Business Management Test 3

2. _____ is the degree to which workers possess the knowledge, skills, and talent needed to do a job well. a. Ability b. Valence c. Synergy d. Instrumentality e. Drive

Ability

38. The founder of a medical products distributor, establishes challenging goals for his employees and is confident that they will be able to achieve these goals. In terms of the path-goal theory, the founder is exhibiting a (n) _____ leadership style. a. relationship-oriented b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented e. charismatic

Achievement-oriented

36. Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership? a. Participative b. Charismatic c. Achievement-oriented d. Supportive e. Directive

Charismatic

44. The two types of visionary leadership are _____. a. tactical leadership and charismatic leadership b. transformational leadership and transactional leadership c. situational leadership and strategic leadership d. situational leadership and transactional leadership e. charismatic leadership and transformational leadership

Charismatic leadership and transformational leadership

30. A study was conducted by a company on how leadership behavior influences employees' attitude toward their job. It was found that it is important for leaders to be friendly with and to show concern for their employees to promote job satisfaction. Which of the following leadership behaviors is emphasized in this scenario? a. Compliance b. Initiating structure c. Consideration d. Achievement orientation e. Task orientation

Consideration

49. Which type of leader behavior is demonstrated by a CEO who visits company plants to meet and talk to employees at all levels in order to better understand their concerns and feelings? a. Self-confidence b. Autonomy c. Initiating structure d. Reciprocity e. Consideration

Consideration

23. In a (n) ____ reinforcement schedule, a consequence follows every instance of a behavior. a. variable interval b. continuous c. variable ratio d. intermittent e. fixed ratio

Continuous

31. According to the Blake/Mouton leadership grid, _____ leadership style occurs when leaders care about having a friendly, enjoyable work environment but don't really pay much attention to production or performance. a. middle-of-the-road b. impoverished management c. country club d. team management e. authority-compliance

Country club

15. In equity theory, _____ is the perceived degree to which outcomes and rewards are fairly allocated. a. valence b. equity c. procedural justice d. process objectivity e. distributive justice

Distributive Justice

29. Which one of the following traits refers to high levels of effort and is characterized by achievement, motivation, energy, tenacity, and initiative? a. Emotional stability b. Honesty c. Drive d. Integrity e. Self-confidence

Drive

45. The two kinds of charismatic leaders are _____. a. visionary and nonvisionary leaders b. effective charismatics and ineffective charismatics c. transformational and transactional leaders d. optimistic charismatics and pessimistic charismatics e. ethical charismatics and unethical charismatics

Ethical charismatics and unethical charismatics

18. In terms of expectancy theory, when _____ is strong, employees believe that their hard work and efforts will result in good performance, so they work harder. a. synergy b. valence c. equity d. expectancy e. instrumentality

Expectancy

16. _____ holds that people will be motivated to the extent to which they believe that their efforts will lead to good performance, that good performance will be rewarded, and that they will be offered attractive rewards. a. Equity theory b. Expectancy theory c. Reinforcement theory d. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs theory e. Goal-setting theory

Expectancy Theory

22. _____ is a reinforcement strategy that weakens behavior by removing a positive consequence associated with the behavior. a. Negative reinforcement b. Reinforcement reversal c. Extinction d. Positive reinforcement e. Punishment

Extinction

32. Which of the following is an example of a situational theory of leadership? a. Trait theory b. Stimulus-response theory c. Fiedler's contingency theory d. Charismatic leadership theory e. Equity theory of leadership

Fiedler's contingency theory

39. The _____ is an organization's set of procedures, rules, and policies. a. locus of control b. formal authority system c. primary work group d. situational favorableness e. position power

Formal authority system

25. Which of the following is NOT a basic component of goal-setting theory? a. Goal congruity b. Goal acceptance c. Goal difficulty d. Goal specificity e. Performance feedback

Goal congruity

Which of the following statements about hearing and listening is true? a. Listening is an involuntary behavior, and hearing is a voluntary behavior. b. Hearing and listening are synonymous with each other. c. Both hearing and listening require paralanguage for the communication process to occur. d. Listening is a passive action, while hearing is an active action. e. Hearing is perception of sounds, while listening is making a conscious effort to hear.

Hearing is perception of sounds, while listening is making a conscious effort to hear.

