Bio111 - Study Guide Questions
The membrane protein _____ will catalyze the reaction ADP + P ATP as H+ flow down a gradient from the intermembrane space into the matrix. a. the sodium-potassium pump b. ATP synthase c. cholesterol d. NADH-Q reductase
ATP synthase
How many ATP produced in aerobic respiration?
38
Study the series of pictures to identify the process as a. facilitated transport. b. active transport. c. passive transport. d. osmosis.
a, facilitated transport.
The haploid (n) number of chromosomes for a human being is a. 23. b. 24. c. 44. d. 46. e. 48.
a. 23.
If the diploid number of chromosomes for an organism is 52, what will the haploid number of chromosomes be? a. 26 b. 48 c. 112 d. 24
a. 26
If an element contains eight electrons how many electrons will be placed in the second valence shell? a. 6 b. 2 c. 8 d. 5 e. 11
a. 6
Which of the following substrates is essential to an organism that utilizes photosynthesis? a. 6H2O b. C6H12O6 c. 6O2 d. 6 carbon atoms
a. 6H2O
Which allele combination represents a homozygous dominant individual? a. AA b. Aa c. aa d. None of these are homozygous dominant individuals.
a. AA
The subunits from which ATP is made are a. ADP and phosphate. b. FAD and NAD+. c. FAD and NADPH. d. ADP and FAD. e. ADP and NAD+.
a. ADP and phosphate.
Which statement is NOT true about bacteria? a. Bacteria contain membrane bound organelles. b. Some are photosynthetic. c. Some are motile due to flagella. d. All bacteria are prokaryotes. e. Bacteria have a cell wall that contains peptidoglycan.
a. Bacteria contain membrane bound organelles.
Which statement is NOT true about covalent bonds? a. Covalent bonds form when an electron is completely lost or gained from an atom. b. A covalent molecule contains one or more covalent bonds. c. A single covalent bond is drawn as a line between two atoms. d. A pair of electrons is shared between two atoms for each covalent bond. e. Shared electrons allow an atom to complete its valence shell in a covalent molecule.
a. Covalent bonds form when an electron is completely lost or gained from an atom.
For translation to take place, which of the following does NOT need to be present? a. DNA b. mRNA c. tRNA-amino acid complex d. r e. RNA f. ribosome
a. DNA
Choose the correct order of classification from most inclusive to most exclusive. a. Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species b. Kingdom-Domain-Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus-Species c. Kingdom-Domain-Class-Phylum-Order-Genus-Species-Family d. Kingdom-Class-Phylum-Domain-Genus-Order-Family-Species
a. Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
In a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, which generation is always completely heterozygous? a. F1 generation b. F2 generation c. F3 generation d. P generation
a. F1 generation
Which of the following coenzymes will accept two electrons and two hydrogen ions during the oxidation of glucose? a. FAD b. NAD+ c. FADH d. NADH
a. FAD
Which of the following protein is correctly matched with its location? a. Hemoglobin is found within the red blood cells. b. Myosin is found within the ligaments. c. Actin is found within the tendons. d. Collagen is found within the muscle cells. e. Keratin is found within the cell membrane.
a. Hemoglobin is found within the red blood cells.
Which of the following statements applies to mitosis but not to cytokinesis? a. It contains a checkpoint that will evaluate the quality of the cell. b. It requires a large amount of ATP in order for the cellular mechanisms to function. c. If it is disrupted, it can lead to an abnormal cell. d. It results in two daughter cells that are half the size of the original cell.
a. It contains a checkpoint that will evaluate the quality of the cell.
Determine the number of codon sequences it would require to produce the following amino acid sequence: alanine - proline - serine - isoleucine - stop. a. It would take 5 codon sequences. b. It would take 3 codon sequences. c. It would take 6 codon sequences. d. It would take 4 codon sequences.
a. It would take 5 codon sequences.
Which is NOT true about the genetic code? a. Most amino acids have only one codon. b. It is composed of triplet codes. c. Each codon consists of three bases. d. The groundwork for cracking the code began with the use of synthetic RNA. e. It contains start and stop codons as instructions.
a. Most amino acids have only one codon.
The fixation of carbon dioxide in the first step of the Calvin cycle is facilitated by which enzyme? a. RuBP carboxylase b. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) c. PEP carboxylase d. lactate dehydrogenase
a. RuBP carboxylase
Your professor shows you a computer model of a protein and asks you to identify the highest structural level. It appears to consist of only one polypeptide chain and has a globular shape. What is your determination? a. The protein has tertiary structure. b. The protein has secondary structure. c. The protein has primary structure. d. The protein has quaternary structure. e. This is not a picture of a protein.
a. The protein has tertiary structure.
Which statement is NOT true about eukaryotic chromosomes? a. There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell. b. Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones. c. Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis. d. Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis. e. Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis.
a. There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell.
What is the ultimate destination for the energized electrons during the light reactions of photosynthesis? a. They are taken up by NADP+ to produce NADPH. b. They are taken up by NADPH to produce NADP+. c. They are taken up by NADH to produce NAD+. d. They are taken up by NAD+ to produce NADH.
a. They are taken up by NADP+ to produce NADPH.
If a researcher was interested in slowing down the movement of amoebas by disrupting their cell membranes, which protein filaments should she be studying? a. actin b. intermediates c. microtubules d. myosin
a. actin
What type of transport mechanism is required to move sodium ions against their concentration gradient? a. active b. passive c. diffusion d. osmosis
a. active
Cancer cells require many nutrients which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels into cancerous tissue is called a. angiogenesis. b. metastasis. c. carcinogenesis. d. apoptosis.
a. angiogenesis.
