BLOOD BANK CH 1-3

What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum? A. Adsorption B. Direct Coombs' C. Elution D. Indirect Coombs'

A. Adsorption

HDN is most often associated with what class of antibody? A. IgG1 B. IgM C. IgE D. IgG4

A. IgG1

Which genotype is heterozygous for E? A. DCe/dce B. DCE/DCE C. Dce/dce D. DCE/dCe

D. DCE/dCe

A human gamete (egg or sperm) contains how many chromosomes? A. 23 pairs B. 46 pairs C. 23 chromosomes D. 46 chromosomes

C. 23 chromosomes

A person with the genotype MM shows a 3+ reaction when red blood cells are mixed with M antisera; whereas a person with the genotype MN shows a 1+ reaction. What phenomenon is occurring here? A. Prozone B. Zeta Potential C. Dosage D. Hemolysis

C. Dosage

Which of the following blood group systems is not likely to cause HDN? A. Kell B. ABO C. MN D. Rh

C. MN

The condition in which one chromosome has a copy of the gene and the other chromosome has that gene deleted or absent is referred to as: A. homozygous. B. heterozygous. C. hemizygous. D. recessive.

C. hemizygous.

All of the following are characteristics of a secondary immune response except: A. quickly formed antibodies. B. higher avidity for antigen C. higher dose of antigen required to form antibodies. D. lower dose of antigen required to form antibodies

C. higher dose of antigen required to form antibodies

When an individual is said to have blood group A, it refers to the individual's: A. alleles on the chromosome. B. genotype. C. phenotype. D. haplotype

C. phenotype.

Generally, the quality control measurements required by various accreditation organizations for platelet concentrates include: A. platelet concentrate volume and platelet count. B. leukocyte count if claims of leukoreduction are made. C. pH of the unit. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

How can T cells be differentiated from B cells? A. Secretion of interleukin-2 B. CD2 marker C. Agglutination of sheep erythrocytes D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What does polyspecific AHG contain? A. IgG B. C3b C. C3d D. All of the above

D. All of the above

What factors are known to influence platelet metabolism and function? A. Storage temperature B.Initial pH C. Platelet count D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Most antigens in the various blood group systems follow what kind of inheritance patterns? A. Codominant B. Homozygous C. Dominant D. Autosomal

A. Codominant

Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial contamination of platelet products? A. Entry of skin plugs into the collection bag B. Environmental contamination during processing C. Bacteremia in the donor D. Incorrect storage temperature

A. Entry of skin plugs into the collection bag

Which of the following is not true of monoclonal reagents? A. Monoclonal reagents are produced for single antigens with more than one epitope. B. Monoclonal reagents are highly specific. C. Monoclonal reagents are highly characterized and are uniformly reactive. D. Monoclonal reagents are produced by hybridoma technology.

A. Monoclonal reagents are produced for single antigens with more than one epitope.

What is meant by the term autosomal? A. Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes B. Trait is carried on sex chromosomes C. Trait is not expressed in the parents D. Organism possesses different alleles for a given characteristic

A. Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes

A gene, such as the O gene, that produces no detectable product is called: A. an amorph. B. a trait. C. an allele. D. recessive.

A. an amorph.

Biochemical changes that occur during blood storage include: A. increase in plasma hemoglobin level B. increase in pH level C. increase in ATP level D. increase in 2,3 DPG level

A. increase in plasma hemoglobin level

What is the normal life span of an RBC? A. 100 days B. 120 days C. 120 hours D. 2 days

B. 120 days

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally? A. 22°C B. 37°C C. 56°C D. 4°C

B. 37°C

According to AABB standards, what is the minimum pH required for apheresis platelets at the end of the storage period? A. 6.0 B. 6.2 C. 6.8 D. 7.0

B. 6.2

What does hemolysis represent in an antigen-antibody reaction? A. A negative result B. A positive result C. An inconclusive result D. None of the above

B. A positive result

Which of the following are produced after exposure to genetically different nonself antigens of the same species? A. Autoantibodies B. Alloantibodies C. Drug induced antibodies D. Jelly beans

B. Alloantibodies

Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this? A. Difference in ABO type B. Difference in immunogenicity C. Phenotype D. All of the above

B. Difference in immunogenicity

Why are enzymes used in blood banking? A. Enzymes enhance reactivity of MNS antigens. B. Sialic acid is released from red blood cells, which helps to reduce the zeta potential. C. Hydrophobic glycoproteins are removed from the red blood cell membrane, rendering the membrane hydrophilic (water loving), thereby allowing the red blood cells to move closer. D. All of the above

B. Sialic acid is released from red blood cells, which helps to reduce the zeta potential.

A father carries the Xga trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but none of his sons. What type of inheritance does this represent? A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive

B. X-linked dominant

When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called ___________. A. adhesion B. sensitization C. agglutination D. inhibition

B. sensitization

What cryoprotective agent is added to red blood cells upon freezing? A. Dextrose B. Adsol C. Glycerol D. All of the above

C. Glycerol

In the MN blood group system, a person who inherits an "M" allele and an "N" allele expresses both M and N antigens on the RBCs. Which of the following is true? A. M is dominant to N. B. N is dominant to M. C. M an N are codominant alleles. D. M and N are located on the same chromosome.