47. Transformational leader's _____. a. do not allow followers to question assumptions b. often rely on discipline to bring performance up to standards c. have moral standards that put their interests before everyone else's d. do what is best for themselves instead of their organizations e. help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision

Help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision

40. The normative decision theory _____. a. assumes leaders are generally unable to change their leadership style b. helps leaders determine how much employee participation should be used in decision making c. states that the situation determines what leadership style to use d. assumes that certain inalienable characteristics determine the most effective leaders e. assumes leader behavior can be fitted to subordinate characteristics

Helps leaders determine how much employee participation should be used in decision making

5. On the basis of research evidence, the two basic categories of needs are _____. a. extrinsic and intrinsic needs b. physiological and psychological needs c. realized and unrealized needs d. higher-order and lower-order needs e. tangible and intangible needs

Higher-order and lower-order needs.

6. Which of the following statements is true of needs? a. The relative importance of various needs changes over time in a predictable pattern. b. Higher-order needs are only concerned with survival and security. c. Higher-order needs will not motivate people as long as lower-order needs remain unsatisfied. d. Once lower-order needs are satisfied, it is easy for managers to predict which higher-order needs will motivate behavior. e. Higher-order needs can be used to motivate people in any situation.

Higher-order needs will not motivate people as long as lower-order needs remain unsatisfied.

50. When an individual is running for a local political office, he or she makes lots of promises to people. When the individual wins the election and assumes office, he or she is often unable to carry out the political promises. In the context of leadership traits, the individual lacks _____. a. integrity b. charisma c. empathy d. drive e. self-confidence

Integrity

Which of the following statements best describes economic value added (EVA)? a. It is the amount by which profits exceed the cost of capital in a given year. b. It is the amount that is required to be paid in order to implement a new control system. c. It is the total revenue that an organization makes in a given year. d. It is the amount by which one department of an organization benefitted at the cost of another. e. It is negative when company profits exceed the cost of capital in a given year.

It is the amount by which profits exceed the cost of capital in a given year.

19. Reinforcement theory says that behavior is a function of _____. a. environment b. conscious choices c. the situations in which it occurs d. perception e. its consequences

Its consequences

26. _____ is the process of influencing others to achieve group or organizational goals. a. Interpersonal influence b. Autonomy c. Reinforcement d. Transaction e. Leadership

Leadership

Which of the following is one of the primary tasks faced by managers who want to improve communication? a. Eliminating informal communication channels b. Managing small group communication c. Controlling organization-wide kinesics d. Managing organization-wide communication e. Maintaining vertical communication channels

Managing organization-wide communication

27. Which of the following statements about leaders and managers is true? a. Leaders are critical to getting out the day-to-day work. b. Managers are critical to inspiring employees and setting long-term direction. c. Organizations need both leaders and managers. d. Leaders are more concerned with means, while managers are more concerned with ends. e. Most organizations place greater emphasis on leadership than on management.

Organizations need both leaders and managers.

Which of the following causes people exposed to the same information to often disagree about what they saw or heard? a. Straightforward communication b. Perceptual filter c. Antagonism d. Defensive bias e. Empathetic listening

Perceptual filter

34. In Fiedler's contingency theory, the term _____ refers to the degree to which leaders are able to hire, fire, reward, and punish workers. a. initiating structure b. position power c. authority-compliance d. situational favorableness e. task structure

Position power

21. _____ can increase the frequency of a particular behavior. a. Referent power b. Extinction c. Punishment d. Underreward e. Positive reinforcement

Positive reinforcement

4. McClelland's Learned Needs Theory identifies three needs. They are the needs for _____. a. achievement, relatedness, and growth b. power, achievement, and affiliation c. existence, relatedness, and growth d. power, self-actualization, and growth e. affiliation, existence, and power

Power, achievement, and affiliation

12. Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory? a. Instrumentality b. Expectancy c. Referents d. Valences e. Reinforcement

Referents

48. Transactional leaders often _____. a. motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work b. pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities c. help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision d. put their interests before their organization's needs e. rely too heavily on discipline or threats to bring performance up to standards

Rely too heavily on discipline or threats to bring performance up to standards

14. Which of the following factors is directly affected by perceived inequity? a. Motivational direction b. Satisfaction c. Autonomy d. Rewards e. Cultural synergy

Satisfaction

24. According to business professor Fred Luthans, one of the steps to motivating workers with reinforcement theory is "identify" that means: a. determining the baseline frequencies of performance-related behaviors. b. singling out critical, observable, performance-related behaviors. c. changing organization by using positive and negative reinforcement to increase the frequency of critical behaviors. d. assessing the extent to which an intervention actually changes workers' behavior. e. studying causes and consequences of performance-related behaviors.

Singling out critical, observable, performance-related behaviors.

