Biology 121 Quiz Questions #'s 1-10

In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 49% of the population show the recessive homozygote genotype. What is the frequency of heterozygous individuals? Remember p+q=1. and p^2+2pq+q^2=1 A) 0.09 B) 0.21 C) 0.51 D) 0.70 E) 0.42

E) 0.42

In dogs, erect ears and barking while following a scent are due to dominant alleles; droopy ears and silence while following a scent are due to recessive alleles. A dog homozygous dominant for both traits is mated to a droopy-eared, silent follower. If the two genes are unlinked, the expected F1 phenotypic ratios should be A) 9:3:3:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:2:1 D) None of these ratios are correct. E) 100% of one phenotype

E) 100% of one phenotype

The following are a series of events in meiosis. Choose the best sequence: EVENTS 1. Homologous chromosomes are brought into perfect alignment by a protein complex. 2. Chromatids separate and go to opposite poles. 3. Homologous chromosomes separate and go to opposite poles. 4. Chromatids of one homologous chromosome exchange fragments with chromatids of the other chromosome. 5. Pairs of homologous chromosomes line up along the cells equatorial plate. A) 1-4-5-3-2 B) 1-4-2-5-3 C) 4-2-1-3-5 D) 5-3-1-2-4 E) 1-3-5-4-2

A) 1-4-5-3-2

You are taking a natural history class. For your final project, you are required to collect specimens that fit the following categories: 1) an organism with a chitin cell wall; 2) a unicellular, prokaryotic organism that lives at extremely high temperatures; 3) a eukaryotic, unicellular organism. Following collection, you label your specimens with the following kingdoms: A) Fungi, archaea, protista B) Bacteria, fungi, protista C) Protista, animalia, archaea D) Protista, animalia, fungi E) Fungi, animalia, protista

A) Fungi, archaea, protista

Snails typically avoid sunlit areas, but some snails infected with certain parasites become attracted to light and prefer sunlit areas. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis given the life cycles of many parasites? A) The parasite manipulates the behavior of the snail so that it gets eaten more readily, which allows the parasite to complete its life cycle. B) The parasite itself must be exposed to light in order to survive in the snail. C) The snail is dying from the parasite and is therefore looking for the light. D) The snail is behaving differently in order to rid itself of the parasite. E) The parasite must exit the snail in a sunlit area in order to move and find its next host

A) The parasite manipulates the behavior of the snail so that it gets eaten more readily, which allows the parasite to complete its life cycle.

You find a pathogen which is particularly good at evading the immune system. Which quality/qualities would be beneficial to the pathogen? A) Two of the above B) All of the above C) Living inside a macrophage (an immune cell) to evade the immune system D) Activating the immune system then switching surface proteins so immune system doesn't recognize the pathogen E) Being extremely virulent to produce pathogens as quickly as possible

A) Two of the above

In snapdragons, flower color and leaf color are both controlled by incomplete dominance. Pink flowers and light green leaves are the intermediate conditions. Suppose you crossed two plants, both of which had pink flowers and light green leaves. If there were 32 offspring, how many would you expect to have both pink flowers and light green leaves? A) 1 B) 8 C) 32 D) 16 E) 4

B) 8

Natural Selection: A) Drives organisms to perfection over time B) Acts on phenotypes of existing mutations C) Inhibits the production of new mutations D) Acts on genotypes of existing mutations E) Promotes the production of new mutations

B) Acts on phenotypes of existing mutations

Which statement regarding proteins is correct? A) The protein hemoglobin has an important enzymatic role. B) Amino acids are joined together in a condensation reaction to produce the primary structure of proteins. C) Enzymes are proteins that change the free energy for reactions they catalyze. D) Interactions between R-groups cause secondary structure of proteins. E) Monomers of proteins are alpha helices and beta pleated sheets.

B) Amino acids are joined together in a condensation reaction to produce the primary structure of proteins.

