CCIE 100

91. Which statement about the OSPF Loop-Free Alternate feature is true? A. It is supported when traffic can be redirected to a primary neighbor B. It is supported on routers that are configured with virtual links C. It is supported in VRF OSPF instances D. It is supported when a traffic engineering tunnel interface is protected

C. It is supported in VRF OSPF instances

81. Which two characteristics of an 1oT network are true? (Select two) A. 1oT networks must be designed for low-powered devices B. 1oT network are 100% reliable C. The transmission rate in an 1oT network is consistent D. 1oT networks are bandwidth constrained E. 1oT networks use IS-IS for routing

A. 1oT networks must be designed for low-powered devices C. The transmission rate in an 1oT network is consistent

25. [Image] R1 and R2 advertise 10.50.1.0/24 to R3 and R4 as shown. R1 is the primary path. Which path does traffic take from the data center to the file server? A. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to R1 to the file server B. Traffic is load-balanced from R4 to R2 and R3. Traffic that is directed to R3 then continues to R1 to the file server. Traffic that is directed to R2 continues to the file server C. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to the files server D. All traffic travels from R4 to R3 to R1 to the file server

A. All traffic travels from R4 to R1 to R1 to the file server

80. Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security association is established? A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security assocation B. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association C. The Proof of Possession (POP) D. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange E. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange

A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association

38. [Image] If you apply this configuration to a device on your network, which class map cannot match traffic? A. CM-EXAMPLE-3 B. CM-EXAMPLE-4 C. CM-EXAMPLE-1 D. CM-EXAMPLE-5 E. CM-EXAMPLE-2

A. CM-EXAMPLE-3

58. Which encryption algorithm is enabled by the Cisco IOS command service password-encryption? A. Cisco Type-7 B. Cisco Type-5 C. TKIP D. MD5 E. Cisco AES

A. Cisco Type-7

69. Which action must you take to configure encryption for a dynamic VPN? A. Configure an FQDN identity in the crypto key string B. Configure an FQDN on the router C. Configure an FQDN peer in the crypto profile D. Configure an FQDN in the crypto key string

A. Configure an FQDN identity in the crypto key string

29. Which value does VPLS use to make forwarding decision? A. Destination MAC of the Ethernet B. Destination IP address of the packet C. Source MAC of the Ethernet frame D. Source IP address of the packet

A. Destination MAC of the Ethernet

26. Which two statements about router summarization are true? (Select two) A. EIGRP can summarize routes at the classful network boundary B. EIGRP and RIPv2 route summarize are configured with the ip summary-address command under the router C. It can be disabled in RIP, RIPv2, and EIGRP D. It requires a common set of high-order bits for all component routes E. RIPv2 can summarize-routes beyond the classful network boundary

A. EIGRP can summarize routes at the classful network boundary D. It requires a common set of high-order bits for all component routes

56. Which interior gateway protocol is based on open standards, uses a shortest--path first algorithm, provides native protocols, and operates at the data link layer? A. IS-IS B. EIGRP C. BGP D. OSPF

A. IS-IS

17. [Picture] Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem? (Select two) A. Install a switch with larger buffers B. Configure a different queue set C. Reconfigure the switch buffers D. Configure the server application to use TCP E. Update the server operating system

A. Install a switch with larger buffers B. Configure a different queue set

96. Which three statements about automatic 6to4 tunneling are true? (Select three) A. It allows an IPv6 domain to be connected over an IPv4 network B. 6to4 tunnels are configured only in a point-point configuration C. It allows an IPv4 domain to be connected over an IPv6 network D. The IPv4 address embedded into the IPv6 address is used to find other of the tunnel E. The MAC address embedded into the IPv6 address is used to find the other end of the tunnel F. 6to4 tunnels are configured in a point-to-multipoint configuration

A. It allows an IPv6 domain to be connected over and IPv4 network D. The IPv4 address embedded into the IPv6 address is used to find other of the tunnel F. 6to4 tunnels are configured in a point-to-multipoint configuration

66. Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Select two) A. It can be based on the source router ID B. It can be based on the external route tag C. It affects LSA flooding D. It can be based on the as-path E. It can be based on distance

