CCS MOCK EXAM...2
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism that causes tuberculosis (TB), typically a respiratory disorder. It is currently experiencing resurgence in the United States and many other countries. What is the average time frame in which all patients with new, previously untreated TB must have daily antibiotic therapy? 4-7 years 6-12 months 4-7 days 6-9 weeks
6-12 months The bacterium is difficult to kill because Mycobacteria divide asymmetrically, generating a population of cells that grow at different rates, have different sizes, and differ in how susceptible they are to antibiotics, increasing the chances that at least some will survive.
A 57-year-old male patient is having his annual physical. Due to a family history of coronary artery disease and his sedentary lifestyle, his doctor orders a total blood cholesterol panel. What is the optimal level of total cholesterol in the blood for adults? >500 mg/dL 200-239 mg/dL 300-339 mg/dL < 200 mg/dL
< 200 mg/dL A cholesterol test will measure the total cholesterol in the blood, and total cholesterol levels are made up of a combination of the LDL, HDL, and VLDL (very low density lipoprotein, another "bad" cholesterol) levels. A total cholesterol score of 200 mg/dL or lower is considered optimal. Levels above 200 mg/dL are considered high and can mean a person is at greater risk for developing heart disease.
Which of the following statements BEST summarizes the current status of cervical cancer? Over 99% of cases are linked to long-term HPV infections. Early detection and treatment of cervical cancer do not improve patient survival rates. All stages have extremely high cure rates. A new three-shot vaccination series protects against the types of HPV that cause most cervical cancer cases.
A new three-shot vaccination series protects against the types of HPV that cause most cervical cancer cases. The HPV vaccines protect against the most common strains associated with causing cervical cancer. Higher stages of any type of cancer have lower cure rates; 85-90% of cervical cancers are HPV-related; early detection and treatment increase survival rates.
Which of the following is a liver function test? AST (SGOT) TSH BUN ECG
AST (SGOT An aspartate aminotransferase (AST) test measures the amount of this enzyme in the blood, which is normally found in red blood cells, liver, heart, muscle tissue, pancreas, and kidneys. AST formerly was called serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT). Low levels of AST are normally found in the blood. When body tissue or an organ such as the heart or liver is diseased or damaged, additional AST is released into the bloodstream. Electrocardiogram (ECG) measures and evaluates the heartbeat. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) tests kidney function. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) checks the functions of the thyroid.
Part of a coder's job is to comply with Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations. The best way(s) to do this is/are to attend industry conventions and webinars. read updates from the Office of Civil Rights (OCR). ensure you earn your Continuing Education Units. All of these are good.
All of these are good. All of these are great ways to ensure your knowledge and skills are up to date.
Why are there "black box warnings" on antidepressant medications regarding children and adolescents? Dosage requirements must be significantly higher in children and adolescents compared to adults. Antidepressants interfere with physiological growth patterns in children and adolescents. Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in some children and adolescents. There is no established medical need for treatment of depression in children and adolescents.
Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in some children and adolescents. Children's metabolism is different from adults. In several cases, certain medications have the opposite effect from adults when used in children.
____________ is the most common type of skin cancer, and _________ is the most deadly type of skin cancer. Squamous cell carcinoma, oat cell carcinoma Oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma Basal cell carcinoma occurs from ultraviolet waves from sun exposure (or tanning beds) and is easily treatable. Melanoma arises from the melanin cells and is typically found at later stages increasing the risk of metastasis and death. Oat cell carcinomas are typically lung-based tumors, and squamous cell skin cancers are the second most common type of skin cancer.
Coronary arteries may become blocked, either partially or totally, due to atherosclerosis and lead to an AMI. Which of the following procedures would be used to improve the coronary blood flow by building an alternate route for the blood to bypass the blockage by inserting a portion of another blood vessel, typically the saphenous vein? CABG cardiac catheterization carotid endarterectomy PTCA
CABG CABG = coronary artery bypass graft: using a piece of a different vein, attached to the coronary artery above and below the blockage, to provide an alternate pathway for the blood to flow. Cardiac catheterization is the insertion of a tube into the vein or artery of groin, neck, and eased through to the coronary arteries to evaluate functioning. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a process that opens up a blocked artery, and a carotid endarterectomy is the removal of the fat plaque that has built up inside the carotid artery.
