CCNA 200-105

How can you tell a switch is a root bridge

- same Mac will be listed as root ID and bridge ID - all ports in FWD - no root port listed

what do we call the ports of the root bridge in RSTP? What do we call ports that lead to the root switch?

-designated ports -Root ports

What is the default VLAN on an access port?

1

What is the time to live of ospf

1 default upto 254

What is the hop count of rip?

15

What is A ping packet's starting TTL?

255, and it only goes down when it hits a router

What is the default BID priority value

32768

Access interface

A LAN network design term that refers to a switch interface connected to end-user devices, configured so that it does not use VLAN trunking.

Management Information Base (MIB)

A collection of information that is organized hierarchically and can be accessed by protocols like SNMP

Backup designated router (BDR)

A hot standby for the DR on broadcast, or multi-access links. The BDR receives routing updates from OSPF adjacent routers but does not disperse LSA protocols.

SNMP Agent

A managed device that can be queried and have parameters set by an SNMP Manager and can also send notifications of specifc events to an SNMP Manager

what does PVC stand for?

A permanent virtual circuit (PVC) is a connection that is permanently established between two or more nodes It enables the creation of a logical connection on top of a physical connection between nodes that communicate frequently or continuously.

what is poison reverse?

A router learns from its neighbor that a route is down and the router sends an update back to the neighbor with an infinite metric to that route

What is an Area System Boundary Router (ASBR)

A router that is running multiple protocols and serves as a gateway to routers outside the OSPF domain and those operating with different protocols.

The command show frame-relay map gives the following output: Serial 0 (up): ip 192.168.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.) A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router B. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface C. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC F. active indicates that the ARP process is working

A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.) A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.) A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination. B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails. C. Successor routes are flagged as 'active' in the routing table. D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route. E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination. D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.) A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Reliability D. Load E. MTU

A. Bandwidth B. Delay

What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.) A. CPU utilization B. where Netflow data will be sent C. number of devices exporting Netflow data D. port availability E. SNMP version F. WAN encapsulation

A. CPU utilization B. where Netflow data will be sent C. number of devices exporting Netflow data

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers? A. IETF B. ANSI Annex D C. Q9333-A Annex A D. HDLC

A. IETF

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.) A. It converges quickly. B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol. C. It uses cost to determine the best route. D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route. E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers. F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

A. It converges quickly. C. It uses cost to determine the best route. F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.) A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA. B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance. C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID. D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID. E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA. D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.

Which feature does PPP use to encapsulate multiple protocols? A. NCP B. LCP C. IPCP D. IPXP

A. NCP

What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA? A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication. B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet. C. Only RADIUS uses TCP. D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.

A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.

Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.) A. PPP B. WAP C. DSL D. L2TPv3 E. Ethernet

A. PPP C. DSL

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.) A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.) A. The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router. B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval. C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication. D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN. E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN. F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

A. The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router. B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval. F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.) A. To identify applications causing congestion B. To authorize user network access C. To report and alert link up / down instances D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service

A. To identify applications causing congestion D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service

Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.) A. autonomous system number B. version number C. router ID D. subnet mask E. IP address

A. autonomous system number E. IP address

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.) A. discarding B. listening C. learning D. forwarding E. disabled

A. discarding D. forwarding

Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.) A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces C. congestion on the switch inband path D. a failing NIC in an end device E. an overloaded shared segment

A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN E. an overloaded shared segment

What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic? A. flow monitor B. flow record C. flow sampler D. flow exporter

A. flow monitor

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.) A. no broadcast B. change of source address in the IPv6 header C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header D. Telnet access does not require a password E. autoconfig F. NAT

A. no broadcast E. autoconfig

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.) A. reduced cost B. better throughput C. broadband incompatibility D. increased security E. scalability F. reduced latency

A. reduced cost D. increased security E. scalability

What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.) A. source IP address B. source MAC address C. egress interface D. ingress interface E. destination IP address F. IP next-hop

A. source IP address D. ingress interface E. destination IP address

Which WAN technology is capable of transferring voice and video traffic by utilizing a fixed payload of 48 bytes for every frame?

