C-17 - Everything
What does SPAM mean?
Semi prepared and matted
Min hydraulic system quantities
4.9, 9.4, 4.9, 4.9
What is the minimum operating reservoir quantities?
4.9/9.4/4.9/4.9
Max taxi speed on prepared surface
40
Max headwind (takeoff and landing)
40 kts
Max taxi speed on concrete surfaces
40 kts
What will happen if low quantity in sys 2/3
Affected aux pump + Xfer pump shut off
(Multiple engine start attempts) Delay starter engagement for how long after N2 RPM indication is lost?
40 seconds
The maximum flight duty period for a basic crew (including Basic +1) is __ hours; for an augmented crew __hours.
16; 24
How many hydraulic systems power the primary flight controls?
2 systems each
Max Airspeed: Pilot windows
205/.62
Max Airspeed: Slats retract
270/.62
Max TD sink rate above 502,100
600 fpm
If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on ____ .
A HAT of 300 feet and RVR 4000 or ¾ mile visibility with no RVR
During an air refueling BREAKAWAY, the receiver pilot should use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overrunning does occur, under no condition should ,_______ be made until positive separation has been attained.
A turn, either right or left
Use which ignition during coldweather
A&B
What does "PTT" mean on the COSA panel?
Aero-I is selected at the crew rest or LM station.
To be considered Stabilized at 300' AGL
A/S +10/-5 FPV & API in TDZ
What is the power source for each of the ignitors (A and B)?
A: AC Emergency Bus B: AC Bus 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively
What air source is typicaly used for engine starts?
APU
HYD RES TEMP X
Above 121C
Refueling 4 C's
Cleared block, Cleared to conduct AR Cleared to switch freq Cruise checklist
When does the ENG OIL PRESS light illuminate?
Below 70 psi
(LL) Minimum info in a doghouse
C-DAM Course Distance Altitude MSA (3-3)
Cockpit warnings associated with Manifold Fail
CAWS atenson Aural "MANIFOLD FAIL" MASTER WARNING ENV cue
Hot light
Case drain temp above 135C
Weather to qualify an alternate?
Ceiling: 1000ft or 500 above mins. Vis: 2 miles or 1 above mins. (1000-2 or 500-1 above mins). W/in 1 hour, INCLUDE TEMPO. "1000 and 2 or half that above mins"
What does the Fuel Control Unit (FCU) do?
Controls fuel flow and commands various engine functions
When is the O2 system low? (Crew, Pax, Aux)
Crew: 5 Liters, 60+/-5 PSI; Pax/Aux: 7.5 Liters, 60 +/-5 PSI
How do you fly a diverse departure?
Cross the DER above required screen height. Turn on course at 400' DER and maintain standard climb gradient (200ft/NM). Must comply with low close in obstacles, Takeoff Minima, and ODP. Not allowed IF there is an ODP, Obstacle Climb gradient, or non-std takeoff wx mins for departure runway. (11-202v3 5.5) "If low, close-in obstacles penetrate the 40:1 OCS, a diverse departure may still be flown" (11-217v1, 7.3.1.1) Obstacle clearance is provided out to 25nm (non-mountainous terrain) or 46nm (mountainous terrain). Beyond this, there may be dragons. (11-217v1)
What does line at the top of the ECP represent?
Crosswing manifold connecting L & R wing bleed air systems
Stable Idle numbers for EGT, Oil PX, and FF
EGT 460°C (bleeds off) / 490°C (bleeds on); oil PX > 70psi; FF 800-1200
What is the C-17 approach and departure category (FAA)? What is the speed range?
D: 141<166; E: 166 or more.
What is the EDV for? How does it work?
Depressurizes pump. Blocks pump outlet and commands min flow (1100 psi)
When does the APU ECU auto shut down?
Fire Overspeed Slow Start No Acceleration DC Power Loss Inlet Door Closes High EGT ECU Fails Low oil PX Clogged oil filter High Oil Temp High gen oil temp Loss of critical sensor
Decreasing performance windshear alerts
Flashing "WINDSHEAR" in center of HUD/PFD, CAWS ALERT "WINDSHEAR"
What type of engine?
High Bypass Turbofan
(Engine Start) Stable EGT Temps
Idle & Rev Idle: 460 (bleeds off) / 490 (bleeds on) (Figure 5-1; Pg. 5-4). These temperatures are not limits. They are guides, which, if exceeded, may signify an engine malfunctions.
During a tailpipe fire, when should you pull the fire handle?
If after completing the tailpipe fire procedures FF doesn't decrease to 0, EGT is rising, or fire continues
What does it mean if the weather shown on the radar is hashed?
It is not relevant to the current altitude.
What bus does the APU connect to?
L AC TIE Bus
What should you do if you have multiple hydraulic system failures?
Land as soon as practical
How big does the target need to be for skin painting?
Larger than a C-130
When is 17th stage bleed air used?
Low power settings
What is N1 relating to the engines?
Low pressure
How can failure of engine driven pump be indicated?
Low pressure or hot light
How would aux pump fail be indicated
Low px light
What does the T mean on the COSA panel?
Mic has been selected
What components go into the APU?
Power Turbine Accessory assembly OIl System Fuel System
When a right MANIFOLD FAIL light appears on the ENVIR panel or a "manifold fail" aural warning sounds anytime during APU operation what must be immediately done?
Press the APU switchlight on the ENVIR panel to extinguish the flow line
What bus does the EPU connect to?
R GEN TIE Bus
How many types of lights does the lavatory have?
Red, White and emergency
(Elec) If you are solely on battery power, what will you have? (EPE question)
Refer to the table in the checklist, under LOSS OF ALL GENERATORS
The PPI SKE and ND MAP formats depict only ______ altitudes for TCAS traffic
Relative
Where does engine bleed air come from?
The 10th and 17th stages
Define Vbmax and Vbo
Vbo is the maximum speed at which max effort braking can be initiated without melting the fuse plugs. Vbmax is the max speed from which the aircraft can be stopped without exceeding the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes.
On a radar approach, how often must you hear from the controller on vectors, PAR final or ASR final?
Vectors: 1 min PAR Final: 5 sec ASR Final: 15 sec
How can you tell transfer pump has failed
abnormal pressure in system being pressurized
When is engine operation limited to 5 minutes-
above 625° C
What is the time limit/max EGT/min oil pressure/ max oil temp of INT?
- No max time limit - 625C - 80 psi - 177C
What is the time limit/max EGT/min oil pressure/ max oil temp of MCT?
- No max time limit - 625C - 80 psi - 177C
Refueling closing airspeeds (with KC-135)
285@1nm, [email protected], 265 astern (and refueling speed)
What is the normal setup for engine start as far as sources go?
APU for electrical and pneumatic air cart
What are must the operator always ensure is clear prior to an APU start?
APU inlet and exhaust
What does APU switchlight cntrol?
APU pneumatc SOV allowing air to flow from APU into manifold
In the split parallel configuration, what supplies power to what side?
APU supplies left side, EPU supplies right.
Describe pressurization system operation in AUTO and SEMI modes. What does the LDG-ALT window altitude control? How do you control cabin altitude for AE missions with a max altitude?
AUTO: follows automatic schedule. LDG-ALT window shows landing field elevation. The aircraft will be slightly pressurized at landing (100ft below FE), but depressurizes after touchdown. SEMI: cabin alt goes to LDG-ALT window height. Still depressurizes on landing. Use SEMI for AE requirements (WARNING in dash 1)
(ECS) If an air conditioner ground unit is used to cool avionics, what button must be pressed?
AVIONICS COOL ORIDE
If a ground external cart is used what switch needs to be depressed?
AVIONICS COOL ORIDE
What is your first critical action during an Avionics Overheat for in the air and on the ground?
AVIONICS COOL ORIDE Switchlight - Open
APU shall not be operated when number 3 engine left fan thrust reverser duct is open and temperature is ____________?
Above 32 degrees Celsius, 90 degrees Fahrenheit
What does the trim air switch do?
Activating it CLOSES all the trim air (hot air) valves, making it colder in the cockpit.
What is the definition of runway available?
Actual runway length less the aircraft lineup distance. It does not include the length of the overrun
Which of the following will not disengage the autopilot?
Actuating the flap index switch before engaging Approach mode
What do you do when a portion of approach lighting system is inop?
Add 1/2 sm to min vis, or as noted in NOTAMs, on ATIS, or plate. Does NOT apply to VASI, PAPI or lights not part of the ALS.
What must be added to TOLD calculations if using alternate brakes?
Add 25% to MC land dist/ground roll
What does HOT mean on the COSA panel?
Aero-I is active. No Push-To-Talk is necessary.
What is the flow of tanks 2 and 3?
Aft compartment - Forward compartment - Engine
Where is the hydraulic servicing center? What is it used for?
Aft of the left troop door Used for servicing of hydraulic system on ground or in flight
When does the APU low fuel pressure light come on?
After 120 seconds
If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker ,
After landing and terminating the emergency
If entering a tactical environment immediately after takeoff, TACTICAL can be selected on the GPWS/TAWS CONTROL page, but the displays will not switch to tactical until the ______.
Aircraft is farther than 15nm from the runway Aircraft is above 1500 ft AGL
What does the ESC do if MANIFOLD FAIL occurs? Exception?
Automatically closes the failed manifold. Except with an external cart.
What does the L/R AV Bus do in AUTO mode?
Automatically sheds electrical components when an overload is occurring
In N2 mode, what should be done with the throttles?
Avoid rapid throttle movement, engine over speed protection is lost
What does the "Snowflake" on an IAP mean?
Correct all altitudes on the plate ONLY if the temperature is below the "snowflake" temperature
If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead is inoperative, the totalizer shows
Correct total fuel
Block 17: The MC can only perform a predictive RAIM (P-RAIM) check for destination waypoints that have a(n) ______.
Fixed or advisory time constraint
Aux pump low pressure?
2200 psi > 2 sec
Max Airspeed: LNDG gear retract
225/.62
RCR dry paved runway
23
Normal supply pressure for the Passenger and Aux converters?
285-430PS
Normal oxygen pressure range
285-430psi
What altitude do high altitude engine start procedures begin?
9,500 MSL
_______ should be used for flight in known or anticipated turbulent air
Engine ignition
What is touchdown speed?
Speed at which the main gear touches the ground. Vtd is Vapp+4
At what altitude do you have to don oxygen if the other pilot gets out of the seat? At what altitude does one pilot have to wear the mask at all times?
"Above FL350" "Above FL410" 11-202v3, table 3.1
(Regs) What are the methods for departing IFR?
"DOSSNM" Diverse departure ODP (includes VCOA) Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Specific ATC Departure Instructions Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums MAJCOM Certified Procedure
(ECS) How does the ECS attempt to automatically prevent avionics overheats? How can you manually trigger enable the same cooling?
"If the avionics cooling inlet air exceeds 90 °F, the ESC routes conditioned air through the augmentation valve as required to maintain temperature below 90 °F. Both packs are commanded to high flow and the left pack is controlled to 40 ± 5 °F. An Avionics Cooling Override switchlight (AVIONICS COOL ORIDE) is located on the Environmental Control Panel. When pressed, the ESC is bypassed, the augmentation valve is driven full open, the avionics outflow valve opens, and the packs configure as described above." (1-719) Note: "avionics cooling inlet air" is measured right before the air is sent to the avionics. See Fig. 1-138.
(ECS) When is AVIONICS OVERHEAT master caution triggered, and what happens? In flight? on the ground?
"If the avionics rack inlet air temperature exceeds 90 °F for more than 5 minutes, in flight or on the ground, the MASTER CAUTION light illuminates and the AVIONICS OVERHEAT message appears on the WAP." (1-719) If on the ground, with no engine running and an external power source or the APU is furnishing electrical power, all avionics equipment not powered by the Battery and Emergency Buses is deenergized. Warning horns sound in the cargo compartment and right wheel well. (1-720)
How/when do you comply with an ODP when given ATC climb out instructions?
"Pilots must comply with ODPs prior to commencing a SID or radar vectors, unless different procedures or minima are specified" (11-217v1, 7.4.1) "Notify ATC when planning to depart via an ODP" (11-202v3, 5.5.2.2) "Controllers are required to issue climb gradients in excess of 200ft/NM with the departure instructions. If terrain or obstacles in the direction of departure appear to require a higher than standard climb gradient or if your specific departure instructions conflict with information published in an ODP, query the controller. Except in a Diverse Vector Area (DVA), USAF pilots must fly the ODP prior to the departure instructions. However, as a pilot there is nothing to inform you that you are in a DVA. Therefore, if the airport has a Trouble T and the departure instructions seem to conflict with the ODP or there is any question about which procedure to fly, query the controller for clarification." (11-217v1, 7.4.4.1)
Mental checklist prior to closing?
"Red, ready, AR" RED fly forward light READY light on AR annunciator AR MODE ENGAGED on WAP Alternatively: "red light, blue light, green light"
What is the MC wind hierarchy?
"SWRZ" Spot winds (WPT page) Winds page (climb/descent) Route Data Wind Factors Zero winds
(ECS) Describe the normal AIRBORNE mode of the avionics cooling system
"The cooling air is drawn into a sealed fan exhaust compartment below the cargo floor and through the aircraft skin heat exchanger located on the bottom of the compartment. Exhaust air, cooled by the heat exchanger, is routed back to the equipment areas in a continuous cycle (closed loop). In flight, when ambient total air temperature is below 65 °F, the fans and heat exchangers effectively handle the total generated heat load." (1-717) Note: this is a closed loop, but should not be confused with the GROUND closed loop operation.
What is the purpose of the transfer bus?
"The transfer buses allow the maintaining of minimum essential loads while shedding loads of other buses not essential for safety of flight" (1-399). The purpose of the AC Transfer Bus is to enable flight essential systems to be powered during the early portions of an in-flight power emergency. After short term emergency needs are satisfied (EFCS yaw damper, BDHI navigation, VHF COMM), the emergency electrical loads may be reduced, i.e., after 15 minutes into an electrical emergency condition, the AC Transfer Bus may be selected off. Emergency Bus power, from the batteries, is for critical flight conditions only. (1-372)
Increasing performance windshear alerts
"WINDSHEAR" in bottom of HUD, no annunciation
Refueling Breakaway procedure
"[tanker C/S] Breakaway" 3x on radio. PF DISCON stick & throttle, IDLE, SPEED BRAKES, 1-2* FPV down, maintain visual or 1000 below AR alt. PM: DISCON stick, visual, rotating beacon, radio if lost visual.
Approximate hydraulic levels (pressurized, what you see on the overhead panel)
"seven-eleven seven seven" Systems 1, 3 and 4: 7 gallons System 2: 11 gallons
What are the primary, secondary, and backup IDG's?
#2 is primary, #3 secondary, #1 and #4 are backup - 2 = pilot - 3 = copilot - 1 = left loadmaster - 4 = right loadmaster
During reverse taxi, how do you reverse the engines... (1) if all four engines are over a prepared surface. (2) if only the outboards are overhanging an unprepared surface
(1) frowny face (outboards 1/2 to 3/4 further back) (2) smily face (outboards at REV IDLE) (makes sense, less power over unprepared surface)
Pressing SC ZERO whenever the IRUs are in the ON position erases encryption keys, almanac and position information, forcing the ________ to reacquire. It will take much longer than normal on the next power up for the ______ to synchronize
(M) GPS; (M) GPS
How does the APU receive fuel primarily? Backup options?
(Primary) No 3 Fwd Boost Pump (Backup) No 3 Aft Boost Pump Or crossfeed, or gravity feed
The quantity indication for Passenger and Auxiliary converters has a error tolerance of _______ Liters
+/- 3.5L
What altitude block of weather is considered relevant in auto?
+/- 4,000 feet
NDB established on course
+/- 5 degrees
If excessive ice formations remain on the aircraft after climbing through an icing layer, level off and increase airspeed to obtain at least ____ or higher.
+10⁰C TAT
What are the EPU requirements?
- 115/200 volts AC - 400 cycles per second - 3 phases: A, B, and C - 60 or 90 KVA
What are the starter limits?
- 2 consecutive attempts followed by 15 minute cooling - Each successive start will be followed by 10 min cooling period - No more than 5 attempts in an hour - 1 hour cooling period after 5 attempts within an hour
In what time frame should the FUEL OVERFILL light extinguish after performing the correct procedures? What happens if it does not extinguish
- 20 minutes - the floast valve in the vent box has failed in the up position giving a false indication of fuel overfill. If possible, complete the flight without repressurzing the crossfeed manifold
What is the max airspeed during loss of all generators? What speed do you slow down to?
- 290 KCAS/.72 Mach - 250 KCAS - Slow down to this speed due to the reversion of flight controls to MECH
What is the time limit/max EGT/min oil pressure/ max oil temp of MAX/DRT?
- 5 minutes (10 minutes allowed for engine failure or engine out go around for obstacle clearance) - 655C - 80 psi - 177C
In normal configuration what is operating on the fuel panel?
- 8 boost pumps - Fuel Mgmt Switch - AUTO
What are the 6 emergency buses?
- AC Transfer - DC Transfer - AC Emergency - DC Emergency - Battery Bus - Battery Direct Bus
Briefly describe the integrated drive generator.
- AC power - 90 KVA - Engine driven, oil cooled, and brushless
What is on the AC Emergency Bus?
- ADC 1A - APDMC 1 - Capbin Pressure Control 1 - Flap Position Indicator - Engine Ignition A - Probe Heat (Pilot) - Ram Air
What is on the AC Transfer Bus?
- ADC 2B - Pilot/Copilot BDHI - DME 1
What is on the DC Emergency Bus?
- APDMC 1 - FCC 1 (Emergency Yaw Damper Only) - SCEFC 1 - ECS 1 and 2 - CIP 1 - IFF - Lighting (Emergency) - Oxygen Crew/Pax - IFF switch panel - Pilot Standby Altitude Vibrator - Fuel/Hyd Fire Shutoff Valves
What are the electrical sources for engine start?
- APU - EPU - Aircraft batteries
What are the recommended bleed air supply pressures?
- APU - 20 psi - Crossbleed - 25 psi - External - 30 psi
What important functions can the batteries supply power for if needed?
- APU start - Engine start - Single point refueling
What does A/PDMC stand for? What does it do?
- Aircraft Propulsion Data Management Computer - Uses incoming signals for internal computations and processes the data necessary to monitor engine condition, generate takeoff, stall, and overspeed warnings and transmits the data to associated systems
What is the difference between a flame out and engine seizure?
- An engine seizure will suddenly stop the engine with no N1 or N2 indications and a rapidly rising EGT - A flameout will gradually stop the engine, you will have a steady winding down of N1 and N2
What should you do with an Avionics Overheat light on the ground?
- Apply supplemental avionics cooling with a conditioned air cart or the air conditioning packs per the procedures or turn off electrical power until cooling is available
What is the time limit/max EGT/min oil pressure/ max oil temp of IDLE/IDLE REVERSE?
- No max time limit - 460/490C - 70 psi - 177C
Generator Bus power source priority
- Associated main engine generators - Ground power source on same side of tie bus - Other main engine generator on the same side of the tie bus - Ground power source on opposite side of the tie bus - Main engine generators on opposite side of the tie bus Another way of putting it: satisfy as many rules as possible, without violating a higher rule. Rule 1: prefer own engine Rule 2: prefer own side Rule 3: prefer ground source
What is the smoke detection system powered by?
- Avionics 1 powered by battery bus - Avionics 2 powered by DC Bus 3
What is on the Battery Direct Bus?
- Bailout alarm - Fire protection (one fire bottle per engine) - Emergency/XFER Bus Control
What important functions are contained in the Battery Direct Bus?
- Bailout alarm system - Fire protection - APU alert system - Certain single point refueling functions - Flight control computer - emergency
What is on the Battery Bus?
- CAWS 1 - HCU 1 - Cabin outflow valve (Stby/Man) - RAT - Engine start valves - Fire protection (one fire bottle per engine) - COMM 1 - PA - WCC 1 - Fuel System - Copilot/Aft LM ICS - Pilot/Fwd LM ICS - Pilot Stby Att Indicator - Fire Detect and Fuel Shutoff valves - Comm1/Comm2, RCU - Pilot CCU -Stby Engine Display - CCU1 & 2 Backup Audio
What can be controlled if only the battery and battery direct buses are powered? SECC PFG
- Communications - CAWS - Pilot standby attitude indicator - Standby attitude engine display - Emergency lighting - Fire detection/protection - Gear extension/retraction (alternate)
What do the batteries provide power to?
- DC Emer Bus - DC TXFER Bus - Battery Direct Bus - Battery Bus - Also provides power to static inverter which powers AC Emer Bus, which in turn feeds AC XFER bus
What should you do when you have a fuel leak in the air?