A. It can be based on the source router ID B. It can be based on the external route tag

1. [Image] Which effect of this configuration is true? A. It configures a PPPoE server B. It configures a PPPoE client C. It configures a PPPoE neighbor relationship with a Layer 3 switch D. It configures a PPPoE session with an ISP

A. It configures a PPPoE server

73. Which statements about the client-identifier in a DHCP pool are true? (Select two) A. It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client B. It specifies a hardware address for the client C. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for BOOTP requests D. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP request. E. It requires that you specify the hardware protocol

A. It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client D. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP request

79. [Image] If interface Fastethernet0/1 goes down, how does router R5 respond? A. It sends query packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24 B. It sends update packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24 C. It is stuck in active for destination 192.168.24.0/24 D. It uses interface F0/0 and neighbor 192.168.35.3 as the new path to destination 192.168.24.0/24

A. It sends query packets to neighbor 192.168.35.3 for destination 192.168.24.0/24

48. Which characteristic of an IS-IS single topology is true? A. Its IPv4 and IPv6 interfaces must have a 1:1 correlation B. It supports asymmetric Ipv4 and IPv6 interface C. It uses a seperate SPF calculation than the IPv4 routing table D. The metric-style wide command must be enabled

A. Its IPv4 and IPv6 interfaces must have a 1:1 correlation

35. Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true? (Select two) A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU. B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together. C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis D. If LSP authentication is in use, unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password

A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis

53. Which two statements about logging are true? (Select two) A. Log messages are displayed in a Telnet session by default B. Interface status changes are logged at the Informational level C. Interface status changes are logged at the Notification level D. Log messages are sent to the console port by default E. Reload requests are logged at the Notification level F. System restart messages are logged at the Critical level

A. Log messages are displayed in a Telnet session by default C. Interface status changes are logged at the Notification level

30. In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller note? (Select two) A. Neutron server plugin B. Neutron DHCP agent C. Neutron layer 2 agent D. Identify Service E. Neutron layer3 agent

A. Neutron server plugin D. Identify service

100. Which two statements about private VLAN communications are true? (Select two) A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces B. Isolated ports communicate with other isolated ports C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports. D. Promiscuous ports connect only to routers.

A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces. C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports

14. Which three factors does Cisco PFR use to calculate the best exit path? (Select three) A. Reachability B. Delay C. Quality of service D. Packet size E. Administrative distance F. Loss

A. Reachability B. Delay F. Loss

51. [Image] You are configuring Router 1 and Router 2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Router 2 to establish the tunnel? (Select two) A. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class to R1 to R2 B. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1 C. Loopback0 on Router 1 must be advertised on Router 2 D. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1 E. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1

A. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1 to R2

86. [Image] Which two statements about the 192.168.23.0/24 prefix are true? (Select two) A. Router 192.168.45.4 cannot act as a feasible successor B Router 192.168.35.3 is only successor C. Only router 192.168.45.4 is a feasible successor D. Routers 192.168.35.3 and 192.168.45.4 are successors E. Routers 192.168.35.3 and 192.168.45.4 are feasible successors F. Only router 192.168.35.3 is a feasible successor.

A. Router 192.168.45.4 cannot act as a feasible successor B. Router 192.168.35.3 is the only successor

49. [Image] You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunnelling. Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router2 to establish the tunnel? (Select two) A. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1 to R2 B. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on Router1 C. Loopback 0 on Router 1 must be advertised to Router 2 D. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1 E. Cisco Disocvery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet 1/0 on router1

A. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class r1 to r2 C. Loopback 0 on Router 1 must be advertised to Router 2

7. Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Select two) A. The FIB table and the adjacency tale reside ont eh line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. B. Layer 2 next-hop address nformation is maintained in the adjacency table. C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table. E. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.

A. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when distributed Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table

60. Which two options are benefits of moving the application development workload to the cloud? (Select two) A. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine B. The workload can be moved or replicated easily C. it provides you full control over the software packages and vendor used D. High availability and redundancy is handled by the hypervisor E. it provided a more secure environment

A. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine B. The workload can be moved or replicated easily

2. Which two statements about IS-IS metrics are true? (Select two) A. The default metric style is narrow B. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 63 C. The default metric style is wide D. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 64 E. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 10

A. The default metric style is narrow E. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 10

89. Which condition must be satisfied before a Cisco router running RIP can poison a router? A. The invalid timer must expire. B. The hold down timer must expire C. The flush timer must expire D. The flush timer must reach 240 seconds E. The metric must equal! 6.

A. The invalid timer must expire

74. Which three statements about microbursts are true? (Select three) A. They can occur when chunks of data are sent in quick succession B. They occur only with UDP traffic C. They appear as input errors on an interface counter D. They appear as ignores and overruns on device buffers E. They can be monitored by IOS software F. They appear as misses and failure on device buffers

A. They can occur when chunks of data are sent in quick succession. D. They appear as ignores and overruns on device buffers E. They can be monitored by IOS software

57. What is the main function of VRF-lite? A. To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device B. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes C. To allow device to use labels to make layer 2 path decisions D. To router IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone

A. To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device

32. Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization? (Select two) A. Xen B. Docker C. KVM D. OpenStack E. DevStack

A. Xen C. KVM

33. Which option is an incorrect design consideration when deploying OSPF areas? A. area 0 - area 2-MPLS VPN super backbone - area 1 B. area 2 - area 0 MPLS VPN backbone - area 1 C. area 1 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 2 D. area I - are 0 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 0 - area 2 E. area 1-MPLS VPN backbone-area 1

A. area 0 - area 2-MPLS VPN super backbone - area 1

5. router eigrp 1 network 10.0.0.0 eigrp stub Which route types advertised by a router with this configuration? (Select two.) A. connected B. summary C. static D. redistributed E. external

A. connected B. summary

72. Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Select two) A. the forwarding information base B. the label information table C. the label forwarding information base D. the IP routing table E. the adjacency table

A. the forwarding information base C. the label forwarding information base

20. Which GDOI key is responsible for encrypting control plane traffic? A. the traffic encryption key B. the preshared key C. the key encryption key D. the key-chain

A. the traffic encryption key

52. What is the default time-out value of an ARP entry in Cisco IOS software? A. 720 minutes B. 240 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 480 minutes E. 120 minutes

B. 240 minutes

54. [Image] Which two statements about the output are true? (select two) A. BFD last failed 476ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3 B. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer C. BFD is active on interface GIgabitEthernet0/3 and is using ICMP D. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP E. BFD is active for BGP on RT1

B. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer E. BFD is active for BGP on RT1

94. [Image] While troubleshooting an issue with a blocked switch port, you find this error in the switch log. Which action should you take first to locate the problem? A. Execute the show interface command to check FastEthernet0/1 B. Check the attached switch for a BPDU filter C. Test the link for unidirectional failures D. Check the attached switch for an interface configuration issue

B. Check the attached switch for a BPDU filter

18. Which two statements about IP SLAs are true? (Select two) A. They are used primarily in the distribution layer B. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip C. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB D. Data can be collected with a physical probe E. They are layer 2 transport independent

B. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip E. They are layer 2 transport independent

67. Which three service offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Select three) A. ERMS B. EPL C. ERS D. MPLS E. EMS F. EWS

B. EPL E. EMS F. EWS

11. Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Select two) A. It is valid only on NBMA networks B. Each neighbor receives its own router ID ina hello packet from the other neighbor C. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor D. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet form the other neighbor E. It is valid only on point-to-point networks F. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor

B. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor C. Each neighbor receives and acknowledgment of its own hello packet from the other neighbor

61. [Image] What conclusion can you draw from the given ping output? A. The ping operation sent packets ranging from 505 to 1500 bytes in size B. Fragmentation failed during the ping operation. C. The packet life was exceeded in 5 percent of the operations D. The Verbose option was set in the IP header

