Blood Bank (Media Labs)

Which of the following is the proper storage temperature for fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

- 20 degrees Celsius

Frozen red cells that have been prepared with high glycerol methods (40% glycerol) can be stored up to 10 years if held at which of the following temperatures?

- 65o C or lower

Things included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation

-ABO/Rh check of post-transfusion sample -Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on post-transfusion sample -Clerical check

If detected in antibody screen testing the following antibodies are considered clinically significant in prenatal patients:

-Anti-M -Anti-N Anti-Fya

In providing crossmatch-compatible blood units, all of the following antibodies are most often clinically insignificant

-Anti-P1 -Anti-M -Anti-Lea

The following statements are true regarding the Lewis blood group

-Antigen expression is influenced by secretor status -Antigens are adsorbed onto the red cells from the plasma -ABO group affects antigen expression

All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products

-Measles (rubeola) vaccine -Mumps vaccine -Polio vaccine

All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing

-Verify ABO and Rh -Select proper blood products -Detect antibodies against donor cells

When testing for the quality of platelet concentrates, all of the following must be included

-pH -Platelet count -Bacterial detection

In the Kleihauer-Betke test, a maternal blood smear is treated with acid and then stained with counterstain. The fetal cells contain fetal hemoglobin, which is resistant to acid and will remain pink. Since the calculated volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage is an estimate, how many additional RhIg vials need to be added for the dose?

1

What is the acceptable temperature range for maintaining red blood cell components during transport?

1 - 10ºC

At what temperature should whole blood be stored?

1-6 C

How much time must elapse between apheresis red blood cell donations? Apheresis red cell donations allow for a donor to donate two units of blood products at the same time.

16 weeks

How many doses of RhIG should be administered if the calculated amount of fetal whole blood volume in maternal circulation was 28 mL?

2 doses

The proper storage requirements for granulocyte concentrates is:

20 - 24 degrees Celsius, 24 hours

After frozen RBC's have been thawed and washed, they must be used within how many hours?

24

FFP that has been thawed at 30 - 37°C and maintained at 1 - 6°C must be transfused within ___________ after it has been thawed.

24 hours

Frozen red blood cells that have been thawed, deglycerolized and reconstituted in an open system must be used within _______.

24 hours

How soon must granulocyte concentrates be administered after donation?

24 hours

When transporting donated platelet units, what is the maximum amount of time that agitation of platelets can be stopped?

24 hours

How long after potential donors have been diagnosed with malaria should they be deferred from doing a blood donation?

3 years

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) usually occur within which time period?

3-7 days after transfusion

One standard 300 µg vial of RhIg contains enough anti-D to protect against what amount of whole blood exposure?

30 mL

What is the increase in the risk for developing antibodies against red cell antigens (RBC alloimmunization) for patients who are characterized as chronically transfused patients?

30% or greater

Red cells units containing CPDA-1 as an anticoagulant-preservative may be stored for how long prior to transfusion?

35 days

What is the shelf-life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1?

35 days

From the IgG molecule illustration, which region is the heavy chain?

A

Following a major trauma event, a family of four walks into your donor center hoping to donate blood. Which one of the following individuals may donate blood today?

A 22-year-old woman using oral contraceptives. no restrictions on women using oral contraceptives or other birth control methods.

Which one of these physical exam results would cause a donor to be deferred?

A diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

Which of these units of Red Blood Cells, that has been issued and returned to the blood bank, can be returned to inventory and is acceptable to use?

A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours.

Which of the following blood groups reacts least strongly with anti-H?

A1B

Which of the following statements regarding the ABO phenotype A2 is true?

A2 antigens are linear while A1 antigens are branched.

You perform a gel ABO/Rh test on a 45-year-old male patient and you obtain the following results. What could be the Type/Rh of this patient? Anti-A: button on top Anti-B: button on top Anti-D: button on top D control: button on bottom A1 Cells: swirling no button B Cells: button on button

A2B POS

What ABO phenotype will exist in an individual that inherits an A gene from one parent and a B gene from the other?

AB

The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is most unreliable when diagnosing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to which blood group system?

ABO

When processing umbilical cord blood samples for hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPC), what tests are performed on both the mother's blood and cord blood?

ABO & Rh

Units of A-negative, B-negative, and O-negative red blood cells are shipped to your transfusion service. What testing MUST be performed by your facility before placing these units into your inventory?