- Effects of the leak can be minimized by operating all engines from the affected tank and transferring fuel out of the affected tank to the other tanks (The 8,000 pound lateral fuel imbalance limit can be ignored in this circumstance, but minimize g excursions until the imbalance returns to 8,000)
What important functions does the Emergency/Backup system provide?
- Engine battery start - Refueling - APU start - Emergencies, composed of: batteries, static inverters, battery bus, battery direct bus, AC/DC emergency buses, AC/DC XFER buses
What are some considerations when using the RAT?
- Extending it above 300 KCAS may cause damage to the RAT - Below 130 KCAS you might stall the RAT, resulting in loss of aircraft control - Powers #4 system - 3,700 psi - Don't extend slats/flaps with the RAT (you will lose aircraft control for 30 seconds because the pressure supplied by the RAT is not enough to extend slats/flaps and fly the aircraft at the same time)
What sources of electrical power are there?
- External Power Unit (EPU) (external) - Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) (internal) - Integrated Drive Generators (internal) - Batteries (internal)
What types of pneumatic air for engine start are available?
- External air cart - APU bleed air - Another engine (engine bleed air) - Buddy start
What are the initial steps to dealing with a MANIFOLD FAIL?
- External pneumatic air - OFF - Engine Bleed Valves (affected side) - OFF - Bleed Air ISOL Valve - CLOSED - Air Conditioning Pack (affected side) - OFF - OBIGGS (affected side) - OFF - Wing A/I - OFF - APU Bleed Air Valve - As Required
What is on the DC Transfer Bus?
- FCC 4 (Emergency Yaw Damper only) - SCEFC 2 - Copilot Standby Attitude Indicator - VHF - NAV 1 - WAP - Copilot Standby Altitude Vibrator - Pilot CNC
What are the steps to stop fuel dumping?
- FUEL DUMP Valve - CLOSED L/R - X-FEED Valve(s) - CLOSED - XFER Pumps - OFF - Boost Pumps (Inop Engines) - OFF - Fuel Management - NORMAL
Describe the flow of the engine fuel system.
- FWD/AFT Boost Pumps supply low pressure fuel - Through the fire handle shutoff valve to the Engine Fuel Pump First Stage -Fuel Oil Heat Exchanger - Fuel Filter (w/capable bypass valve if filter pressure exceeds 5 psi) - Engine Fuel Pump Second Stage transfers low pressure fuel to high pressure fuel - To Fuel Control Unit - FF transmitter - Fuel distribution valve - Fuel nozzle (typical 24 places)
What conditions should you perform an Engine Fire/Emergency Engine Shutdown? (FEDSTOPSS)
- Fire - EGT (uncontrollable) - Disintegration including continuous sparking - Severe vibration - Thrust reverse disag - Overspeed (uncontrollable) - Pylon fuel leak - Severe compressor stall - Seizureo
What happens when you pull the fire handle?
- Fuel and hydraulic fire shutoff valves close - Shuts off air/oil heat exchanger and turbine cooling systems
What are the 5 major components of the oil system?
- Fuel/oil heat exchanger - Oil tank - Oil filter - Oil pump - Air/oil heat exchanger
What is reverse thrust limited to on the ground and in the air?
- Ground = Intermediate - Flight = Idle
What does the engine fuel system consist of?
- Integral two stage fuel pump (accessory gearbox) - Fuel Control Unit (accessory gearbox) - Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger - Fuel Flow meter - Fuel distribution valve
What are the 4 main components of the engine?
- Low pressure compressor - High pressure compressor - Combustion section - Turbine section
What are the indications of an engine fire?
- MAST WARN - LOOP A+B lights - ENG light - Red light in fire handle - "Fire number X engine" CAWS
What does OBIGGS stand for? What does it do?
- On Board Inert Gas Generating System - Minimizes oxygen in tanks to reduce possibility of explosions, adds NEA to tanks (nitrogen enriched air)
Give a basic description of the type of engine we have.
- Pratt and Whitney F117-PW-100 - High bypass ratio turbofan - Hydraulic powered thrust reverser system
What can be controlled if only the emergency bus and battery buses are powered? (FN PLG C)
- Pressurization (manual) - Lighting - Gear extension/retraction (alternate) - Communication - Navigation - Fire Protection/detection
What are the actions required if the X-FEED DISAG light illuminates with greater than 5,000 labs in any individual tank?
- Pull the Fuel Dump Low Level Shutoff CB (EPC R S18) - Monitor Fuel Quantity - Close the fuel dump valves
What other significant components are lost in N2 mode?
- Stall warning system is inoperative - Do not use thrust reversers in flight (limited to ground use in REV IDLE only) - Primary MC TOLD will not compute, but SEC TOLD is functional
TCAS TA/RA distance? PPI format is [relative / absolute] altitude? ND map format is [relative / absolute] altitude? How can you tell relative from absolute altitude displays? Cone of confusion? What is the unit of the PPI range rings?
- TA/RA distance: <6nm - PPI: depends on TCAS mode (RELATIVE is default) - ND map: always relative - Absolute altitudes don't have + or - signs. Relative altitudes are in 100ft increments - Cone of confusion is +/- 10* above and below - PPI Range Rings in 1000's of feet. The yellow ring with tick marks is 2nm.
What is the backup power source of the DC Emergency Bus?
- TR's 3 and 4 (DC right side) - If loss of all TR's, emergency power relay connects appropriate buses
During an emergency engine shutdown what is the proper execution of the boldface?
- The PF challenges the PM and receives positive confirmation that the correct throttle is selected prior to retarding to idle - The PM will challenge the PF and receive positive confirmation that the correct fire handle is selected prior to pulling - PM will challenge PF and receive positive confirmation that the correct ENG SHUT OFF switch is selected prior to moving the switch to OFF
What happens to pressurization when the emergency buses are turned off during loss of all generators?
- The aircraft will slowly depressurize due to leakge and the fact there will be no air coming in - "CABIN ALTITUDE" will be the only MASTER WARNING associated with this condition
When do the NEA bottles automatically shut down?
- Throttles advanced for T/O (shutdown for 5 min) - Eng 2 and 3 are in rev thrust - Airspeed is over 80 knots w/gear not up and locked
What three systems are used to identify most engine malfunctions?
- Thrust lost annunciator - WP annunciations - CAWS
What should you do with the exterior lights during overfill/venting? Why?
- Turn off wingtip, nav, and L/R landing lights, and put Anti-collision lights to FSLG - Extended use of exterior wingtip lighting may result in ignition of fuel
How many batteries are there and what is their power description?
- Two batteries - 40 amp/hr with 28 volt DC power
What is on the engine accessory gearbox? (4 pumps to start the puma control, general)
- Two hydraulic pumps - Pneumatic starter - 90 KVA integrated drive generator (IDG) - Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) for the EEC - Engine oil pump - Two stage fuel pump - Fuel control unit - Oil scavenge pump
What does the avionics cooling system cool?
- Upper + lower avionics racks - Both EPC's - Pilot + copilot instrument panels - Batteries - Glare Shield - Center Pedestal - Fwd LM Panel - Overhead Control Panel - IRU's
What should you do if you see a FUEL TANK PRESSURE light?
- Use wing vents to relieve pressure - If that doesn't work after a minute, climb/descend at a minimum of 3,000' at a rate of less than 1,000 fpm
What powers the EEC? Backup?
- When N2 RPM is above approximately 10%, the EEC is powered by its own engine driven PMA - Backup power is provided from the DC bus associated with that engine when the engines fuel switch is on or its starter button is depressed (EEC will be powered by PMA or DC Bus, whichever has higher voltage)
What are the initial steps to begin fuel dumping?
- XFER Pumps - ON - All Boost Pumps - ON - X-FEED Valve(s) - OPEN - FUEL DUMP Valve - OPEN L/R
How long will the batteries power the aircraft in the event of full generator failure? What are the assumptions of this time?
- approx 30 min - Emergency power stabilized within 15 minutes and ruther flight proceeds with the XFER BUSES OFF. The XFER BUSES can be turned back ON once you get to the intended base of landing
Min load factor allowed during an abrupt rolling pushover- Min load factor in reverse thrust- If airspeed exceeds Vh/Mh the min load factor is limited to-
-0.4 g's -0 g's -.75 gs
Where should the Flight Path Vector be placed at 50' for a 3/4 or Full flap landing-
-1.0 to 1.5 degrees (approx 240fpm)
FPV @TD on SAAF (Assault ldg)
-1.5-2.0 deg (aprox 360fpm)
Max Cargo Weight W/ Extended Range Tanks- Without Extended Range Tanks-
-164,900 -170,900
Engine Starter Duty Cycle
-2 starts w/o cooling -15 min before 3rd attempt -10 min between subsequent attempts. -Max of 5 attempts per hour, followed by 1 hour cool period. (restart above cycle)
Crew: O2 Quantity- O2 Qty/PX low light & Wap que
-25 liters -5 liters or Px 60±5
Max Aircraft OW Weight W/ Extended Range Tanks- Without Extended Range Tanks-
-282,500 -277,800
Max allowable fuel tank imbalance- Normally, avoid-
-8,000 -1,000
Minor corrections or deviations are acceptable and to a stable approach and are defined as
-Airspeed +10/-5 from target -Bank angle +/-15 from target -Descent rate +/-300'/min
Must have N1 on start-
-By 40% N2 at OAT >0C -By 30% N2 at OAT 0C or less
TACT Descent: Configuration- Airspeed-
-Gear up, Slats/Flaps Retracted, Speed Brakes Deployed, Reverse Idle Thrust. -320/.80 Mach
SAAF (Assault Ldg) at 300' HAT
-NLT 300' pilot engages PACAH -A/S +10/-5 FPV & API in TDZ
Rejected takeoff procedure
-Throttle - REV IDLE -Brakes -Reverse -After slowed, if concerned about brake temps, use REV IDLE to minimize peak temps -Check brake temps! May reach 1000 in 5 min. Evac if over 750.
How do you time the barb of a Procedure Turn (PT) approach? When can you descend when the altitude is published on the turn (see picture)? Where is the FAF if the PT fix is on the field, and the FAF is not depicted? Where is the "remain within" distance measure from?
-Time for 1:15 upon initiating the barb turn. -You can descend when ESTABLISHED on the inbound segment -The FAF is the point at which you begin descending from the PT completion altitude. -The IAF
For an RSC greater than _____ and an RCR less than _____, the actual runway required for takeoff/landing could exceed runway available
.00; 12
When is A&B ignition to be used for engine starts?
0 degrees C (32 degrees F) or below Use of engine anti-ice is anticipated Moderate or greater precipitation is encountered/expected
THRUST LOSS annunciator lights (amber) will illuminate in flight when thrust of a single engine is _____ less than the average EPR of the remaining engines
0.15 EPR
Max Temp for Short Austere Airfield (SAAF)
150°
What is the required RNP during an RNAV approach? What if it is not correct?
0.3 from final approach point to missed approach point. If it is not, overwrite the RNP at in the NAV-SENSORS RNP page with 0.3. 1.0 for the missed approach procedure
RSC snowy runway
0.5
What is the error tolerance of the Crew Converter?
0L [Same for Fwd LMS]
(Engine Start) Min N2 for idle
0°C: 58% (minus 2% for each 20°C colder, plus 2% for each 15° warmer) Memory aid: "0 moral at the 58th"
In a parallel configuration how many power sources are supplying the aircraft?
1
Time Control (high altitude): Take _____ percent of TAS to determine how long a 360-degree turn will take in minutes
1
Holding: The normal C-17 holding airspeed is ______, but not less than Vmma.
230 knots An airspeed derived from a command-approved planning and execution program
Where are most loadmaster systems located?
1 and 4 AC and DC bus
What is in the low pressure compressor section?
1 fan stage, 4 low pressure compressor stage
Crew duty time and flight duty period both begin ______. (exception: msns launched from Alfa/Bravo or self-alerting)
1 hour after alert
APU Stater Duty Cycle
1 min ON/5 min OFF
What are standard holding times?
1 min up to 14,000ft 1:30 above 14,000ft
APU starter limits (don't confuse with engine starter limits!)
1 minute ON, 5 minutes cooling. 3 start attempts allowed per rolling hour.
When do you perform pre-contact checklist?
1 nm
How many Fire Detection Control Units (FDCU) does each engine have?
1 with 2 redundant control channels that are connected to the detector loop - Detector loops around the core area and accessory gearbox
For low-altitude, level slowdowns, use ____ of ground speed as a general rule of thumb. Add ____ if above 280 KCAS to allow time to configure.
1% ; 1NM
Describe the High Speed Rotor (N2)
1) 12 high pressure compressor stages (middle of the engine) 2) Two high pressure turbine stages (behind the 12 high pressure compressor stages, in front of the five low pressure turbine stages)
If you use four aux pumps for the ten minute maximum duration, what is the cooling cycle requirement?
1) 15 minute cooling cycle if using no pumps 2) 30 minute cooling cycle if using two pumps
Onboard sources of pneumatic presure?
1) APU 2) Engine
What happens when you turn the APU switch off?
1) APU bleed air valve and inlet guide vanes close 2) Generator deactivates 3) APU ECU simulates an overspeed to 104% RPM to initate shutdown 4) APU inlet door closes when RPM <7%
Where are the APU fire discharge agent controls located?
1) APU control panel 2) SPR panel 3) Aft left LM station
What is lost if all 4 overpressure SOVs close?
1) Both AC packs 2) Ice protection sys
What does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) do? How many channels does it have?
1) Controls all engine functions 2) Provides overspeed and overthrust protection at MAX thrust - Two channels (for redundancy)
Describe the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) mode.
1) EPR is the ratio between pressure at the intake versus the exhaust of the engine 2) Uses the actual Engine Pressure Ratio to schedule fuel flow 3) This is the normal mode of operation
What are the three EEC control modes?
1) Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) 2) N1 3) N2)
What are the major components of the oil system?
1) Fuel/oil heat exchanger 2) Oil tank 3) Oil filter 4) Oil pump 5) Air/Oil heat exchanger
What happens when you pull the fire handle?
1) Generator is de-energized 2) Fuel fire shutoff valve closes 3) Hydraulic fire shutoff valve closes 4) Fuel is shut off at fuel control and wing spar 5) EEC shuts off the air/oil heat exchanger 6)
External sources of pneumatic pressure?
1) Ground cart 2) Another aircraft engines (buddy start)
What does the engine Fire Detection Control Unit (FDCU) do?
1) Has two redundant channels 2) Each channel connects to a fire loop 3) The loops cover the core and accessory compartment 4) Both loops need to be exposed to generate a fire warning 5) Powered by the DC battery bus
What is available in AP DEGRADED mode?
1) Heading hold 2) Altitude hold 3) Speed Hold for backside
Describe the APU engine start
1) Ignition occurs at 7% RPM 2) EGT increases for ~30 seconds 3) EGT decreases at 50% RPM to approximately 375 degrees 4) Ignition is de-energized at 95% 5) Generator and bleed air is enabled at 95% 6) RPM stabilizes at 100%
On the NORM or ORIDE ignition switch, what happens when you place the switch to ORIDE?
1) It bypasses the fuel shutoff selector switches 2) Energizes both A&B ignition systems
Describe the major components of the F117-PW-100
1) Low pressure compressor 2) High pressure compressor 3) Combustion Section 4) Turbine section
When are the valves controlled by Engine Pneumatic SOV closed?
1) Manifold fault detected 2) Overpressure condition (68 +/- 3) 3) Temp at precooler exit > 450F 4) Backpressure from manifold > engine pressure available
Describe MAX thrust
1) Maximum thrust approved for the engine 2) Limited to five minutes for takeoff (10 mins for three engine)
Describe Intermediate (INT) thrust
1) Maximum thrust certified for continuous use. 2) Use only when MCT is not sufficient. 3) Recommended for engine-out climbs
What does the Fuel Control Unit (FCU) do?
1) Meters fuel to the engine 2) Receives signals from the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) 3) Provides inputs to the EEC, Aircraft propulsion data management computer (AP/DMC), and Mission Computer (MC)
Describe Derated Thrust (DRT)
1) Minimum thrust for takeoff 2) Less than MAX, greater than MCT
What is located on the F117-PW-100 accessory gearbox?
1) Oil Pump 2) Hydraulic Pump 3) Pneumatic Starter 4) Fuel Control Unit (FCU) 5) Oil Scavenge Pump 6) Two-stage Fuel Pump 7) Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) 8) Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) (for the EECs)
Describe the Low Speed Rotor (N1)
1) One Fan stage (in the front of the engine) 2) Four low pressure compressor stages (just behind the fan) 3) Five low pressure turbine stages (at the back) N1 is all low pressure
What does Engine Pneumatic SOV contol?
1) Overpressure SOV on each engine 2) High pressure bleed regulator valve 3) Pylon pressure regulating valve 4) Overboard fan air valve
Pump priorities for 2/3 hyd system?
1) Primary Engine 2) Secondary engine 3) Transfer 4) Aux
What are the aux pump limitations while only on APU power?
1) Recommended max of two AUX pumps 2) If using all four, ten minute limit
How is the reduced engine start sequence accomplished?
1) Start Engine No 1 using APU bleed air 2) Start No 2 using bleed air from No 1, Start No 3 using bleed air from APU 3) Start No 4 using No 1
In backside flight, what do the throttles control? What does the autopilot control?
1) Throttles control glideslope 2) Autopilot controls pitch
What are the engine starter duty cycles
1) Two starts allowed without a cooling period 2) 15 minute cooling period before third attempt 3) 10 minute cooling period thereafter 4) Max of five attempts in one hour 5) One hour cooling period after five starts
Describe the N1 mode
1) Used if EPR can't be computed due to loss of air data, primary EEC channel has failed, or in reverse thrust 2) Uses the low speed fan, throttle position and Total Air Temp (TAT) to schedule fuel flow 3) Engine operates identical to EPR mode 4) Likely to revert to N1 while taxiing or ground maneuvers w/ >40% N1 for 10+ seconds, w/ 15 knot crosswind or 5 knot tailwind
Describe the N2 mode
1) Used if not enough data for EPR or N1 mode 2) No engine limit protection 3) No in-flight reverse thrust capability 4) No autothrottle capability 5) Avoid rapid throttle movement
What does the APS-150 radar provide?
1) Weather avoidance 2) ground mapping 3) Air-to-Air skin painting 4) predictive windshear 5) Turbulence detection
What does windshear look like on the weather radar?
1) red and black arcs out to 5NM 2) Yellow/black searchlights when range is greater than 20NM
How many hydraulic systems does it take minimum to operate the aircraft in an emergency?
1, but will be multiple FAIL OP messages
For combat offload, you need at least ___ft, ___ desired.
1,000 1,500
(LL) ESA is ____ above the highest obstruction to flight within ___ nm of route centerline.
1,000ft (2,000ft mountainous) 22nm
(Fuel) With less than ___ in ____ limit deck angle to ___
1,000lbs in a single tank +/- 3*
(LL) Avoid flight within ___ ft AGL or ___NM of airports
1,500; 3
How are HSCs powered
1- bat bus 2-Dc bus 3
(ECS) What is trim air? What happens if you turn it off using the TRIM AIR switch?
1-691. Trim air is unconditioned engine bleed air that is ducted to the flight compartment, the crew rest area and the cargo compartment. It is mixed with conditioned air, as required, to produce the desired temperature.
What are the indications of a successful APU loop A and B test?
1. APU loop A and B lights come on- CAWS sounds 2. Master warning press to reset lights on glare shield comes up 3. Fire light on the APU pannel comes on, WAP displays APU
Four Engine Flameout
1. ENGINE IGNITION - "ORIDE" (PM) 2. RAT - "EXT" (PM) 3. ENG SHUT OFF Switches - "ALL OFF, THEN ALL ON" (PM)
What 5 things occur when the Passenger Emergency Oxygen is activated?
1. Horn 2. Lights Full Bright in Cargo Compartment 3. RX to Seat Sign in LAV extinguishes 4. No Smoking & FSB lights come ON 5. "O2 in use" at the FWD LMS
The maximum airspeed for extending the slats is ____; for retracting is _____.
280; 270
Loss of Pressurization
1. OXYGEN - "ON, 100%" (ALL)
Smoke, Fire, or Fumes
1. OXYGEN - "ON, 100%" (ALL)
Emergency Engine Shutdown
1. THROTTLE - "IDLE" (PF) 2. FIRE HANDLE - "PULL" (PM) 3. AGENT - "DISCHARGE" (As Required) (PM)
The Stall Warning System provides stick shaker and aural "STALL" alerts to pilots when flight conditions (airspeed) approach what range?