Which of the following pieces of equipment records the electrical activity of the brain? ECG EEG EKG EMG
EEG EEG = electroencephalogram, which maps the electric activity of the brain. Both ECG and EKG (electrocardiogram) measure the electrical activity of the heart, and EMG (electromyogram) measures the electrical activity of and nervous transmission to muscles.
The federal agency that is responsible for protecting the public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, and medical devices; and by ensuring the safety of our nation's food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation is the FDA. DHS. NIH. HHS.
FDA The National Institute of Health is the nation's medical research agency making important discoveries that improve health and save lives. The Department of Health and Human Services' mission is to enhance the health and well-being of all Americans, by providing for effective health and human services and by fostering sound, sustained advances in the sciences underlying medicine, public health, and social services. The Department of Homeland Security's mission is to secure the nation from the many threats faced to include aviation and border security to emergency response, from cybersecurity analyst to chemical facility inspector in order to keep America safe.
Genital warts are caused by HIV. HPV. VZV. HAV.
HPV. Human papilloma virus causes genital warts and approximately 80% of all cervical cancers. HAV is the hepatitis A virus (responsible for infectious hepatitis). VZV is the varicella-zoster virus (responsible for chicken pox). HIV is human immunodeficiency virus (responsible for AIDS).
The patient's pathology report revealed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. This is indicative of Hodgkin's disease. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. leukemia. sarcoma.
Hodgkin's disease Reed-Sternberg cells are multinucleated giant cells and are only found in Hodgkin's lymphoma. Hodgkin's disease is based on abnormal lymphocytes in the lymph nodes, usually identified by an enlarged node in the neck. Leukemias deal with abnormal white blood cells, and sarcomas arise from connective tissue. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma involves B-lymphocytes and involves multiple nodes around the body.
Which disease is a malignancy of the lymphatic system? cystic fibrosis Von Willebrand's disease Hodgkin's disease neutropenia
Hodgkin's disease Typically referred to as Hodgkin's lymphoma, this neoplastic condition occurs when the lymphocytes of the immune system mutate, lose differentiation, and grow at an uncontrolled rate. Cystic fibrosis is a congenital condition affecting the lungs mostly. Neutropenia is a low level of white blood cells that fight off bacterial infections. Von Willebrand's disease is a congenital condition, which lacks clotting factors in the blood, similar to hemophilia.
Which of the following is a hereditary disease of the cerebral cortex that includes progressive muscle spasticity and mental impairment leading to dementia? Lou Gehrig's disease Huntington's disease Bell's palsy Guillain-Barré syndrome
Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a genetic, progressive, neurodegenerative condition that causes involuntary muscle movements, and progressive deterioration of cognition and memory. Bell's palsy is a paralysis of facial muscle, usually one-sided; amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is Lou Gehrig's syndrome, a progressive muscle-wasting condition; Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute demyelinating condition with ascending paralysis of all limbs.
The HPV vaccine, Gardasil, is recommended for all children/young adults between the ages of 9 and 26 years. Initially, it was a quadrivalent vaccine. What is the definition of quadrivalent? It is administered in a series of four shots over a 6-month period. It reduces the risk of infection by four times. It must be administered every 4 years to be effective. It prevents infection from the four most prevalent types of HPV that cause cervical cancer.
It prevents infection from the four most prevalent types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. Gardasil is a four-way vaccine that protects against the two HPV strains that cause most cervical cancers as well as the two HPV strains that cause most genital warts.
Many bacterial diseases are transmitted directly from person to person. Which of the diseases listed next is a bacterial disease transmitted by way of a tick vector? Legionnaires' disease tuberculosis Lyme disease tetanus
Lyme disease Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is carried by deer ticks (Ixodes scapularis). Legionnaires' disease is a specific type of pneumonia and is caused by Legionella bacteria. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, a fatal central nervous system disorder, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes the potentially fatal respiratory disease of tuberculosis.