In frogs, bright green coloration (G) is dominant to brown (g) coloration, and spotted frogs (S) are dominant to solid (s) frogs. You have a green, solid frog that you want to do a test cross with. What could you learn with this test cross? Choose the correct option. A) If 90% of offspring were green and spotted, your frog is most likely GGss. B) If some offspring were green and others were brown, your frog is Ggss. C) If approximately half the offspring were green and solid, you could assume your frog is GGSs. D) If all offspring were green, your frog is most likely GgSS. E) By doing the test cross, you could learn whether your frog is heterozygous for the "s" allele.

B) If some offspring were green and others were brown, your frog is Ggss.

Consider a small population of fish occupying a river section that is isolated from other populations by upstream and downstream dams. Which of the following management efforts could help increase the genetic variation present in that population? A) Breeding a small number of adults in a hatchery to ensure that their offspring survive at higher rates than in the natural environment, and releasing large numbers of related offspring back into the population B) Removing one of the dams to allow for interbreeding with another small population C) All of these are true. D) Removing the largest juvenile fish from the population to ensure that there are enough food resources for the rest of the population E) Two of these are true.

B) Removing one of the dams to allow for interbreeding with another small population

Which of the following is true of cystic fibrosis (CF)? A) CF makes cells unable to manage sodium. B) There is no testing for CF, which is why it is so prevalent in white populations. C) CF is caused by mutations in both copies of the CFTR gene. D) If a mother has CF and has children with a male who is a non-carrier and does not have the disease, half of her children will be carriers. E) CF causes secretions to be thinned.

C) CF is caused by mutations in both copies of the CFTR gene.

Once transcription has been completed, which component is not necessary for protein synthesis to proceed? A) ribosomes B) mRNA C) DNA D) tRNA E) amino acids

C) DNA

In frogs, the dominant allele at one locus increases frog's resistance to a common and deadly fungal pathogen. A pond hosts a large frog population where the dominant allele has been common over the course of many years (frequency = 0.9). One year, there is a severe drought in late spring and early summer which dries and kills almost all of the frogs' egg masses. After the drought, the frog population is very small (~48 frogs). As the frog population begins to grow again, the dominant allele has a frequency of 0.48. What force most likely changed the frequency of the dominant allele? A) Gene flow introducing novel alleles B) Random mating increasing the recessive allele's frequency C) Genetic drift altering allele frequencies D) Natural selection for the dominant allele E) Mutation at the loci increased the frequency of the recessive allele

C) Genetic drift altering allele frequencies

Which is true of mutations? A) A mutation on the third base pair of the codon is more likely to change the amino acid than a mutation on the first base pair. B) A missense mutation can result in either an insignificant or significant change in a protein C) More than one of these are correct. D) A frameshift mutation always changes multiple amino acids E) A nonsense mutation involves a base substitution that causes a "stop" codon to form

C) More than one of these are correct.

The finches of the Galapagos Islands have been studied by evolutionary biologists for many years. Which statement(s) is/are true concerning the evolution of these fascinating finches? A) Secondary contact between a seed eating finch and an insect eating finch would likely result in extinction of one species due to resource competition. B) There are 16 islands with finches, and all island finches form a single large gene pool that is separate from the mainland finch gene pool. C) The finches underwent an adaptive radiation as finch species evolved to exploit various habitats and food sources on the different islands. D) More than one of these are true. E) Differences in body size prevent allopatric finch species from fusing back into one species.

C) The finches underwent an adaptive radiation as finch species evolved to exploit various habitats and food sources on the different islands.

Which one of the following characteristics would a population of animals that are a K-selected species be least likely to exhibit? A) substantial parental care B) a long life span C) a type III survivorship curve D) population regulation chiefly by density-dependent factors E) a population growth curve of the logistic type

C) a type III survivorship curve

In testing the endosymbiosis theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, scientists have found some of the most promising evidence of an ancient endosymbiotic relationship to be: A) Fossils containing the ancient prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells in states of both independent and endosymbiotic existence. B) Certain organelles are the descendants of prokaryotes that were engulfed, but not digested, by ancient cells. C) Two of these are correct. D) All of these are correct. E) The fact that phylogenetic trees show chloroplast and mitochondrial ribosomal RNA sequences to be much more closely related to those of bacteria than to those of any existing eukaryote.