1.05-1.15 Vs
Anytime slats or flaps are extended the abrupt rolling pushover/pullup G linits are ________
1.6-0.4
What would be the worst 3-system-failure combo to have?
1/2/3 (Lose slats, all braking, NWS, Upper rudder, L aileron, R elevator, must freefall gear)
What systems power flaps and trim
1/4
How many Pressure Demand Regulators (CRU-73A's) on the C-17?
10
How many portable O2 bottles and Recharging Stations?
10
Roll rate is limited to _____/sec for bank angles exceeding 60 degrees
10
The fully charged accumulators can provide ____ full brake applications
10
Max Tailwind
10 knots
Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing
10 kts (NOT in dash 1, found in -1-1, fig 3-5 and fig 9-1)
Engine rotation will be completely stopped before the starter is re-engaged. The exception to this is the Engine Clearing Procedure, when the starter may be re-engaged after N2 RPM has decreased below _____.
20%
Escape ropes
10 total. (2) pilot windows, MX/ditch hatch, forward escape hatch, (4) overhead escape hatches, (2) troop doors
Walk around bottles
10 total. 2 in cockpit, crew rest area, lavoratory, FLM station, (5) cargo compartment
If icing conditions are expected during the descent, engine anti-ice, wing anti-ice, and windshield anti-ice will be turned on at least _____ feet above the expected icing level in order to provide adequate warm up time
10,000
Time Control: A rule of thumb for calculating actual Delta T for Climbs/Descents is to apply a 1 minute correction to Delta T for every ____ feet of altitude to gain or lose. This ROT applies only when there are no waypoints between present position
10,000
The Pax O2 system is automatically charged between cabin altitude of ________ and __________ ft.
10,000 and 12,500 ft
Any time the cabin altitude exceeds _________Ft, each member of an Air Force Aircraft SHALL use supplemental oxygen.
10,0000ft Cabin Altitude
After engin start and SOV pressed where does bled ai come from
10/17 stage bleed air
AIREVAC min O2 QTY
100 liters
What is the maximum N1?
100.5%
1 on X AAR: During AAR with tanker formations, after receiving the scheduled on-load from the first tanker, descend in trail ___ the current tanker (___ the next tanker).
1000 feet below, 500 feet below
Min RVR Operational TO
1000 ft
Min Brake Press
1000 psi
Min/recomended combat offload length-
1000'/1500'
Min WX for Visual approach
1000-3 (GP)
Visual Approach Min Weather
1000-3. (GP)
Min PSI to set parking brakes?
1000psi
Fuel dump above ______ feet may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure
20,000
How much fuel do we burn in the air?
20,000 lbs per hour
With weather at CAT I minimums on a CAT I ILS, the pilot may not see the runway environment at DA; however, the initial portion of the approach lights may be visible. The pilot may continue to _____HAT with reference to the approach lights only. The pilot may not descend below_____ feet above touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are distinctly visible and identifiable
100; 100
An automatic shutdown occurs when APU RPM exceeds _____________?
104%
Select engine anti-ice on when temperature (SAT) is ___ degrees C or below and dew point and temperature are within ____ degrees C or each other or dew point is not available
10; 3
Landing is not permitting with tailwinds greater than ____ or headwinds greater than _____
10; 40
Windmilling airstart is not possible if N2 degrades below ____%. At what speed does this happen?
10; about 250kts Note: the 250 kts came from the CBTs at Altus. The warning in the 4 Engine Flameout procedure only mentions the 10% N2.
(Eng Start) If low oil pressure is still indicated ___ minutes after engine start, you should ___. Always shutdown the engine if oil pressure is less than ___
10; shut down the engine; 5 psi (pg 2-288)
What is primary stage of engine bleed air used?
10th
What engine stage powers OBIGGS II?
10th and 17th stage
Any crew member will immediately notify the PF when deviation of heading (±_____), airspeed (±_____), or altitude (±_____) is observed with no attempt to correct.
10°; 10 kts; 100ft
Min turn radius
116 ft
(Fuel) When does fuel dumping automatically stop?
20,000 lbs remaining (5,000lbs in each main tank)
RCR wet paved runway
12
How many aeromedical outlets along the sidewalls? -How many masks in 1 utility panel? ----Bonus Q: Which masks has a longer 100in hose?
12 (4 masks per utility panel **2nd from the top has the longer hose)
What is in the high pressure compressor section?
12 high pressure compressor stages
If the aircraft is below ________ ft, the loadmaster must use the emergency regulator to start oxygen flowing
12,500
(LL) Squawk on SR routes?
1200
Min RVR Cat II ILS
1200 ft
What are emergency frequencies?
121.5 and 243.0
About ___ degrees Bank angle are available without striking a wingtip when landing. Only ___ degrees with full gear suppression . and full aileron deflection.
13*, 9*
Slowing below ___ may stall the RAT
130
When the RAT is the sole means of hydraulic pressure do not slow below ______ as the RAT may stall and result in loss of aircraft control
130 KCAS
Bail out A/S min alt
135/2000 AGL
What altitude should you not fuel dump above?
20,000' because it may cause engine flame out due to loss of pressure
When flying with RAT what speed do you want to fly approach at?
140 or Vsho+10 to ensure control effectiveness in flare
On a dry surface with symmetric engine thrust and no differential braking, the aircraft can execute a 180-degree turn in ____ feet.
143
Norm turn radius
143 ft
Numbers for taxi 180* turn
143ft wide using max steering, symmetric thrust and no differential braking. 116ft wide using max steering, assymetric thrust, and light differential braking. 80ft for star turn
What engine stage powers OBIGGS I?
14th stage
Failure to periodically perform the ground ice shedding procedure can result in damage to the engines. If more than ____ minutes have expired since engine start and icing conditions persist, delay takeoff until the procedure is accomplished
15
APU may be operated for a maximum of __________ minutes which the no. 3 engine left fan thrust reverser duct open and the ambient air temperature is below 32 degrees Celsius (90 degrees Fahrenheit)
15 minutes
Maximum motoring time?
15 minutes
What time limit restriction applies to motoring an engine?
15 minutes max
What is the lowest supply pressure allowed for engine start/what should you do?
15 psi, if max sustained supply pressure is below 15 psi after engine start button is pressed, pull the engine start button out and find another source to start the engine
Max crosswind for Cat II ILS in training is _____/operationally _______
15, 10
(LL) Top of block on all SR routes?
1500 AGL
Rec combat offload length
1500 ft
Weather minimums for NVG departures for crewmembers who are non-current and/or unqualified is____ . Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures weather down to_____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____ ).
1500/3; 600/2; 300/1
During wind shear recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed _____ degrees of pitch below below ______ feet AGL.
15; 200
Min (Emergency) Plan LNDG Weight fuel
16,000
Min RVR Training TO
1600 ft
With more than ____ total fuel, delay braking until ____, unless there is less than ____ lbs of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined. Add ____ ft to landing ground roll. Do not add penalty if touchdown speed is greater than ____.
165,000 Nose gear touchdown 4,000 500ft Vbo
On extended range aircraft with more than ______ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown unless there is less than _____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined
165,000; 4,000
Max Airspeed: Flaps Full
175/.62
What is the maximum oil pressure?
177 PSI
Max eng oil temp
177° C
AC pack DISAG - off or deselected by
18% N2
Min N2 for fuel on
18% N2
(Engine Start) Min N2 and oil pressure, and max EGT prior to ENG START switch ON
18% min (but wait for 20% for faster and cooler start), 5psi oil PX. EGT under <190°C, or continue motoring until it is.
What percent N2 should you turn the engine shutoff valve on?
18%, for faster starts 20%
What is the total fuel without extended range?
180,800 lbs
Min Starter Assist
180/10% N2
Max Fuel without ER Tanks
181,000
Max Airspeed: Rev thrust (GND)
182
Tire placard speed
182.5 kts Ground speed
(Limits) What is tire placard speed? Where is this number found?
182.5 kts. Source: -1-1, Fig. 9-14 (NOT Section V!)
(IRCM) The laser is invisible and can injure eyes or skin within ____ feet for a single aft turret or ____ feet if the two forward turrets are installed.
187; 200
The ramp blowdown system may not function if the weight on the ramp exceeds ______ pounds
20,750
Smoke detectors
22 total. 8 annunciate directly on the overhead panel (crew rest area, lavoratory, 2 avionics cooling, 4 IRUs), and 14 more indicators for the cargo compartment lumped together under FWD, MID, AFT lights.
After aborted start: Motor engine to below
190 deg C
Max Airspeed: Flaps ¾
190/.62
What temperature should you motor the engine below before turning the engine shutoff valve on?
190C
How long do you time outbound on a PT 45/180?
1:15 (begin timing upon initiating the 45° turn)
The APU starter operating limit is ______ minute and any APU starter engagement is considered a start attempt. _____ starts may be attempted per rolling one hour cycle with a minimum delay of ____ minutes between attempts
1; 3; 5
From the left seat an imaginary line drawn from the row of rivets inside the number ____engine cowling at approximately the _____o'clock position closely identifies 25-foot wingtip clearance.
1; 4
Do not close from ___ range unless ____
1nm; in visual contact
A self contained ice detector located in the No. ____ engine inlet detects ice formation on a sensing element within the detector strut
2
How many ESCs are there?
2
How many hydraulic systems power each primary flight control
2
Primary flight controls are powered by how many hydraulic systems?
2
Which hydraulic system powers NWS?
2 & 3
Starter duty cycles
2 consecutive starts, then 15 minute wait, then 10 minutes for subsequent starts. Max 5 attempts in one hour, followed by one hour cooling period. Memory aid: 15-10-5
What is in the turbine section?
2 high pressure stages, 5 low pressure stages (powers low compressor and high compressor
How many hoses to supply the 64 centerline passenger seats?
2 hoses
A MA-1 bottle must be recharged within ____hours of landing or purging will be needed prior to recharge
2 hours
Where are the portable O2 bottle locations?
2 in the cockpit 1 in the crew rest 1 in the LAV 1 @ FLMS and 5 in the cargo compartment
After turning off bleed air, how long do you wait before turning off the APU?
2 minutes
Emergency exits
2 pilot windows, MX/ditching hatch, crew entrance door, FWD escape hatch, ramp, 2 troop doors, 4 chop out areas, 4 FEDS hatches. 16 total (8 normal, 8 destructive).
Crash axes
2 total. Crew rest bulkhead, and mid right side of cargo compartment by chop out area
What system powers brakes
2 with 3 as backup
What system pressurizes the accumulators?
2 with 3 as backup
The aircraft is capable of backing up a ___% slope, at ___lbs
2% 586,000 lbs
(WX) When filing to a remote island destination, aircrews may use ____ holding fuel in lieu of an alternate.
2+00. Check C-17v3, 6.20.3 for further restrictions.
How many A/PDMC's do we have?
2, located in the upper avionics bay
How many boost pumps are in each tank?
2, one forward, one aft
What is the average glide ratio of the C-17?
2.6 NM/1,000 ft or 2,200 fpm
What is the glide ratio of the C-17?
2.6 NM/1,000 ft or 2,200 fpm
Four engine flameout: Wings level C-17 glide ratio is:
2.6 NM/1000 ft
On ground, what systems does LM functions require
2/3
What system powers slats
2/3
At or near retract limit speed, or ____ KCAS above Vmsr at any gross weight, the outboard slats may be slow to retract or may do so asymmetrically
20
During flight, avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least _____NM at or above FL 230 and ____NM below FL 230
20 NM; 10 NM
(Engine Start) N2 indication within ___ of START button pressed
20 Sec
Min air press start APU
20 psi
(Engine Start) EGT rise ("light off") within ____ after ENG START switch ON
20 sec
To prevent excessive cycling, how long minimum will the TRANSFER pump power a system before switching control?
20 sec
To prevent excessive cycling, how long minimum will SECONDARY power a system before switching control?
20 seconds
FCC FIXED GAINS: Large abrupt rudder inputs at speeds over ____ KCAS can overstress the vertical stabilizer and rudders.
200
Min alt for autopilot on
200 AGL
Landing gear may not fully retract above ______
200 knots
What is the required climb gradient?
200'/NM standard (always with 4 engines) 152'/NM operationally with 3 engines. This removes the 48'/NM obstacle clearance buffer. Must be approved, but is automatically approved for all TACC missions (C-17v3, 6.16.2)
TACT Descent: Level off initiated
2000 ft above final alt
Thunderstorm avoidance: Vertically by ____ ___ at or above ___ ___ below ___ ___ for tactical low-level operations below ___ (when >= ___°C) Approaches and departures are OK with storms WITHIN ___, provided they are not producing any hazards at the field or moving in the direction of the field.
2000ft 20 NM; FL230 10 NM; FL230 5 NM; FL230; 0°C 10 NM (c17v3, 6.21.3, 6.21.6.3)
The MC assumes current atmospheric conditions and winds within ___ NM and ___ ft above and below the aircraft. This model is updated every ___ min
200; 4000; 5
Do not exceed _____ degrees of nosewheel angle when gross weight exceeds ____, and taxi speed exceeds ___ kts to prevent landing gear side load damage.
20°; 490,000 lbs; 20 kts
How many smoke detectors do we have?
22
There are _____ smoke detectors located on the aircraft.
22
Aux Pump PX Low
2200 psi
RCR for... Dry Wet Icy
23; 12; 5
Engine stabilized in idle N1
24 +/-3
Describe the combustion section
24 injectors with dual igniters
What is in the combustion section?
24 injectors, 2 ignition systems
In Manual mode, how long does it take for the outflow valve transition from fully open to fully closed?
24 seconds inflight, 38 seconds on the ground.
What is total fuel with ER?
244,600 lbs
Max Fuel with ER Tanks
245,000
Low EGT margin engines are more susceptible to ENG EGT X alerts on the WAP when OAT is at or above ______
24⁰ C (75⁰ F)
Max HW for T&G
25
What is the normal Crew Bottle Pressure? [Also Max Px and Min Px]
285-430 PSI [Max 450, no less than 50PSI]
Crew/Passenger O2 Pressure Range
285-430 psi
When using the alternate brake system, increase mission computer generated landing or ground roll distance by _____ percent.
25
Peak brake temperatures may not occur for ___ minutes
25 (from BRAKE TEMP HIGH procedure. Other places in the Dash 1 say 10-15 minutes)
Crew oxygen converter quantity?
25 Liters
Max Crosswind T&G
25 knots
(IRCM) Ground operations longer than _____ minutes with the outside air temperature above 38 degrees C/ 100 degrees F may result in TX x FAIL and degraded IRCM performance
25 minutes
If AGS does not deploy on landing, DLC spoilers are available to manually deploy ______ of AGS effectiveness.
25 percent
Crossbleed
25 psi
When using alternate brake system, increase mission computer generated landing or ground roll distance by
25%
A lineup distance penalty must be applied anytime the takeoff is not commenced from the beginning of the usable runway. Apply a standard distance of ____ feet to account for turning the aircraft around on the runway or accessing the runway from a taxiway.
250
The recommended minimum airspeed for in-flight reverse thrust is _____ or Vmma, whichever is higher.
250
What is the maximum airspeed allowable for extending the landing gear?
250
Slow to ____KCAS after loss of all GENS
250 KCAS
What is the tech order climb schedule?
250 or Vmma to 10,000ft 310/Mach 0.74 to cruise altitude
What is the 3-eng climb speed schedule? (after the initial 3-eng climb out after takeoff)
250 or Vmma until 10,000 MSL 270/0.66M to cruise
Max Airspeed: Doors/Ramp/AD
250/.62
Max Airspeed: Flaps ½
250/.62
Max Airspeed: LNDG gear extend or down and locked
250/.62
Min A/S airstart
250/10% N2
(LL) Max speed on SR routes?
250kts
If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to _______, and maintain track and altitude.
255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is higher
Do not taxi an aircraft within _____feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least______ feet
25; 10
O2 system capacities
25L crew system. 75L each auxiliary and passenger.
At what brake temperature do you need to adjust Vbo and LDG distance? (blocks 17-18) How do you do this?
25°C Use the table in the Perf pages. Make sure to adjust landing distance if necessary (read the note above the table).
What speed should you fly while trying to restart engines during a 4 engine flameout?
260
How many quarts can the oil tank hold?
28 quarts, 5 unusable, MFD displays 23 quarts
When fuel quantities drop below approximately ___ lbs for the inboard tanks and ____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective
28,000; 12,000
Max Airspeed: Slats extend
280/.62
A 45 degree bank turn decreases the aircraft's climb performance by ____.
29%
Max A/S Alt in MECH
290/.72 - 20,000
The aircraft is capable of backing up a ____% slope at a gross weight of ____lbs (sea level, 90⁰ F)
2; 586,000
In the event of an APU fire, how many possible locations are available to shut down the APU ?
3
What system powers gear?
3
What system powers alternate brakes? How much should you add to landing distance if using alternate brakes?
3, add 25%
(Engine Start) What pressure is required when checking the XFER pump?
3,400 psi, when No.2 is powered by engine-driven pumps. 3,000 psi when No.2 is powered by AUX.
How long does it take to fill a MODIFIED (slow fill) portable bottle?
3.5 minutes
Max landing VVI and gross wt (3/4 and FULL flap)
3/4 flap: 585k and 600 fpm FULL: 502,100 lbs and 660 fpm Comes from two tables in Sec. V: "Maximum Landing Touchdown Sink Rate" and "Weight Limits"
Tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies no less than ____minutes prior to the ARCT
30
Normal engine oil quantity?
4-23 qts
What is the normal oil quart range?
4-23 quarts
The maximum allowable crosswind for landing is ____ knots.
30
Max Crosswind (TO/LDG)
30 knots
Max taxi speed on unpaved surfaces
30 kts
Max crosswind (landing and takeoff)
30 kts (-1-1)
How long do the IRU batteries last?
30 min
To qualify as a DEPARTURE alternate: (1) For an alternate within 30 minutes flying time (2) For an alternate within two hours flying time
30 mins away: above approach mins, and at least 200-1/2 Existing through takeoff + 1 hour 2 hours away: 500-1 above approach mins, and: for precision, at least 600-2 for non-precision, at least 800-2 Existing through ETA + 1 hour
External Air
30 psi
When in VOR and TAC modes, the MC uses a _____ delay to compensate for temporary signal irregularities while transiting the ground station's con of confusion. During the delay, the MC uses its last valid data from the NAVAID for guidance
30 second
APU may be started with the flaps/slats down; however, they shall be set to full i position within __________ seconds after APU stabilization?
30 seconds
How long does the engine start light have to shut off after the button pops out?
30 seconds
Cold WX procedures: Stop start if no N1 by
30% N2
Min fuel combat offload
30,000 lbs
How long does it take to fill an UNMODIFIED or MODIFIED 2 portable?
30-45 seconds
What is max cruise when total fuel is less than 16,000#?
300 KCAS/.825
Max speed with less than 16,000 lbs total fuel is _____ KCAS or _____ Mach
300, .825
Min w/o full flight inst
300/ ¾ /40
Min ceiling/vis VR route
3000 ft/5 mi
(LL) Minimum weather to fly VR route?
3000ft/5nm
What is considered LOW PRESSURE for Primary & Secondary
3400
Prim/Sec PX Low
3400 psi
Max Airspeed Clean
350/.825
Max Airspeed: Rev thrust (flight)
350/.825
Min runway length
3500 ft
How much pressure does the RAT provide system 4? What airspeed should you not go below? How long?
3700 psi at 130 knots within 5 sec of deployment
What is the fuel quantity of the outboard tanks (1 and 4)?
38,000 lbs (T38)
At what PSI will secondary pump depressurize and primary comes back online?
3850
Where is fuel stored?
4 wing tanks
How many EEC's do we have?
4, one in each engine mounted on the engine fan case
How many generators are there?
4, one in each engine pod
The engine driven hydraulic pumps provide _____ psi
4,000
How much fuel do we burn on the ground?
4,000 lbs per hour
How many hydraulic systems are there
4
What hydraulic system incorporates the RAT?
4
Windshear recognition
4 basic ways of recognizing (CRAW) Climb/descent indicators - ±2° FPV (uncommanded change) - ±500 FPM VVI (uncommanded change) - Excessive radar altimeter sink rate - Excessive nose high/low pitch attitude Radar - PWS alternating red/black arcs/searchlights - Areas of red surrounding precipitation and for heavy precipitation along the takeoff/approach path. Airspeed indicators - Hesitant or excessive buildup on takeoff roll - Uncommanded change of ±10kts on approach Winds: sudden tailwind/headwind groundspeed change of 15kts or greater
Min Oil Quantity
4 quarts
Icing and cold weather operation: Taxi speed should be as low as practical on slippery surfaces and taxi speed of _____ knots or less
5
Max Headwind
40 knots
Delay engine starter re-engagement for ____ once N2 RPM indication is lost from the MFD engine display to ensure that engine rotation has stopped.