ABO and Rh

Which of the procedures listed below will increase the platelet concentration in the preparation of platelets?

Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed.

What is the MOST common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Clerical errors

The immediate spin phase of an indirect antiglobulin test (antibody screen and antibody identification) could most likely lead to the detection of which of the following?

Clinically insignificant cold antibodies

Which of the following D variants has the best likelihood to receive D-positive RBCs without any adverse effects?

C in Trans to RHD

The "recognition unit" of the classical complement pathway refers to which of the following?

C1q

Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population?

CDe/ce

Which procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample to monitor severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) can also be used to deliver intrauterine transfusions?

Cordocentesis

A former patient had a positive antibody screen four years ago, and it was determined that she had anti-E. Her current antibody panel is now negative. Since she now needs blood for surgery, what should the blood bank do?

Crossmatch E-negative units.

Which of the following is a common cause of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Immune response to leukocytes

Clerical errors

Improper patient identification at the time of sample collection or transfusion

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are NEGATIVE?

Incubate at room temperature or 4°C to enhance weak expression.

How does hydroxyurea aid in the treatment of sickle cell disease?

Induces increased production of HbF.

Which of the following characteristics is consistent with the Kidd blood group system?

Jk(a-b-) red cells are resistant to lysis in 2 M urea

Which of the following antigens are well developed on fetal cells?

Kell

While ABO, Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, SsU are clinically significant, which of the following antibodies generally react at only the Coombs phase (also known as Antihuman Globulin phase)?

Kell, Duffy and Kidd antibodies

Which of the following tests is suitable for quantifying the size of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH)?

Kleihauer-Betke test

Which one of these Lewis blood group system phenotypes usually produces anti-Lea?

Le(a-b-)

All of the following would be included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation, EXCEPT:

Leukocyte antigen studies

Which one of the following blood group systems may show a cell typing change during pregnancy?

Lewis

Which one of the following procedures is used for the proper preparation of platelet concentrate from random whole-blood donors?

Light spin followed by a hard spin

What is the rare phenotype found exclusively in male patients that is caused by X-linked inheritance from a carrier mother, often demonstrating a chronic but well-compensated anemia as well as muscle and nerve disorders?

McLeod

Platelet specific antigens, also referred to as human platelet antigens (HPAs), are expressed on which of the following?

Membrane glycoproteins

Which of the following set of conditions would NOT allow HDFN to occur as a result of Rh incompatibility?

Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-negative

Which adsorption technique removes cold (IgM) antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities?

Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

When performing an antibody screen, both the screen cells are 4+ at immediate spin and W+ at AHG. The antibody panel shows 4+ reactions at immediate spin and W+ reactions at AHG and there is no specific match to the reaction pattern. The auto control is negative. What would be a logical next step?

Repeat testing using warmed patient sample/reagent and just do AHG reading

What procedure is used by the laboratory personnel to confirm ABO typing by using cells with known blood groups?

Reverse typing

A ficin (enzyme) treated panel can be a useful tool for determining the identity of an antibody. On a ficin-treated panel, reactions with which system would be enhanced

Rh

Which predicts HDFN using titers and causes anemia at birth?

Rh

A patient with multiple myeloma has the following reactions in the ABO typing: Anti-A= w+ Anti-B = w+ Anti-A,B = w+ Auto control = w+ A1 Cells = 4+ B cells = 4+ What is probably causing these results?

Rouleaux

Which of the following is an example of proper transfusion practices regarding fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing

Which of the following is the MOST IMPORTANT first step to take when a patient is transfused with un-crossmatched RBCs that turn out to be incompatible?

Stop any transfusion in progress.

Which subset of effector lymphocytes is predominantly responsible for regulation of antibody production?

TH2

What is the maximum number of white blood cells that may be present in 95% apheresis platelet units that have been leukocyte-reduced?

5.0 x 10^6

Donor and recipient blood samples must be kept for at least how long after transfusion?

7 days

Which of the following changes in titers would be considered significant when monitoring maternal antibodies using a doubling dilution?

8 to 32

The accepted interval between whole blood donations is:

8 weeks

The AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services requires a control system for antiglobulin tests interpreted as negative. What is done for this control system?

Adding IgG sensitized red cells.