C) Two of these are correct.

A parent pea plant has a genotype of AaBBCcDd. What is the probability that a gamete from this pea plant has a genotype of aBcD? A) 0.5 B) 0.25 C) 1 D) 0.125 E) 0.0625

D) 0.125

In Indiana most pond snails live one year and then die. If a snail population in Pond A has a net reproductive rate of 1.2 and a starting population of 5,000 snails, what will be the population size in 3 years? A) 15,000 B) 7860 C) 18,000 D) 8640 E) 6000

D) 8640

You are currently reading about some of the cutest animals on the planet, the wallabies, and their relatives, the wombats. Based on the information below, which is true of these two species: Agile Wallaby: phylum Chordata; class Mammalia; order Diprotodontia, Species: Notamacropus agilis Common Wombat: order Diprotodontia; species Vombatus ursinus A) It is possible the agile wallaby and common wombat are not in the same phylum. B) None of these options are correct. C) Given this information, we cannot determine whether or not these two species are in the same genus. D) Both species must belong to class Mammalia. E) Both species are in order Diprotodontia, but they could be in different domains.

D) Both species must belong to class Mammalia.

In the Midwest, corn and wheat are two commonly grown crops. Corn is a C4 plant whereas wheat is a C3 plant. How might wheat and corn react to an extremely hot and dry day? A) Wheat would close its stomata in response to the heat, but corn would not. B) Wheat would undergo the Calvin cycle, but corn would not. C) Corn would separate carbon fixation and the Calvin cycle in time. D) During photosynthesis in corn plants, CO2 would bind to PEP and Rubisco. E) Both corn and wheat would be equally likely to undergo photorespiration.

D) During photosynthesis in corn plants, CO2 would bind to PEP and Rubisco.

To be certain that two species had co-evolved, one would ideally have to establish that: A) The two species were good friends before they started dating. B) The local extinction of one species results in the extinction of the other species. C) Each species has a negative impact on the population density of the other species. D) Each species has adaptations that specifically followed evolutionary change in the other species. E) The two species are adapted to a common set of environmental conditions.

D) Each species has adaptations that specifically followed evolutionary change in the other species.

Which of the following examples are consistent with Lamarck's theory of evolution and which are consistent with Wallace's theory of evolution? Example 1. Some Daphnia in a pond population are resistant to a pathogen. When there is an outbreak of the pathogen, resistant Daphnia are better able to survive and reproduce compared to the non-resistant Daphnia. This results in more resistant Daphnia in the offspring generation. Example 2. Sea otters break open mussels to eat by hitting them on hard rocks. Sea otters get stronger as they get older and eat more mussels, and they pass on these strong muscles to their offspring. Example 3. Your garden has a resident snail population with some dark green snails and some white snails. Birds eat snails that they can find. Planting dark green plants in your garden resulted in a greater proportion of dark green snails in the offspring generation. A) Lamark: 1, 2, 3. Wallace: none B) Lamark: 2, 3; Wallace 1 C) None of the above combinations are correct. D) Lamark 2; Wallace 1,3 E) Lamark: 1; Wallace: 2,3

D) Lamark 2; Wallace 1,3

The evolutionary concepts of Darwin and Wallace rest on several premises. Which of the following premises did Darwin and Wallace propose? A) Dominant alleles and phenotypes always make organisms more fit for their environment. B) All of these are true. C) In most species, more individuals are produced in each generation than survive and reproduce. D) More than one of these are true. E) There are chance variations among individual organisms in a population, some of which are heritable.

D) More than one of these are true.

Density-dependent factors are influenced by _______________. Examples include _____________ and ____________. A) Environment, extinction event, drought B) Climate, fire, competition for resources C) Population size, fire, disease transmission D) Population size, crowding stress, predation E) Environment, severe drought, floods

D) Population size, crowding stress, predation

What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I? A) Prophase is longer and more complex in mitosis. B) Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information. C) DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I. D) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologs separate in meiosis I. E) Homologous chromosomes pair in mitosis

D) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologs separate in meiosis I.