40 seconds
When can the starter be re-engaged after a stop start
40 seconds after N2 indications are lost from the MFD engine display
(Engine Start) N1 indication should display prior to ...
40% N2 ( >0°C) or 30% N2 ( <= 0°C)
What is the max thrust of each engine?
40,440 lbs
How much thrust does the F117-PW-100 produce?
40,440lbs
(Engine Start) Normal FF after ENG START switch ON
400-500ppf
How much pressure does each system provide?
4000 psi
Norm hyd Pressure
4000 psi
Pressure available to transfer pump
4000 psi
(Regs) What is the earliest you can turn after takeoff?
400ft above DER, safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway. (11-202v3, 5.2)
The maximum taxi speed for paved taxiways is _____ knots; maximum taxiway speed for semi-prepared taxiways is _____ knots with gross weight/fuel weight less than or equal to 435,000/82,000 lbs respectively
40; 30
Max hyd Pressure
4200 psi
Hyd system over pressure and how do you respond
4200 psi/ turn pumps off one at a time
Ops at temps > ____ could result in frozen gains
43
Normal manifold supply press
44 +/- 4 or 34 +/-4 idle
Max Zero Fuel Weight
447,400
Min taxiway
50 ft
A target aircraft is within 6NM and could be potentially hazardous. This is ______.
A Traffic Advisory (TA)
How many people do the life rafts hold?
46, or up to 69 overloaded
Max EGT for Idle power? idle reverse?
460 idle 490 idle reverse
Max EGT Idle/Reverse Idle- Reverse
460/490° C 655 limited to 5 minutes
Max OAT for takeoff
49
During taxi with speed greater than 20 knots with symmetric thrust (15 knots with asymmetric thrust), a 20 degree nose wheel steering angle limit applies if gross weight exceeds ____ lbs or with more than _____ lbs of fuel.
490,000; 165,000
Maximum EGT for engine start is _____ degrees.
495
What is the maximum EGT during engine start?
495° C
Max EGT on start: Air- Ground-
495° C 655° C
MAX EGT for start
495°C when below 55% N2
After ___ consecutive landings, fly with gear retracted for at least ___ minutes or with gear extended for at least ___ minutes.
4; 20; 10
LNDG gear cooling required after ____ ldgs must cool for ____ extended, ____ retracted
4;10;20
Min FOM<MSA
5
RCR icy frozen runway
5
The Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check is required if holdover time has expired or if freezing precipitation is occurring on an aircraft that was not anti-iced. The contamination check must be completed from OUTSIDE the aircraft within ___ minutes prior to takeoff
5
The maximum time limit at MAX/DRT thrust is _____ minutes when not needed for engine failure on takeoff, or engine out go-around for obstacle clearance.
5
EPR Settings higher than INT are limited to ____
5 minutes (10 minutes 3-engine)
Min oil px on start- In idle- Above idle-
5 psi 70 psi 80psi
Aux Pump Output
5.6 gal at 3850 psi
Aux pump output
5.6 gpm min at 3850psi
On the rate limit control knob, what is the FPM when turned full counter-clockwise? Full clock-wise? 12 o'clock?
50 FPM climb/30 FPM descent 3,000 FPM climb/1,800 FPM descent 500 FPM climb/300 FPM descent
The APU Fuel consumption rate is ________?
500 pounds per hour
TACT Descent: Min Alt
5000 ft AGL
(LL) MSA is ____ft above the highest obstruction within ___ of path.
500; 5
What is the max fuel dumping rate?
6,700 lb/min (with all boost and transfer pumps on) (1-252)
(LL) NVG altitude is ___ within ___.
500ft above highest DTED or spot terrain, within the tactical corridor NOTE: recent changes: it used to be 3nm instead of tactical corridor, and we are now only required to check contours (400ft + 1 interval rounded up to nearest 100) if DTED is not available. C17-V3, 16.4
(LL) Night VMC (NOT NVG!) altitude is ___ within ___ nm of centerline.
500ft above highest obstruction, OR 400 ft plus one contour interval above highest depicted terrain, within 3 nm of centerline. C17-V3, 16.4
Max Land Weight full flap
502,100
Min Oil Temp TO
50° C
Engine Start Buttons: The button will stay in until engine N2 RPM reaches approximately _____.
51%
Starter cutout
51% N2
(Engine Start) Starter button pops out at ___, if it does not, manually pull switch by ___. Light may take up to ___ to extinguish
51% N2; 55%; 30 sec
You are departing KEGE with the following ODP: "TAKE-OFF MINIMUMS: Rwy 7, 5100-3, or 700-2 with a min. climb of 480' per NM to 11800." What weather mins apply, and how would you fly this?
5100-3 is a non-standard weather minimum, which would allow civil traffic to see-and-avoid terrain on departure INSTEAD of making the climb gradient. USAF pilot are not allowed to do this, UNLESS they are able to climb to the non-std ceiling by the end of the runway (with one engine out), and then maintain the standard or published climb gradient. In this case, even when meeting the climb gradient, we STILL have to meet a less restrictive 700-2 weather min. We must "climb to 5100' AGL by the DER in any weather down to MAJCOM minima, and continue the climb at 200'/NM thereafter, OR climb to 700' AGL by the DER, then climb at 480'/nm to 11,800 MSL, then climb at 200'/NM thereafter" This whole example is spelled out in 11-217v1, 7.4.1.1.2
What is the fuel quantity of the inboard tanks (2 and 3)?
52,000 lbs (B52)
What approximate descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 KCAS and configured with Slats and Speed Brakes?
525 ft/NM
Pull out starter by
55% N2
Sub-idle Hung Start
56-60% N2
Max TO/Land Weight
585,000
Max takeoff weight
585,000 lbs
Max Taxi Weight
586,000
There is a maximum of _____ engine start attempts in one hour, followed by a _____ minimum cooling period.
5; 1 hour
Minimum oil pressure for starting engines?
5PSI
What is the difference between Normal and Minimum roll rates on the roll rate switch?
5°/sec versus 3°/sec
EEBDs (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) What are they for? What do the cases look like? How long do they last?
6 total. 2 in crew rest area, FLM station, crew entrance door, 2 in cargo compartment For the crew to use while firefighting. Respiratory and eye protection in smoke-laden or toxic atmosphere. In teal plastic cases Last 15 minutes Litmus paper in window should be light blue.
How many masks for the 54 side seats in the PAX oxygen system? -How many containers and masks in each?
60 (14 containers per side with 2 masks in each with the end containers having an extra)
Time Control (low altitude): Turn ____ degrees off course for 1 minute, then turn back to course on a ____degree intercept for 1 minute. This allows the crew to intercept the original course and lose 1 minute.
60, 60
Aircrews may fly NVG instrument approaches which transition to NVG landings with weather down to _____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____) or circling minimums (whichever is higher).
600/2; 300/1
Bank angles greater than _____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is _____ degrees.
60; 70
Max static ramp weight
615k
An automatic shutdown occurs when the APU EGT exceeds _______________ above 95% RPM
621 degrees Celsius
Max EGT INT
625° C
Max EGT MCT
625° C
What is the maximum EGT for MAX, INT or MCT?
625° C
How much fuel do the ER tanks hold?
64,000 lbs
Max transient engine EGT for INT is ___ C for _____ sec
640 5
Passenger: O2 quantity- O2 Qty/PX low light & Wap que
75 liters x 2 7.5 liters or Px 60±5
At what temperature do you get BRAKE TEMP HIGH on the WAP?
650°C
Max EGT airstart
655° C
Max EGT in Max/DRT
655° C limited to 5 minutes (10 for eng failure/Go-around obstacle clearance)
If ambient temperatures are below _____, fands and heat exchangers handle all avionics cooling duties.
65° F
The maximum landing touchdown sink rate for a steep approach (502,100 lbs) is ____ feet/min
660
Max TD sink rate 435800-502100
660 fpm
What is the max rate fuel dump? What are the assumptions with this rate?
6700 lbs/min, all tanks are full and that all boost and transfer pumps are on
There are normally ____ first aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for ____ total
6; 26
Do not attempt takeoff with any hydraulic reservoir temperature indicating less than ____degrees C. Low rudder temperature indicates insufficient rate of rudder deflection to correct for an engine failure on takeoff
7
Normal hydraulic quantities
7,11,7,7
Normal hydraulic system quntities
7.2, 11.7, 7.4, 7.2
System quantities
7.2/11.7/7.4/7.2
Max Cabin Delta P
7.8 PSID
What is the oil pressure min at idle?
70 psi
Min oil px on ground and in flight?
70 psi 80 psi
What is the N2 RPM for crossbleed starts?
70-70% in forward or reverse
Donor eng for crossbleed
70-75% N2
Touch and Go minimum runway length and width
7000ft x 120ft
(Engine Start) if FF exceeds ____, STOP START
700pph
Minimum oil pressure at idle?
70PSI
Max TD sink rate below 435800
750 fpm
If brake temperature exceeds ___, what should you do?
750°C; Emergency evacuation (3-579)
The passenger oxygen system contains one _____ liter passenger converter and one _____ liter auxiliary converter
75; 75
What is the Capacity of the Passenger Oxygen Converter? -What about the Aux O2 Converter?
75L. (Both are 75L)
HYD Temp range (TO)
7° - 120 C
If ALS is flashing when the aircraft reference symbol representing aircraft pitch attitude is within ______ degrees of the flight path, the ALS is erroneously activating.
8
How many masks per centerline seat module that holds 6 people per module?
8 masks
How many Quick Don masks onboard?
8 total (ref 1-2298) 4 in the Cockpit 2 in Crew Reset 2 @ FWLMS
L or R FUEL HEAVY is displayed on the WAP at ______ pound wing differential
8,000
For engine starts above _____ MSL, refer to section 7 of the Dash 1 (Operations at High Altitude Airports)
8,000ft
KC-135 Boom limits What happens when the intermediate fly-down PDI is displayed?
8-16 ft fore/aft 26-36* up/down 8* left/right "Display of the intermediate fly-down PDI on its own indicates that the upper limit has been exceeded" (3-3 figure) Note that only fore/aft is measured in feet) NOTE: The dash 1 numbers are different (why?)
When do the positive pressure relief valves open?
8.2 psi differential
What is the approximate time for the APU Inlet door assembly to open?
9 seconds
Fire Extinguishers
9 total. (2) cockpit left and right, crew rest area, (6) cargo compartment
What must the external power unit be rated at?
80 KVA
Minimum oil pressure at MAX/DRT/INT/MCT/Reverse?
80PSI
How many KVA is the APU?
90
What does the APU accessory assembly drive?
90 KVA Generator Oil Pump Fuel Control / Pump Cooling Fan Starter
If ambient temperatures are above _____, avionics cooling air flow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit).
90 degrees F
Min runway width
90 ft
Min star turn width
90 ft
Minimum runway/taxiway widths for C-17 operations are:
90 ft runway, 50 ft taxiway
After deicing is complete, it will take up to ____ for the outflow valve to fully open and lower the cabin pressure to the point where the crew entry door will open normally
90 seconds
Other than the engine clearing procedure, if the engine is motored no more than than ____ seconds, it will be considered one start attempt.
90 seconds
(limits) Max fuel limit from semi-prepared field
92k lbs (5-29)
Above what RPM % will the APU be PWR AVAIL?
95%
What is the APU stabilized RPM?
97%-101%
There are a total of _____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with ____ in the cockpit and _____ in the crew rest area
9; 2; 1
when to use Cold WX procedures: Temp-
</= 0°C 32F
When are Alt brakes in use
<2500 psi in the #2 hyd sys
Hung Start
<56% N2
When does the ENG OIL PRESS Warning Light illuminate?
<70 PSI
What is the WAP message when you open an O2 Converter access panel?
>HATCH ACCESS<
What happens when power is applied to the aircraft with the WX radar switch OFF?
A Power-On BIT initiates.
Hot start characteristics and recognition
A hot start can be caused by failure to cool below 190°C, or excessive fuel flow ( > 700pph) when fuel switch is turned on. Rapidly climbing EGT that is NOT parallel to N2 rise. Shut off prior to 495°C, and annotate duration above that temp.
Hung Start characteristics and recognition
A hung start occurs when an engine fails to reach idle. No perceptible movement towards idle or N2 rolling back, and continuous EGT rise above normal start values. If allowed to continue, a hot start may result. If hung, the engine will NOT respond to throttle movement.
All engine SOV valves automatically close if:
A manifold fault is detected Overpressure (68 +/- 3PSI) Temperatures exceed 450° F Backpressure is greater than engine pressure
What happens if smoke is detected?
A purging loop will try to clear the smoke through the outflow valve until it detects a manageable level of smoke or after 5 minutes
What does "+" mean on the COSA panel?
A radio has been selected for monitoring but is not currently displayed on the COSA panel.
Wht prevents air backflow into APU
APU check valve
When doing the preflight and you check the WAP what lights are you checking to not be displayed?
AC EMER DC EMER AC XFER BATT DIR
What powers ESC?
AC and DC buses 2 & 3 DC emergency bus in case of failue
What powers the boost pumps?
AC bus
What does the EPU supply?
AC power to all electrical buses during ground ops only
(Engine Start) Required and recommended PSI for engine start
ACE: APU 20, Crossbleed 25, External 30. Stop the start if <15psi after pushing start button
When FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1POWER circuit breaker on overhead circuit breaker panel, row E, column 13, is found open, the __________________ switchlight on APU panel will be inoperative
AGENT DISCH
What is the PNF looking for after touchdown?
AGS deployed, and all 4 REV indications are displayed. Announce any deviations.
What stabilized approach criteria apply to ALL approaches?
ALL approaches - In landing configuration (delays in flaps will be briefed) - "Appropriate" airspeed - Sink rate < 1000 fpm - Briefings and checklist completed - Correct track, bank, power - Momentary deviations allowed: +10/-5 kts; ±15° bank; ±300 fpm "Will be briefed for every approach" (c17v3, 5.12)
Press and hold which switchlight to test all lights and digital indicators on the overhead pannel?
ANN/DIGT test switchlight
What ANP is required for LL?
ANP 1.0 or less to fly lower than MSA at night. ANP 0.3 to fly tactical corridors less than 3NM left and right
When would you do the hydraulic warmup procedure?
ANY reservoir temp is below 7C
What happens in AP Degraded mode?
AP controls aircraft heading using all ADC+IRU values instead of what's been selected by the Pilot ID switch.
The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) submode is engaged by pressing the _____ when a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged
AP disengage switch on either control stick
Recommended supply pressures for engine start
APU = 20 PSI w/ starter button engaged Cross bleed = 25 PSI External air = 30 PSI
If outside temperatures are >90° F on the ground, where does avionics cooling need to come from?
APU air or an external air cart.
Which hydraulic systems can be serviced in flight?
All 4
If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive:
All four IRU's should be realigned if on the ground
What happens when you place the NVG/NORM/T-Storm Switch to T-Storm?
All lights go full-bright
What does the L/R AV Bus do in ORIDE mode?
Allows the pilot to conserve electrical components of his/her choosing during overload instead of having the computer automatically shed it
(Fuel) What does the amber SCHED light on fuel panel mean? (NOTE: these are the amber lights to the left of the no. 2 and 3 X-FEED switches)
An inboard tank aft to forward fuel transfer is off schedule. Also indicates when the E/R compartment to main forward compartment fuel transfer is off schedule.
If the engine start button light does not illuminate, what do you do?
Announce "STOP START" and correct the problem.
What does takeoff CAWS warning "HYDRAULICS" mean?
Any pump not ON/AUTO Aux pumps are not available Rudder temp is less than 22F
How much ground clearance does the RAT blades have?
At least 5 inches
What must be done prior to connecting external high pressure cart?
Apply electrical power to prevent fuselage fire
If a stall occurs
Apply smooth, but positive forward stick Increase thrust to MAX and retract speedbrakes (if required) Roll input to level the wings
(Elec) How long do the batteries last?
As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to one-half hour of operation. (Pg. 1-486; Note 1-381)
The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to _______ in the event of No 2 or No 3 engine loss
Assist in cargo door/ramp closing Assist in landing gear retraction
(AR) KC-135 day visual references for astern position (and how back is this?)
Astern = 50ft back Fwd/Aft: The #3 (pilot) or #2 (co-pilot) engine exhaust cone tip will rest on the inner engine cowling. Elevation: UHF antenna almost touching white line, or "piercing the grape"
During a rejected takeoff, ____.
Asymmetrical reverse thrust should be used with caution
When temperature is 32 degrees Fahrenheit, or lower, BATT SEL switch on the MAINTENANCE INTERFACE PANEL Shall be set to ______________?
BOTH
In a tactical environment, a ____ is an established reference point from which the position of an object can be referenced by bearing (Magnetic) and range (NM).
BULLSEYE
What two ways can you start the APU (without engines running)?
Batteries External power
(Elec) Name the 6 electrical buses of the emergency power system.
Battery Direct, Battery, AC / DC Emergency, AC / DC Transfer.
With no source of electrical power to the aircraft and the battery switch OFF, only the ______ bus is powered since it is connected directly to the batteries
Battery direct
How can the APU be started if external power is not available?
Battery power
During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure the receiver(s) will:
Be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the RVIP Aid the RV, when so equipped, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 nm range or the RVIP, whichever occurs first
What do the battery chargers do?
Convert AC power to DC power, charges batteries when AC power is being used, and also maintains battery voltage
What should you do if you are losing hydraulic quantity from System 2 or 3?
Turn off all system pumps + transfer pump
Cold wx ops: When is engine oil temp not displayed
Below -40C (oil must be warmed prior to attempting start)
Max fuel capacity for normal brake operations at main gear touchdown
Below 165,000 or 4000 in ER tanks
Primary stabilized criteria for ASSAULT landings. What is the power push FPV, and approximate FPM?
Below 300ft, except for momentary deviations: +10/-5 kts FPV touching API, and both within the zone Decrabbed (no ghost) ATT engaged Power push: -1.5° to -2.0°, 360fpm
When do you apply cold weather corrections and to what points?
Below 32F/0C: correct all altitudes inside the FAF Below -22F/-30C: correct all altitudes on the IAP
At what temps in hydraulic system should takeoff never be attempted
Below 7C bc may be insufficient rudder deflection in engine fail on TO
When must you stay behind the ILS Hold Short Line?
Below 800/2. (FAR AIM 1-1-12)
Where is the EPU control panel located?
Below copilot window
Whatdos ISOLswitch control?
Bleed air isolation valve allowing air to flow to left side of manifold
What do the bleed air temps do if you turn anti-ice on?
Bleed air temperature goes up
What does CCU Fail on the WAP mean?
Both CCU's have failed
To trigger an engine or APU fire annunciation,
Both loops must be subjected simultaneously to fire for the warning system to be recognized
When will Transfer Pump automatically activate?
Both primary and secondary pumps in systems 2 or 3 falls below 3400 for more than 1 second
What type of agent do the engine fire containers hold?
Bromotrifluoromethane (HALON 1301)
Where is the manual shut off for the Pax O2 Converter?
Bulkhead adjacent to the rally by the FWD LMS
ILS CAT I and CAT II full instrumentation includes...
CAT I: F/D, a HUD or PFD and NAV display at each station, and no shared ADC or IRU CAT II: same as CAT I plus no "NO CAT II" message. A HUD will be used by the PF flying position, if available. (C-17v3, 6.42.4)
What does SEMI mode do for the cabin pressurization?
Cabin altitude climbs or descends to the selected altitude at the selected rate. It's "SEMI-Auto"
What are the limitations of the engine driven fuel pump if it is supplying fuel through suction feed?
Can supply supply fuel through suction feed at MAX thrust up to an altitude of 10,000 feet and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5 degrees
If you suspect transfer pump fail what should you do
Turn off the pump
What separates the L/R fuel tanks?
Center separation valve
(APU) What circuit breakers do you always check prior to APU start and why?
Check the FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB (OVHD E13). If this CB is open, contact maintenance. Do not reset the CB if it is opened. If the APU must be operated with the CB open, APU start and operation shall be fire guarded by ground personnel (2-231). This CB renders the APU Agent Discharge switch inoperative.
When External Pneumatic Cart is connected, through which valves des it supply bleed air?
Check valves int obleed air manifold
Minimum WX for assaults
Circling minimums, no lower than 600/2
3 eng climb schedule
Climb at 250kts or Vmma clean (whichever is higher) to 10,000', then accellerate to enroute climb speed of 270kts, not to exceed .66Mach
Normal position of ISOL valve?