Which of the following is a severe, chronic, two-phased, bacterial respiratory infection that has become increasingly difficult to treat because many antibiotics are no longer effective against it? MRSA SARS MDR-TB H1N1
MDR-TB TB has always been difficult to treat because of the nature of the bacterium, but recent strains have developed resistance to many of the antibiotics used to treat it. SARS and H1N1 influenza are both caused by different viruses, and MRSA is a severe skin infection.
A rare but serious complication of COVID-19 that has become more prevalent and is a condition that affects children and adults where different body parts, including the heart, lungs, kidneys, brain, skin, and/or gastrointestinal organs become inflamed is termed PCP. TB. COPD. MIS.
MIS. MIS Multisystem inflammatory syndrome. COPD (chronic obstructive lung disease) is a group of chronic progressive degenerative lung conditions. Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious pulmonary disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is a common pulmonary complication of AIDS.
A common skin infection from a bacteria that is spherical in shape, grows in clumps, has become resistant to an entire class of antibiotics and is a major concern particularly in health care institutions is PTCA. MRSA. SARS. CABG.
MRSA Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is a strain of a common skin bacterium that is difficult to treat and has become a nosocomial infection in many facilities. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a common cardiac procedure repair of a cardiac vessel. CABG is a coronary artery bypass graft used to go around a blocked artery of the heart. SARS is a viral infection caused by a coronavirus in 2003.
A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand is a characteristic symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Parkinson's disease. myasthenia gravis. epilepsy.
Parkinson's disease. In PD, dopamine levels are too low that cause involuntary muscle movements, referred to as tremors. Typically tremors start in the limbs with back-and-forth rubbing of thumb and forefinger, which looks like you are rolling a pill between your thumb and fingers. Guillain-Barré syndrome shows ascending paralysis of all four limbs. Myasthenia gravis is evidenced by muscle weakness and lack of control. Epilepsy is neurological condition with seizures.
Your supervisor asks you to run a report from the electronic health record (EHR) on all patients in the last year documented to have a diagnosis of a pressure ulcer, the stage, and length of stay for each of these patients for calendar year 2020. She tells you to title the report PSI 03. PSI stands for Patient Standards Initiative. Preset Standards Index. Patient Safety Indicator. Patient Surgery Index.
Patient Safety Indicator. PSI stands for Patient Safety Indicator, part of the assessments performed on hospitals. INCORRECT ANSWERS:These other titles are not used with the abbreviation PSI.
The most common rickettsia disease in the United States is syphilis. hantavirus. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. strep throat.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever. RMSF is caused by a vector-borne bacterium called Rickettsia rickettsii, which is usually transmitted by several different types of ticks. When bacteria enter the blood stream, they cause pinpoint hemorrhages, which create the distinctive rash. The Hantavirus is a virus, not a bacterium, that causes a type of hemorrhagic fever; syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, and Streptococcus pyogenes (or another hemolytic streptococcus) causes strep throat.
An intervention therapy for pain control that involves increased sensory stimulation from electric impulses from a pad placed on the skin at the site of pain that blocks the transmission of pain sensation to the brain is referred to as NSAID. TENS. ASA. PCA.
TENS Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is a popular nonmedication therapy used often in physical therapy. Patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) is usually given by IV with a programmable devise. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug is typical an over-the-counter medication for pain control. Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) in the generic substance of aspirin.
Rapid, superficial breathing that can be regular or irregular is termed: Apnea Bradypnea Ataxic breathing Tachypnea
Tachypnea Tachypnea is rapid, superficial breathing that can be regular or irregular. Bradypnea is slow respiratory rate, deeper than usual depth, with a regular rhythm. Apnea is the cessation of breathing. Ataxic breathing is periods of apnea alternating with a series of shallow breaths of equal depth.
The childhood viral disease that unvaccinated pregnant women should be prevented from contracting because it may be passed to the fetus, thus causing congenital anomalies such as intellectual disability, blindness, and deafness, is rubella. tetanus. rickets. rubeola.