Eastern and Western Spotted Skunks overlap in their geographical range, but because of the difference in peak breeding time, they do not interbreed. This isolating mechanism is: A) Behavioral; Prezygotic B) Temporal; Postzygotic C) Ecological; Prezygotic D) Temporal; Prezygotic E) Ecological; Postzygotic

D) Temporal; Prezygotic

The energy of electron transport serves to move (translocate) protons to the outer mitochondrial compartment. How does this help the mitochondrion to produce energy? A) More than one of these options are correct. B) Protons are moved out of the way by ATP to allow energy production. C) During the electron transport chain, glycolysis produces protons and ATP. D) The movement of H+ ions sets up an electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis in the mitochondria E) At the end of the electron transport chain, protons move from low to high concentration through ATP synthase.

D) The movement of H+ ions sets up an electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis in the mitochondria

Photosynthesis and respiration have which of the following in common? A) In eukaryotes, both processes reside in specialized organelles. B) NADPH synthesis in both processes relies on the chemiosmotic mechanism. C) Electron transport. D) Two of the above. E) All of the above.

D) Two of the above.

In terms of age structure, with which of the following statements would you disagree? A) A declining age distribution could indicate unfavorable conditions for a population. B) Growth of populations depends, in part, on the relative abundance of reproductive individuals to non-reproductive individuals. C) A stable age distribution is associated with ∆N/∆t = 0. D) A stable age distribution is associated with both birth and death rates equal to zero. E) A growing population will have a triangle-shaped age distribution.

D) A stable distribution is associated with both birth and death rates equal to zero.

Which one of the following summary reactions would release the most energy during oxidative respiration? A) glucose ---> 2 phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) B) ATP ---> ADP + Pi C) 2 pyruvic acid ---> 2 acetyl-CoA D) 2 PGAL ---> 2 pyruvic acid E) 2 pyruvic acid ---> carbon dioxide and water

E) 2 pyruvic acid ---> carbon dioxide and water

Syndactyly (fused fingers) is a trait that is inherited as a simple autosomal dominant. Suppose a normal woman marries an affected man whose mother was normal. If the trait has 40 percent penetrance, what percentage of their children will be expected to express the trait? A) 30% B) 50% C) 0% D) 40% E) 20%

E) 20%

You are a scientist tasked with building a molecular phylogeny of various tetrapods (4-legged vertebrates) including mammals, reptiles, and birds. You need to choose a molecule to help create this molecular phylogeny. Which of the molecules below would be most appropriate? A) A slow-evolving section of DNA that has different functions in some species. B) A slow evolving protein like Cytochrome c that has different functions in each group. C) You would want to determine the mode of nutrition for all organisms of interest, and create a phylogeny based on this information. D) A fast-evolving protein with homologous sections. E) A slow-evolving section of DNA that has the same function in all organisms.

E) A slow-evolving section of DNA that has the same function in all organisms.

Interactions within communities can control populations. Based on community studies involving white-footed mice, gypsy moths, and oak trees, scientists have determined that an increase in the mouse population leads to an increase in acorn production by the oak trees. If the mice prey on the larvae of the moths and the moth larvae eat the leaves of the oak, how can this be so? A) Acorn production is not related to the mouse population. B) Gypsy moths do not influence the acorn production. C) An increase in the mouse population leads to an increase in the gypsy moth population. D) Oak trees produce substances that deter the moth larvae from eating the leaves. E) An increase in the mouse population leads to a decrease in the gypsy moth population

E) An increase in the mouse population leads to a decrease in the gypsy moth population.

Researchers have noticed that in a series of European lakes, perch and pike (fish species) occur together in some lakes but are found alone in other lakes. What option/s is true of these fish species based on the set of three observations below? 1. When there are no pike in a lake, perch diets are composed of approximately 30% zooplankton, 30% small fishes, and 40% benthic invertebrates. 2. When there are no perch in a lake, pike diets are 100% composed of other fishes. 3. When pike and perch co-occur in the same lake, perch diets are approximately 40% zooplankton, 10% small fishes, and 50% benthic invertebrates. Pike diets are still 100% small fishes. A) Competition for small fishes between perch and pike is an example of intraspecific competition. B) More than one of these are true. C) The fundamental niche for perch is smaller than its realized niche. D) Competition with pike for benthic invertebrates and zooplankton limits the realized niche of pike. E) Competition between pike and perch for small fishes limits the realized niche of perch.