3. _____ are factors beyond the control of individual employees, such as tools, policies, and resources that have an effect on job performance. a. Equities b. Valences c. Reinforcement contingencies d. Referents e. Situational constraints

Situational Constraints

33. In Fiedler's contingency theory, the term _____ refers to the degree to which a particular condition either permits or denies a leader the chance to influence the behavior of group members. a. situational favorableness b. position power c. initiating structure d. task favorableness e. cognitive dissonance

Situational favorableness

42. _____ is the ability to anticipate, envision, maintain flexibility, and work with others to initiate change that will create a positive future for an organization. a. Initiating leadership b. Empathetic leadership c. Autocratic leadership d. Progressive leadership e. Strategic leadership

Strategic leadership

37. According to the path-goal theory of leadership, which of the following leadership styles involves being friendly and approachable to employees, showing concern for them and their welfare, treating them as equals, and creating a friendly climate? a. Participative leadership b. Achievement-oriented leadership c. Leadership empowerment d. Directive leadership e. Supportive leadership

Supportive leadership

35. Which of the following is an example of an environmental contingency in path-goal theory? a. Task structure b. Perceived ability c. Locus of control d. Subordinate performance e. Subordinate experience

Task structure

41. Which of the following is a rule used within normative decision theory to increase decision acceptance? a. The problem structure rule b. The leader information rule c. The goal congruence rule d. The subordinate information rule e. The commitment requirement rule

The commitment requirement rule

28. Relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of behavior, form the basis for the _____ theory of leadership. a. trait b. situational c. contingency d. path-goal e. expectancy

Trait

46. _____ is a leadership that generates awareness and acceptance of a group's purpose and mission and gets employees to see beyond their own needs and self-interest for the good of the group. a. Virtual leadership b. Transformational leadership c. Transactional leadership d. Autocratic leadership e. Charismatic leadership

Transformational leadership

17. According to the expectancy theory, ____ affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation. a. expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality b. equity, competency, and instrumentality c. instrumentality, equity, and expectancy d. valence, expectancy, and instrumentality e. expectancy, equity, and reinforcement

Valence, Expectancy, and instumentality

43. _____ is leadership that creates a positive image of the future that motivates organizational members and provides direction for future planning and goal setting. a. Participative leadership b. Power-oriented leadership c. Autocratic leadership d. Supportive leadership e. Visionary leadership

Visionary leadership

8. Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic reward? a. A chance to learn something new from a task b. A feeling of responsibility c. A sense of achievement d. A salary increase e. A pride from accomplishing a difficult task

a salary increase

10. Which of these methods will work best in motivating employees to increase their efforts? a. Setting reasonably high standards to stimulate employees to make use of their abilities b. Expecting employees' needs to remain stable over time c. Asking employees what their needs are then matching rewards to those needs d. Satisfying higher-order needs first e. Relying on the innate value of extrinsic rewards

asking employees what their needs are then matching rewards to those needs

In the perception process, _____ is the process of noticing or becoming aware of particular stimuli. a. organization b. interpretation c. attention d. retention e. activatio

attention

The steps in the basic perception process, in order, are _____. a. attention, decision, intention, and action b. attention, organization, interpretation, retention c. organization, attention, interpretation, retention d. interpretation, attention, organization, action e. attention, interpretation, organization, retention

attention, organization, interpretation, retention

_____ states that we all have a basic need to understand and explain the causes of other people's behavior. a. Causality theory b. Principle of consideration c. Theory of empathetic reinforcement d. Attribution theory e. Behavioral reflection principle

attribution theory

The _____ is the measurement of organizational performance in four equally important areas: finances, customers, internal operations, and innovation and learning. a. financial ratio analysis b. SWOT analysis c. balanced scorecard d. cash flow analysis e. cognitive mapping

balanced scorecard

Companies that rely on bureaucratic control tend to _____. a. be highly resistant to change b. rely on group norms rather than formalized rules and regulations c. place little emphasis on policies and procedures d. value their human resources above all others e. be extremely responsive to their customers' needs

be highly resistant to change

The two types of objective controls managers use are _____. a. compliance and procedural controls b. work group and collective controls c. self-control and restraint controls d. behavior and output controls e. value and belief controls

behavior and output controls

_____ is the regulation of the conduct and actions that workers perform on the job. a. Subjective control b. Behavior control c. Output contrrol d. Feedforward control e. Input control

behavior control

The Relish Hotel decided to improve the quality of service offered to its customers; it asked frequent guests to comment on any issues pertaining to their stay and suggest any improvements that these guests may have experienced at other hotels. The guest feedback was henceforth incorporated by the Relish Hotel. In this case, the Relish Hotel undertook the process of _____. a. benchmarking b. quality assurance c. preclusion d. trend analysis e. optimizing