The serum from a patient of African-American descent is reactive with all screening and panel cells. Which antibody directed to a high incidence antigen is most likely to be present?

Anti-U

Which Rh antibody might be produced if a unit of blood with Rh genotype DCe/dce is given to a patient with Rh genotype DCe/DCe?

Anti-c

A 54-year-old woman has just braved a winter snowstorm in North Dakota to see her doctor for a general checkup. She indicates no complaints but does mention how difficult the cold weather is for her. The doctor notices bluish coloring of her ears and fingers. She states that this has been happening for years whenever it is cold and that the problem subsides during the warm summer months. What abnormal test results might be noted in this patient's blood tests?

Agglutination on blood smear and positive DAT

When preparing platelet concentrates from whole blood, after the second spin and excess plasma has been expressed from the platelets, what is the next step in platelet preparation?

Allow the platelets to rest for 1-2 hours at 20-24°C.

You work at a major Level 1 trauma hospital with an active emergency department. On Friday night, an unidentified 24-year-old man involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought into the ER and a trauma protocol is initiated. The specimen sent to the blood bank is sent in the wrong type of tube and can't be used for crossmatch. Since blood is needed urgently, the patient is given 6 units of O NEG packed red blood cells. Three hours later, the patient's relatives have been located and he has been identified as a regular patient at this hospital with a historical ABO/D record of AB POS. You also finally receive a proper specimen in the blood bank. Upon running the specimen in a gel card, you see the reactions noted below. Which of the following choices is the best interpretation for these reactions? Anti-A: Button on top and bottom Anti-B: Button on top and bottom Anti-D: Button on top and bottom D Control: Button on the bottom A1 Cells: Button on the bottom B Cells: Button on the bottom

An AB POS patient demonstrating a mixed field reaction suggestive of having received O NEG packed red blood cell units

All of the following are cause for donor deferral EXCEPT?

An individual weighs 115 pounds at the time of donor screening.

If a patient is determined to have type O blood, what antibody would be found in his/her serum?

Anti-A and Anti-B

Which of the following is the cause of the most severe life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B

Which type of antibody can cause HDFN in any pregnancy (first or subsequent), but is usually limited to less severe symptoms?

Anti-A,B

A technologist performing an antibody identification in the blood bank has recorded the following results found in the worksheet below. Which antibody(ies) listed below cannot be ruled out?

Anti-C, anti-K, anti-E

If an Rh negative patient is administered a unit of R1R1 packed red cells, which one of the following antibodies would be most likely to develop:

Anti-D

Which of the following antibodies causes the MOST severe cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

Anti-D

Based on the phenotype of the RBC screening cells, and patient results given below, Anti-Jka and what additional antibody cannot be ruled out?

Anti-K

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients?

Anti-Leb

characteristic of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) that are the same for ABO and Rh HDFN

Antibody is IgG

What is the most prudent step to follow to select units for crossmatch after recipient antibodies have been identified?

Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched

In which group is Type B blood found in higher frequency?

Asians

Leukocyte reduction may be performed at the same time as which step in blood component collection?

At the same time the additive solution is added

Anti-A: Neg Anti-B: 4+ A1 Cells: 4+ B Cells: Neg Using the information provided above, what is the patient's correct ABO group?

B

Glycine-HCL/EDTA treatment of red cells can destroy which of the following antigens, allowing for confirmation of a suspected antibody and detecting additional antibodies?

Bg and Kell

Which of the following choices best describes the primary function of antibodies?

Binds with antigen

The antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is:

HBeAg

Leukocyte-reduced blood products may be administered to reduce the risk of febrile reactions and what disease or condition?

Cytomegalovirus

What is the most common Rh haplotype among whites?

DCe

A Rh-negative individual has produced an anti-D antibody. Which situation has the ability to stimulate this production of anti-D?

Delivering a Rh positive baby.

When AHG or Coombs serum is used to demonstrate that red blood cells are antibody coated in vivo, the procedure is termed:

Direct technique

The Lutheran b antigen (Lub) is a high-incidence antigen. A patient has developed an anti-Lub. All of the screening cells and antibody identification panel cells are positive at AHG. What can be used in testing so that the blood bank can determine if there are other clinically significant antibodies present in this patient?

Dithiothreitol (DTT)

Platelet products will be prepared from a whole blood donation. What must be used to prevent potential contamination of the platelets with skin cells and bacteria?