During the light reactions, what structure is responsible for absorbing the solar energy? a. chloroplast b. stroma c. stoma d. bark of the tree
a. chloroplast
What structure is required for an eukaryotic organism to be classified as an autotroph? a. chloroplast b. mitochondria c. nucleus d. Golgi body
a. chloroplast
Homologous structures such as the bones in wings, flippers, and arms would be studied in the field of a. comparative anatomy. b. biogeography. c. the fossil record. d. comparative embryology. e. comparative biochemistry.
a. comparative anatomy.
A dehydration reaction can also be called a(n) _____ reaction since it forms water. a. condensation b. hydrolysis c. isomeric d. energy-releasing e. monomer formation
a. condensation
A transgenic organism a. contains a foreign gene within its genome. b. is produced by cloning a mutant cell. c. acts as the vector for DNA being moved into another organism. d. is produced by the polymerase chain reaction. e. is any genetically modified organism resulting from laboratory research.
a. contains a foreign gene within its genome.
Sugars and amino acids are carried into the cell by means of a. facilitated transport. b. diffusion. c. endocytosis. d. exocytosis.
a. facilitated transport.
What are the end products of photosynthesis? a. glucose and oxygen b. glucose and ATP c. carbon dioxide and energy d. carbon dioxide and water e. oxygen and NADP+
a. glucose and oxygen
Which of the following substrates are required for cellular respiration? a. glucose and oxygen b. glucose and carbon dioxide c. sunlight and oxygen d. sunlight and glucose e. oxygen and carbon dioxide
a. glucose and oxygen
The correct sequence for aerobic metabolic breakdown of glucose is a. glycolysis—preparatory reaction—citric acid cycle—electron transport system. b. preparatory reaction—glycolysis—electron transport—citric acid cycle. c. electron transport system—citric acid cycle—preparatory reaction—glycolysis. d. None of the choices are correct.
a. glycolysis—preparatory reaction—citric acid cycle—electron transport system.
During _____, the homologous chromosome pairs independently align themselves at the equator of the cell. a. independent assortment b. anaphase I c. crossing-over d. mitosis
a. independent assortment
During the sequencing of DNA into a protein, what is the first step? a. mRNA is copied from a gene. b. A ribosome attaches to the mRNA and signals protein synthesis. c. SRP binds to the signal peptide to shut down synthesis. d. An enzyme removes the signal peptide from the peptide chain.
a. mRNA is copied from a gene.
According to the endosymbiosis theory _____ were engulfed by larger eukaryotic cells. a. mitochondria b. Golgi apparatus c. lysosomes d. ribosomes
a. mitochondria
A cell is to a tissue as an atom is to a a. molecule. b. subatomic particle. c. electron. d. population.
a. molecule.
Fish sperm is composed mostly of DNA. If we tested a sample chemically, we should find relatively high amounts of a. nitrogenous bases, sugar, and phosphate groups. b. phospholipids and steroids. c. amino acids and unsaturated fats. d. triglycerides and ATP. e. globular proteins and stored fats.
a. nitrogenous bases, sugar, and phosphate groups.
Which cellular organelle is the most prominent? a. nucleus b. nucleolus c. lysosome d. mitochondria
a. nucleus
The characteristic way in which atoms of an element react is most related to the a. number of electrons in the valence shell. b. number of electrons in the innermost shell. c. number of neutrons in the nucleus. d. size of the nucleus.
a. number of electrons in the valence shell.
Due to an increased risk of heart disease many doctors have suggested shifting our diet to include more unsaturated fats and less saturated fats. As you cook dinner tonight the recipe calls for two Tbs of oil. Which of the following would be the healthiest choice? a. olive or safflower oil b. pork fat c. melted butter d. lard that was left out at room temperature e. All of these choices are saturated fats.
a. olive or safflower oil
During which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur? a. prophase I of meiosis I b. anaphase I of meiosis II c. telophase I of meiosis I d. prophase II of meiosis II e. anaphase II of meiosis I
a. prophase I of meiosis I
Acetyl CoA is produced from a. pyruvate and CoA. b. citric acid and CoA. c. ATP and pyruvate. d. CO2 and pyruvate. e. citric acid and CO2.
a. pyruvate and CoA.
Active transport a. requires an input of ATP. b. is involved in diffusion. c. occurs in osmosis and facilitated transport. d. All of the choices are correct.
a. requires an input of ATP.
A polysaccharide is a polymer made up of which kind of monomers? a. simple sugars b. amino acids c. nucleotides d. alternating sugar and phosphate groups e. fatty acids and glycerol
a. simple sugars
Which process produces both NADH and FADH2? a. the citric acid cycle b. glycolysis c. the electron transport system d. fermentation e. the preparatory reaction
a. the citric acid cycle
At the molecular level, cells from different types of organisms vary in their tolerance to temperature and pH. This variation can mostly likely be attributed to a. the types of enzymes present in the cells. b. ATP efficiency. c. ability of the cells to form glucose polymers. d. replication of nucleic acids. e. extent of saturation of fatty acids.
a. the types of enzymes present in the cells.
All of the following statements are true about restriction enzymes EXCEPT a. they are made by bacteria and viruses. b. hundreds of different ones have been isolated and purified. c. they produce single-stranded complementary ends that can join to two different DNA strands by complementary base-pairing. d. each enzyme cuts DNA at a different specific base sequence.
a. they are made by bacteria and viruses.
If the atomic number of chlorine is 17 and the atomic mass is 35, how many neutrons are there in the nucleus? a. 17 b. 18 c. 35 d. 70
b. 18
If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs? a. 24 chromosomes b. 48 chromosomes c. 12 chromosomes d. 96 chromosomes
b. 48 chromosomes
What occurs in anaphase? a. Centrioles move to opposite poles. b. Chromatids are separated and move to opposite poles. c. Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell. d. The nuclear envelope disappears. e. The nuclear envelope is constructed.
b. Chromatids are separated and move to opposite poles.