benchmarking

_____ is the process of determining how well other companies (though not just competitors) perform business functions or tasks. a. Downsizing b. Deskilling c. Divesting d. Rebranding e. Benchmarking

benchmarking

The two primary types of grapevine communication networks are _____ chains. a. cluster and gossip b. linear and circular c. diagonal and horizontal d. focus and scramble e. upward and downward

cluster and gossip

_____ is a type of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee's on-the-job performance or behavior. a. Supportive supervision b. Coaching c. Leading d. Upward guidance e. Counseling

coaching

_____ is feedback that is intended to be helpful, corrective, and/or encouraging and is aimed at correcting performance deficiencies and motivating employees. a. Participative feedback b. Empathetic feedback c. Constructive feedback d. Dyadic feedback e. Solicited feedback

constructive feedback

_____ is the regulatory process of establishing standards to achieve organizational goals, comparing actual performance to those standards, and then, if necessary, taking corrective action to restore performance to those standards. a. Organization b. Coordination c. Planning d. Control e. Staffing

control

_____ is the situation in which behavior and work procedures do not conform to standards. a. Restandardization b. Projection deviation c. Control loss d. Cybernetic feasibility e. Process gain

control loss

_____ is the extent to which it is possible to implement each step in the control process. a. Allocated quantity b. Dimensional stability c. Reserve capacity d. Strategic agility e. Cybernetic feasibility

cybernetic feasibility

1. _____ is the set of forces that initiates, directs, and makes people persist in their efforts to accomplish a goal. a. Persistence b. Attitude c. Self-management d. Motivation e. Compliance

d. Motivation

Lopez was injured at work when he slips and falls at a construction site. However, his coworkers assumed the accident was due to improper flooring. According to attribution theory, Lopez's coworkers interpreted the incident with a _____. a. defensive bias b. culpability bias c. fundamental attribution error d. proactive perceptual error e. reactive perception error

defensive bias

_____ is the tendency to notice and accept objects and information consistent with our values, beliefs, and expectations, while ignoring or screening out inconsistent information. a. Selective evaluation b. Closure c. Fundamental attribution error d. Selective perception e. Defensive bias

defensive bias

The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as _____. a. horizontal, vertical, and grapevine b. downward, horizontal, and upward c. hierarchical, functional, and organizational d. vertical, horizontal, and dyadic e. upward, dyadic, and downward

downward, horizontal, and upward

_____ is a technique of understanding a speaker's perspective and personal frame of reference and giving feedback that conveys that understanding to the speaker. a. Symbiotic listening b. Active listening c. Reflective hearing d. Non-confrontational listening e. Empathetic listening

empathic listening

Organizational silence occurs when _____. a. an organization refuses to answer customer complaints b. managers shut down all efforts to conduct grapevine communications in the organization c. an organization is going to engage in a leveraged buyout d. employees are encouraged to discuss company issues with the news media e. employees believe that telling managers about problems will not make a difference

employees believe that telling managers about problems will not make a difference

11. According to _____, people will be motivated at work when they perceive that they are being treated fairly. a. Alderfer's ERG Theory b. equity theory c. expectancy theory d. reinforcement theory e. Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory

equity theory

When things go wrong in the workplace, workers are more likely to attribute their problems to _____, while managers are more likely to attribute those same workers' problems to _____. a. external causes; internal causes b. intrinsic reinforcers; extrinsic reinforcers c. internal causes; external causes d. extrinsic reinforcers; intrinsic reinforcers e. the fundamental attribution error; the defensive bias

external causes; internal causes

An accident at the Millwood oil refinery severely injured two workers. The company is conducting an investigation to understand what went wrong. After analyzing the information, the company intends to bring in new safety processes to prevent such accidents. The company used _____control. a. presumptive b. concurrent c. feedback d. parallel e. predictive

feedback

In the communication process, _____ makes senders aware of possible miscommunications and enables them to continue communicating until the receiver understands the intended message. a. encoding b. feedback c. noise d. attribution e. retention

feedback

_____ is a method of gathering information about performance deficiencies after they occur. a. Concurrent control b. Preventive control c. Preemptive control d. Predictive control e. Feedback control

feedback control

_____ is a method of gathering information about performance deficiencies before they occur. a. Counter control b. Reactive control c. Feedforward control d. Concurrent control e. Response control

feedforward control

Most companies measure performance using standard _____. a. manpower resource measures b. quality and value measures c. market and customer measures d. financial and accounting measures e. innovation and learning measures

financial and accounting measures

The _____ communication channel is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information. a. kinesic b. cluster chain c. formal d. attribution e. grapevine

formal

In a grapevine communication network, a _____ involves one highly connected individual sharing information with many other managers and workers. a. dyadic chain b. cluster chain c. vacuum chain d. gossip chain e. structural chain

gossip chain

9. _____ are the natural rewards associated with performing a task or activity for its own sake. a. Performance valences b. Motivational cues c. Extrinsic rewards d. Intrinsic rewards e. Physiological rewards

intrinsic rewards

Organizational grapevines can be managed by: a. giving incorrect information to the employees. b. keeping employees informed about changing strategies and policies. c. punishing those who share information with other employees. d. rewarding employees when they circulate rumors in the company. e. the management withholding information.