ATM

What the difference between Access-Group and Access-Class?

Access-group applies an ACL to an interface Access-class applies the ACL to your vty (virtual terminal)

What is the Active (HSRP) State of HSRP?

Active (HSRP)-The router currently forward packets that are sent to the group virtual MAC address. The router sends periodic Hello messages. At most, one router in active state in the group.

What is 224.0.0.6 used for?

AllDRouters: Used to send OSPF messages to all OSPF DRs (the DR and the BDR) on the same network. All OSPF routers except the DR use this address when sending Link State Update and Link State Acknowledgment packets to the DR.

What is 224.0.0.5 used for?

AllSPFRouters: Used to send OSPF messages to all OSPF routers on the same network. The AllSPFRouters address is used for Hello packets. The DR and BDR use this address to send Link State Update and Link State Acknowledgment packets.

What are the core components of Cisco's ACI architecture?

Application Network Profile (APN) Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) Nexus 9000 Switches

AAA

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting.

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router? A. 2 B. 4 C. 16 D. unlimited

B. 4

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.) A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake. B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake. C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment. D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext. E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment. F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake. C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.

What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user? A. Configure server traps. B. Configure the server group. C. Configure the server host. D. Configure the remote engine ID.

B. Configure the server group.

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.) A. A new switch has no VLANs configured. B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.) A. Disable Inverse ARP. B. Create a full-mesh topology. C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces. D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces. E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.

B. Create a full-mesh topology. D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.

A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group. B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members. C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors. D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers. E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers. F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members. D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers. E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.

What is the advantage of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology? A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols. B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting. C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations. D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility over point-to-point configurations.

B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.) A. It requires the use of ARP. B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link. D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

Which statement describes VRRP object tracking? A. It monitors traffic flow and link utilization. B. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group. C. It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links. D. It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

B. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.

Which statement about MPLS is true? A. It operates in Layer 1. B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3. C. It operates in Layer 3. D. it operates in Layer 2.

B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.) A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area. B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated. C. It removes the need for virtual links. D. It increases LSA response times. E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacency.

B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated. C. It removes the need for virtual links.

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection? A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut

B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut

What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance? A. SNMP B. Netflow C. WCCP D. IP SLA

B. Netflow

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms? A. HDLC B. PPP C. X.25 D. Frame Relay

B. PPP

Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding stated? A. BPDU guard B. PortFast C. loop guard D. UDLD E. Uplink Fast

B. PortFast

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.) A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states. D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

B. RSTP defines new port roles. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.) A. Router(config)# router ospf 0 B. Router(config)# router ospf 1 C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0 D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0 E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1 E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface? A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap

B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap

Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access? A. SNMPv3 with RBAC B. SNMPv3 C. SNMPv1 D. SNMPv2

B. SNMPv3

What can cause two OSPF neighbors to be stuck in the EXSTART state? A. There is a low bandwidth connection between neighbors. B. The neighbors have different MTU settings. C. The OSPF interfaces are in a passive state. D. There is only layer one connectivity between neighbors.

B. The neighbors have different MTU settings.

What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.) A. They create split-horizon issues. B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain. C. They emulate leased lines. D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies. E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain. C. They emulate leased lines.

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops? A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport

B. data link

Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client? A. Ethernet B. dialer C. serial D. Frame Relay

B. dialer

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state? A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state

It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three) A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network. B. remove the ip address from the physical interface C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP

B. remove the ip address from the physical interface C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address

Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link? A. show frame-relay lmi B. show frame-relay map C. show frame-relay pvc D. show interfaces serial

B. show frame-relay map

What is the purpose of LCP? A. to perform authentication B. to negotiate control options C. to encapsulate multiple protocols D. to specify asynchronous versus synchronous

B. to negotiate control options

How is the bridge ID (BID) Calculated

BID is a combination of 2 bytes priority value and 6 byte Mac address

What does OSPF use for Cost calculation?

Bandwidth

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) Router(config)# router ospf 1 A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID. B. Only one process number can be used on the same router. C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535. E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing? A. It prioritizes routing protocol traffic. B. It remarks traffic that is below the CIR C. It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR. D. It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.