During DNA replication, the enzyme _____ catalyzes the elongation of new DNA strands. a. helicase b. DNA polymerase c. DNA ligase d. ATP synthase
b. DNA polymerase
Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics? a. Energy can be created or destroyed and it cannot be changed from one form of energy to another. b. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another. c. Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter. d. Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs. e. Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.
b. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another.
Why is crossing-over important? a. It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells. b. It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material. c. It produces the proteins that are associated with DNA in chromosomes. d. It increases chromosome condensation. e. It separates the homologous chromosomes.
b. It increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material.
In his theory of natural selection, Darwin incorporated the premise that available resources were not sufficient for all members of a population to survive. Darwin adopted these ideas of competition and survival from a. Erasmus Darwin. b. Malthus. c. Cuvier. d. Lamarck. e. Plato.
b. Malthus.
Cell biologists have introduced radioactively labeled carbohydrates, fats, and amino acids to living cells, allowed time for cell metabolism, and then placed the cells in a blender and separated out the various cell organelles from the cytoplasm. They found the radioactive molecules could soon be detected as part of various cellular compounds, although the visible cell structures appeared unchanged. Which of the following is the best conclusion based on this information? a. These "food" molecules are used only for energy. b. Most cell components are constantly being broken down and rebuilt. c. Radioactivity was transferred from the introduced molecules to the resident stable molecules. d. Molecules diffuse at random through the cytoplasm and into cell organelles. e. Radioactivity has an unusual role in the metabolism of living cells.
b. Most cell components are constantly being broken down and rebuilt.
Which of the following is true about the differences between organic and inorganic molecules? a. Organic molecules are living and inorganic molecules are nonliving. b. Organic molecules contain at least carbon and hydrogen and inorganic molecules do not. c. Organic molecules are relatively unstable and inorganic molecules are relatively stable. d. Organic molecules are held together primarily with ionic bonds and inorganic molecules are held together primarily with covalent bonds.
b. Organic molecules contain at least carbon and hydrogen and inorganic molecules do not.
You come across an article that discusses a new drug that interferes with hydrogen bonding during protein formation. Based on your understanding of the levels of protein organization, which of the following is a probable consequence following exposure to this new drug? a. The drug would prevent amino acids from bonding together which would in turn prevent the formation of the primary structure of the protein. b. Protein folding will arrest during the formation of secondary structure. The drug would prevent the polypeptide from forming an alpha helix or a beta sheet. c. Protein folding will arrest during the formation of tertiary structure. The drug would interfere with the ability of the alpha helix or beta sheet to form the bonds necessary to fold into a globular protein. d. The polypeptide would be unable to form a quarternary structure because it would be unable to form the bonds necessary to link up with other protein molecules.
b. Protein folding will arrest during the formation of secondary structure. The drug would prevent the polypeptide from forming an alpha helix or a beta sheet.
Which of the following structures is classified as a nucleic acid? a. myosin b. RNA c. glucose d. glycerol e. cytosine
b. RNA
Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct? a. Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break. b. Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it. c. The process is known as semiconservative replication because one old strand is conserved in the new molecule. d. The enzyme that catalyzes DNA replication is DNA polymerase. e. Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds.
b. Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
If one strand of DNA has the base sequence AAG-CAA, the complementary strand has which of the following sequences? a. UUC-GUU b. TTC-GTT c. AAG-CAA d. UTC-GTU e. TTC-GTG
b. TTC-GTT
Which is the best definition of osmosis? a. The movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration. b. The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. c. The movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration. d. The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower water concentration to an area of higher water concentration. e. The movement of a substance against its concentration gradient through the release of energy from ATP.
b. The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration.
DNA is housed within the nucleus, but the mRNA code needs to leave in order to be translated into a protein. How does the mRNA code leave the nucleus if the nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear envelope? a. The nuclear envelope dissolves in order to allow the mRNA code to leave. b. The nuclear envelope contains pores which provide passage for the mRNA. c. A vesicle will bud off from the nuclear envelope containing the mRNA. d. The mRNA will be coded into a protein within the nucleus. Then the protein leaves the nucleus.
b. The nuclear envelope contains pores which provide passage for the mRNA.
Characterize these reactions involved in the Calvin cycle. a. These are reactions involved in the regeneration of RuBP. The reactions include an exergonic reaction (ATP breaks down into ADP) and the reduction of the coenzyme NADPH. b. These reactions are involved in the reduction of CO2. Energy is required in the form of ATP, which is hydrolyzed to ADP. The substrate BPG is reduced, while the coenzyme NADPH is oxidized. c. These reactions are involved in the fixation of CO2. Energy is required in the form of ADP, which is hydrolyzed to ATP. The substrate BPG is oxidized, while the coenzyme NADPH is reduced. d. These reactions are part of the light reactions in a noncyclic pathway. ATP and NADPH are used during these reactions.
b. These reactions are involved in the reduction of CO2. Energy is required in the form of ATP, which is hydrolyzed to ADP. The substrate BPG is reduced, while the coenzyme NADPH is oxidized.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of homologous chromosomes? a. They are similar in size. b. They carry the same alleles for all traits. c. They carry genes for the same traits. d. They are similar in shape and location of the centromere.
b. They carry the same alleles for all traits.