Diversion pouch

For which of these reasons would a molecular method not be used?

Donor antibody screening

What is the BEST technique for monitoring the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

Doppler ultrasound

At what frequency should quality control testing be performed on each lot of anti-human globulin to be in compliance with the FDA's current good manufacturing practices requirements?

Each day of use

In which of the following cases should Rh Immune Globulin (RhIG) be given?

Ectopic pregnancy

After performing an antibody panel and a selected cell panel, you still can't rule out S and Fyb. It appears that the patient has anti-e and anti-Jkb, but they are only reacting microscopically. What technique would be the best way to strengthen the suspected antibodies?

Enzyme panel

Which of the following may result in a false negative reaction when performing Rh typing?

Failure to follow manufacturer's directions precisely

An antibody screen utilizing polyethylene glycol (PEG) was performed. Reaction readings of this antibody screen are analyzed after the immediate spin and again at 37°C incubation with subsequent centrifugation. How will the centrifugation of the tubes affect the patient's results?

False positives may be seen

The MOST reliable method for determining the appropriate dosage of Rh immune globulin to give to an identified Rh immune globulin candidate after delivery is:

Flow cytometry

What would be the best way to determine how much RhIg should be given to a postpartum female who received RhIG antenatally and demonstrates the anti-D antibody at delivery?

Flow cytometry

Which of these methods measures fetal hemoglobin or D positive red cells or both to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage?

Flow cytometry

Which of the following is the MOST likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates an "acquired B-antigen" phenomenon?

Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A.

Which blood component is the most commonly used component for the replacement of multiple coagulation factor deficiencies in bleeding patients?

Fresh Frozen Plasma

When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be destroyed by enzyme treatment?

Fya

The parents' blood types are AB and O. What could be the only possible blood type(s) of their children?

Group A or B only

Which blood group is considered the "universal" donor when transfusing Red Blood Cells?

Group O

Which of the following ABO blood groups has the highest number of H antigen sites on the RBC membrane?

Group O cells

In an extreme emergency, if the ABO and Rh type are unknown, which of the following should be given to the patient?

Group O, Rh negative blood

Which of the following contains all the possible phenotypes that could be the result of parents who are group O and group A?

Groups A or O only

Which is the first marker (antigen or antibody) which will become positive after exposure to Hepatitis B?

HBsAg

Which type of antibodies are known to cause transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) reactions?

HLA antibodies

In order to avoid repeating pretransfusion testing on a neonate during one hospital admission, all of the following must be true, EXCEPT?

Has only received formula for nourishment

Based on the evaluation of hematocrit (Hct), blood pressure (BP), pulse, age, and gender, which of the following individuals represents an acceptable allogeneic donor?

Hct is 41%, BP is 110/80, Temp is 99.4, Pulse is 65, Age is 65, and Sex is male

What section of an immunoglobulin molecule is responsible for the differences between immunoglobulin classes?

Heavy chains

Which blood group is most frequently associated with Cold Agglutinin Disease (CAD)?

I Cold Agglutinin Disease (CAD) presents when red cells agglutinate at room temperature. In vivo, a cold autoantibody attaches to red cells in the colder extremities and activates the complement cascade. As the blood warms closer to the core of the body, the autoantibodies dissociate from the red cells, and more complement is activated. This is often associated with autoanti-I or autoanti-i.

Which of the following antigen groups is closely related to the ABO antigens on the red cell membrane?

I, i

Which of the following immunoglobulins are capable of fixing complement by the classical pathway?

IgG and IgM

What kind of immunoglobulins are predominantly found in Rh immune globulin?

IgG anti-D

Coombs control check cells used to verify negative reactions at the anti-globulin (IAT) phase are coated with:

IgG antibodies

One risk associated with patients that require chronic transfusions is:

Iron overload

What red blood cell component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)?

Irradiated Red Blood Cells

In theory, how difficult is it to find a compatible blood unit and to identify the antibody in a patient with an antibody to a low-frequency antigen, such as Kpa or Jsa?

It is not difficult to find compatible blood but difficult to identify the antibody

Which symptom of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase?

Jaundice

Which term listed below refers to the process that must be followed when notification is received that a donor of a unit transfused now tests positive for an infectious disease?

Look-back

Which of the following cells are capable of producing antibodies?

Lymphocytes

How does RhIg prevent anti-D production?