B. Fragmentation failed during the ping operation

Which difference between IGMP snooping and PIM snooping is true? A. IGMP Snooping is a Cisco-proprietary technology, while PIM snooping is standard-based B. IGMP Snooping controls multicast traffic to multicast listeners, while PIM snooping blocks multicast traffic from multicast listeners C. IGMP Snooping replicates multicast traffic to multicast listeners, while PIM snooping blocks multicast traffic from multicast listeners D. IGMP Snooping allows traffic designed to 239.0.0.0/24 destination group only, while PIM snooping filters multicast traffic to all hosts

B. IGMP Snooping controls multicast traffic to multicast listeners, while PIM snooping blocks multicast traffic from multicast listeners

88. Which two pieces of information are returned by the show ipv6 mid snooping querier command? (Select two) A. Learned group information B. IPv6 address information MLD snooping querier configuration D. incoming interface

B. IPv6 address information D. incoming interface

16. Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true? (Select two) A. It eliminates the need for a multicast RP B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS D. It supports IGMPv3 traffic only E. It can be implemented on Layer-2 switchports using IGMP profiles

B. It can be implemented on Layer-3 routed ports using the ipigmp access-list command C. It allows Anycast RP to operate within a single AS

9. Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Select two) A. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections B. It can cause packet loss when stateful firewall is in use C. It can cause TCP connections to close D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use E. It is uncommon in large networks

B. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use

28. Which two statements about static routing are true? (Select two) A. It is highly scalable as networks grow B. It provides better security than dynamic routing C. It reduces configuration errors D. It requires less bandwidth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.

B. It provides better security than dynamic routing D. It requires less bandwidth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols

78. [Image] Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Select two) A. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60 B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops C. It prevents the device from falling back to dense mode D. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds E. It configure the router as the rendezvous point

B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops E. It configure the router as the rendezvous point

97. Which three statements about AToM are true? (Select three) A. It requires Layer 3 routing between the PE and CE router B. It supports interworking for Frame Relay, PPP, and Ethernet, but not ATM C. It requires MPLS between the PE routers D. The attachmet circuit is configured with the xconnect command E. IP CEF should be disabled in the PE routers F. The PE routers must share the same VC identifier

B. It supports interworking for Frame Relay, PPP, and Ethernet, but not ATM C. It requires MPLS between the PE routers F. The PE routers must share the same VC identifier

90. [Image] Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true? (Select two) A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter C. It supports only IPv6 flows D. It supports only IPv4 flows E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entrees

B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter D. It supports only IPv4 flows

19. [Image} Which IPv6 migration method is in use on this network? A. 6to4 tunnel B. NAT-PT C. ISATAP tunnel D. dual stack

B. NAT-PT

Which three statements about Ansible are true? (Select three) A. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSl B. No ports other than the SSH port are required; there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain C. Ansible requires remote agent software D. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH E. Ansible does not require specific SSH keys or dedicated users F. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine

B. No ports other than the SSH port are required; there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain D. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH F. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine

24. What is the main difference between GETVPN and traditional IPsec encryption techniques? A. Only GETVPN uses three types of encryption keys B. Only GETVPN uses group SA C. Only traditional IPsec uses ISAKMP for authentication D. Only traditional IPsec uses PSKs

B. Only GETVPN uses group SA

31. Which feature prevents multicast flooding to routers on a common VLAN that are not a part of the multicast distribution tree for the particular group? A. IGMP Snooping Querier B. PIM snooping C. IGMP proxy D. PIM-SM

B. PIM Snooping

27. [Image] R1 is performing mutual redistribution, but OSPF routes from R3 are unable to reach R2. Which three options are possible reasons for this behavior? (Select three) A. R1 is performing mutual redistribution, but OSPF routes from R3 are unable to reach R2 B. The RIP version supports only classful subnet masks C. R3 and R1 have the same router 1 D. R1 requires a seed metric to redistribute RIP E. R1 and R3 have an MTU mismatch F. R2 is configured to offset OSPF rotues with a metric of 16 G. R1 is filtering OSPF routes when redistributing into RIP

B. The RIP version supports only classful subnet masks D. R1 requires a seed metric to redistribute RIP E. R1 and R2 have an MTU mismatch