What are alleles? a. genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color b. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes c. the locations of genes on a chromosome d. the recessive form of a gene e. the dominant form of a gene
b. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes
You come across an image of a molecule in research article about fatty acids. You notice the molecule has several double bonds in its structure. Based on your knowledge of fatty acids, you conclude that this molecule is most likely a. a saturated fatty acid. b. an unsaturated fatty acid. c. something other than a fatty acid because fatty acids don't have double bonds.
b. an unsaturated fatty acid.
During which stage of meiosis do the homologous chromosomes separate? a. prophase I b. anaphase I c. telophase I d. prophase II e. anaphase II
b. anaphase I
A(n) _____ is a group of three bases on tRNA that is complementary to a specific mRNA codon. a. codon b. anticodon c. poly-A tail d. cap
b. anticodon
Plants show turgor pressure when a. cells are losing water from their water vacuoles. b. cells contain water vacuoles that are full of water. c. water is being used up in photosynthesis. d. water is being evaporated from the leaves.
b. cells contain water vacuoles that are full of water.
Which of the following would NOT contribute to genetic variation? a. crossing-over of homologous chromosomes b. crossing-over of sister chromatids c. the random alignment of the chromosomes during metaphase I d. the combination of sperm and egg genes
b. crossing-over of sister chromatids
At the beginning of a research project on egg laying in seagulls, a researcher noted that the birds laid an average of 7-9 eggs per clutch. After studying the population for 15 generations, the researcher noted that the birds were now laying 3-4 eggs per clutch. What type of natural selection is occurring in the population of gulls? a. stabilizing b. directional c. disruptive d. There is no selection occurring in this population.
b. directional
The following picture depicts which of the following changes in chromosome structure? a. deletion b. duplication c. translocation d. aneuploidy
b. duplication
The first phase of cellular respiration is a. the citric acid cycle. b. glycolysis. c. the electron transport system. d. fermentation. e. the preparatory reaction.
b. glycolysis.
Which genotype is most likely to survive in a region of the world that contains malaria? a. homozygous recessive for hemoglobin shape b. heterozygous for hemoglobin shape c. homozygous dominant for hemoglobin shape d. All genotypes have the same potential for survival in a region that contains malaria.
b. heterozygous for hemoglobin shape
What term is used for molecules that have identical molecular formulas but the atoms in each molecule are arranged differently? a. isotope b. isomer c. homomolecules d. organic e. balanced
b. isomer
DNA replication is considered semiconservative because a. it will create three new identical strands when finished. b. it uses one old strand as a template for the synthesis of a new strand. c. it always replicates in the 3' to 5' prime direction. d. it never replicates in the 5' to 3' prime direction.
b. it uses one old strand as a template for the synthesis of a new strand.
What structures enable the vesicles from the Golgi apparatus to fuse with the cell membrane? a. membrane-associated proteins b. phospholipids c. cholesterol molecules within the cell membrane d. secretory vesicles that engulf the Golgi apparatus will allow the vesicles to fuse
b. phospholipids
Chloroplasts are to _____ as _____ are to aerobic respiration. a. stroma; cristae b. photosynthesis; mitochondria c. thylakoid membranes; matrix d. protein synthesis; lysosomes
b. photosynthesis; mitochondria
Most bacteria live in a solution that is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm of the bacteria. This means that the bacterial cell is constantly taking in water. The cell wall of a bacterium is a peptidoglycan polymer that is tightly cross-linked. This would therefore function to a. regulate the flow of most molecules into and out of the bacterial cell. b. provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from swelling. c. provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from shrinking. d. confirm a close relationship to plant cells that have a similar structure and live in hypotonic solutions. e. make all bacteria fairly uniform in metabolic chemistry.
b. provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from swelling.
The most common source of genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms is a. mutation. b. recombination of alleles through meiosis and fertilization. c. duplication of chromosomes. d. duplication of genes.
b. recombination of alleles through meiosis and fertilization.
The alpha helix and beta sheet are found at which level of protein organization? a. primary structure b. secondary structure c. tertiary structure d. quaternary structure
b. secondary structure
A valence shell is best described as a. the electron shell closest to the nucleus. b. the outermost electron shell of an atom. c. the volume of space in which electrons are most often found. d. the original energy level of electrons in photosynthesis.
b. the outermost electron shell of an atom.
A solution with a pH of 7.0 has _____ times _____ H+ than a solution of pH 10. a. 30; more b. 300; less c. 1000; more d. 1000; less e. None of these are correct.
c. 1000; more
Which allele combination represents a heterozygous individual? a. aa b. AA c. Aa d. None of these represent a heterozygous individual.
c. Aa
Which statement is NOT true about ionic bonds? a. One atom acts as an electron donor and another atom acts as an electron acceptor. b. Electrons are completely lost or gained in ion formation. c. An ion has the same number of electrons as a nonionic atom of the same element. d. An ionic bond occurs between positive ions and negative ions. e. A salt such as NaCl is formed by an ionic reaction.
c. An ion has the same number of electrons as a nonionic atom of the same element.
Which cytoskeletal element is NOT correctly associated with its characteristic? a. Cilia are small extensions of membrane-surrounded microtubules. b. Microtubules are made up of a globular protein called tubulin. c. Centrioles are found in the microtubule organizing centers of plants. d. Flagella have a nine + two pattern of microtubule structure. e. Basal bodies are located at the base of cilia and flagella.
c. Centrioles are found in the microtubule organizing centers of plants.
All of the following are true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism EXCEPT: a. They are made up of DNA and protein. b. Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase. c. Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission. d. All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information.
c. Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission.