Mainly by suppressing the immune response after exposure to D positive cells.

Most antibodies present in cord blood are of ________ origin.

Maternal

In immunohematology, an antithetical relationship exists between M antigen and which of these antigens?

N antigen

If a patient is determined to have type AB blood, what antibody would be found in his/her serum?

No Anti-A, no Anti-B antibodies

Which test is NOT used as a screen for retroviruses in donated blood?

Nucleic acid testing for HCV

Which one of the ABO groups listed below has the MOST H antigen?

O

Which of the following is the most prevalent blood type found in the United States?

O positive

When is a computer crossmatch acceptable?

Patient has no history of clinically significant antibodies detected and the antibody screen on the current sample is negative

A2B is suspected when a patient's ABO typing has the following results:

Patient's red cells forward types as AB with anti-A1 present in the patient's serum.

What should be done FIRST if a donor unit of red blood cells is found to be incompatible at the antiglobulin phase but compatible at immediate spin with several different recipients?

Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit

Which procedure should be followed when one cross-matched unit out of five is INCOMPATIBLE at the antiglobulin (AHG) phase?

Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the incompatible unit

What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood?

Photopheresis

What is the most common treatment for hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) due to ABO incompatibility?

Phototherapy

What is the acceptable way to thaw Fresh Frozen Plasma?

Placing the FFP in a 37º C water bath

Donation of which apheresis blood product more than once every four weeks requires monitoring of total plasma protein and antibody levels?

Plasmapheresis

Bacterial contamination is MOST likely in which of the following blood products?

Platelets because they are stored at room temperature.

In blood bank agglutination reactions, the zeta potential (a force exerted by ions in the saline solution that causes repulsion between red blood cells in the saline suspension) can be reduced by treating the sensitized cells with:

Polyethylene glycol (PEG), albumin, or proteolytic enzymes

Which finding best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias?

Positive DAT

A patient is experiencing prolonged bleeding following a transfusion. The complete blood count indicates that the patient's platelet count has decreased following the transfusion. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

Posttransfusion purpura

Mother's results: Anti-A: Neg Anti-B: Neg A1 Cells: 4+ B Cells: 4+ Anti-D: 3+ Screening Cell 1: IAT-Neg, CC-2+ Screening Cell 2: IAT-Neg, CC-2+ Screening Cell 3: IAT-Neg, CC-2+ A mother's serologic results are shown above. Her newborn types as group A Rh positive with a (1+) positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which of the following investigative tests would be most useful to resolve the cause of the positive DAT and should be done FIRST?

Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT.

How are antibodies to the ABO blood group antigens unique?

The antibodies are naturally occurring to antigens that are absent from the red cell membrane

In an emergency release, why do blood bankers seldom encounter patients who have experienced hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR) from transfusion of uncrossmatched packed RBCs? Select the best response.

The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low.

The qualitative differences between A1 and A2 phenotypes includes all of the following

The lack of agglutination of patient red cells with anti-A reagent.

When giving a whole blood donation to a patient, what consideration must be made in regards to the ABO/Rh compatibility between the recipient and the donor?

The recipient and donor ABO and Rh types must be identical.

A patient who demonstrates a history of an allergic reaction from red blood cell transfusions will benefit from receiving which red cell component?

Washed red blood cells

For transfusion services in the United States, which of the following incidents must be reported to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) because of a biological product deviation?

The wrong specimen was used to crossmatch a unit and the unit was issued.

What is the correct description for Group II ABO discrepancies?

These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings are due to weakly reacting or missing antigens.

In the interest of safety, it is the policy at XYZ hospital to always add one extra 300 µg vial of RhIG, regardless if the dosage calculation is rounded up or rounded down. After performing a Kleihauer-Betke test, a technologist in the laboratory at XYZ hospital calculates the fetomaternal hemorrhage to be 45 mL of fetal whole blood. How many 300 µg vials of RhIG should be administered to this woman?

Three

Acute intravascular hemolysis as the result of a blood transfusion is most often associated with which of the following causes?

Transfusion of ABO incompatible red blood cells

Which of the following is true of the classic Bombay phenotype?

Two h genes are inherited at the H locus

Kernicterus can cause brain damage in newborns suffering from severe HDFN. This is due to a buildup of which of the following substances?

Unconjugated bilirubin

Which of the following is the most commonly encountered presenting sign of a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)?

Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin or hematocrit

Compared to plasma frozen within 8 hours of collection, plasma frozen within 24 hours of collection will likely have reduced levels of Factor:

VIII

When performing an anti-human globulin (AHG) test, it is important to completely wash the red cells because:

Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum.

What is the MOST likely cause of the ABO discrepancy when the following results were obtained from a first-time 29-year old, blood donor? Forward Group Anti-A = Negative Anti-B= Negative Reverse Group A1 Cells = Negative B Cells = 3+

Weak subgroup of A

If Jka is showing dosage, how might reactions on an antibody panel appear?

Weaker if heterozygous for Jka and Jkb

Transfusion of which blood product is most likely to cause circulatory overload in patients?

Whole blood

Which of the following steps must be followed to prepare a platelet concentrate?

Whole blood centrifuged at low speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at high speed

When a unit of packed RBC's is split using the open system, each portion of the unit must be issued:

Within 24 hours

Which organism is MOST likely responsible for septic reactions associated with red blood cell transfusions?

Yersinia enterocolitica

Generally speaking, infant RBCs demonstrate the presence of the ____ antigen, which gradually decreases as one ages. Conversely, the ____ phenotype is not expressed at birth, but the amount of this antigen increases as one ages.

i; I

Anti-B lectin

is extracted from the plan Bandeiraea simplicifolia. This reagent would agglutinate any blood type with the B antigen

Anti-H lectin

is extracted from the plant Ulex europaeus. This reagent would agglutinate any ABO blood type, as all ABO types contain some H antigen (the precursor molecule for the A and B antigens). The Bombay phenotype (hh) is the only blood type that would not agglutinate with this reagent.

Which of the following is considered a high-incidence antigen? A high-incidence antigen is one that appears in 98% or more of the population.

k (little k)

The plant lectin obtained from the Dolichos biflorus plant will agglutinate which of the following?

A1 cells Anti-A1 lectin is extracted from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus. This reagent will agglutinate A1 cells and A1B cells but not A2 cells.

Test that screen for retroviruses in donated blood

-Antibody to HIV type 1 or type 2 -Nucleic acid testing to detect HIV-1 RNA -Antibody to HTLV types I and II

indications of anemia and the potential need for a transfusion of packed red cells

-Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute -Respiration rate greater than 30 breaths per minute -Hemoglobin of 7 g/dL or less

Rejuvenation solutions for donated red blood cell units may be used to improve what factor that is affected by storage lesion?

2,3 DPG

It's a busy Friday evening in the blood bank, and you have been receiving a steady stream of Type & Screen specimens from the emergency room. Several of them have positive antibody screens, which require further workup. One of these patients is a 46-year-old male whose hemoglobin has dropped from 8.4 g/dL to 4.6 g/dL in the previous 8 hours (normal Hgb for this patient demographic would be ~14 g/dL). Your workup reveals a group O patient with the following antibodies: anti-K, anti-Fya. The prevalence of K negative donors in your donor population is 91%, while the prevalence of Fya negative donors is 37%. Two units of cross-matched RBCs are requested by the physician. How many units of group O RBC units should you phenotype in order to fulfill the request for two cross-matched units?

6 units of type O RBC units STEP 1: The percentage of donors negative for each antigen should be written in decimal points, and then multiplied: 0.91 (K negative) X 0.37 (Fya negative) = 0.33 STEP 2: Next, find the reciprocal of the number found in the first step. In other words, divide 1 by the number you calculated in the first step: 1/0.33 = 3 3 units should be antigen typed in order to find a single unit negative for both of these antigens. Remember - you need to crossmatch TWO units, so you would actually need to antigen type 6 units to find two that could be crossmatched. An alternate method to determine the number of units to antigen type is to solve for x using a ratio. In this case the ratio would be: 33/100 = 2/x 33x = 200 x = 6.06 or approximately 6 units

What does the hh genotype gives rise to?

Bombay phenotype

Which is in the correct order from the lowest concentration of H antigen to the highest concentration of H antigen?

Bombay, A1B, A1, A2B, B, A2, O

Given the following commonly used nomenclature systems, which one of the Rh genotypes listed below is heterozygous for the C antigen?

R1r/DCe

Antibodies in the Rh system typically exhibit which one of the following characteristics?

Reacts best at 37ºC and AHG