Closed
What does the HI FLOW switch do?
Commands both air conditioning flow control valves to operate on the high flow schedule. Essentially doubles the amount of air from the bleed air system.
What all is involved in the Integrated Radio Management System? (IRMS)
Comms Nav Radios Intercom PA IFF
Minimum runway length for FULL flaps ASSAULT landing is ____ with ___ reverse.
Computed ground roll, with MAX reverse, plus marked landing zone distance. Requires waiver if under 3500 ft. (17v3, 5.18)
Minimum runway length for normal landing (3/4 or FULL flaps) is ____ with ___ reverse.
Computed landing distance (Vbo LDG DIST) Idle
300 foot safety check
Config page, configuration (gear, flaps, spoilers), ATT set, cleared to land, checklist complete
Emergency cargo jettison basic steps (NON-BF-BF) the checklist is long, mostly for the LM, and too long to read if you loose multiple engines at low altitude)
Confirm CG will be OK Inform LM, wait for him to prepare LM PNL PWR & DOOR SYS ARM - ON Slats extend, Flaps 1/2 Set deck angle 0-1.5° (or locks will not release) "Locks released, ready to jettison" 6° minimum deck angle
(LL) Lost comm procedures on IR route.
Continue VMC and land as soon as practical. If unable... Maintain route to exit fix, and fly the higher of route IFR altitude or highest assigned by ATC Exit the route, then fly flight plan filed altitude Squawk 7600, then follow FIH guidance
(Engine Start) After engaging the starter, the temperature is above 190°C. What do you do?
Continue to motor until below 190°C. (2-283)
(Elec) What does the EMERG PWR [OFF/AUTO/ON] switch do? When do you need to reset it, and how?
Controls the emergency power relay, which powers the AC and DC emergency buses. OFF - Does NOT remove power from the emergency buses if Gen 2 or 3 are operating, but they will not automatically switch to the battery as a source of power. AUTO - This position allows the emergency power relay to automatically switch to the battery as a power source for the emergency buses should a loss of normal power occur. The battery switch must be ON. ON - This position manually activates the emergency power relay to switch the AC and DC emergency buses power source to the battery. How/when to reset: Once the emergency relay has been energized, the emergency power switch must be cycled through the OFF position from AUTO/ON to restore normal power to the buses. (1-371 & Fig. 1-77)
How should you handle hot light on the ground? What should you do if you get a hot light in flight?
Cycle flight controls but in flight turn of system
Circling radius for CAT D and E (standard, not expanded)
D: 2.3 E: 4.5
(IAP) Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category _____ aircraft. If approach speeds exceed 165 knots, the minimums for category ____will be used.
D; E
What powers the engine fire detection system?
DC battery bus
What is the DC setup in a split parallel configuration?
DC tie relay closed DC X tie open
Min alt for autopilot off
DH/MDA
What is the function of the gust dampening accumulators? How long are they good for?
Dampens primary flight controls in gusty winds ON GROUND. Good for 72 hours
Where would you find the performance data for oxygen endurance?
Dash 1 Section 1-948 (PDF Pg 1097)
Engine Failure Recognition Speed (V1)
Engine failure recognition speed is reached 1.5 seconds after the most critical engine failure which gives the same distance to either continue the takeoff or stop
Starter cooling for durations less than, or greater than, 90 seconds
Dash 1: "The engine may be motored (fuel/ignition off) for a maximum of 15 minutes. Other than the Engine Clearing Procedure, if the engine is motored not longer than 90 seconds, it will be considered one start attempt; comply with starter limitations. For motoring duration greater than 90 seconds up to and including 15 minutes, the starter should be cooled 5 minutes for each 30 seconds of operation up to a maximum of 40 minutes". This can be confusing because it isn't immediately obvious that the cooling period is AFTER a continuous motoring run, of up to 15 straight minutes., after which the total required cooling period is calculated. For example, after motoring for 3 minutes straight, you would cool for 30 minutes. After motoring for 10 minutes, you would cool for the max required 40 min. If motoring less than 90 seconds, apply starter duty cycles instead. What about long engine starts? This only applies to motoring with fuel/ignition OFF, so it doesn't apply to start attempts. The only time pilots should have to worry about this is if motoring over 90s to cool below 190.
AMP-1 markings/lighting
Day: 500ft Zone: orange, then cerise panels Last 500ft: cerise, then orange panels Night: 500ft zone: green then white lights Last 500ft: white then red flashing lights Sequenced flashers on centerline, 1500ft out.
AMP-3 markings/lighting
Day: 500ft zone: orange, then cerise panels End: a pair of cerise panels Night: 500ft zone: two pairs of lights End: one flashing strobe
When is an alternate required?
Destination WX below 2,000ft / 3sm or crosswinds out of limits, +/- 1 hour. INCLUDE TEMPO ("1-2-3 need an alternate") Or OCONUS (C17v3, 6.20.2) Or (at destination airfield): - All compatible approaches require radar - Required navigational aids (NAVAID) will be unmonitored - The destination has no weather reporting capability - Lowest compatible approach minimums are greater than or equal to a 1,500 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility (11-202v3, 4.15.3)
What is the purpose of the inert system?
Deters potential explosions by reducing the oxygen concentration in the fuel tank vapor space
What does EMCON on the MCK do?
Disables the microphones
What if the Avionics Overheat condition occurs even after you've completed the checklist?
Disconnect all non-essential electronics and land as soon as practical
What should you do if a starter assisted airstart fails to start after 30 seconds?
Disengage the starter and use precautionary engine shutdown checklist
What configuration actions should not be taken if the RAT is extended in flight?
Do not -Reposition flaps -Use Speed brakes
What is the APU starter motor duty cycle?
Do not exceed three starts or attempts in one hour with a minimum of one minute off between starts or attempts
After setting the APU start control switch to the start position what EGT indication are you looking for?
EGT increases and stabilizes
What EGT and FF indicate a hot start?
EGT>495, FF>700
First step of tailpipe fire response? (non-boldface-boldface)
ENG SHUTOFF Switch - OFF ENGINE GNITION - A, B, OR A&B ENGINE START Button - Press below 20% N2 If fuel flow is not zero, EGT is rising, or fire continues: PULL FIRE HANDLE Continue the checklist.
During an engine restart if EGT approaches 655C and N2 is not increasing, what should you do?
ENG SHUTOFF switch on that engine to OFF
EPOS What are they for? Where are they?
EPOS Emergency Passenger Oxygen System For the passengers in case of depressurization or smoke/fumes. They are preferable to the wall-mounted oxygen masks for smoke/fumes. Last 5-60 min, depending on breathing rate. They are installed on palletized seats (maybe centerline seats?). Dash 1 isn't very specific.
When do you get a THRUST LOSS annunciator?
EPR of one engine is .15 below the average or that an engine has rolled back below normal idle
What are the EEC operating modes?
EPR, N1, N2
Where is the high fuel level sensor located?
Each outbound tank
To prevent damage to the reverse interlock solenoids, do no move the throttle levels beyond the reverse idle detent until _____.
Either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFD's or until the solenoids are heard to release
Are the fire handles mechanically linked or electric switches?
Electrical switches
How are aux pumps driven
Electrically via an AC motor
What powers circuit "A" of engine ignition?
Emer AC Bus
The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the ______.
Emergency Buses
What are the emergency squawk codes?
Emergency: 7700 Radio out: 7600 Hikack: 7500
_______ is the desired standard for daily air refueling operations
Emission Option 2
What is EPR?
Engine Pressure Ratio is the ratio between intake pressure and exhaust pressure. It is used to schedule fuel flow
Pneumatic air is used for:
Engine Start Cabin Pressurization Air Conditioning & avionics cooling Anti-Ice OBIGGS
Failure to use engine anti-ice when icing conditions are present may result in _____
Engine damage due to ice ingestion
What powers the primary and secondary hydraulic pump
Engine driven
(Engine Start) Talk through the "J-hook check", the engine start steps, beginning from Step 8 in the Starting Engines Checklist ("Engine Start = "STARTING No. ____") up to pressing the start button.
Engine to be started: Generator ON, AC X tie AUTO, DC crosstie TIE, single source of air, good bleed-air pressure, AUX pump on, check XFER pump (when starting no.3), both boost pumps ON.
What function does the Xfer pump mainly serve? Where is it located?
Ensures ability to gear retract or raise cargo door/ramp if lose engine 2/3. In right wheel pod
If a GPWS/TAWS aural or visual warning is received during an approach in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), ____. Exceptions will be annotated in command guidance.
Execute a missed approach or go around
Set start control switch on APU pannel to start and release and identify which parameters are increasing?
Exhaust Gas Temperature and Revolutions Per Minute
What is reference ground speed?
Expected ground speed on final approach in a no windshear condition. Calculated by subtracting the headwind or adding the tailwind components the the approach true airspeed
Where does the bleed air supply come from for OBIGGS?
Extracted from the 14th stage of the inboard engines or from the APU during ground ops (with OBIGGS II it comes from engines, APU, or external pneumatic cart)
(Fuel) How does the fuel in the inboard and ER tanks transfer between compartments, and in what order are they depleted?
FAA memory aid: Fwd ER to Fwd inboard Aft ER to Fwd inboard Aft inboard to Fwd Inboard "Fuel is transferred automatically from the E/R compartments into the main forward compartment. The independent transfer system is designed so that the forward E/R compartment depletes first, followed by the aft E/R compartment. Fuel is then depleted from the aft main compartment through the normal inboard tank scheduling system." (1-129)
Holding airspeeds? (FAA, AF, Navy, ICAO)
FAA: 0-6000ft: 200kts 6001-14,000ft: 230kts 14,001ft and above: 265kts Air Force: 310 Navy: 265 ICAO (for CAT C thru E): 0-14,000ft: 230 14,001-20,000ft: 240 20,000-34,000ft: 265 Above 340: 0.83M NOTE: higher "turbulence" speeds are available if requested NOTE: just fly 230 whenever holding. These are MAXIMUMS.
Crewmembers enrolled in PCO, IAC, CPAD, and ACAD are exempt from quarterly phase training.
FALSE
Engine anti-ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades
FALSE
If on an instrument approach, the PM must still provide subsequent instrument advisory calls if the PF can maintain visual contact with the landing runway, and states "Visual."
FALSE
Maximum on Ground (MOG) is based solely on parking space available.
FALSE
You may modify an RNAV or GPS route waypoints lateral definition after loading from the WWNDB
FALSE
During Fuel Overfill/Venting what is the first step you should accomplish ASAP?
FUEL MGMT Switchlight - MAN (To minimize venting)
When is an immediate Emergency Engine Shutdown required?
FEDSSUSS Fire Engine or Pylon fuel leak (on the ground) Disintegration Seizure Sparking (continuous) Uncontrollable overspeed Severe compressor stall Severe engine vibration
As a rule of thumb (ROT) the C-17 is capable of refueling at maximum gross weight with KC-10 up to and including ___ and a KC-135 up to and including _____.
FL 210, FL 230
With loss of all generators, what altitude should you descend to?
FL200 or below
What is the only "NO CAT II" condition that would still allow you to descend to ILS CAT I minimums?
Failure of one or both radar altimeters. All the other failures involve equipment that is also part of "full flight instrumentation" for CAT I. Without full flight instrumentation, you can only descend to 300ft, even on CAT I. So, revert to CAT I mins is only useful when the failure involves the radar altimeters. Of course, if only one radar altimeter fails, you can continue to CAT II mins on just one. (C-17v3, 6.42.4)
Which of the following results in an individual being declared NMR?
Failure to maintain flying currency. Failure to complete semi-annual flying continuation training requirements. Failure to complete ground continuation training requirements
AP Degraded mode will not engage below Vmma with invalid aircraft weights (both MC's inop, etc.)
False
Maximum EGT during APU startup is 485 degrees Celsius. (T/F)
False
The Dome Light is NVG Compatible. T/F
False
It is OK to say the color code corresponding to a radio frequency when checking in on the radio, i.e. "THUG 17 checking in on GREEN 11."
False, you've now compromised the frequency
You are allowed to takeoff with the ISOL valve open. (T/F)
False. May have a manifold duct failure.
What type of air is used in reverse thrust?
Fan air and core air
What happens when you pull the FIRE HANDLE to the hydraulic system?
Fire SOV closes shutting off suction line flow from reservoir to PRI/SEC hydraulic pumps
If APU is inoperative, ensure either a ____ is in place or ____ connected before shutting down the last engine.
Fire guard/fire extinguisher, air cart
When does the APU override not work?
Fire or overspeed protection
What does the engine ignition ORIDE switch do?
Fires all the ignitors no matter what (doesn't matter the position of the ignition selector switch or engine shutoff switch)
(Hydro) Which system are the following components on? Flaps, trim, slats, landing gear, primary brakes, alternate brakes, ramp & door, RAT
Flaps / stab trim: 1 & 4 Slats: 2 & 3 Primary Brakes: 2 Alternate Brakes: 3 Landing Gear: 3 Ramp & Door: 2 RAT: 4 Memory aids: For flaps and slats: hold your arms like you are making chicken wings. Your left elbow is no.1, your left fist is no.2, etc. Your elbows, flapping around like wings, are the flaps (on systems 1 & 4), your hands the slats. For trim, landing gear, and brakes, think of the pilot's and copilot's left and right hands. The pilot's left hand is no.1, his right no.2, etc. For the following items, think of which hand would be used to control it. Stab trim: trim hats (1 & 4); brakes: parking brake (2); landing gear: gear handle (3); alternate brakes: copilot reaches over (3); Ramp & door: pilot enables LM door panel with right hand
How do you know when to worry about fuel freezing? How can you tell if you will have a problem when looking at the weather report? What are freezing points for JP-8 and Jet-A
Fly at altitudes where TAT (not SAT!) is at least 3*C above freezing point of fuel Find freezing points in -1 Sec V. Expect TAT to be approximately SAT+20*C For mixed fuel, either use worst case freezing point, or use -1 Sec II "Fuel Grade Properties"
(Engine Start) What do you do if the AUX pump doesn't work?
For an inboard engine, you can use the XFER pump. For an outboard, you can start with PRI HYD pump ON (deselect GEN to reduce load). Document on the forms any starts without any hydraulic pressure.
Under no circumstance will flights be planned through ____ icing conditions. Aircraft operation in ___ icing conditions may be tolerated for short periods of time but evasive action should be undertaken to exit icing conditions as soon as practicable
Forecast or known severe; moderate
(Probe heating elements) How many pitot-static tubes are there? Where are they?
Four total, two on each side. Front of the aircraft just above the AOA sensors.
Tolerances to continue CAT II from 100ft above DH, and from DH
From 100ft above: - Airspeed: ±5kts - Within 1/2 dot of glide slope and course Below DH: - Same as above, plus: - Within lateral confines of runway 11-217v1, 16.1.4.1
How can you control transfer pump if switch light failed
From aft LM panel
Standard terminology for PM assault landing calls is ____, ____, ____ of the "zone".
Front, middle, back
What is an FQC?
Fuel Quantity Computer that processes total fuel quantities
When aircraft fuel load is low, a ______________________ may be required prior to APU start.
Fuel boost pump
How is fuel distributed through the ER tanks? (FAA - Forward Aft Aft)
Fuel from the forward ER tanks are distributed to the forward inboard tanks until they are empty, and then from the aft ER tanks until empty.
What is UNID EXTRA? (3-3)
Fuel remaining after receiving the planned on load, flying to the destination via the routing in the flight plan, diverting via direct routing (if an ALTN was entered), holding, and landing
What is STORED fuel? (3-3)
Fuel remaining on board based upon the assumption that the receiver gets to the AR BINGO (soft waypoint 150NM downtrack) without taking on any fuel from the tanker, diverts to the AR ALTN via the AR alternate routing in the FLT PLAN, holds, and then lands
What does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) do?
Full authority thrust management system which has the following features: repeatable thrust settings, thrust rating control, engine limit protection, reverser control, continuous oil system and engine component monitoring for BIT and annunciation
Full flaps should be used for better handling at weights less than or equal to ___________ and crosswinds greater than _____ kts.
Full flaps should be used for better handling at weights less than 502,100 and crosswinds greater than 15kts.
What does WX AUTO provide?
Fully auto weather radar out to 150NM and +/-4,000 feet
OBIGGS II: If there is a total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation, ________ may result
Fuselage fire
What could happen and what should you do if you lose electrical power while being supplied high pressure pneumatics?
Fuselage fire, immediately shut down pneumatic cart and do OBIGGS Filter Fire Hazard checklist
If the _________ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.
GND SPRL/LAPES switch
How is NEA produced using OBIGGS I?
Generated by passing pressurized air through a catalyst that extracts oxygen from the air by a chemical process leaving it enriched with nitrogen
How is NEA produced using OBIGGS II?
Generated by passing pressurized air through permeable membrane fibers that permit oxygen molecules to vent overboard leaving the air stream enriched with nitrogen
What are the normal and secondary sources of power for the Emergency AC bus?
Generator bus 2, then generator 3, then the static inverter under emergency power.
Takeoff Ground Run
Ground distance traveled to takeoff speed
What does "G" mean on the COSA panel?
Guard monitoring has been enabled.
What cycles the different active pumps?
HSC
RNAV RAIM check. How is it done?
It is done automatically for the destination only when you have a fixed or advisory time. It is monitored constantly in real time. A WAP cue of "NAV MCD" or "GPS MCD" along with an "UNABLE RNP@xxx" message on the MCD indicates RAIM failure.
A Four Engine Flameout is most likely to occur when flying through
Heavy rain Hail and Icing Volcanic Ash
When is a four engine flameout most likely to occur?
Heavy rain, hail and icing, operation in volcanic ash, or fuel mismanagement
What is N2 relating to the engines?
High pressure
What does MAP2AUTO provide?
High resolution ground mapping
Maximum Brake Energy Speed (Vbmax)
Highest speed form which the aircraft may be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes
Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT)
Highest thrust certified for continuous use. Should only be used if MCT is not sufficient
The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine driven hydraulic pumps are on. A ____ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.
Hung Start
RUD TEMP LOW
Hyd reservoir indicates rudder IFCM may be below -6C. Fluid below temp where rudder effectiveness may be degraded
Engine failure during takeoff: The MC calculates 3-engine climb gradient capability based on the use of ____ power. After liftoff increase power on operating engines to ____ thrust as required to meet 3-engine climb gradient requirements
MAX, MAX
Describe in general the electric flow.
IDG > Gen Buses > Primary avionics/loadmaster buses > Transformer Rectifier (4) > 28 volt DC power > DC Buses
During Degraded Modes, _____use(s) the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.
IFF and TCAS
Ice shedding procedure (in-flight and on ground)
IN-FLIGHT ICE SHED: In icing w/ <51% N1, every 10 min: Sym. Throttles - 55% N1 for 5s. GROUND ICE SHED: Icing conditions and <3*C, every 10m: Sym. Throttles - 50-51% for 1s
Ground and in-flight ice shedding procedures
IN-FLIGHT ICE SHED: In icing w/ <51% N1, every 10 min: Sym. Throttles - 55% N1 for 5s. GROUND ICE SHED: Icing conditions and <3*C, every 10m: Sym. Throttles - 50-51% for 1s. REV or FWD ok. (Sec 7)
Max EGT for INT/MCT? MAX/DRT?
INT/MCT = 625 MAX/DRT = 655
The cargo compartment APU warning horn can be inhibited during ground operations by the ____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel
INTL HORN INHIBIT
If a MASTER CAUTION and an EFCS MCD cue annunciate during the takeoff roll,
If below Vgo, reject the takeoff if possible If takeoff is continued, the PM will repeatedly press the EFCS RESET button as soon as EFCS MCD is annunciated. Allow 1 second between button presses
(WX) When is a departure alternate required?
If ceiling or visibility is below landing minimums for lowest suitable approach (at departure aerodrome). Do not use CAT II mins. (C17v3, 6.19.1) NOTE: "Below landing mins" is an over-simplification. You don't need a minimum ceiling for a straight-in approach, but you do need it for this rule. Don't forget to check C-17V3 chapter 6 restrictions on departure alternate weather and suitability.
When should you transition to a Forced Landing or Ditching procedure during a four engine flameout?
If engines do not begin to start by 10,000 ft AGL
If AN/ARC-210 COM radio prolonged loss of contact (PLOC) is suspected or experienced while flying in Europe, which of the following actions should you take?
Immediately Squawk 7600 Disable Squelch Request delay from another aircraft and/or attempt ATC contact on guard using any radio
If experiencing severe engine vibration is during flight,
Immediately shut down the engine using the Engine Fire/Emergency Engine Shutdown Checklist
(Limits) Max in-flight weight / takeoff weight Max taxi weight
In-flight: 585k Taxi: 586k
What is the flow of tanks 1 and 4?