70. ICMP:redirect seat to 192.168.5.119 for dest 10.9.132.154, use gw 192.168.5.1 Which two conclusions can you draw from this output? (Select two) A. The packet was source-routed B. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254 C. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254 D. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254 E. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an ARP entry for the device at 10.9.132.254

B. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254 C. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254

40. In a Cisco ACL environment, which option best describes "contracts"? A. named group of related endpoints B. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups C. to determine endpoint group membership status D. a layer 3 forwarding domain

B. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups

21. What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors? (Select two) A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown C. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown E. router(config)# ip notify

B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown C. router(config-router)# shutdown

36. Drag and drop Originator ID Community Local Pref AS_path Aggregator Next-Hop BGP Well-Known mandatory attribute BGP Well-Known Discretionary attribute BGP Optional nontransitive attribute

BGP well-known mandatory attribute: AS_path Next-hop BGP well-known discretionary attribute: Local-pref BGP optional non transitive attribute originator ID

4. Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Select two.) A. Frame relay B. ATM C. AToM D. L2TPv3

C. AToM D. L2TPv3

41. [Image] Which option describes the meaning of this console message? A. An EIGRP hold timer has expired B. FastEthernet0/0 has interface errors C. An EIGRP process has been shut down D. An interface has gone down

C. An EIGRP process has been shut down

55. What are two ways DHCPv6 guard can mitigate man-in-the-midle attacks? A. An interface in the server device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers. B. An interface in the server device role can drop all DHCPv6 server messages C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers D. An interface in the server device role can use prefix-lists to filter authorized DCHP reply messages E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DCHPv6 server messages by default

C. An interface in the client device role can use ACLs to filter authorized servers E. An interface in the client device role blocks all DHCPv6 server messages by default

93. [Image] Which traffic gets set to AF41 by the marking policy on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 A. Only traffic matching access-list streaming B. No traffic gets set to AF41 C. Any traffic matching access-list tp-rooms and access-list streaming D. Only traffic matching access-list tp-rooms

C. Any traffic matching access-list tp-rooms and access-list streaming

75. Which option is the common primary use case for tools such as pupper. Chef, Ansible, and Salt? A. network function visualization B. network orchestration C. Configuration management D. Policy assurance

C. Configuration management

82. Which statement is true about trunking? A. DTP only supports auto negotiation on 802.1q and does not support auto negotiation for ISL B. Cisco switches that run PVST+do not transmit BPDUS on nonnative VLANs when using a dot1q trunk C. DTP of a point-to-point protocol D. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk, management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed in that VLAN

C. DTP of a point-to-point protocol

8. When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface? A. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network. B. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same interface C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received. D. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an IEGRP interface

C. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received

10. Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Select two) A. The service provider provisions CE devices B. It transmits broadcast traffic more efficiently than Ethernet switches. C. It uses broadcast replication to transmit Ethernet packets with multicast MAC addresses D. It enables CE devices to operate as part of an L3 VPN E. It enables CE devices on different networks to operate as if they were in the same LAN F. It enables PE and CE devices to operate as if they were routing neighbors

C. It uses broadcast replication to transmit Ethernet packets with multicast MAC addresses E. It enables CE devices on different networks to operate as if they were in routing neighbors

87. Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use A. GRE B. MPLS C. LISP D. IP-in-IP

C. LISP

64. Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of ipv6 multicast traffic on a switch? A. MLD filtering B. IGMP snooping C. MLD snooping D. IGMP filtering

C. MLD snooping

45. Which two statements about TCP MSS are true? (Select two) A. The two endpoints in a TCP connection report their MSS values to one another B. It operates at Layer 3 C. MSS values are set in TCP SYN packets D. it sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram E. It sets the minimum amount of data that a host accepts in an individual datagram

C. MSS values are sent in TCP SYN packets D. It sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram

99. [Image] Which kind of ICMPv6 packet is shown in the output? A. Neighbor advertisement B. Time exceeded C. Neighbor solicitation D. Router advertisement E. Router discovery

C. Neighbor Solicitation

101. [image] What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface? A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format B. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface D. No tunnel destination has been specified

C. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface

44. Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true? (Select two) A. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110 B. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1 C. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1 D. When and IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115 E. When EIGP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20

C. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1 E. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20

23. Which two statements about MPLS label stack encoding are true? (Select two) A. MPLS label are encoded in little-endian format B. When an MPLS label stack undergoes the swap operation, it swaps the top and bottom labels C. When a device forwards a labeled packet it must copy the TTL of the incoming label to the outgoing label D. The TTL is significant only on the top label. E. When a device forwards a labeled packet, it must copy the TTL of the outgoing label to the top label

C. When a device forwards a labeled packet it must copy the TTL of the incoming label to the outgoing label D. The TTL is significant only on the top label

85. [Image] When R2 attempted to copy a file to the TFTP server, it received this error message. When action can you take to correct the problem? A. configure the ip tftp source-interface Fa0/1 command on R2 B. configure the ip tftp source-interface Fa0/1 command R1 C. configure the ip tftp source-interface Loopback0 command on R2 D. configure the ip tftp source-interface Loopback0 command on R1 E. Change the access-list configuration on R1 to access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255

C. configure the ip tftp source-interface Loopback0 command on R2

22. Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP? A. ip pim autorp listener B. ip pim send-rp-announce C. ip pim rp-candidate D. ip pim rp-address E. ip pim send-rp-discovery

C. ip pim rp-candidate

43. Which feature must be enabled so that an IS-IS single topology can support IPv6 traffic? A. extended metrics B. adjacency checking C. new-style TLVs only D. both new-and old-style TLVs E. old-style TLVs only

C. new-style TLVs only

92. [Image] Which EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2? A. 2001:12::/64 B. 2001:112::/64,2001:12::1/64 C. 2001:112::/64, 2001: 12:1/128 D. 2001:12::1/28

D. 2001:12::1/128

65. Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers? A. decision B. receive C. forward D. update

D. update

83. Which two statements about RIPng are true? (Select two) A. IPv6 can support as many as 8 equal-cost routes B. IPv6 can support as many as 32 equal-cost routes C. A route with a metric of 15 is advertised as unreachable. D. Both inbound and outbound route filtering can be implemented on a single interface E. 16 is the maximum metric it can advertise

D. Both inbound and outbound route filtering can be implemented on a single interface E. 16 is the maximum metric it can advertise

68. [Image] How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider? A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers D. Configure OTP on the CE routers

D. Configure OTP on the CE routers

37. Which mechanism does get VPN use to preserve ip header information? A. GRE B. MPLS C. IPsec transport mode D. IPsec tunnel mode

D. IPsec tunnel mode

39. Which IPv6 first hop security feature blocks traffic sourced form ipv5 address that are outside the prefix gleaned from router advertised A. IPv6 source guard B. IPv6 DHCP guard C. IPv6 RA guard D. IPv6 prefix guard

D. IPv6 prefix guard

13. Which option is the origin code when a route is redistributed into BGP? A. IGP B. EGP C. External D. Incomplete E. Unknown

D. Incomplete

3. If you configure EIGRP redistribution on a router without specifying metric values. How the router respond? A. It assigns the lowest possible metrics B. It uses K Values to assign new metrics C. It uses the originating protocol metrics D. It fails to enter redistributed routes into the route table

D. It fails to enter redistributed routes into the route table

98. Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true? A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ABR. C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ASBR D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to the ASBR E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to the ASBR

D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to the ASBR.

6. wrr-queue cos-map 1 2 3 4 Which two statements about this CoS mapping are true? (Select two) A. It maps the first queue and first threshold to CoS2 and CoS3. B. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS2 C. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS3 D. It maps CoS values to the transmit queue threshold E. It maps the second threshold to CoS2 and CoS3

D. It maps CoS values to the transmit queue threshold. E. It maps the second threshold to CoS2 and CoS3

42. Which two statements about the various types of DevOps tools are true? (Select two) A. Chef and Puppet are much more attuned to the needs of the system administrators B. Puppet and Chef are written in Python. Python skills are a must to operate these two. C. Salt cannot communicate with clients through general SSH, it uses minions client agents only. D. Puppet requires the installation of a master (server) and agents (Clients) architecture for configuring systems E. Ansible does not require agent mode installtion and users SSH for performing all tasks