Insulin is synthesized in significant quantities only in beta cells in the pancreas. When the beta cell is appropriately stimulated by rising blood glucose levels, insulin is secreted from the cell by exocytosis. What organelle would be responsible for the packaging and transporting the insulin out of the cell? a. nucleus b. ribosomes c. Golgi apparatus d. lysosomes e. centrioles
c. Golgi apparatus
Which of the following gives rise to both lysosomes and vesicles? a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. ribosomes e. centrioles
c. Golgi apparatus
Which of the following is NOT offered as evidence in support of the endosymbiotic theory, which proposes that eukaryotic cells have evolved as a "committee" of prokaryotic cells? a. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size and structure to some species of bacteria. b. The ribosomes of chloroplasts and mitochondria are similar to bacteria. c. Mitochondria and chloroplasts can actively break away from eukaryotic cells and live on their own. d. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA coding separate from the eukaryotic nucleus. e. All of the choices offer support of the endosymbiotic theory.
c. Mitochondria and chloroplasts can actively break away from eukaryotic cells and live on their own.
Which is NOT a characteristic of mitochondria? a. The folded membrane in mitochondria forms cristae. b. Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration. c. Mitochondria have a single membrane for cellular respiration. d. Mitochondria contain DNA and ribosomes. e. The inner space of the mitochondrion contains a fluid matrix.
c. Mitochondria have a single membrane for cellular respiration.
Transcription begins when a. initiation factors assemble ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and initiator tRNA. b. RNA polymerase comes to a stop sequence. c. RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA called the promoter. d. new nucleotides are added to an existing strand of nucleotides.
c. RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA called the promoter.
Which of the following is a true statement concerning meiosis in males and females? a. Males provide more genes in sperm than females provide in eggs. b. Crossing-over occurs more often in the formation of sperm than in eggs. c. Spermatogenesis in males results in four functional sperm while oogenesis in females results in only one egg. d. Sperm that contain a recombination of genes are usually more successful in fertilizing an egg.
c. Spermatogenesis in males results in four functional sperm while oogenesis in females results in only one egg.
What is the function of polar bodies? a. They nurse the egg as it leaves the follicle. b. They orient the sperm toward the egg. c. They allow a reduction in chromosomes while preserving most of the cytoplasm for one egg. d. They orient the egg for penetration by the sperm.
c. They allow a reduction in chromosomes while preserving most of the cytoplasm for one egg.
Transcription of a DNA molecule with a nucleotide sequence of AAA-CAA-CTT results in an mRNA molecule with the complementary sequence of a. GGG-AGA-ACC. b. UUU-CUU-CAA. c. UUU-GUU-GAA. d. TTT-GAA-GCC. e. CCC-ACC-TCC.
c. UUU-GUU-GAA.
ATP is considered to be a. an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells. b. a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate different enzymes. c. a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond. d. the precursor of a high-energy membrane-bounded protein.
c. a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond.
A coenzyme is a. an inorganic ion that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. b. a protein-based organic molecule that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. c. a nonprotein organic molecule that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. d. an inorganic ion that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
c. a nonprotein organic molecule that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle? a. ATP production b. oxygen production c. carbon dioxide fixation d. carbon dioxide production e. removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system
c. carbon dioxide fixation
Which of the following protein functions is not correctly associated with the correct integral protein? a. carrier proteins—facilitate passage of molecules through the membrane b. enzymatic proteins—catalyze a specific reaction c. channel proteins—block the activity of carrier proteins d. cell recognition proteins—recognize pathogens
c. channel proteins—block the activity of carrier proteins
A university biology department wishes to hire a scientist to work on the relationships among the wolves, moose, trees, and physical features on an island. If you were charged with writing the job description, you should title the position a. population geneticist. b. molecular biologist. c. ecosystem ecologist. d. organismal physiologist. e. island zoologist.
c. ecosystem ecologist.
The function of sunlight in photosynthesis is to a. reduce NADPH to NADP. b. fix O2 in the Calvin cycle. c. excite electrons in chlorophyll. d. combine carbon dioxide and water to form ATP and NADPH. e. split water releasing oxygen.
c. excite electrons in chlorophyll.
A product of photosynthesis, _____, is the chief source of energy for most organisms. a. oxygen b. sucrose c. glucose d. All of the answer choices.
c. glucose
_____ is a product of the Calvin cycle that is used to form glucose phosphate, amino acids or fatty acids. a. ATP b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) d. PEP carboxylase (PEPcase) e. carbon dioxide
c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
In the cell pictured, there is no net movement of water. The amount leaving the cell and entering the cell is the same. In what type of environment is this cell found? a. hypertonic b. hypotonic c. isotonic d. None of the above.
c. isotonic
What phase of mitosis is pictured? a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase
c. metaphase
Adult humans cannot synthesize _____ out of the _____ common amino acids. a. eleven; twenty b. nine; eleven c. nine; twenty d. any; twenty e. half; all
c. nine; twenty
What are the end products of photosynthesis? a. water and carbon dioxide b. water and oxygen c. oxygen and carbohydrate d. carbohydrate and water
c. oxygen and carbohydrate
All the members of a single species that occupy a particular area at the same time are known as a a. subspecies. b. gene pool. c. population. d. group. e. sub-population.
c. population.
Which sequence of the mitotic stages is correct? a. prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase b. prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase c. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase d. telophase, anaphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
c. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
All of the following are associated with the mitochondria except: a. ATP production b. cristae c. stroma d. matrix
c. stroma
Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from animal cells because a. the lysosomes within the plant cell forms a cell plate. b. microtubules are used to form the cell plate. c. the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate. d. the inner plasma membrane divides by cytokinesis as in animal cells and then secretes a cellulose cell wall.
c. the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate.
All of the following are true regarding transgenic animals EXCEPT a. foreign genes are micro-injected into eggs, fertilized in vitro, and the zygotes are placed in host females to develop. b. the process has created mice that have a phenotype similar to that of a person with cystic fibrosis. c. the process has been used to develop organisms that are partially animal and partially plant. d. the product desired by the transgenic procedure may be secreted in the milk of female offspring.
c. the process has been used to develop organisms that are partially animal and partially plant.