Inboard tanks - Outboard tanks - Engine
Describe the fuel system layout; how many tanks, how many boost pumps & transfer pumps (ER version)
Inboard wing tanks: divided into forward and aft compartments. ER tanks: left and right, divided into forward and aft compartments. Outboard wing tanks: divided into inboard and outboard compartments. Two boost pumps per engine, one transfer pump per main tank, and 4 (?) total ER transfer pumps. Numerous (8) jet pumps are used in the fuel management and scheduling. (NOTE: it is unclear from the dash 1 text if there are 2 TOTAL ER transfer pumps, or two per side, but the diagram shows two)
When do the transfer pumps stop working?
Inboards below 28,000 lbs Outboards below 12,000 lbs
During an engine emergency, if conditions permit, what should you allow the engine to do before shutting it down?
Let it cool for 3 minutes
What does AVIONICS COOL ORIDE do?
Increase avionics cooling by: - Opening the avionics cooling augmentation valves - Shifting both packs to HI FLOW
The APU AUTO SHUT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except ______ or _______
Indicated fire; overspeed
_____ terrain masking is placing terrain behind the aircraft so it is difficult to distinguish the aircraft from the background ______terrain masking is putting the terrain between the aircraft and the threat.
Indirect; Direct
Climb Gradient
Instantaneous capability for height increase divided by the distance traveled
For instrument approaches, what are the stabilized approach PM calls, and at what point does he call a go-around? How is this different for visual approaches?
Instrument approaches: 1000ft (and down to 500ft): announce any deviations 500ft (or below): "500ft, stable" or "GO-AROUND" For visual: 500ft (and down to 300ft): announce any deviations 300ft (or below): "300ft, stable" or "GO-AROUND" (c17v3, 5.12)
What two sources of internal pneumatic air are there? External?
Internal = APU & engines External = External cart or buddy aircraft
What do you do if the starter light doesn't go out after 30 seconds?
Isolate all air sources to the engine, then shut it down
If Manifold Fail is annunciated, what does ESC automatically do
Isolate failed manifold
What mode is the electrical system operating in if the Bus Tie and Cross Tie relays are open?
Isolated mode
What does the CARGO INTPH ISOL Switch do?
Isolates the cockpit from the cargo/maintenance area
Where is the outflow valve located?
Just aft and above the nose gear.
What does the APU check valve do?
Keeps air from flowing to the APU
In the event of large disparity between the IRU ground speed and the anti-skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using _______.
Landing with erroneous ground speed procedure
Navigation Lights are where? What colors?
Left Front = Red light Right Front = Green Light Aft (left + right) = White Light
Where is the Passenger Oxygen Converter?
Left Nose Compartment
The ______ normally supplies conditioned air to the flight compartment, crew rest area, and avionics cooling system
Left air conditioning pack
What is the DC setup in a parallel configuration?
Left and right DC tie relay closed DC X tie tied
Where are the air conditioning packs located?
Left and right forward main landing gear pods
Where is No 1/2 Aux pump located
Left wheel well
What areas do the AC packs normally provide air to?
Left: flight compartment, crew rest area, avionics Right: cargo compartment
How long does emergency depressurization take? What happens when you open the EMER depressurization switch?
Less than 60 seconds. Both packs turn off Outflow valve opens The three positive pressure relief valves open
When does the AUX or PASS OXY LOW light come on?
Less than 7.5L or line pressure less than 60PSI +/-5PSI
What is functin of pylon pessure regulator?
Limit bleed air entering crosswing manifold
(Emergency Boom Latching Procedures) It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the two aircraft when operating in override since the _______ are deactivated. The _____ must initiate all disconnects before exceeding any of the limits
Limit switches; receiver pilot
Where is the APU located and what is it's power rating?
Located in right wheel pod with a 90 KVA rating
(Regs) For the purposes of determining runway end crossing height (screen height), how do you know if a base is "non-joint USAF/USN"?
Look in the IFR Supplement. "Joint use fields will be annotated "MIL/CIV". If an airfield is listed as an AFB or NAS and does not include "MIL/CIV" in the listing, then it is non-joint-use." (11-217v1, 7.3.3) Note: "joint use" here means joint Military/Civilian, not joint service branch. For example, Joint Lewis-McChord is listed in the IFR Supp as "...KTCM AF...", identifying it as an Air Force base according to the 217v1 excerpt above.
What conditions might require an Emergency Engine Shutdown?
Loop failure Landing with gear retracted Engine/pylon fuel leak (in flight) Tailpipe fire THRST REV DISAG and/or UNLK Wing and pylon fire
When will aux pump automatically shut down?
Low quantity (0.4) or high temp (>135)
What does MAP1AUTO provide on the weather radar?
Low-resolution ground mapping for defining: 1) coastal features from 1nm to 200nm 2) Identifying building complexes 3) Painting individual radar deflectors 4) predictive windshear
With regard to minimum landing distances for assaults and normal landings, how are "MAX" and "IDLE" reverse defined?
MAX Reverse = 2 engines MAX REV, 1 eng REV IDLE, 1 engine INOP IDEL Reverse = 3 in IDLE REV, 1 INOP
Windshear recovery on approach
MAX thrust. TOGA and disengage AP/ATS. Disregard F/D pitch. Flaps 1/2. Then, apply the same procedure as windshear recovery on takeoff.
In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine driven fuel pump at ____ thrust rating up to an altitude of ____ feet and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5 degrees
MAX; 10,000
Block 19: Use the lower of the following two altitudes to determine the planned 3-engine acceleration altitude:
MC ACC ALT, MIN IFR Altitude
The standard departure profile uses a select MC data element, ______, and aero performance data, rather than an MC calculated solution, to validate the aircraft flight path meets or exceeds a given climb gradient when flown as published
MC COF: ACT
Time control speed hierarchy
MC-SMATS MC limits: less than 340, above Vmma Spd limit (perf pages) MAX SPD (WPT page) AT SPD (prior to a waypoint) Time control speed (if FIXED times) SPD - "Soft", after crossing a waypoint
(TOLD) Define Vmcg
MINIMUM speed at which most critical engine can fail and still maintain directional control. Allows a deviation of no more than 28 feet.
Why should you not attempt to takoff with ISOL valve open?
Manifold failure could cause extensive damage
What is an APU Fire indicated by?
Master warning lights on instrument panel, APU displayed on CUE, LOOP A and LOOP Blights on environmental panel, CAWS and APU warning horns and fire light on APU panel
Max Winds: Takeoff Headwind- Takeoff Tailwind- Landing Crosswind-
Max Winds: Takeoff Headwind- 40kts Takeoff Tailwind- Landing Crosswind- 30kts
Airspeed limits (kts/M): Max clean Slats extend Slats retract Flaps 1/2 Landing gear extending / down Flaps 3/4 Flaps Full Landing gear retract Air deflectors Troop doors Cargo door/ramp
Max clean: 350/0.825 Slats extend: 280/0.62 Slats retract: 270/0.62 Flaps 1/2: 250/0.62 Landing gear extending / down: 250/0.62 Flaps 3/4: 190/0.62 Flaps Full: 175/0.62 Landing gear retract: 225/0.62 All airdrop stuff (air deflectors, troop doors, cargo door/ramp): 250/0.62
Fuel balance criteria (max and desired)
Max design limit: 8,000 lbs between wings (5-27) Desired target: 1000 lbs between either wing, and between either tank on a given wing (except when the outboard tank is full).
(TOLD) Define Vr
Max speed to which the aircraft can accelerate and then stop in the available runway.
Maximum Thrust Rating (MAX)
Max thrust approved for the engine. Limited to 5 minutes for takeoff. Max thrust is used for max power takeoff and go around. Ten minutes are allowed for engine failure on takeoff or engine out go around for obstacle clearance
Max engine EGT at... MAX ___ INT / MCT ___
Max: 655 INT / MCT: 625
Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)
Maximum thrust recommended for normal climb operation. Highest recommended thrust setting for four engine cruise
Describe Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT)
Maximum thrust recommended for normal climbs
Flight through extremely heavy rain, particularly with low thrust settings (<45% N1)
May result in flameout of one or more engines
What does "-" mean on the COSA panel?
Mic is selected, but disabled due to PA or it being non-secure when secure is selected.
(LL) Define min IFR and min IMC enroute altitudes
Min IFR = for IFR operations within MTR/SUAS fly at or above MSA unless higher is required by AP/1B or SPINS IMC Enroute = 1,000 (2,000 mountainous) within 5nm of route centerline rounded up to next hundred.
(TOLD) Define Vmco
Min climb out speed recommended for 3-engine obstacle clearance.
When TOLD displays Vbo GND ROLL (as opposed to LDG DIST), when must you touchdown? What is the minimum runway required?
Min rwy = GND ROLL + MARKED touchdown zone (usually 500ft) Touchdown in the marked zone. Runways less than 3500ft require a waiver, even if TOLD is ok. Unlike LDG DIST, this number does NOT include air distance. (C17-v3, 5.18)
Define Vmco
Min speed recommended for 3-eng obstacle clearance.
If you have a loss of ONE hydrualic system, what effect will this have?
Minimal due to system redundancy Below 250 will have normal full deflection High gross weights on TO may cause slats to not retract
Air Minimum Control Speed (Vmca)
Minimum airspeed at which a straight flight path can be maintained with the most critical to lateral or directional control failed and with the remaining engines operating at max thrust. Additionally, a straight flight path shall be maintained with max rudder deflection and no more than 5 degrees of bank away from the dead engine
What is Vmco?
Minimum climbout speed recommended for three engine obstacle clearance
Minimum Slat Retraction Speed (Vmsr)
Minimum speed at which the slats can be retracted
Ground Minimum Control Speed (Vmcg)
Minimum speed during the takeoff run at which the aircraft's engine most critical to aircraft control can fail, while the remaining engines operate at the selected thrust, and still maintain directional control. Additionally, a deviation of no more than 28 ft from the originally intended ground path can result while using the elevators, ailerons, spoilers, rudder controls, and nose wheel steering on a dry hard surface runway with a one second pilot reaction time.
Minimum Climbout Speed (Vmco)
Minimum speed recommended for three engine obstacle clearance
Derated Takeoff Thrust (DRT)
Minimum thrust required to safely perform a takeoff. less than MAX and equal to or greater than MCT
What kind of turbulence does the weather radar depict?
Moderate or higher (up to 40NM) away
APS150 Weather Radar: The Magenta areas represent areas of ______ turbulence and should always be avoided
Moderate to severe
Describe the 3 types of oxygen bottles, and restrictions on where they can be placed.
Modified, Unmodified, and Modified2 (Dash 1, Sec 1) Recognition: Unmodified: schrader valve core inside nozzle Modified: brass filter and no visible core Modified2: brass filter and no visible core, with groove cut into the flat portion of the nozzle just above the wrench area. Modified valves are SLOW to fill (3.5 minutes) Unmodifed and Modified2 are QUICKFILL (30-45s)
(Engine Start) What do you do if you get a PACK DISAG on engine start?
Momentary is fine, but with continuous DISAG, if you catch it before 18% N2, manually deselect the pack, otherwise, stop start and deselect that pack for next attempt
(Pressurization) If the primary controller malfunctions or falls, the _______.
Monitor controller automatically performs the function of the primary controller
What does HSC do? How many HSCs are there?
Monitor temps/quantity Monitor pump temps/pressure Selects pumps 2 HSCs
Which actions will not re-arm the spoilers for RTO mode during touch and go landings?
Moving all four throttles to the idle reverse detent
What should you do to the landing distance with loss of all generators?
Multiply the landing distance by three to account for inoperative anti-skid, spoilers, and thrust reversers
What are the stable numbers for N1 and N2?
N1 is 24 +/- 3% N2 is 54 to 64%
(LL) During NVG low levels, when must you identify and/or climb above obstacles?
NLT 3 nm from any charted man-made obstacle, within the NVG tactical corridor, you must visually identify the obstacle. IF the obstacle is not identified by 3 NM or lateral deconfliction cannot be ensured with navigation aids (i.e. MC ground Reference Points, chart study, etc.) climb to 500 ft above the obstacle until past. C17-V3, 13.4.3.1
What does NORM, "20" and STD/2 represent for the heading adjustment knob?
NORM = max bank angle of 35° "20" = Max bank angle of 20° STD/2 = 1/2 standard rate turns
What are the cabin altitudes associated with the Altitude Selector Position on the portable tanks?
NORM: Up to 30,000 30M: 30,000-42k 42M: 42K up to 45K EMERG: Above 45K
APU installation has ________ ice protection
No
Once RAT is extended in flight, can it be retracted in flight?
No
How are the Hydraulic AUX pumps configured for a reduced start?
No 1, No 2, XFER and No 4 are pressurized.
(Engine Start) When about to start an engine with the APU, you notice you don't have 20 psi. What do you do?
No problem, just check for 20 psi after pushing the start button, but STOP START if less than 15psi after engaging. "When APU is selected as the bleed air supply source, there is no minimum main manifold pressure required prior to pressing the ENGINE START button." (2-280, 281)
Will the anti ice system work if a TR CB is open?
No, avoid icing conditions
Normally fuel dump is accomplished with the center separation valve closed. Confirm that both lights illuminate or
Open the separation valve immediately
If both AC acks ar operational but pneumatic crt an only suply enough air torun one pack what should you do?
Operate right pack with ISOL valve closed
Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?
No. 2
How are the NEA bottles powered?
No. 2 and 3 hydraulic system
(Engine Start) Can you change the ignition source during engine start? Why or why not?
No. Switching may cause a tailpipe fire. (2-279)
(Engine Start) What page should be displayed on an MCD during engine start?
Non-Avionics faults, check for OBIGGS II WCC-OBGxxx faults. (OBIGGS II w/o ASM ALERT) (2-279)
Climb Out Factor (COF)
Non-dimensional parameter representing climb gradient and obstacle clearance capability. Assumes flaps/slats for t/o at 50' AGL, gear retracted, out of ground effect and at min climb out speed
Operating weight definition and approximate value Zero fuel weight definition and max Absolute Max payload How do you calculate max payload for an individual aircraft?
Operating weight = EMPTY: fully configured and ready to fly, without fuel or cargo. Aprox. 282,500 lbs (ER) Zero fuel weight: operating weight plus cargo (max 447,400 lbs) Absolute max payload: 164,900 lbs Max payload = Zero fuel weight - operating weight
When can a portable bottle be considered fully charged?
When Delta P is less than 25PSI in 10 seconds
Brake Temps: Normal- Caution- Warning- Max indicated break temp-
Norm-99 to 650C Caution-651 to 750C Warn-751 and Greater -Max indicated temp is 830
The AP has two modes of operation: ________ and _______
Normal, AP Degraded
(Engine start) What is the standard method to start engines?
Normally start engines in order 1-4, may start right side engine to reduce electrical load on APU. (-1, 2-720)
If the nose gear torque link is disconnected:
Nose wheel steering is not available
What do you do if a bottle is depleted in flight and not recharged?
Note in the forms
Where is the ice detector located?
Number 2 engine inlet
Icing conditions definition
OAT or TAT < 10C and visible moisture in any form or any frozen or liquid water on ground. (Dash 1 Sec 7)
(OBIGGS II) If the bleed air manifold is pressurized with any WCC-OBGxxxx fault displayed, depressurize it immediately and accomplish the ______ in Section III
OBIGGS Filter Fire Hazard
(Elec) What does the L/R AV BUS [OFF/AUTO/ORIDE] switch do?
OFF - De-energizes associated AC and DC Avionics buses (ground operation only with no engine running). AUTO - Enables automatic deactivation of associated AC and DC Avionics buses due to overheat condition (ground operation only with no engine running). ORIDE - Energizes AC and DC Avionics buses. Overrides automatic circuitry to de-energize the AC and DC Avionics buses, even if overheat condition prevails. (Fig. 1-77)
(Elec) What does the BATT [OFF/ON] (battery) switch do?
OFF - In this position the batteries are removed from all buses except the Battery Direct bus. ON - the battery will be connected to the Battery bus in the absence of TR power. It also enables automatic switching of the emergency power relay to the battery as a power source for the emergency buses.
CAT II weather mins, wind limits (operational/training)
Operational (actual): As published, but min HAT is 100ft and min RVR is 1200. Max crosswind: 10kts PIC 100 hours in command Training: 200-1/2 Max crosswind: 15kts (C-17v3, 6.42.6)
Minimum runway width ___, length ___. Minimum taxiway width ____. Width for star turn ___.
Runway width: 90ft; length: 3500 Taxiway width: 50ft Width for star turn: 80ft****(not 90, as previously memorized)
When the APU START CONTR switch is positioned to run, and RMP is indicated, personnel shall position START CONTR switch to __________?
Off
What is the position of the APU off/arm switchlight during normal APU operation on the overhead PNL?
Off/raised
When does the ENG OIL ABNORMAL light illuminate?
Oil quantity drops to unworkable level (below 4 quarts), pressure is low, or temperature is high
When does the ENG OIL ABNORMAL light illuminate?
Oil quantity is low Oil pressure is low Oil Temperature is high
Where are the strobe lights located? When are they activated?
On each wingtip On takeoff
When do you start timing while holding? How is timing different for ICAO and NAS?
On outbound leg, over or abeam the fix, whichever is later. For NAS, timing is based on inbound leg, and the outbound should be adjusted after the first lap. For ICAO, timing is based on outbound leg only.
Where are engine driven pumps located?
On the accessory gearbox
How many Receiver AR (R010) events may be accomplished per sortie?
One
How many fans are needed for avionics cooling?
One
What sources of energy are required for engine start?
One electrical and one pneumatic source
As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to ______ of operation
One half-hour
How many transfer pumps are there?
One in each tank
How long is the APU starter operating limit?
One minute
HSC INOP
One of 2 HSCs failed. No auto sequencing of engine driven pumls
(LL) Which of the following are different in mountainous terrain? Night VMC NVG MSA ESA IFR IMC Enroute
Only ESA and IMC Enroute (both are 1000ft / 2000ft mountainous)
(LL) Which of the following are defined by terrain only, and do not include man-made obstructions? Night VMC NVG MSA ESA IFR IMC Enroute
Only NVG
A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished ______ .
Only as a last resort
NVG use during refueling?
Only during rendezvous, must remove NLT 1nm.
When is the only time APU can be shutdown using the AGENT/OFF ARM switches?
Only in the case of actual or perceived emergency
What should you do if the external pneumatic cart isn't strong enough to handle both packs?
Only run the right pack (with the ISOL valve closed)
(Engine Start) When does the 700pph FF Limit apply?
Only until EGT rise.
Takeoff Speed
Speed at which the main gear leaves the ground
If any doors/hatches are opened, or if an immediate takeoff is not planned, the ______ or _____ checklist is required in lieu of the Full Stop Taxi-Back Checklist
Operational stop; After Landing
(WX) Weather mins for takeoff? Operational or not? How does this differ from 11-202v3? What if there is no RVR?
Operational: 1000 RVR (300 meters). Must have two RVR readouts, both above 1000, and runway centerline lighting. All others: 1600 RVR (490 meters). No RVR? 1/2 mile (800 meters) vis. Source: 11-2C-17v3 These mins are a MAJCOM alternative to the 11-202v3, which prohibits takeoffs when weather is below landing minimums (5.1.1)
(Fuel) When do the transfer pumps run dry? What is the implication for dumping fuel?
Outboard tanks: 12,000 lbs Inboard tanks: 28,000 lbs If you do not open the X-FEED valves while dumping, you will not be able to dump below these amounts. (As I understand it, the boost pumps pump fuel out through the X-FEED valves)
(Fuel) What are the fuel tank capacities?
Outboard: ~38k Inboard: ~52k (~85k w/ER) Total w/o ER: ~180k Total w/ ER: ~245k The maximum allowable fuel load is limited only by the capacity of the tanks (5-29) (NOTE: you can justify not memorizing the exact numbers because even the Dash 1 explicitly states that they are estimates only, and not limits, capacities will vary based on fuel density. See the note in Fig. 1-51, the diagram of the fuel tanks)
If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the ______ is open, the _______ will be inoperative
Overhead panel, APU Fire Agent DISCH switch
What does the APU AUTO SHUTDOWN ORIDE switch do?
Overrides all automatic shutdowns except fire and overspeed
What does a HIGH light and an automatic shutdown of the APU during normal Operations indicate?
Overspeed condition
What does a HOT light and an auto matrix shutdown of the APU during normal operation indicate?
Overtemperature condition
When the CREW OXY LOW message illuminates on the WAP, it indicates
Oxygen quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi
What would happen if you do Hydraulic PFBITS with LM Hyd Contr
PFBIT would fail
What is the first action for a PITCH AUTHORITY or STABILIZER MOTION CAWS warning?