keeping employees informed about changing strategies and policies.

In nonverbal communication, the term _____ refer to movements of the body and face. a. kinesics b. proxemics c. semitones d. mnemonics e. semantics

kinesics

Companies may determine standards by _____. a. performing an organization-wide appraisal b. listening to customers c. adopting anti-competitive practices d. partaking in industrial espionage e. actively undermining other companies

listening to customers

Andrea works for a finance company. She receives a complex message that she is unable to decode correctly. This situation is an example of _____ interfering with the transmission of a message. a. attribution biases b. filters c. noise d. defensive biases e. attrition

noise

_____ is the regulation of workers' behavior and decisions through widely shared organizational values and beliefs. a. Normative control b. Concertive control c. Output control d. Bureaucratic control e. Self-control

normative control

_____ is the regulation of workers' results through rewards and incentives. a. Subjective control b. Concertive control c. Output control d. Hands-off control e. Normative control Hide Feedback

output control

In nonverbal communication, _____ includes the pitch, rate, tone, volume, and speaking pattern (i.e., use of silences, pauses, or hesitations) of one's voice. a. semitones b. paralanguage c. kinesics d. metalanguage e. proxemics

paralanguage

Which of the following statements about perception and perceptual filters is true? a. People remember things similarly. b. People organize and interpret what they pay attention to similarly. c. People are unaffected by differences in stimuli. d. People can perceive only similar things. e. People perceive according to experience-based differences.

people perceive according to experience-based difference

_____ is the process by which individuals attend to, organize, interpret, and retain information from their environments. a. Participative communication b. Apprehension c. Passive listening d. Active hearing e. Perception

perception

_____ costs are the costs associated with implementing or monitoring control. a. Regulation b. Divestment c. Heuristic d. Benchmarked e. Retrieval

regulation

To determine whether control is worthwhile, managers need to carefully assess _____, that is, whether the costs and unintended consequences of control exceeds its benefits. a. defection costs b. regulation costs c. production costs d. divestment costs e. benchmarking costs

regulation costs

20. The two parts of reinforcement are ____. a. interval reinforcement and ratio reinforcement b. continuous reinforcement and intermittent reinforcement c. reinforcement contingencies and schedules of reinforcement d. positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement e. reinforcement temporality and reinforcement administration

reinforcement contingencies and schedules of reinforcement

Which of the following is NOT a control method? a. Feedforward control b. Objective control c. Feedback control d. Feedback loop analysis e. Self-dealing

self dealing

Which of the following is most relevant to the financial perspective of the balanced scorecard? a. Innovations b. Customers c. Internal operations d. Personnel e. Shareholders

shareholders

_____ are a basis of comparison for measuring the extent to which organizational performance is satisfactory or unsatisfactory. a. Strategies b. Methodologies c. Standards d. Estimations e. Outcomes

standards

_____ occurs when performance improvement is attained in one part of an organization but only at the expense of decreased performance in another part. a. Organizational balance b. Synergy c. Suboptimization d. Optimization e. Process gain

suboptimization

7. According to the model of work motivation and performance, an unsatisfied need produces _____. a. competency b. selective perception c. efficiency d. creativity e. tension

tension

Which of the following is a characteristic of the control process? a. The control process is unbridled. b. The control process is periodic. c. The control process is stringent. d. The control process is continuous. e. The control process is stable.

the control process is continuous

According to attribution theory, _____ makes managers more likely to attribute workers' problems or failures to internal rather than external causes. a. the self-serving attribution bias b. the fundamental attribution error c. closure d. cognitive dissonance e. the defensive bias

the fundamental attribution error

13. The two basic kinds of inequity are _____. a. valence and instrumentality b. balanced and unbalanced rewards c. intrinsic and extrinsic rewards d. underreward and overreward e. higher-order and lower-order inequities

underreward and overreward

_____ is the customer perception that the product quality is excellent for the price offered. a. Cost b. Feature c. Performance d. Utility e. Value

value