The following picture depicts which of the following changes in chromosome structure? a. deletion b. duplication c. translocation d. aneuploidy
c. translocation
The cell formed after fertilization of an egg by a sperm is called a(n) a. gamete. b. sperm cell. c. zygote. d. egg cell. e. ovum.
c. zygote.
A solution with a pH of 6 has _____ times _____ OH- than a solution with a pH of 10. a. 40; more b. 4000; less c. 10,000; less d. 4; less e. 10,000 more
d. 10,000; less
If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal whose regular body cells have _____ chromosomes. a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 e. 24
d. 16
Complete oxidative breakdown of glucose results in _____ ATP molecules. a. 2 b. 4 c. 32 d. 36 e. 39
d. 36
Aerobic cellular respiration yields about ____ of the energy of glucose in ATP molecules. a. 2% b. 15% c. 28% d. 39%
d. 39%
The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for a human being is a. 23. b. 24. c. 44. d. 46. e. 48.
d. 46.
Meiosis occurs during all of the following EXCEPT a. gametogenesis. b. oogenesis. c. spermatogenesis. d. A, B, and C all involve meiosis. e. Neither A, B, or C. All of the above involve mitosis.
d. A, B, and C all involve meiosis.
Which statement below correctly describes why ATP is a high energy structure? a. ATP contains two phosphate bonds that contain high levels of energy. b. ATP contains hydro-carbon chains that hold energy. c. ATP is composed of thymine which is a high energy molecule. d. ATP has three phosphate bonds, two of which are unstable and easily broken. e. ATP has three phosphate bonds that are very stable and difficult to break.
d. ATP has three phosphate bonds, two of which are unstable and easily broken.
Why is it beneficial for pyruvate to be reduced via fermentation when oxygen is not available? a. The organism can survive short spells of anaerobic conditions and maintain growth and reproduction. b. The fermentation reaction regenerates NAD+, which is required for the first step in the energy-harvesting phase of glycolysis. c. Fermentation can provide a rapid burst of ATP. d. All of the choices are advantages. e. None of the choices is an advantage.
d. All of the choices are advantages.
A saturated fat a. is often solid at room temperature. b. has fatty acids with no double bonds between the carbon atoms. c. is of animal origin. d. All of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct.
Binary fission in bacteria differs from mitosis because a. the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth. b. the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and there is no spindle formation. c. there is no nuclear membrane to break down and rebuild. d. All of the choices are correct. e. None of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct.
Darwin observed that a. members of a population vary in their functional, physical, and behavioral characteristics. b. there is a constant struggle for survival of organisms. c. organisms in a normal population differ in reproductive success. d. All of the choices are correct. e. None of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct.
Single-celled prokaryotes a. lack a membrane-bounded nucleus. b. are classified in the domains Bacteria and Archaea. c. are found in almost all habitats. d. All of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct.
The function of mitosis is a. growth of the organism and tissue repair. b. to ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information. c. asexual reproduction in some species. d. All of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct.
Variation within a population is maintained by a. mutation. b. genetic recombination due to fertilization. c. gene flow. d. All of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is required for natural selection to occur in a population? a. heritable variation b. accumulation of adaptive traits c. differential reproduction d. All of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct.
Saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids differ in a. the number of carbon-to-carbon bonds. b. the consistency at room temperature. c. the number of hydrogen atoms present. d. All of the choices are differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
d. All of the choices are differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
Which of the following is/are true about sexual reproduction? a. Gametes are the only haploid phase of the human life cycle. b. The production of gametes is known as gametogenesis. c. A fertilized egg is known as a zygote. d. All of the choices are true. e. None of the choices are true.
d. All of the choices are true.
Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together? a. When the product binds to the enzyme, the substrate changes shape to accommodate the reaction. b. The enzyme is like a key that fits into the substrate, which is like a lock. c. The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate. d. As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.
d. As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.
Which of the following substances attract water molecules? a. a nonpolar substance b. a polar substance c. an ionic substance d. Both polar and ionic substances. e. All of the above will attract water molecules.
d. Both polar and ionic substances.
About 12,000 years ago, a mass extinction event occurred and 75% of the world's large mammal species were eliminated. While a small number of cheetahs managed to survive and restore the world's population of cheetahs, this event caused an extreme reduction of the cheetah's genetic diversity. Based on the principles of natural selection, which of the following is a consequence of their reduced genetic diversity? a. Cheetahs have never fully adapted to the current environment. b. Cheetahs within the same population do not vary in their reproductive success. c. Cheetahs are unable to effectively compete with each other for resources. d. Cheetahs have very little heritable variation, which will make it difficult for them to adapt as the environment changes.
d. Cheetahs have very little heritable variation, which will make it difficult for them to adapt as the environment changes.
_____ are to ribosomes as lipids are to _____. a. Carbohydrates; rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Nucleoli; lysosomes c. Sugars; peroxisomes d. Proteins; smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. Proteins; smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Which best describes the second law of thermodynamics? a. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter. b. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another. c. Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter. d. Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs. e. Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.
d. Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs.
Which statement about the nucleus is incorrect? a. The nucleus contains the genetic material of the cell. b. The nucleus contains the information that ribosomes use to carry out protein synthesis. c. The nucleus contains the instructions for copying itself. d. The nucleus contains the information that ribosomes use to carry out cellular respiration.
d. The nucleus contains the information that ribosomes use to carry out cellular respiration.