PITCH AUTHORITY: Quickly reduce airspeed to below 280 KCAS (above Vmma) With STABILIZER MOTION: slow below 280, and split the STAB TRIM handles. May need to reverse direction if stabilizer motion does not stop. May need to use bank to control nose high attitude. Near Vmma, full flaps may be necessary to control nose high attitude
What mode is the electrical system operating in if the Bus Tie and Cross Tie relays are closed?
Parallel mode
What does the Hyd Xfer Pump do?
Permits mechanical transfer of pressure between no. 2/3 systems
Windshear recovery on takeoff
Prior to Go speed: REJECT After Go speed: MAX thrust. On rwy, delay rotation (not past 1000ft remaining). After liftoff, increase acceleration by setting 1-2° FPV (4-500FPM). If 4-500FPM cannot be attained by 15° pitch, maintain 15°. If still sinking at 15°, and below 200ft AGL, pull to stick shaker onset and maintain onset airspeed until clear. Raise gear after extended climb has been achieved, and not lower than 1000ft.
WHen should N1 display during engine start?
Prior to reaching 40% N2 (30% N2 for OAT 0 degrees C or less)
Where are the ICS panels?
Pilot + CP L + R Additional Crew Member (ACM) Crew Rest Fwd Load Aft Load
What is activated by the PROBE heating switchlight?
Pitot-static tubes Angle of Attack Sensors Total Air Temperature sensors Engine Inlet sensors
What does the BATT BUS OFF light mean?
Power is not available from either the TRs or the main batteries and the BATT switch is in the ON position.
What is the make and model of the C-17 engine?
Pratt and Whitney F117-PW-100
Does Transfer pump transfer pressure or fluid?
Pressure from high pressure side to low pressure side
What is function if RAT
Pressurizes system 4, located in right gear pod, develops pressure to control aircraft in 4 engine flameout
Why do we turn on Aux pump before engine start?
Prevents damage to PRI/SEC due to cavitation/lack of cooling and lubrication
The HSC determines the on demand pump operation in the following sequence of priority for hydraulic system No. 3:
Primary, Secondary, XFER, Aux
(LL) Minimum topics in route study?
ROLL TIDE Route overview Obstacles/Obstructions Leg info Low level hazards Terrain features Individual crew duties Discuss airspace ESA
What do the batteries do?
Provide emergency power to the aircraft battery bus and battery direct bus
What does EDV do?
Provides reduced pressure for internal lubrication and cooling Reduces pump peak torque during engine start
Mins for C-17 to circle?
Published, with some notes: If the the mins are not published by category, then no lower than 600ft/2sm If the mins are not published, calculate min ceiling as HAA plus 100ft, rounded up to nearest 100ft.
What should you do if the maximum sustained supply pressure is <15PSI after the engine start button is pressed?
Pull the engine start button out.
What is the major difference between a precautionary engine shutdown and emergency engine shutdown?
Pulling of the fire handle
HYD QTY X LOW
Qty falls below 3.3/6.4/3.9/3.3 when at or above 27C or 1.2/3.3/1.2/1.2 below 27C
What could happen if the airspeed goes below 130 with the RAT extended?
RAT may stall resulting in a loss of aircraft control
MC TOLD: If VBO LDG DIST exceeds ______and LDG DIST is valid, VBO LDG DIST is highlighted and VBO LD DIST/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated. If VBO GND ROLL exceeds _____and GND ROLL is valid, VBO GND ROLL is highlighted and VBO GD ROLL/nnn.nGW (MSG)
RWY AVAIL, RWY AVAIL
Lineup dist static TO
RWY-250 ft
Standing/Rolling TO
RWY-350 ft
First aid kits
Racks for 26, but only 6 normally installed. 2 in crew rest area, 4 more above troop seats
How do you calculate an arc-radial intercept? Ex 1: 10 dme and 230kts GS Ex 2: 15 dme and 160kts GS
Radials per NM = 60/DME Turn Radius = GS/100/2 Lead Radials = (Turn Radius) X (Radials per NM) Ex 1: 10 dme and 230kts GS Lead radials = (1.15NM turn radius) x (6 radials per NM) = 6.9 radials. "I need to turn 1.15 miles early, and at 6 radials per miles, that's about 7 radials" So turn at about 7 radials before the inbound course. Ex 2: Ex 2: 15 dme and 160kts GS Turn about .8 miles early. At 4 radials per mile (60/15), that's about 4 radials early.
Refueling 3 R's
Radios: (30m) monitor, (15) call tanker RNDZ checklist Radar skin paint
(ECS) What is ram air? When can it be used?
Ram air is a backup supply of outside air to the conditioned air distribution system if both air conditioning packs are shut down and the aircraft is depressurized. (Fig. 1-136)
What is takeoff gross weight?
Ramp gross weight minus taxi fuel
How does radar display predictive windshear?
Red and black searchlights
Refusal Speed (Vr)
Refusal speed is the maximum speed to which the aircraft can accelerate and then stop in the available runway
What are the "Big 5" items to reject a takeoff for?
Rejects give me the "SWETS": Shifting Cargo Windshear EFCS MCD (FROZEN GAINS) Thrust loss Smoke/Fire
(Engine) What are the emergency engine shutdown conditions?
Require immediate engine shutdown: - Disintegration - Fire - Seizure - Sparking (continuous) - Engine/pylon fuel leak (on the ground) After retarding the throttle, if abnormal conditions persist, require immediate shutdown: - Severe compressor stall (engine does not respond to throttle movement) - Severe engine vibration - Uncontrollable overspeed May require the Emergency Engine Shutdown procedure or use of fire handles: - Fire detection loop failure - Landing with gear retracted - Engine/pylon fuel leak (in flight) - Tailpipe fire - THRST REV DISAG and/or UNLK (core reverser) - Wing and pylon fires
What action should be taken when the APU fails to spool up during battery start?
Reset the APU star circuit breakers.
What powers circuit "B" of engine ignition?
Respective AC Bus
What do the flight controls revert to during loss of all generators?
Revert to mechanical with the YAW axis in emergency power mode
Where is the Aux O2 Converter?
Right Nose gear with the Crew Converter
Where is the Crew O2 Converter?
Right nose compartment
When using grond cart, which side dos air enter manifold?
Right side
Where are 3/4 aux pump
Right wheel well
Which control axis will aircraft control be most degraded in when RAT is extended with large hydraulic demands?
Roll
What is powered off No. 1 Hydraulic system?
Rudder Elevator Aileron Flaps Trim Spoilers TR's
What is powered off No. 2 Hydraulic system?
Rudder Elevator Aileron Brakes Cargo door NWS L OBIGGS Slats Spoilers Stab Struts TR's
On the CMDS, ______ mode operates the same as the AUTO mode
SEMI
AAR Pre-departure Fuel Planning: Determine the minimum on-load required. Vary the AAR on-load amount until the ____ fuel or ____fuel reaches zero, whichever occurs first. That amount is the minimum on-load required.
STORED, UNID EXTRA
What returns oil back into the system?
Scavenge pumps
For climb and decent phases, where winds are not entered in the WPT pages, how does the MC account for winds at sea-level, in-between entered winds, and above the highest entered wind?
Sea-level = 0 Linear interpolation between entered winds. Highest entered wind used at all altitudes above.
How do you turn on the backup radio?
Select TR+G or TR on the backup radio switch.
AFCS panel configuration for PAR. When do configure with final flaps and slow to approach speed? Technique to fly glide slope?
Set altitude to 100' below DH to prevent early level off Established on final: select 1/2 standard rate turn Final configuration and slow to approach speed at "approaching glideslope" To fly GS, align API and FPV, and use small VERT SPD adjustments in response to controller instructions. (-1, 2-227)
What does the R mean on the COSA panel?
Seto to receive audio monitoring
How many ICS panels are there?
Seven
In addition to an engine fire, disintegration, seizure, or uncontrollable overspeed, the ENGINE FIRE/EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN checklist will be run with ____.
Severe compressor stall or engine vibration Engine/pylon fuel leak Uncontrollable EGT
What should you do if hydraulic system fails to depressurize?
Shut down capability pumps Valve stuck due to thermal expansion
What should you do if you have an ENG OIL PRESS light for greater than 2 min?
Shut down the engine
Loss of a hydraulic system may occur when the quantity decreases causing the HYD QTY LOW X or HYD QTY LOW X, Y WAP message(s) to be displayed. If this message appears:
Shut off all pumps within the affected system
Which statement is TRUE for the following situation: You are preparing for engine running off/onload operations and a thrust reverser will not extend:
Shutdown of the engine should be considered prior to ERO operations
What does Hydraulic Fire SOV do?
Shuts off flow from reservoir to PRI/SEC pumps
What does the COMPT AIR FLOW switch do?
Shuts off outside conditioned air coming into the aircraft without affecting avionics cooling.
If the starter valve will not close after engine start (light remains illuminated more than 30 seconds after the button pops out), which of the following actions could result in a starter failure?
Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply
How many lights are included in the landing/taxi lights?
Six Two in the wingtips Two for taxi/landing Two Dual Purpose
How many lights does the EPC switch control?
Six lights to light up the circuit breaker walls
How many AOA sensors are there? Where are they?
Six total, three on each side. Front of aircraft just below the pitot-static tubes.
Two engine approach: Landing Configuration-
Slats Ext, Flaps 1/2, Index 0, 8° of extension.
For PITCH AUTHORITY CAWS alert while airborne,
Slow the aircraft and simultaneously split the STAB TRIM handles
Ground ice shedding
Slowly advance throttles in forward or reverse to 50% N1 (for 5 sec when conditions permit). Do so every 15 min
Go Speed (Vgo)
Speed at which the pilot normally becomes committed to continue the takeoff. This speed shall be determined prior to brake release. Go speed is the lowest of Vrot, Vr, Vbmax - If Vgo is Vr, then Vr must be greater than or equal to Vmcg - If Vgo is Vbmax, then Vbmax must be greater than or equal to Vmcg - If Vgo is Vrot, an increase in Vrot due to wind gust increases Vgo an equal amount, not to exceed Vr or Vbmax
During four engine flameout, what speeds can improve engine start times?
Speed greater than 250 KCAS
What is Vapp?
Speed used on final approach with landing flaps and slats. This speed is at least 20% above the power on stall speed for the configuration
What is the normal mode of operation for the electrical system?
Split parallel
The electrical system is normally operated in the _____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying right side power
Split-parallel
(Elec) What is the normal mode of operation for the electrical system?
Split-parallel, with the no. 1 & 2 generators powering the left side, and no. 2 & 3 supplying the right side.
When the APU access doors are open and APU must be operated, what must be utilized?
Standby assistance from a ground/fire observer equiped with a 150lb fire bottle.
Which switch causes the APU to shutdown when lit to the off position?
Start control switch
The aircraft batteries provide power to the _______ which provides power to the AC Emergency Bus
Static inverter
Engine clearing procedure (with and without the START button still engaged)
Still engaged (starter already running): ENG SHUTOFF - OFF, then wait 30 sec (or until <190°C if you plan to attempt another start), and pull switch out. Button has already popped out: ENG SHUTOFF - OFF, wait 40 sec after N2 indication is lost (in an emergency, such as tailpipe fire or fuel leak on the ground, may enage below 20% N2), then engage starter for 30 sec.
Weather minimums to BEGIN an approach or en route descent. For straight in or side step? For circling?
Straight in or side step: VIS only Circling: ceiling AND vis
Destination Requirements (for filing purposes): File two alternates when:
The forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available DoD/NACO precision approach
To determine an individual aircraft's maximum payload weight:
Subtract operating weight from maximum zero fuel weight
GPWS Mode 4C (gear down, flaps 1/2 detent or less and below 500 feet radar altitude) is inoperative when ____.
TACTICAL mode is selected
(LL) Minimum information required on a chart
TIDE CCC Turn points IP DZ/LZ (objective) ESA Course line Chum date/time Chart series/date (3-3)
When do you use these Declared Distances? TORA, LDA, and ASDA. What if ASDA and TORA are different?
TORA: must have TOLD that makes it POSSIBLE to be airborne by TORA LDA: mast have TOLD that makes it POSSIBLE to stop within LDA ASDA: use for computing refusal speed When ASDA and TORA are different, use shorter for TOLD calculations.
What is the primary power source of the DC Emergency Bus?
TR's 1 and 2 (DC left side)
When is BKUP illuminated?
When activated from the LM panel and Aux Pumps on LM panel are OFF
A member may also credit a Day Low Level (M055) each time they accomplish a NVG Low Level (NV00)
TRUE
Both pilots will VERIFY the intended changes prior to execution to include the correct mode is selected (e.g. ensure LNAV is selected when cleared to a point while on a heading).
TRUE
Cold weather/ground icing conditions: Use of autothrottles for takeoff is strongly encouraged. If an EPR probe icing condition should occur, the autothrottles will ignore the erroneous EPR and maintain the correct power setting via computed throttle level
TRUE
During high ambient air temperatures and reverse idle conditions, primary TOLD and allowable cargo load calculations may be overly restrictive. Use secondary TOLD to compare against primary TOLD to determine if allowable cargo load is overly restrictive
TRUE
Equipment will be properly secured and all crewmembers and passengers will be seated with seat belts and shoulder harnesses (shoulder harness does not apply to pax) fastened during taxi, takeoff, landing, AAR, and low levels unless crew duties dictate otherwise.
TRUE
GPWS warnings/alerts shall remain ON during flight
TRUE
If both MC's fail, fully automatic control of cabin pressurization is lost.
TRUE
Manual entry of waypoints using Latitude/Longitude or Place/Bearing is prohibited on any RNAV procedure
TRUE
Operating engines in idle reverse thrust for extended periods during high OAT's may cause one or more engine FIREX bottles to discharge uncommanded
TRUE
The APU PWR switch on the electrical panel shall remain on until after the APU is completely shutdown (T/F)
TRUE
The Alpha speed function provides flight guidance and/or control to limit minimum airspeed to configuration Alpha speed, which provides safe buffet or stall margin for the existing aircraft configuration (flaps, slats, thrust level, weight and altitude)
TRUE
The aircraft static air temperature shall not be used for takeoff calculation since heat radiation picked up by the sensing element can cause considerable error. Using an incorrect temperature may result in an unsafe takeoff
TRUE
The engine starting system can be used in flight as well as on the ground
TRUE
When operating into semi-prepared runways, aircrews must input the numerical rolling friction factor (RFF) into the mission computer to calculate take-off data prior to landing.
TRUE
Do not change the ENGINE IGNITION source during engine start. Switching sources may result in a ______
Tailpipe fire
The visual signal for a BREAKAWAY is
Tanker flashes Pilot Director Lights and/or turns lower Rotating Beacon ON
(Fuel) What does the fuel system look like: how many tanks, how many boost pumps & transfer pumps?
Tanks 4 (Non-ER), 6 (ER); 8 Boost Pumps, 4 transfer pumps (Figure 1-52)
What may happen if you taxi with flaps extended?
Taxiway and/or FOD damage
What does the green/blue/red status bar on the left of the radar indicate?
That it is working properly.
If an engine reverts to N2 mode, all engine responses are normal except _____.
That no overspeed protection is provided
What does "S" mean on the COSA panel?
That radio is operating in secure mode.
(Fuel) What does the FUEL MGT [SCHED/MAN] button do? (Note, this is the single button between the engine 3 and 4 start buttons)
The SCHED light on the button (not to be confused with the two inboard SCHED lights) illuminates when an outboard tank is heavier than an inboard tank (remember, the fuel management system should prevent this). Pressing disengages the automatic mode and illuminates the amber MAN light. (1-111)
(AR) KC-135 day contact visual references
The #3 (pilot) or #2 (co-pilot) engine exhaust cone tip will rest on the outermost engine cowling. The #4 (pilot) or #1 (co-pilot) engine will "tuck" into the upper corner of the windscreen
Where does engine bleed air come from?
The 10th and 17th engine stages
Which MA-1 portables do not have an attached quick don mask?
The 2 cockpit bottles and 1 FWD LMS (total of 3)
What is the only climb profile that validates TOLD for 3-eng? How do you fly it?
The 3-eng climb profile. Described in great detail for each configuration in Sec 3. My attempt to summarize: - Apply MAX power immediately - If BELOW acceleration altitude: climb at current speed to acceleration altitude. Usually, just follow flight director. The exception is if you have entered the half-rate climb portion of the standard climb profile, in which case you will have to immediately pitch for current airspeed and start climbing again. - Upon reaching, or if already above acceleration altitude, level off and accelerate to Vmfr - Climb at Vmfr to min IFR altitude, then accelerate to 250. (BLK 21) Acceleration altitude is the lower of MC ACCEL ALT or MIN IFR. (-1, sec 3)
How do you enter holding in ICAO?
The 3-sectors are mandatory. Teardrop headings are 30* offsets (the autopilot flies 45*). Holding airspeeds are different, and not standardized. 230 should always be safe.
The oxygen shutoff valve (Red Handle) stops flow from where?
The Crew Converter
Bleed air temperature is controlled by what?
The Environmental System Controller (ESC)
What does the flowline switch control?
The Flow Lines
What is the name of the portable O2 bottle (walkaround bottle)
The MA-1
Approach to Assault Landing: No later than 300 feet AGL:
The PF will engage PACAH If the aircraft is no stable when passing through 300 feet, accomplish a go-around
Abrupt use of brakes when backing the aircraft should be avoided to prevent _______.
The aircraft from setting on its tail
(ECS) Describe the normal GROUND mode of the avionics cooling system (open loop). When is it sufficient?
The avionics cooling fans pull ambient air from the nose wheel well through the loop into the avionics racks and into the fan exhaust compartment. The air then flows through the open avionics outflow valve and, in turn, the pressurization outflow valve. Above 90 °F OAT, avionics cooling air flow must be supplied from the APU or ground unit. 1-728
(ECS) What does Avionics Cool Override do? When is it triggered automatically?
The avionics cooling override switchlight provides override control of the avionics cooling augmentation valve which supplies conditioned air to the avionics racks. The green OPEN light illuminates as a function of switch position. When pressed to open, the avionics augmentation valve and the avionics outflow valve in the underdeck heat exchanger are driven open. The ESC shifts both packs to high flow and set the left pack discharge temperature to 40 ± 5 °F.
The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to _____.
The baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window
If the cabin pressure differential exceeds 8.2 delta P, the ______ will automatically open
The cabin pressure relief valves
What does the EMERG PWR IN USE light mean?
The emergency power relay has been activated and the emergency buses are receiving battery power.
What may happen if the PROBE heat switchlights are on during engine start? What is the procedure if this happens?
The engines may start in N2 mode 1) Both PROBE heat switchlights - OFF 2) Shut down affected engines completely 3) Restart affected engines
How can you check the fuel quantity in the extended range tanks?
The fuel quantity page on the weight/CG page
Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT) is ____. This is the recommended rating for engine-out climbs
The highest thrust certified for continuous use
Maximum continuous thrust (MCT) rating is ______.
The highest thrust recommended for normal climb operation
Minimum Flap Retraction Speed (Vmfr)
The minimum speed at which the flaps can be raised
What do the Engine SOV switchlights control?
The overpressure shutoff valve High Pressure bleed regulatory valve Pylon Pressure regulating valve Overboard fan valve
(Hydro) What is the primary purpose of the transfer pump?
The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to assist in landing gear retraction or cargo door/ramp closing in the event of No. 2 or 3 engine loss. (1-820)
When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre-contact position,
The receiver will stabilize in the precontact position and attain a zero rate of closure
(Elec) For single generator operations, what buses will be powered? What is the generator order of priority?
The remaining generator will power its own bus, and one other. Priority: 2, 3, 1, 4. Gen 1: 1 & 2 Gen 2: 2 & 3 Gen 3: 3 & 2 Gen 4: 4 & 2
If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement
The rudder command will be overridden
T/F. The integrated drive generator isolates the generator from the engine in the event of a serious mechanical fault.
True
T/F. With loss of DC BUS X, the respective IRU X and IRU X battery charger will lose power and the respective IRU will fail in approx 30 minutes.
True
What happens when you press the engine start button?
The starter control valve opens to the 10th stage of the engine
What is ullage?
The vapor area above the fuel in the tanks
Number and locations of FEDS initiators. Which are electronically armed, and what does this mean? How are they armed?
There are 7 initiators: MX/Ditching Hatch, FLM Station, each FEDS opening, left wing root external hatch cover. 2 arming switches at pilot OVHD panel and FLM station allow removal of pin at MX hatch and FLM station (the other handles have pins that can always be removed with the need to arm).
