabolized first by the constitutively expressed glycolysis pathway. B.) Lactose is present but the lac operon will not turn on fully until after glucose is used up. C.) Allolactose in the milk will activate the lac repressor turning off the lac operon when glucose is present. D.) When the glucose is present, cAMP will be low, CAP will not be activated, so transcription of the lac operon will be greatly reduced.
C
Which of the following is a property of life shared by prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells, but NOT viruses? A.) nucleic acids used to store hereditary information B.) order and complexity in arrangement of biological molecules C.) the ability to process energy through metabolic reactions D.) the capacity to evolve E.) All of the above
C
Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? A) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase. B) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage. C) It is an activator for other genes. D) It speeds up the cell cycle. E) It causes cell death via apoptosis.
C
Which of the following most accurately describes the order of events in the synthesis of a mature eukaryotic mRNA after the initiation of transcription and the elongation of the mRNA. A.) Transcription terminates > 5'Cap added > Introns removed > Poly-A added B.) Transcription terminates >Poly-A added >5'Cap added > Introns removed C.) 5'Cap is added >Introns removed >Transcription terminates > Poly-A added D.) Introns removed > 5'Cap is added > Transcription terminates > Poly-A is added
C
Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator? A) corepressor B) promoter C) inducer D) repressor E) ubiquitin
C
You would expect to see coupled transcription and translation in _______________ and polyribosomes in _______________. A.) prokaryotes........eukaryotes B.) eukaryotes.........prokaryotes C.) prokaryotes.......both prokaryotes and eukaryotes D.) eukaryotes.......both prokaryotes and eukaryotes E.) both prokaryotes and eukaryotes........eukaryotes
C
Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the A) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes. B) bonding of the anticodon to the codon. C) binding of ribosomes to mRNA. D) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs. E) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
D
The experiments by Beadle and Tatum in which they created and classified a series of Neurosporamutations affecting the synthesis of amino acids and other metabolites led them to propose A.) The Central Dogma of molecular biology B.) That genes work by making RNA molecules C.) That metabolic pathways consist of multiple enzymatic steps D.) That genes work by encoding proteins E.) All of the above are true
D
The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in A) a nucleotide mismatch. B) a frameshift mutation. C) a base-pair substitution. D) a polypeptide missing an amino acid. E) a nonsense mutation.
D
Tumor-suppressor genes A) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. B) do all of the above. C) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. D) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion. E) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle.
D
What are cytoplasmic determinants? a) Transcription factors b) mRNA c) Organelles d) All of the above e) Both A and B
D
What causes your eye to expression different genes compared to your liver? a) They have different genes b) They have different polymerases c) They have different enhancers d) They have different transcription factors
D
What is a ribozyme? A) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process B) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate C) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication D) an RNA with enzymatic activity E) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
D
What is metagenomics? A) Genomics as applied to a species that most typifies the average phenotype of its genus B) The sequence of one or two representative genes from several species C) The sequencing of only the most highly conserved genes in a lineage D) Sequencing DNA from a group of species from the same environment E) Genomics as applied to an entire phylum
D
What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A)It translates viral RNA into proteins. B) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. C) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands. D) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. E) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.
D
Where are enhancers located? a) Upstream of the gene b) Downstream of the gene c) 1,000 of bp's away from the gene d) The enhancer can be located anywhere
D
Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide? A) to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription B) to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER C) to signal the initiation of transcription D) to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane E) to terminate translation of the messenger RNA
D
Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the tumor-suppressor gene p53? A) it speeds up the cell cycle B) it allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage C) it slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase D) it is an activator for other genes E) it causes cell death via apoptosis
D
Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes? A) Base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA B) Elongation of the polypeptide C) Covalent bonding between the first two amino acids D) The small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA E) Binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
D
A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in A) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator. B) complete inhibition of transcription of the operon genes controlled by that regulator. C) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site. D) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure. E) continuous transcription of the operon genes controlled by that regulator.
E
If a Drosophila female has a homozygous mutation for a maternal effect gene, A) her offspring will show the mutant phenotype only if they are also homozygous for the mutation. B) only her female offspring will show the mutant phenotype. C) only her male offspring will show the mutant phenotype. D) she will not develop past the early embryonic stage. E) all of her offspring will show the mutant phenotype, regardless of their genotype.
E
In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used? A) Separation of an early-stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated in a surrogate B) Use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe C) Isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent D) Replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow E) Fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
E
Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they A) use different genetic codes. B) have unique ribosomes. C) have different chromosomes. D) contain different genes. E) express different genes.
E
Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase? A) the protein product of the promoter B) ribosomes and tRNA C) aminoacyl synthetase D) start and stop codons E) several transcription factors (TFs)
E
Tumor-suppressor gene mutation products frequently associated with cancers include A.) proteins that inhibit the cell cycle. B.) proteins that regulate cell adhesion and migration like adenomatous polyosis coli (APC) C.) proteins that function in cell damage repair like BRCA 1 & 2. D.) A & B E.) A, B & C
E
What is a totipotent cell? a) It is a cell that has the ability to differentiate b) It is a cell that can be cloned c) It is a cell that can dedifferentiate d) Both A and B e) Both B and C
E
What is cAMP? a) It is a molecule that accumulates in cell when glucose isn't present b) It is a molecule that accumulates in cell when glucose is present c) It binds to CRP to activate the lac operon d) It binds to CRP to suppress the lac operon e) A and C f) B and D
E
What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A.) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. B.) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. C.) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands. D.) It translates viral RNA into proteins. E.) It uses viral RNA as a template for viral DNA synthesis.
E
Which of the following best describes siRNA? A) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor B) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits C) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf patterns D) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences E) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA
E
Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but does occur in eukaryotic gene expression? A) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule. B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter. C) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed. D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little. E) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.
E
Which of the following events are TRUE statements about the response of E. coli gene expression after the glucose is used up from your cereal, milk & sugar? A.) cAMP will increase and CAP will be activated, thus increasing transcription of the lac operon. B.) Lactose transport into the cell will increase due to expression of the permease gene encoded in lac operon. C.) Allolactose in the milk will inactivate the lac repressor preventing it from turning off the lac operon. D.) Only A & C above E.) All of the above
E
Which of the following is/are (a) TRUE statement(s) about human cancers? A.) They can be caused by viruses. B.) They can be the result of an inherited gene. C.) They can result from exposure to carcinogens in the environment. D.) They are the direct consequence of mutations in somatic cells. E.) All of the above are true statements
E
Which of the following play (an) important role(s) in the developmental process in animals? A.) Apoptosis or programmed cell death B.) Induction of gene expression by signaling C.) Organ morphogenesis D.) Cell differentiation E.) All of the above.
E