E) Competition between pike and perch for small fishes limits the realized niche of perch.

Which of the following is a difference between DNA and RNA? A) DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine. B) DNA is a polymer and RNA is a monomer. C) DNA has two deoxyribose sugars and RNA has one deoxyribose sugar. D) DNA contains phosphorus, but RNA does not. E) DNA usually has two polynucleotide strands and RNA usually has one strand.

E) DNA usually has two polynucleotide strands and RNA usually has one strand.

You are asked to identify two unknown biomolecules in the lab. Molecule one is in a beaker with water. You have shaken the beaker multiple times and you notice the water and unknown molecule separate into 2 distinct layers each time. To identify molecule 2, you ask your chemistry lab partner for help. Together you find out that molecule 2 contains carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. What are molecules 1 and 2? A) Molecule 1 is a carbohydrate; molecule 2 is a protein B) Molecule 1 is a triglyceride; molecule 2 is a carbohydrate C) Molecule 1 is a lipid; molecule 2 is a nucleic acid D) Molecule 1 is a protein; molecule 2 is a nucleic acid E) Molecule 1 is a lipid; molecule 2 is a protein

E) Molecule 1 is a lipid; molecule 2 is a protein

Yuccas, succulents, and orchids are all CAM plants, which means all of the following are true EXCEPT: A) Light reactions occur during the day B) Carbon dioxide is fixed into a 4 carbon compound C) The Calvin cycle occurs during the day D) Stomates open at night and close during the day E) RUBP is not needed for photosynthesis

E) RUBP is not needed for photosynthesis

In terms of competition with which of the following would you disagree? A) Sympatric species can overlap in their fundamental niches. B) Character displacement can minimize competition between sympatric species. C) In Park's flour beetle experiments the outcome of competition depended on environmental conditions (temperature and humidity). D) All of these are correct. E) The realized niche is typically wider than the fundamental niche.

E) The realized niche is typically wider than the fundamental niche.

A small population of frogs in a local wetland has high migration to and from the wetland in spring. Which is true of this frog population and Hardy-Weinberg (H-W) equilibrium? A) Spring frog migration helps maintain H-W equilibrium and thus this population meets H-W assumptions. B) None of these are true. C) H-W is only useful for tracking allele frequencies in invertebrates (like mosquitoes) and would not be applicable to frog populations. D) The population meets H-W assumptions since the frogs are unlikely to have new mutations. E) While the population does not meet H-W assumptions, calculating H-W proportions could tell us if some alleles change in frequency over time.

E) While the population does not meet H-W assumptions, calculating H-W proportions could tell us if some alleles change in frequency over time.

With which of the following statements concerning Huntington's disease would you agree? A) You would agree with all of these. (67 %) B) Although Huntington's disease is always lethal, it persists in the human population because it usually is not expressed until after reproduction. C) If both parents have Huntington's disease, the children have a 50% chance of having the Huntington's gene. D) Huntington's disease causes degeneration of tissue in the brain. E) You would agree with more than one of these.

E) You would agree with more than one of these.

A common opportunistic pathogen that often affects AIDS patients is: A) All of these are correct. B) Pneumocystis carinii C) More than one of these are correct. D) Schistosoma mansoni E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

More than one of these are correct.

There are many HIV drugs, but four agents that are used to control the spread of the virus: Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTI), Protease Inhibitors, Fusion Inhibitors, and Integrase inhibitors. Using this order of the different agents, match the mechanism that each of these agents uses. a. Block enzyme function late in life cycle, making the virus non-infections b. Prevents HIV from attaching to the cell c. Blocks RNA to DNA replication d. Blocks action of enzyme that inserts viral DNA into our DNA c, b, a, b c, d, a, b c, a, d, b a, b, d, c c, a, b, d

c, a, b, d