Why are plants green? a. They absorb only green wavelengths of light. b. They absorb only yellow and blue wavelengths of light, which when mixed within the leaf, give plants their characteristic green color. c. They reflect all of the ultraviolet wavelengths and absorb all of the visible light spectrum. d. They reflect green wavelengths of light and absorb other colors of the visible light spectrum. e. They reflect the colors of the visible light spectrum and absorb all of the wavelengths associated with the ultraviolet spectrum.
d. They reflect green wavelengths of light and absorb other colors of the visible light spectrum.
All of the following would denature a protein except a. heating to temperatures above 100° C. b. addition of a strong acid. c. addition of a strong base. d. a missing coenzyme.
d. a missing coenzyme.
To what does the term chiasma refer? a. the process of fertilization b. structures that hold the chromosomes in alignment on the metaphase plate c. the process of crossing-over d. a structure that holds together homologues during crossing-over e. the period between meiosis I and meiosis II
d. a structure that holds together homologues during crossing-over
A polypeptide has an amino acid sequence of: alanine-leucine-tryptophan-glycine-valine-alanine.This chain of amino acids is further organized into a helix that folds in and around itself to form a globular structure. The primary structure of this polypeptide is a. globular. b. pleated-sheet. c. alpha helix. d. alanine-leucine-tryptophan-glycine-valine-alanine.
d. alanine-leucine-tryptophan-glycine-valine-alanine.
What phase of mitosis is pictured? a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase
d. anaphase
What is the smallest unit of living matter? a. atom b. element c. Golgi apparatus d. cell e. nucleus
d. cell
All of the following are true concerning Down syndrome EXCEPT a. it is caused by autosomal trisomy 21. b. in 23% of cases, the sperm contributes the extra chromosome. c. it is the most common trisomy in humans. d. chances of a woman having a child with Down syndrome decrease as she gets older.
d. chances of a woman having a child with Down syndrome decrease as she gets older.
Which of the following organelles is found in autotrophic eukaryotic cells but not heterotrophic eukaryotic cells? a. lysosomes b. ribosomes c. rough endoplasmic reticulum d. chloroplast e. mitochondria
d. chloroplast
The amino acids we cannot synthesize are called _____ because we _____. a. unnecessary; therefore do not need them b. limiting; must include them in our diet c. anabolic; must use alternative amino acids d. essential; must include them in our diet e. superfluous; must survive without them
d. essential; must include them in our diet
Which process produces alcohol or lactate? a. the citric acid cycle b. glycolysis c. the electron transport system d. fermentation e. the preparatory reaction
d. fermentation
Meiosis accomplishes all of the following EXCEPT a. gamete production. b. reduction of chromosome number (from 2n to n). c. providing genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms. d. growth and repair.
d. growth and repair.
All cells have these two characteristics: a. contain DNA in the nucleus and have a plasma membrane b. produce a cell wall outside of the plasma membrane c. contain mitochondria and chloroplasts d. have a plasma membrane and ribosomes in the cytoplasm
d. have a plasma membrane and ribosomes in the cytoplasm
A population must have _____ for natural selection to occur. a. a stable environment b. abundant resources c. many individuals d. heritable variation
d. heritable variation
Which of the following agents of evolution will help a population become better adapted to its environment? a. genetic drift b. bottleneck c. gene flow d. natural selection e. mutation
d. natural selection
If the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met, what is the net effect? a. evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging environment b. evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment c. very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation d. no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
d. no evolution because the alleles in the population remain the same
Since each child of two heterozygous parents has a 50% chance of receiving a recessive trait from each parent, a. if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child must be phenotypically dominant. b. if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child has a 3/4 chance of being phenotypically recessive. c. if the first child is phenotypically recessive, then the next child has a 1/2 chance of being phenotypically recessive. d. no matter what the first child's phenotype, the next child will have a 1/4 chance of being phenotypically recessive.
d. no matter what the first child's phenotype, the next child will have a 1/4 chance of being phenotypically recessive.
Which organelle is primarily responsible for the breakdown of lipids within the cell? a. Golgi apparatus b. chloroplast c. vacuole d. peroxisome
d. peroxisome
Which of the following organisms are capable of photosynthesis? a. plants only b. plants and algae only c. plants and some bacteria only d. plants, algae, and some bacteria
d. plants, algae, and some bacteria
Haiti is settled by peoples of both African and European ancestry. A young couple, both with mixed ancestry, marry and have several children. The children, who all have equal exposure to sunlight, vary widely in the amount of skin melanin. One child is lighter than both parents, and one is darker. The simple explanation for this is a. epistasis. b. multiple alleles are available for the one chromosomal locus that governs skin color. c. the environment influenced the phenotypes of the children. d. polygenic inheritance. e. gene linkage.
d. polygenic inheritance.
An atom's atomic mass is best described as the mass of a. the protons it contains. b. the neutrons it contains. c. electrons in the outermost shell. d. protons and neutrons it contains. e. protons and electrons it contains.
d. protons and neutrons it contains.
The process by which cholesterol is transported into the cell by the binding of LDL to its receptor and the internalization of the receptor-LDL complex is a. facilitated transport. b. active transport. c. cotransport. d. receptor-mediated endocytosis. e. exocytosis.
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Human blood has a pH of about 7.4. This is a. neutral. b. very acidic. c. slightly acidic. d. slightly basic.
d. slightly basic.
The majority of the carbon dioxide we exhale is produced in a. glycolysis. b. the electron transport system. c. lactate fermentation. d. the citric acid cycle.
d. the citric acid cycle.