D. Puppet requires the installations of a master (server) and agents (clients) architecture for configuring systems E. Ansible does not require agent node installation and users SSH for performing all tasks

76. Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost? A. Flow control B. Sliding window C. Fast recovery D. Selective acknowledgment

D. Selective acknowledgment

63. [Image] Which statement about the effect of this configuration is true? A. the 192.168.2.1/24 network is summarized and advertised as 192.168.2.0/24 B. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the route table on R1, but it is missing from its OSPF database C. The 192.168.2.1/32 network is missing from the OSPF database and the route table on R1 D. The 192.168.2.1/32 network appears in the R1 OSPF database, but it is missing from its route table

D. The 192.168.2.1/32 appears in the R1 OSPF database, but it is missing from its route table

15. R1#sh run Building configuration... no ip icmp rate-limit unreachable To which undesirable condition can router R1 be vulnerable? A. IP address spoofing B. asymmetric routing C. man-in-the-middle attacks D. denial of service attacks E. unicast flooding

D. denial of service attacks

95. [Image] If the web server has been configured to listen only to TCP port 8080 for all HTTP requests, which command can you enter to how internet users to access the web server on HTTP port 80? A. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 10.1.1.100 8080 B. ip nat outside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 10.1.1.100 8080 C. ip nat outside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80 D. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80

D. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80

47. Which command can you enter on an interface so that the interface will notify the sender of a packet that the packet that the path is sub-optimal? A. ip nhrp record B. ip nhrp set-unique-bit C. ip nhrp shortcut D. ip nhrp redirect E. ip nhrp cost 65535

D. ip nhrp redirect

59. ip as-path access-list 1 permit ^64496_(0-9)* $ Which AS paths are matched by this access list? A. the directly attached AS 65596 and any B. the origin AS 64496 only C. the origin AS 64996 and any Ss after AS 64496 D. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 644996

D. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 64496

77. Into which pieces on information does the LISP protocol split the device identity? (Select two) A. Enterprise Identifier B. LISP ID C. Resource Location D. Device ID E. Routing Locator F. Endpoint Indentifier

E. Routing Locator F. Endpoint Indetifier

71. [Image} What are two effects of the given configuration? (Select two) A. Track object 100 goes down if Ethernet1/0 goes down B. The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 30 C. Track object 100 goes own if Ethernet1/2 goes down D. The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 40 E. Track object 100 stays up as long as both Ethernet1/0 and Ethernet1/1 are up. F. Track object 100 goes down if all three interfaces go down

E. Track object 100 stays up as long as both Ethernet1/0 and Ethernet1/1 are up F. Track object 100 goes down if all three interfaces go down

50. [Image] The OSPF adjacency between two routers cannot be established. What is the root cause of the problem? A. Both routers are designated routers B. different area ID C. mismatched OSPF network types D. authentication error E. area type mismatch

E. area type mismatch

12. What is the default console authentication method on the Cisco routers? A. local B EAPol C. open D. TACACS+ E. no authentication F. RADIUS

E. no authentication

46. Drag and drop: Has low resource usage and can be configured to send either unicast or multicast updates Has high resource usage and requires the administrator to modify routing behavior to limit the information that is sent to non-backbone levels Has high resource usage and supports a proprietary Cisco option to perform primary route calculation Has high resource usage and uses TLV to incorporate features BGP IS-IS OSPF RIPv2

RIPv2 OSPF BGP IS-IS

62. Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the right. A feasible successor is installed in the routing table, and a reply The router replies with the successor information The router replies to the query with an unreachable message The router sends a query on al interface except the interface that had the successor mute The EIGRP table is missing an entry for the route The EIGRP table lists the querying router as the successor for The querying router is the successor and no feasible successor exists The EIGRP table has a successor

The EIGRP table lists the querying router as the successor for The EIGRP table has a successor The EIGRP table is missing an entry for the route The querying router is the successor, and no feasible successor exists