C. It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR. (committed information rate)

What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status? A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table. B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers. C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network. D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies. 0

C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.

What is one benefit of PVST+? A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN. D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.

What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.) A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode. B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally. C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received. D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode. E. VTP client is the default VTP mode. F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.

C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received. F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor? A. a backup route, stored in the routing table B. a primary route, stored in the routing table C. a backup route, stored in the topology table D. a primary route, stored in the topology table

C. a backup route, stored in the topology table

Which type of topology is required by DMVPN? A. ring B. full mesh C. hub-and-spoke D. partial mesh

C. hub-and-spoke

What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration? A. show frame-relay pvc B. show frame-relay lmi C. show frame-relay map D. show frame relay end-to-end

C. show frame-relay map

What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line? A. show ip flow export B. show ip flow top-talkers C. show ip cache flow D. show mls sampling E. show mls netflow ip

C. show ip cache flow

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm

SNMP Manager

Can query managed devices for information, set specific parameters on the managed devices, and receive notifications sent by the managed devices.

what does ISR stand for?

Cisco Integrated Service Routers (ISR) Generation 2 (ISR G2) improve on Cisco's range of "branch office routers" by integrating multiple network services into a single platform and providing services that previously required additional hardware to run. Commonly used to add wifi to a router.

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

Cisco Proprietary that provides a redundant gateway for hosts on a local subnet

TACACS+

Cisco proprietary. TCP Multiprotocol support. Cisco prefers this over RADIUS (More Secure)

What is Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)?

Cisco's proprietary port channel negotiation protocol that automatically aids in creation of EtherChannel Links

IEEE 802.1D

Common Spanning Tree; Slow, but requires little bridge resources

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded? A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible. B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent. C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent. D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change? A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch. B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance. C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch. D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

Which option is a benefit of switch stacking? A. It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage. B. It simplifies adding and removing hosts. C. It supports better performance of high-needs applications. D. It provides higher port density with better resource usage.

D. It provides higher port density with better resource usage. Explanation: A stackable switch is a network switch that is fully functional operating standalone but which can also be set up to operate together with one or more other network switches, with this group of switches showing the characteristics of a single switch but having the port capacity of the sum of the combined switches.

Which statement about DTP is true? A. It uses the native VLAN. B. It negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured. C. It uses desirable mode by default. D. It sends data on VLAN 1.

D. It sends data on VLAN 1.

What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks? A. Ping the loopback address. B. Ping the default gateway. C. Ping the local interface address. D. Ping the remote network.

D. Ping the remote network.

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information? A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency B. Router# show ip eigrp topology C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors

D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC STATUS = INACTIVE". What does this mean? A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more than five minutes. B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the remote router. C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router. D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC. E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.

What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command? A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202 B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202 C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. show ip ospf link-state B. show ip ospf lsa database C. show ip ospf neighbors D. show ip ospf database

D. show ip ospf database

What is the purpose of Inverse ARP? A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address D. to map a known DLCI to an IP address E. to map a known IP address to a SPID F. to map a known SPID to a MAC address

D. to map a known DLCI to an IP address

What is DCE?

DCE (data circuit-terminating equipment) is a device that sits between the data terminal equipment (DTE) and a data transmission circuit. It is also called data communication(s) equipment and data carrier equipment. (Think Modem/Router)

What is DTE?

DTE (Data terminal equipment) is an end instrument that converts user information into signals or reconverts received signals. (Think computer)

HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) Hello interval

Default is 3 seconds

What are the 802.11D (IEEE spanning tree) states?

Disabled, blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding

What are the 802.11w (MSTP) states?

Discarding, learning, and forwarding

What is DMVPN?

Dynamic Multipoint VPN: DMVPN is a Cisco proprietary solution for building many VPNs in an easy, dynamic, and scalable manner. DMVPNs allow the network administrator to dynamically form hub-to-spoke tunnels and spoke-to-spoke tunnels

What is DTP

Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP)

The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command? A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode. B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data. C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information. D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations. E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Refer to the exhibit. ------------------------ R1# show frame-relay map Sserial0/0 (up): ip 172.16.3.1 dlci 100 (0x64, 0x1840), dynamic, breoadcast, status defined, active ------------------------ What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame- relay map command shown? A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic. B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP

E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP

Which statement is true about NCP?

Each network protocol has a corresponding Network Control Program (NCP).

Designated router (DR)

Elected whenever OSPF routers are connected to the same broadcast network to minimize the number adjacencies formed and to publicize received routing information to and from the remaining routers on the broadcast network or link

What is Holddown timer?

For a given period, this causes the router to ignore any updates with poorer metrics to a lost network

What is GRE

Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) is a tunneling protocol developed by Cisco Systems that can encapsulate a wide variety of network layer protocols inside virtual point-to-point links over an Internet Protocol network.

Cisco Prime

Graphical user interface (GUI) software that utilizes SNMP and can be used to manage your Cisco network devices. The term Cisco Prime is an "umbrella" term that encompasses many different individual software products.

What does HDLC stand for?

HDLC (High-level Data Link Control) is a group of protocols or rules for transmitting data between network points (sometimes called nodes).

What are the STP timers set to by default

Hello 2 sec Forward delay (listening 15/learning 15) 30 sec Max age 20 sec

What protocols run on the application layer?

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Network File System (NFS)

What is Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)?

IEEE standard. A network specification that enables the bundling of several physical ports together to form a single logical Etherchannel.

RADIUS

IEEE. UDP Encrypts only the password in the access-request packet from the client to the server

What are two common types of circuit-switched WAN technologies?

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) PSTN (public switched telephone network)

IaaS

Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) Provides off-site server, storage, networking hardware which are rented and accessed over the internet

what are the HSRP states?

Initial (INIT), Learn, Listen, Speak, Standby, Active

What is the Initial (INIT) State of HSRP?

Initial (INIT)-State at the start and indicates that HSRP does not run

What is an ISDN Internet connection type?

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a set of communication standards for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network services over the traditional circuits of the public switched telephone network.

What is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?

It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.

When is it appropriate to use BGP?

It is appropriate to use BGP when an autonomous system is multihomed, or has more than one connection to another autonomous system or to the Internet. BGP is not appropriate for single-homed autonomous systems.

what is IEEE 802.1x?

It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN Think: RADIUS/ TACACS+

What are Southbound APIs used for in SDN?

It uses southbound APIs to define the behavior of the downstream virtual switches and routers.

What is Experimental (EXP) and what layer is it found?

Layer 2

What is the Learn (HSRP) State of HSRP?

Learn (HSRP)-The router has not determined the virtual IP address and has not yet seen an authenticated Hello message from the active router

What is the Listen (HSRP) State of HSRP?

Listen (HSRP)-The router knows the virtual IP address, but the router is neither the active router nor the standby router. It listens for Hello messages from those routers.

HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) active timer

Monitors the state of the active router. Rests each time a router in the standby group receives a Hello packet from the active router

IEEE 802.1s

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP). Maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance to save processing on the switch

What does MPLS stand for?

Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

NaaS

Network as a service (NaaS) off site servers used for remote connections. Billed per use

Which group of APIs are used by an SDN controller to communicate with various applications?

Northbound APOs

Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)

On a Cisco router the version of HDLC used is proprietary. Therefore, with a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router, PPP should be used. Of the two authentication types that PPP supports (PAP and CHAP), CHAP is more secure.

Which statement describes the difference between CHAP and PAP in PPP authentication?

PAP uses a two-way handshake method and CHAP uses a three-way handshake method.

Which communication protocol allows the creation of a tunnel through the DSL connection between the customer router and the ISP router to send PPP frames?

PPPoE, Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet, creates a tunnel through the DSL connection for the purpose of transmitting serial data up and down a wide frequency band and allows multiple subscribers connected to the network to transmit and receive concurrently.

SNMPv1

Plaintext authentication and uses UDP

SNMPv2

Plaintext authentication with community strings with no encryption. Provides GET BULK. Detailed error message with INFORM, uses UDP

PaaS

Platform as a Service (PaaS) Offers services for developing and deploying applications over the Internet, such as virtualized servers and Operating Systems

What does the protocol PPP stand for?

Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

RSPAN depends on which type of VLAN?

RSPAN VLAN Remote SPAN (RSPAN) allows source and destination ports to be in different switches. RSPAN uses two sessions. One session is used as the source and one session is used to copy or receive the traffic from a VLAN. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over trunk links in a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated (for that RSPAN session) in all participating switches.

IEEE 802.1w

Rapid STP. Enhanced the BPDU exchange and paved the way for much faster network convergence, but it still allows for one root bridge per network like CST. The bridge resources used with RSTP are higher than CST but less than PVST+

what is RTP?

Reliable Transport Protocol

In STP how is the root bridge determined

Root bridge is determined by the lowest Bridge Identification (BID)

what contains EIGRP's routing updates in an area?

Routing updates are always exchange between the same EIGRP autonomous systems.

What does the protocol SLIP stand for?

Serial Line Internet Protocol

SaaS

Software as a Service (SaaS) Provides applications hosted on a remote server and accessed over the Internet

What is an SDN controller?

Software defined networking (SDN) controller is a network architecture developed to virtualize the network. SDN moves the control plane from each network device to a central network controller. The SDN controller uses northbound APIs to communicate with the upstream applications. It also uses southbound APIs to define the behavior of the downstream virtual switches and routers.

What is the Speak (HSRP) State of HSRP?

Speak (HSRP)-The router sends periodic Hello messages and actively participates in the election of the active and/or standby router. A router cannot enter speak state unless the router has the virtual IP address

HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) Hold timer

Specifies the interval the standby router uses to determine whether the active router is offline or out of communication. Default is 10 seconds

what is the range for Extended and Standard ACLS?

Standard ACL 1-99 and 1300-1999 Extended ACL 100-199 and 2000-2699

What is the Standby (HSRP) State of HSRP?

Standby (HSRP)-The router is a candidate to become the next active router and sends periodic Hello messages

SNMPv3

Supports strong authentication with MD5 or SHA. Provides encryption and data integrity of messages via DES or DES-256 encryption. GET BULK, uses TCP.

what does SPAN stand for?

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

What do ADSL and SDSL stand for and which provides higher downstream bandwidth to the user than upload bandwidth?

Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) Asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL) ADSL provides higher downstream bandwidth to the user than upload bandwidth. SDSL provides the same capacity in both directions.

This layer provides a user interface and processes network data. This layer on the sending host produces the network data to be transmitted from the sender host. This layer on the receiving host consumes the network data produced and transmitted by the sender host. What Layer is it?

The Application layer (7) The CCNA exam requires knowledge of the OSI reference model's application layer. This layer represents the various network applications such as e-mail reader, Web browser, Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Network File System (NFS).

What is an IP SLA?

The Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) feature is a useful tool to discover a network failure. Network administrators use IP SLAs to simulate network data and IP services to collect network performance information in real time. The results can help network administrators detect signs of network issues in the early stages.

This layer transmits the data on the physical medium. This layer routes the data locally on the physical network medium. Also uses physical addresses assigned to each physical network device in the local network to route data from one physical device to another. This layer receives each packet from the network layer on the sending host and wraps it up in a data frame along with local routing data. Sends each data frame down to the physical layer to code an electrical or optical signal to transmit the data frame over a wire or over the air (wireless transmission). On the receiving host, this layer unwraps the data frame received to extract the packet and sends it up to the network layer.

The Data Link Layer (2) The CCNA exam has extensive coverage of data routing. Data routing is handled by the data link layer of the OSI.

This layer chooses the best route to send packets between hosts. This layer assigns logical addresses to all devices in the network to be able to identify each source host and each destination host, as well as each network through which packets need to be routed. This layer receives each data segment from the transport layer on the sending host and wraps it up in a data packet along with routing data. The packet is sent down to the data link layer to send it over the network physical medium. on the receiving host, this layer unwraps the packet received to extract the data segment and sends it up to the transport layer.

The Network Layer (3) The CCNA exam covers data packets; the network layer routes data packets across networks that link the sending and the receiving host.

this layer defines mechanical, electrical, optical, radio, procedural, and functional standards to enable the transmission of data-link (Layer 2) frames over a certain transmission medium. These standards define how a physical link is built, activated, maintained, and deactivated to enable transmissions between DTE (data terminal equipment) and DCE (data communications equipment). DTEs are host devices. DCEs are network devices, that is, any device that stands between two host devices.

The Physical layer (1) This layer provides the electrical, optical, or over-the-air connection between the sending host device and the receiving host device. This typically involves copper or fiber-optic cabling, or wireless radio connections, patch panels, signal repeaters, submarine cables, or satellites.

This layer on the sending host receives the data payload from the application layer. This layer on the sending host converts the data into a format that is easily transportable over the network. This layer on the receiving host converts the data from the network format back to its native format that can be easily interpreted, used, and displayed by the application layer above. What layer is it?

The Presentation Layer (6) As you prepare for the CCNA exam, the presentation layer is mostly concerned with data format. It converts the data between different formats so that both the sender and the receiver can use heterogeneous data. For example, mail messages contain various data formats: text, application attachments, video, audio, and graphical signature.

This layer opens and maintains logical communication channels between network applications running on the sending host and network applications running on the receiving host. This layer handles authentication: Some network applications use authentication mechanisms before they open a logical communication channel (session) with a remote host. What layer is it?

The Session Layer (5) As a certified CCNA, you'll work in communications between applications. Some applications need to open logical communication channels between the computer hosts. Logical communication channels (sessions) maintain data about the communication established between the network application running on the sending host and the network application running on the receiving host.

Root port

The link with the lowest path cost to the root bridge

What is an LSA?

The packets flooded when a topology change occurs, causing network routers to update their topological databases and recalculate routes

What is a toll network?

The toll network contains communication equipment that is used to span the WAN provider network.

This layer slices up the data to be transmitted into small chunks called data segments that can be easily sent over the network medium. this layer reassembles the data in order on the receiving host: --Some transport protocols send the segments in order. --Other protocols, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), send the data segments in any order and reassemble them in the correct order on the receiving host. this layer provides some error-detection mechanisms. What layer is it?

The transport layer (4) On the CCNA exam, you'll work with hosts. The transport layer manages the transport of data between two hosts communicating over a network.

What are two benefits of using SNMP traps?

They reduce the load on network and agent resources. They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests.

What is Split Horizon?

This prevents sending information about a routeback out the same interface that originally learned about the route

What can APIC-EM's Path Trace ACL Analysis tool be used for?

To test ACL's on imaginary packets

What does VTP stand for?

VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)

Which type of long distance telecommunication technology provides point-to-point connections and cellular access?

WiMax towers are capable of connection to other WiMax towers by means of line-of-sight microwave links or they can provide cellular access to devices.

what is an Area Border Router (ABR)

a kind of router that is located near the border between one or more Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) areas.

How do network administrators use IP SLAs to monitor a network and to detect a network failure early?

by simulating network data and IP services to collect network performance data in real time

What does CO stand for?

central office (CO), also known as the point of presence (POP), houses the service provider equipment

What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked?

classifying

what does DTE stand for?

data terminal equipment (DTE) are commonly located at the customer site.

Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

deny ipv6 any any permit icmp any any nd-na permit icmp any any nd-ns

What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)

encapsulation errors framing errors

What are Northbound APIs used for in SDN?

he SDN controller uses northbound APIs to communicate with the upstream applications.

what layer does PPP function at?

layer 2

Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit?

private infrastructure packet-switched

What is the command to get STP details

show spanning-tree vlan

Which IoT pillar provides the infrastructure for application mobility?

the application enablement platform​ pillar* Providing the infrastructure for application hosting and application mobility between cloud and fog computing is the function of the application enablement platform pillar.

Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command? (Choose two.)

the type of cable that is connected to the interface. the status of the physical layer of the interface

How can you disable DTP but still form a trunk on a switch port?

using the switchport nonegotiate command This setting, forces the port to be a trunk but disables DTP frames between the two switches.