T/F. You should get N1 indication prior to 40% N2 (possible hung start if this doesn't occur).
True
The APU start control switch is spring loaded to the run position (T/F)
True
What is special about the 6th through the 9th stator vanes in each engine?
They are variable and adjust throughout the entire flight envelope to properly schedule air into the high pressure compressor by the Stator Van Actuator system
What happens when you switch the landing/taxi lights from taxi to landing?
They get brighter. Taxi = low intensity Land = High Intensity
Tire cord limits: The maximum wear limit (MWL) is defined as the exposure of the ____ cord layer plus ____ additional landings.
Third; two
If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank, _____.
This could indicate a catastrophic engine failure
What is a Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums departure, and how do you a fly it?
This is referring to the non-standard minima published in the Trouble T. We aren't allowed to use them the way civil pilots can (to see and avoid terrain), UNLESS we can make the specified ceiling before the end of the runway with one engine out. Example: Rwy 27, 900-1* *Standard with minimum climb of 250/NM to 1000' You can either make it to 900' by the DER with one engine out, then 200/NM, OR you can meet the 250/NM to 1000'. In any case, standard MAJCOM takeoff weather mins always apply. 11-217v1, 7.4
There are ____ avionics cooling fans.
Three
What is the total number of life rafts installed in the FEDS areas?
Three
How many APU starts may be initiated per hour? What is the delay between starts?
Three starts Five minutes between starts
How many positive pressure relief valves are there? Where are they?
Three. Aft right side of the aircraft.
How many negative pressure relief valves are there? Where are they?
Three. Two on the aft left, one on the aft right of the aircraft.
What is the aircraft configuration for an emergency descent?
Throttles- IDLE or IDLE REV; Speed Brakes- Deployed; Airspeed- As required
What position should the D.C. X TIE be in when using the ground power cart or APU generator to power the electrical system?
Tie
What is the definition of acceleration check time?
Time required to accelerate to a predetermined speed
The anti-ice system is designed ____. Therefore, the anti-ice system must be activated before ice buildup
To prevent ice buildup rather than remove it once it forms
Why do we have an APU?
To provide electrical power, air conditioning, and air for engine start
Where are the anti-collision lights?
Top of vertical stab Bottom of fuselage, forward of the main pods
The Standby Compass light is NOT NVG Compatible. T/F
True
The oil system is self-contained. (T/F)
True
When external power and the APU generator PWR switch is in use the AC X TIED light shall go off. (T/F)
True
When number 3 tank FWD or AFT boost pump switch light is not turned on within two minutes, APU will be displayed on the WAP. (T/F)
True
When the APU access doors are open, the aircraft mounted fire extinguisher system is not sufficient to extinguish a fire. (T/F)
True
APU operation shall not be accomplished without radios communication (T/F)
True Operator shall have the capability to contact the fire department
T/F: The MA-1 Portable regulator delivers 100% oxygen regardless of altitude selector knob position
True!
What should you do if lose pressure in a system
Turn off all affected pumps and don't depressurization unless needed for flight
What is landing distance?
Total distance from a 50 ft threshold crossing height to a point where the aircraft can be brought to a full stop
When does the LOW FUEL light illuminate?
Total fuel is below 16,000#
Critical Field Length (CFL)
Total length of runway required to accelerate with all engines to critical engine failure speed, experience a most critical engine failure, then continue to takeoff or stop
What is landing ground roll?
Total runway distance from touchdown point where the aircraft can be brought to a full stop
What does the REMOTE TEMP CNTR button do?
Transfers air conditioning control from the FWD LM station to the cockpit overhead panel
(Fuel) What does the fuel management system do?
Transfers fuel from inboard to outboard tanks to maintain outboard tanks full until the inboard tanks reach approximately 38,000 pounds (1-215). At this point, the inboards and outboards are approximately equal (since the outboards only hold 38k), the system turns off, and they should burn down equally. (Note that the fuel "scheduling" system is separate, and moves fuel from the ERs to the inboards, and aft to forward in the inboards.)
(not counting the engine clearing procedure) Motoring for up to 90 seconds is considered a start attempt. (T/F)
True
APU start will be terminated immediately when RPM and/or EGT indication is lost during the star sequence
True
APU system operation shall not be accomplished with open circuit breakers unless otherwise specified. (T/F)
True
Activation of the APU Off/ARM switchlight on the APU panel will provide an automatic shutdown of the APU. (T/F)
True
Ensure the agent discharge switchlight is off during a normal APU run (T/F)
True
External air leakage from the APU heat shield area is allowable. (T/F)
True
Flaps/slats must be in the full up position when performing APU operations (T/F)
True
If PA is selected, all radio mics are disabled. (T/F)
True
If non-secure voice is selected to transmit, all secure is disabled. (T/F)
True
Motoring the engine for 30 seconds during the engine clearing procedure is not considered a separate start. (T/F)
True
OBIGGS II - Must have electrical power on to use a high pressure cart. (T/F)
True
T/F. At FL200 or below in stabilized flight, and redundant copilot navigation and comm are not required, turn the XFER BUSES witch off to conserve battery power.
True
T/F. Auto switching only occurs if battery switch is ON and emergency power is AUTO.
True
T/F. Do not reset fuel boost pump circuit breakers.
True
T/F. Don't reset TR CB's.
True
T/F. Fuel shutoff switch (engine shutoff switch) is electronically linked to FCU and ignition.
True
T/F. If battery bus fails, land ASAP, many critical components are lost.
True
T/F. If in icing conditions under emergency power, only the pilots standby airspeed indicator will be accurate.
True
T/F. In N2 mode of EEC, reverse thrust in flight and auto throttles are not available.
True
T/F. Normally EPU and APU power is used during ground ops.
True
T/F. Stator Vane Actuator system failure will cause engine stability and thrust anomalies.
True
How do you crossfeed? What does crossfeeding do?
Turn on X-feed for respective tanks then shut off boost pumps of receiving tank Feeds fuel from tanks directly to a different engine
How do you see the wings and nacelles at night?
Turn on the four scan lights via the NACELLE rotating switch
How do you transfer fuel?
Turn on transfer pump of supplying tanks Open fill valve of receiving tank
How many Communication Control Units (CCU's) are there? Which is the primary?
Two CCU 1 is the primary
Allow the APU to operate with no load for a minumum of _______________ prior to shutdown
Two minutes
Personnel will position Start Control switch to the run position for ___________ second(s) prior to starting APU
Two seconds
How many Total Air Temperature sensors are there? Where are they?
Two total, one on each side. Front of aircraft just above and in front of the nose gear.
What is included in the fuel system?
Two-stage, engine driven fuel pump Fuel/oil heat exchanger Fuel Control Unit (FCU) Fuel distribution valve
Sub-idle hung start
Typically after start cut out when OAT > 20°C. Very slow N2 acceleration btw ~56-60% N2 & continuous EGT rise. Can be mistaken as idle. EGT will eventually exceed limits. Suspect sub-idle if lesser RPM compared to other engines or if eng hasn't reached RPM for OAT. Use small throttle input to evaluate eng response. Low margin EGT engines are more susceptible.
(Regs) How do you know what runway end crossing height (screen height) to use?
USAF/USN non-joint bases: 0ft (anything other than 0 will be published in an ODP) All others: use 35ft unless otherwise published 11-217v1, 7.3.3
Can you fly a "SPECIAL AUTHORIZATION" CAT II?
Ummm...not without special authorization.
How is fuel normally supplied to the engine?
Under pressure from the aircraft fuel system, however, fuel can be suction fed by the engine driven fuel pump
Where are the batteries located?
Under stairway in cargo compartment
Where are the batteries located?
Under the stairway
Where are the staging lights located? How do you turn them on?
Underside of horizontal stab Aft left LM station
When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is _____ and only the ____ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information
Unusable, caged
When backing, what can you do with bleed air to reduce engine surge?
Use engine bleed air for packs and engine anti-ice.
APS-150 Weather Radar: For an aircraft cruising at or above 29,000 feet, when will existing weather be depicted as non-relevant (striped)?
When actual weather is not within +/- 4,000 feet relative to aircraft's actual/projected altitude When actual weather is below 25,000 feet
When is any hydraulic system pressurized
When any system pump is operating
What can you do if the AUX HYD pump is inoperative for the engine to be started?
Use the PRI HYD pump and turn OFF the GEN light
When will you use the accumulator and how many applications?
Used if you lose hydraulics, up to 10 applications
(ECS) What does the COMPT AIR FLOW [ON/OFF] switch do? When is it used?
Used in contaminated air. Airflow to crew and cargo areas is turned off, but avionics cooling continues. "Provides a means of shutting off conditioned air to the aircraft without affecting avionics cooling in the event the aircraft becomes contaminated. When pressed, the switchlight illuminates, the trim air regulators close, the flight compartment/crew rest area and cargo compartment SOVs close, the avionics cooling augmentation valve opens, and the recirculation fan shuts off. The right pack flow control valve closes and the left pack is commanded to low flow schedule for avionics cooling." (Fig. 1-136)
What does OBIGGS do?
Uses nitrogen enriched air to reduce oxygen concentration below the ignition point in the vapor area above the fuel in the tanks
The best climb gradient speeds are ______ for 0/EXT, and ______ for UP/RET
VMFR/VMMA, VMSR/VMMA
What is station passage for VOR/DME, TACAN and ADF?
VOR & VOR/DME: To/From indicates FROM TACAN: range stops decreasing ADF: needle swings through 90° to the inbound course
What is the key difference between Vbo LDG DIST and GRN ROLL numbers? When TOLD displays Vbo LDG DIST, what is the latest you should touch down to validate TOLD? What is the minimum runway required? What is the latest you can safely touchdown in the following example? 3/4 Flap, 3° GS Vbo LDG DIST in MC: 4000 RWY AVAIL: 4400 Latest touchdown = ______?
Vbo LDG DIST includes air distance, GND ROLL does not. You need to touchdown within the distance allotted by the MC for air distance. This is approximately 1200ft for 3° GS and 3/4 flaps, or 800ft for 5° and FULL flaps. Min runway required = Vbo LDG DIST Example Latest Touchdown = 1600ft down (1200 air distance + 400 feet extra runway) Note: it is common for people to brief that they will touchdown 1-2000ft down without acknowledging that they are invalidating their TOLD. This comes from Q1 grading criteria. Don't brief this without mentioning the affect on required runway. (-1-1 Air Distance Fig. 9-18)
If the engine start button does not engage, what do you do?
Verify/change the selected ignition source. If it does not stay in, it may be held in for start.
In frontside flight the default or basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the ______ mode
Vertical speed/Altitude hold
What drives the 90ft minimum runway width?
Vmcg allows 28ft deviation. When on centerline, the mains are 28ft from the edge of a 90ft wide runway. The main gear are 33ft 8in wide. 28x2+34 = 90ft
If takeoff is continued with F/D failure, pitch for ___ (all engines operating) or ___ (one engine inoperative). Do not allow the aircraft to slow below ___.
Vmfr; Vmco; Vmco (2-96)
(TOLD) Vgo is the lowest of what 3 speeds?
Vrot, Vbmax, Vr
Go speed (Vgo) is the lowest of _____, _____, or _______
Vrot, Vr, Vbmax
(APS150) What mode would be selected on the Radar Control Panel to see rainfall inside/behind areas of turbulence?
WX MAN
(Engine Start) When do you use A&B ignition for start?
When below 0°C, when use of engine anti-ice is anticipated, and when moderate or greater precipitation or turbulence is encountered or expected. The ignition will remain on after engine start for take- off and climb. (2-278)
When is aux activated
When both primary and secondary pump px falls below 3400
(WX) When do you file two alternates?
When forecast VIS is less than approach mins for the precision approach OR: when forecast VIS or CEILING is less than required for all other approaches OR: winds out of limits C17v3, 6.20
A personnel restraining harness or parachute is required to be worn____.
When inspecting aircraft doors after an in-flight door/hatch warning
(Engine Start) When does the 495* EGT Limit apply?
When less than 55% N2
When does the CREW OXY LOW light illuminate?
When quantity is less than 5L or when supply pressure is less than 60PSI +/- 5PSI
(Engine Start) When should you start engines in idle reverse?
When tailwinds are over 25 knots OR if personnel or equipment are behind the aircraft (-1, 2-55)
When do the passenger warning signs (No Smoking/Fasten Seatbelts) come on if the switch is set to AUTO?
When the gear comes down.
How can the closed loop avionics cooling system be made open loop?
When the ground inlet shutoff valve opens with the WoW switch activation and both air conditioning packs off.
When does secondary hyd pump go active
When the primary pump px falls below 3400
(ECS) When does the ECS begin using conditioned air for avionics cooling?
When the skin heat exchanger can't keep up, above 65°F ambient total air temperature. "Above 65 °F (during ground operation and low altitude flight), the skin heat exchanger may not be able to dissipate all of the heat load. When this occurs, the ESC opens the air conditioning cool- ing augmentation valve located in the left pack ducting to provide conditioned air for the cooling effort." (1-717)
(Elec) When do the batteries charge?
Whenever power other than the batteries is in use on the aircraft.
If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioning airflow used for avionics cooling ________.
Will be contaminated
When APU does not start on first attempt with _______________________, reposition aircraft to preclude APU exhaust from being ingested into the inlet, or wait for winds to decrease below ____________ before attempting another start
Winds above 35 knots, 30 knots
To prevent injury to personnel or damage to equipment, do not operate APU under this _____________ condition.
With fire detection system LOOP A and LOOP B inoperative
Pitch Reference Trim is available _____.
With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS With the FCS ACRT Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH
Do not taxi within ___ of any obstacle without wing walkers. With wing walkers: ___. During reverse: ___.
With wing walker: 25ft; W/o wing walker: 10ft; Reverse: 25ft with or w/o wing walkers
Weather requirements for selecting an alternate and disqualifying conditions
Worst weather within 1 hour of ETA must be better than: Ceiling: 1000' or 500' above lowest compatible mins Vis: 2SM or 1SM above lowest compatible mins Disqualifiers: - Radar required for all approaches - Unmonitored NAVAID required on all compatible approaches. - No weather reporting service. - A N/A (Alternate Not Authorized) on all compatible approaches. - Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section. (11-202v3, 4.15.3.4)
What would happen to primary flight controls if one of the associated sys failed
Would still operate but at a slower rate
What must you turn off and within what time frame to get 30 minutes out of the batteries during an all generator failure?
XFER buses need to be turned off within 15 minutes of all generators loss
Can the IDG's (Integrated Drive Generators) power it's own channel plus one other?
Yes
If you need to use engine/wing anti ice or need to use the air conditioning pack, can these systems operate on only one operative bleed valve?
Yes
SUPPLY PRESS PSI
digital reading of pneumatic pressure in that wing manifold
With one tank empty and the rest full, can the aircraft still be flown manually? Autopilot? What about a low speeds?
Yes, but at lower speeds eventually the autopilot will have to be disconnected and if the aircraft is flown manually there will not be enough aileron trim authority to trim out the forces. Using rudder trim and asymmetric thrust can be used to relieve the forces until enough fuel has been used to get the aircraft back in trim.
Will the engine still run if boost pumps fail?
Yes, through gravity fed and suction feed from engine driven fuel pumps (continued flight above 10,000 ft does not guarantee engine operation)
(Fuel) With all electrical pumps failed, will the engines still operate?
Yes, up to 10,000ft MSL with MAX thrust. Lower power settings will allow higher altitude. (2-806)
Can you still refuel if one of the two valves at the front of the manifold fail to open?
Yes, you can open the center valve to continue receiving fuel on both sides
After introducing fuel and spark, what happens to EGT?
You should see EGT rise. If it does not rise after 20 seconds, turn eng shutoff switch off, motor 30 seconds, then stop start.
When does MANIFOLD FAIL annunciate on ECP?
abnormal temp detected in associated wing system
When do you close ISOL valve and APU pneumatic SOV?
after all engines started
(Thrust Reverser Status, 3L) When a SPAM runway is selected for emergency return or landing, the MC adds another thrust reverser selection for four engines (4ENG). 4ENG assumes ____.
all four engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust
Fluid holdover times: The C-17 is considered a(n) _____ aircraft.
aluminum
Hyd pump Hot illuminates
at 135C
When does the maximum engine EGT transition from starting to idle?
at 55% N2
What's the isolation valve used for?
divides manifold into left and right sides
APU priority is to Electrical or Pneumatic needs?
electrical
(LL) Low level charts do not depict terrain until it ____ one contour interval, or obstacles less than ___ft.
exceeds; 200
(APU) The automatic shutdown override switch overrides everything except...
fire and overspeed (1-161)
g limit: When extending/retracting LDG- With slats/flaps extended- when opening/closing ramp/door
max 2.25 g's 0-2.0 g's no abrupt maneuvers or negative g's, 1.6g max
When does the FUEL QTY X light illuminate?
fuel below 4,000# in affected tank
2 different typs of air carts
high and low pressure carts
How is bleed air temp affected with ati-ice use?
increased
(Engine Start) Start Button pops out, but light stays on ...
it can stay on for 30 seconds. After that, announce "stop start" and isolate all air sources to the engine before completing engine clearing
What is the AC setup in a parallel configuration?
left and right Gen tie bus closed AC X tie tied
What is the AC setup in the split parallel configuration?
left and right Gen tie bus closed AC XTIE open
Terminate refueling if ____ turbulence is encountered. Do not even plan to refuel with ___ turbulence in forecast.
moderate; severe
Can you disconnect electrical power while high pressure pneumatics bing supplied to aircraft?
no
How many times can you reset a circuit breaker?
once. Never reset Fuel boost Pump, E13 or stab strut CBs
How is engie blee air cooled?
precooler heat exchanger
With a "FLAP IN BACKUP" WAP message indicating the flaps are under the control of the analog backup unit, the flaps can be ____ but not ___.
retracted; re-extended. NOTE: they can not be re-extended FOR THE REST OF THE FLIGHT, even if FLAPS IN BACKUP goes away.
Repositioning ____ with the RAT deployed may exceed RAT output and cause loss of system pressure and aircraft control.
speed brakes
What buttn does ressing the ENGINE START button control?
starter control valve
Taxi Centerline References: While taxiing the aircraft straight ahead, the position of the nosewheel is approximated by _____ .
the inboard screw of the heads-up display (HUD) the inboard leg of the pilot flying (PF) the first inboard dot of the lateral deviation indicator in the HUD
What needs to be retracted prior to or immediately after APU start?
the slats, to prevent damage to slat seals.
Available crewmembers will assist in clearing during ____ and anytime the aircraft is below ____ feet MSL.
taxi operations; 10,000
Inflight Fuel Optimization: After takeoff, aircrews should determine and request to cruise at their optimum altitude. Optimum altitude can be calculated with ____.
the Pilot's Performance Advisory System (PPAS) IAW AMC approved checklist insert OPTIMUM CRUISE ALTITUDES if PPAS is not available
In the isolated configuration where is the aircraft getting its power?
the engines
Purpose of windshear recovery
to accelerate through the windshear while minimizing altitude loss
Upon landing, delay braking until main gear touchdown when total fuel is greater than _________ unless __________
total fuel is greater 165,000lbs _________ unless there is less than 4,000lbs in the ER tanks. Add 500' to landing ground roll Do not add if Ttd > Vbo
(Engine Start) if START button does not stay in ...
verify/change ignition source. If it still doesn't stay, it may be held in.
(Fuel) What does the fuel scheduling system do? (with and w/o ER).
w/o ER: Fuel is transferred from the aft compartment forward until the aft compartment is empty (1-220) w/ ER: Fuel is transferred from the ER tanks to the main inboard. Fuel is depleted from forward ER first, then aft ER. After the ERs are empty, scheduling is the same as w/o ER.
When must max be used on takeoff?
when required by TOLD, or when windshear is reported or expected. (2-82)
When is it recommended to start engines with the throttle in idle reverse
when tailwinds exceed 25 knots
When are you required to use engine, wing, and windshield anti-ice systems
when the temp is 10C/50F or below and one of the following are true: -Visible moisture is present -Fog is present with a vis of 2 mile or less -The temp/dew point is within 3C or 5F or the dew point is unavailable. -Ramp, Taxiways, or Runways have standing water or slush.
What are the tolerances for verifying an RNAV approach?
±0.1 NM and 5°. Also, check all waypoints, turn types, and altitudes. Failure to do so = Q3!
Weather Minimums for Takeoff: What minimum visibility is required to depart on an operational mission in the absence of RVR readout?
½ mile/800 meters
Takeoff will not be attempted with over _____ inch(es) of wet snow, slush, and/or water, or _____ inch(es) of dry snow on the runway
½, 4