To what does the term stroma refer? a. the double membrane surrounding the chloroplast b. a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast c. a stack of thylakoid membrane structures d. the fluid-filled space of the chloroplast e. the pores on the underside of the leaf that facilitate gas exchange
d. the fluid-filled space of the chloroplast
Darwin's geometric ratio of increase pertains specifically to a. the inheritable variations found in a population. b. the artificial selection of traits in plants or animals. c. the inheritance of acquired traits. d. the overproduction potential of a species.
d. the overproduction potential of a species.
The activity of an enzyme might be increased by all of the following except a. an increase in substrate concentration. b. a vitamin. c. a two to four degree increase in temperature. d. the presence of other enzymes.
d. the presence of other enzymes.
Which of the following features are present at the ecosystem level? a. chemical cycling through the food chain b. energy flow that begins at the producer level c. input of solar energy d. complex interactions between a variety of populations e. All are features of an ecosystem.
e. All are features of an ecosystem.
An earlier classification system grouped organisms by whether they inhabited the air, land, or sea. More modern classification systems such as the three-domain system are divided into class-order-family-genus-species as described in this chapter. What advantages does the more modern classification system have over the older system? a. The modern classification system better represents the unity of life. b. The modern classification system reflects the evolutionary relationships between organisms. c. The modern classification system allows for the precise organization of a multitude of species. d. The more modern classification system groups organisms based on similarities related to their structure and evolution. e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct.
Apoptosis a. is programmed cell death. b. is a process that acts to decrease the number of somatic cells. c. frees the fingers and toes of the human embryo from their d. "webbed" structure to independent structures. e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is/are a biological "population?" a. all of the corn plants in a cornfield b. all of the variable-colored ladybird beetles of the species Harmonia axyridis in a forest c. all male and female English sparrows that reside in your community d. all of the human population of a rural western town e. All of the choices are correct.
e. All of the choices are correct.
You are interested in the effect of increased carbon dioxide versus normal air on the growth of corn plants as well as the effect of green light versus full sunlight on the growth of corn plants. Your plan is to set up your experiment inside a greenhouse where you can control the environment. Which of the following is an aspect of the experiment that should be considered and controlled? a. An increase in carbon dioxide should not result in a substantial decrease of other necessary gases. b. All seedlings come from one uniform strain. c. The intensity or brightness of the green light equals the intensity of the full sunlight. d. All temperatures and available water remain the same for all plants. e. All of the choices are important considerations.
e. All of the choices are important considerations.
Which of the following observations is not part of natural selection as posed by Darwin? a. Individuals within a species exhibit variation. b. Organisms compete for available resources. c. Individuals within a population differ in terms of reproductive success. d. Organisms become adapted to conditions as the environment changes. e. All of these observations are part of natural selection as posed by Darwin.
e. All of these observations are part of natural selection as posed by Darwin.
Which of the following is NOT true about daughter cells of mitosis or meiosis? a. In meiosis, daughter cells are haploid. b. In meiosis, there are four daughter cells. c. In mitosis, there are two daughter cells. d. In mitosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical. e. In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical.
e. In meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical.
Protons (H+) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystems II and I. Which of the following describes what will happen to these protons next? a. The protons will reenter the electron transport chain and be used to generate water. b. The protons will be used to oxidize NADPH to NADH, generating ATP in the process. c. The protons will diffuse out of the lipid layer surrounding the thylakoid and exit the plant during gas exchange. d. The protons will raise the pH of the thylakoid space until it becomes alkaline at which point the protons are pumped out of the thylakoid, generating ATP. e. The protons will move from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex that generates ATP.
e. The protons will move from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex that generates ATP.
At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid? a. prophase I b. metaphase II c. telophase I d. prophase II e. anaphase II
e. anaphase II
If there are twelve different intermediate products produced in the stages of a metabolic pathway within a cell, we can expect that there a. is one enzyme that carries this process through to the end product. b. is one enzyme for degradation and another enzyme for synthesis. c. may not be any enzymes involved if this is a natural cell product. d. must be twelve different raw materials combined in the cell by one enzyme. e. are about twelve enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway.
e. are about twelve enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway.
Identify the following molecule: a. amino acid b. hydrocarbon c. carbohydrate d. alcohol e. cholesterol
e. cholesterol
Which is the best definition of active transport? a. movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration b. movement of water across a semi permeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration c. movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration d. movement of water across a semi permeable membrane from an area of lower water concentration to an area of higher water concentration e. movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP
e. movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP
Membrane-bounded vesicles that contain enzymes that break down fatty acids while producing hydrogen peroxide as a waste product are called a. vacuoles. b. vesicles. c. glyoxysomes. d. lysosomes. e. peroxisomes.
e. peroxisomes.
Which of the following molecules forms lengths of DNA with "sticky ends"? a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase c. RNA polymerase d. reverse transcriptase e. restriction enzyme
e. restriction enzyme
If the small groups of Viking explorers in Greenland and North America had survived and given rise to new populations, such a scenario would be an example of a. gene flow from continent to continent. b. the bottleneck effect. c. genetic drift among the original Viking explorers. d. directional selection. e. the founder effect.
e. the founder effect.
The distribution of species can help provide information about all of the following except a. past geological events. b. the movement of continents. c. formation of volcanic islands. d. ecological change. e. the time period in which a species was present on Earth.
e. the time period in which a species was present on Earth.
A researcher is studying the effects of a new drug on the endomembrane system. She notices the Golgi apparatus is not receiving any proteins and that it is not able to ship any proteins. What part of the endomembrane system was probably affected by this new drug? a. mitochondria b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. ribosomes d. nucleus e. vesicles
e. vesicles
In human females, when is meiosis II completed? a. at ovulation b. immediately after the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte c. immediately after the sperm penetrates the primary oocyte d. after the zygote has formed
immediately after the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte
