CCNA 200-301
37. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 115
90
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts
A, Input Errors D, CRC
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped? A. Device(config)#lldp run B. Device(config)#cdp run C. Device(config-if)#cdp enable D. Device(config)#flow-sampler-map topology
A. Device(config)#lldp run
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled. B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated. C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.
A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.
28. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged. B. It drops the traffic. C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN. D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.
A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
8. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two) A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity. C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up. E. It supports protocol discovery.
A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. E. It uses the default administrative distance. F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. E. It uses the default administrative distance.
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response? A. management B. protected frame C. action D. control
A. Management
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two ) A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF C. Thrift D. CORBA E. DSC
A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment? A. Platinum B. Bronze C. Gold D. Silver
A. Platinum
1. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) A. reduced operational costs B. reduced hardware footprint C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security
A. Reduced operational costs C. Faster changes with more reliable results
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.) A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
13. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch. C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. D. A console password must be configured on the switch. E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.
A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90 F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network
A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.) A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts
A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.) A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing
A. asychronous routing C. dual-homed branches
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching
A. broadband cable access
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable Band Select B. enable DTIM C. enable RX-SOP D. enable AAA override
A. enable Band Select
2. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? A. ip address dhcp B. ip helper-address C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp client
A. ip address dhcp
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.) A. to enable intra-enterprise communication B. to implement NAT C. to connect applications D. to conserve global address space E. to manage routing overhead
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication D. to conserve global address space
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101
B. 11111100
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24
B. 172.28.0.0/16
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6 to 4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control? A. Authorization provides access control, and authentication tracks user services B. Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control D. Authorization identifies users, and authentication provides access control
B. Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services
Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.) A. Comply with PCI regulations B. Conserve IPv4 address C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach E. Comply with local law
B. Conserve IPv4 address D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach
8. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It enables BPDU messages B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state
B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
31. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI. B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. C. It moves the control plane to a central point. D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions. E. It uses Telnet to report system issues. Correct Answer: BCSection: Automation and Programmability
B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. C. It moves the control plane to a central point.
10. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two) A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center E. modular design that is upgradable as needed
B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
19. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? A. CDP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. ARP
B. SNMP
What is difference between RADIUS and TACACS+? A. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands. B. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them. C. TACACS+ encrypts only password information, and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload. D. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication.
B. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking. C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.
39. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame. B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding C. The data can pass through the cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
9. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication? A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.
B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224
B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
7. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch? A. enable secret B. service password-encryption C. username Cisco password encrypt D. enable password
B. service password-encryption
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. link-local B. unique local C. multicast D. global unicast
B. unique local
5. Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.) A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
36. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex D. when Carriner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions? A. 5, 6, 7 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 6, 11 D. 1, 5, 10
C. 1, 6, 11
A corporate office uses four floors in a building.✑ Floor 1 has 24 users.✑ Floor 2 has 29 users.✑ Floor 3 has 28 users.Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
27. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization? A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password. C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform. D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.
C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
23. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost. D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric.
C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only
C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. C. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
C. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface condition? (Choose two.) A. There is a protocol mismatch B. There is a duplex mismatch C. The interface is shut down D. The interface is error-disabled E. There is a speed mismatch
C. The interface is shut down D. The interface is error-disabled
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count
C. administrative distance
3. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface? A. explicitly assign a link-local address B. disable the EUI-64 bit process C. enable SLAAC on an interface D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
C. enable SLAAC on an interface
34. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. sniffer B. mesh C. flexconnect D. local
C. flexconnect
14. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outsdwde local C. inside global D. inside local E. outside public F. inside public
C. inside global
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A. start of frame delimiter B. Type field C. preamble D. Data field
C. preamble
Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2? D 192.168.16.0/26 [90/2679326] via 192.168.1.1 R 192.16.16.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.1.2 O 192.168.16.0/21 [110/3] via 192.168.1.3 i L1 192.168.16.0 [115/3] via 192.168.1.4 A. 192.168.16.0/21 B. 192.168.16.0/24 C. 192.168 26.0/26 D. 192.168.16.0/27
D. 192.168.16.0/27
17. In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
2. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? A. TKIP with RC4 B. RC4 C. AES-128 D. AES-256
D. AES-256
25. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure the version of SSH. B. Configure VTY access. C. Create a user with a password. D. Assign a DNS domain name.
D. Assign a DNS domain name.
1. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two) A. runts B. giants C. frame D. CRC E. input errors
D. CRC E. input errors
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth. B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. C. It provides variable latency. D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12
D. FF00::/12
43. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8
D. FF00::/8
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8
D. FF00::/8
4. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode? A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC B. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP C. FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC D. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured
D. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured
30. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs. D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.16.143 255.255.255.240 Bad mask /28 for address 192.168.16.143 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received? A. It belongs to a private IP address range. B. The router does not support /28 mask. C. It is a network IP address. D. It is a broadcast IP address.
D. It is a broadcast IP address.
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It immediately enables the port in the listening state. B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded. C. It enables BPDU messages. D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
16. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table. B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path. D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.
D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.
How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active". B. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured. D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down. B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs. C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol. C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
22. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
ip arp inspection vlan 5-10 interface fastethernet 0.1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 5 What is the effect of this configuration? A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch. B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted. D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
Which two conditions must be met before SSH operates normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two.) A. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. B. A console password must be configured on the switch. C. Telnet must be disabled on the switch. D. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. E. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.
D. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. E. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses? A. multicast B. unique local C. link-local D. global unicast
D. global unicast
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
29. An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
D. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic
D. ip address dhcp
11. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.Which type of security program is in place? A. Physical access control B. Social engineering attack C. brute force attack D. user awareness
D. user awareness
What are the differences between FTP and TFTP?
FTP uses ports 20 and 21 Provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up Uses TCP TFTP uses port 69 does not require user authentication uses UDP
35. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two) A. YAML B. JSON C. EBCDIC D. SGML E. XML
JSON/XML
6. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. global unicast B. unique local C. link-local D. multicast
Unique local
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments? A. runt B. collision C. late collision D. CRC
c. late collision