C. M an N are codominant alleles.

During storage the concentration of 2,3 DPG levels decreases in a unit of: A. Platelets B. Fresh frozen plasma C. Red Blood Cells D. Cryoprecipitated AHF

C. Red Blood Cells

What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen? A. Phenotype B. Solubility of antigen C. Variable region of light/heavy chain D. Complementarity

C. Variable region of light/heavy chain

Proper agitation of platelets while they are being stored is: A. important because when not agitated properly the platelets will stick together and not perform properly when transfused B. important because the pH of the stored platelets will increase and the platelets will lose functionality. C. important because the pH of the stored platelets will decrease and the platelets will lose functionality. D. not important because it has been deemed unnecessary by the FDA

C. important because the pH of the stored platelets will decrease and the platelets will lose functionality

What is the major biochemical consideration in platelet storage? A. Glucose metabolism B. Oxygen supply C. Production of carbon dioxide D. Regulation of pH

D. Regulation of pH

IgG-coated RBCs will be phagocytized by what effector cells? A. Monocytes/macrophages B. T cells C. Eosinophils D. Basophils

A. Monocytes/macrophages

An example of a colloid protein potentiator in routine blood banking is: A. Albumin B. LISS C. Ficin D. Papain

A. Albumin

How is it genetically possible for a child to type Rh-negative? A. Both parents are Dd. B. Both parents are DD. C. Mom is DD and Dad is Dd. D. Sibling is Rh-positive.

A. Both parents are Dd.

Why is low ionic strength solution (LISS) used in blood banking? A. It reduces the incubation time. B. It reduces the net negative surface charge on the RBC. C. It increases the zeta potential. D. It enhances aggregation.

A. It reduces the incubation time.

Which blood group antibodies are known to activate complement, leading to intravascular hemolysis? A. Lewis B. Rh C. Duffy D. ABO

D. ABO

A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group O. Their firstborn child has blood group O. The mother's most probable genotype is: A. OO B. AA C. AB D. AO

D. AO

When RBCs are stored, there is a "shift to the left." This means: A. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG. B. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG. C. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG. D. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG

B. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.

Which of the following blood group phenotypes result in a homozygous expression of the Jkb antigen? A. Jk(a+b-) B. Jk(a-b+) C. Jk(a+b+) D. Jk(a-b-)

B. Jk(a-b+)

What blood group is the best example of codominantly inherited blood group genes? A. Rh B. MN C. Lewis D. ABO

B. MN

When an individual is said to have blood group AA, it refers to the individual's: A. alleles on the chromosome. B. genotype. C. phenotype. D. haplotype

B. genotype.

Which of the following are characteristics of a secondary immune response: A. quickly formed antibodies B. higher avidity for antigen. C. lower dose of antigen required to form antibodies. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

An example of a cold reacting IgM antibody would be: A. Anti-K B. Anti-S C. Anti-M D. Anti-Jka

C. Anti-M

An example of a T cell immunodeficiency disorder is: A. X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Chronic thymic aplasia (DiGeorge syndrome) D. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

C. Chronic thymic aplasia (DiGeorge syndrome)

RBCs can be frozen for: A. 12 months. B. 1 year. C. 5 years. D. 10 years

D. 10 years

Which of the following is licensed additive solutions approved for the storage of red blood cells for 42 days? A. Adsol (AS-1) B. Nutricel (AS-3) C. Optisol (AS-5) D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following terms refers to the net negative charge surrounding red blood cells? A. Dielectric constant B. Van der Waals forces C. Hydrogen bonding D. Zeta potential

D. Zeta potential

What is the normal platelet count range per cubic millimeter? A. 100 to 350 B. 150,000 to 350,000 C. 50,000 to 200,000 D. 350,000 to 500,000

B. 150,000 to 350,000

One of the most important controls of hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is: A. glucose. B. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG). C. K+. D. Ca++.

B. 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG).

Additive solutions are approved for storage of red blood cells for how many days? A. 21 B. 42 C. 35 D. 7

B. 42

Platelet storage is a major challenge to the blood bank because of storage limitations. This includes: A. 1 day shelf life B. Bacterial contamination at incubation of 22°C C. A n increase in ATP and ADP levels D. Storage temperature at 1-6 degrees C

B. Bacterial contamination at incubation of 22°C

What is the equivalent of Factor D (alternative pathway) in the classic complement pathway? A. C1q B. C1s C. C1r D. C4

B. C1s

Which red blood cell preservative has a storage time of 35 days? A. ACD B. CPDA-1 C. AS-1 D. CPD

B. CPDA-1

When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called ___________. A. adhesion B. sensitization C. agglutination D. inhibition

B. sensitization

In an immune response, what is the time called during which no antibody is detected in the test serum? A. Secondary response time B. Primary response time C. Latency period D. Amnestic response time

C. Latency period

What is the primary function of hemoglobin? A. Iron metabolism B. Porphyrin synthesis C. Oxygen transport D. Signal transduction

C. Oxygen transport

What does the term zeta potential mean? A. The ability of antigen to react with antibody B. The attraction of positive charges on the red blood cell surface to negative charges in an ionic cloud C. The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud D. The repulsion between red blood cells caused by noncovalent forces

C. The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud

In order to maintain ATP levels in stored blood, ______________ can be added to CPD to extend the shelf-life of stored RBCs from 21 days to 35 days. This new preservative is designated as CPDA-1. A. mannitol B. adenine saline C. adenine and glucose D. Rejuvenix

C. adenine and glucose

What is a possible explanation for a weak reaction (1+) in a reverse ABO grouping test? A. Elderly patient B. Immunocompromised patient C. IgM deficiency D. All of the above

D. All of the above