The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine provides protection against rubella, also known as German measles. Exposure to the fetus, particularly in the first trimester, can cause severe birth defects and spontaneous miscarriage. Tetanus is caused by a bacterium, Clostridium tetani, typically introduced to the body through a puncture wound. Rickets is caused by a lack of vitamin D in children, leading to weak/soft bone. Rubeola is also known as measles and is more severe than rubella but does not have the potential to damage the fetus if the mother is exposed.
A 13-year-old patient is brought to her pediatrician with a 2-week history of fatigue, an occasional low-grade fever, and malaise. The pediatrician indicates it is a possible infection but needs to know what type of infection. She orders a hematology laboratory test to determine the relative number and percentage of each type of leukocytes. This test is referred to as a hemoglobin determination. hematocrit. WBC diff. CBC.
WBC diff. The blood differential test measures the percentage of each type of white blood cell (WBC) in the blood and also reveals any abnormal or immature cells. Hematocrit measures the percentages of red blood cells. Hemoglobin measures the amount of iron-binding capacity that red blood cells have. Complete blood count (CBC) looks at all components of blood—red and white blood cells, platelets, etc.
A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. A blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. The diagnosis in this case is meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid. a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection. tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum. a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection.
a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. Streptococcal infections are highly contagious and very common among children and teens. Streptococcus pyogenes destroys RBCs as it metabolizes. Pharyngeal culture is taken from the throat and cervical lymph nodes are in the neck. Meningitis affects the brain and nervous system. TB is a lung infection, while MRSA is a skin infection, which can lead to sepsis if untreated. These last three conditions are treated with very specific, powerful, narrow-spectrum antibiotics—erythromycin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. A streptococcus (GAS) bacteria is a Gram-positive, beta-hemolytic coccus in chains. It is responsible for a range of diseases in humans. These diseases include strep throat (acute pharyngitis) and skin and soft tissue infections such as impetigo and cellulitis. These can also include rare cases of invasive (serious) illnesses such as necrotizing fasciitis (flesh eating disease) and toxic shock syndrome (TSS).
An elevated serum amylase would be characteristic of postrenal failure. prerenal failure. gallbladder disease. acute pancreatitis.
acute pancreatitis. Blood amylase and lipase levels are most frequently drawn to diagnose pancreatitis; when the pancreas is inflamed, increased blood levels of amylase and lipase, the pancreatic enzymes, will result. Gallbladder disease usually involves stones or sludge, and renal testing involves urinalysis and blood tests for urea and creatinine.
Which of the following conditions is typically treated with the insertion of a pacemaker? Sick-sinus syndrome bradyarrhythmias third-degree heart block all answers apply
all answers apply Pacemakers are used to treat arrhythmias, which are problems with the rate or rhythm of the heartbeat.
Etiologies of dementia include trauma. all answers apply. ischemia. brain tumors.
all answers apply. Alzheimer's is the most common cause of dementia, but all of these other conditions also contribute to the list of causes.
A psychologist or psychiatrist does not need to obtain an individuals' authorization to use or disclose psychotherapy notes unless these notes are used for _____. -their own training -defense in a legal proceeding brought by the patient -all of these are permitted without the patient's authorization. -the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to investigate the entity's compliance with the Privacy Rule
all of these are permitted without the patient's authorization. A covered entity may use or disclose PHI without the patient's authorization for their own training, to defend itself in a legal proceeding brought by the individual, during an HHS investigation to the entity's compliance with the Privacy Rule, to avert a serious or imminent threat to public health or safety, to a health oversight agency for lawful oversight of the originator of the creator of the notes, and for lawful activities of a coroner or medical examiner. Therefore, the correct answer is all of these. While the other three choices are all correct individually, all of these is the more accurate answer.
A 63-year-old patient with terminal pancreatic cancer has started palliative chemotherapy. Palliative means the combining of several medications to cure the cancer. quick destruction of cancerous cells. increasing the immune response to fight infections. alleviating or eliminating distressing symptoms of the disease.
alleviating or eliminating distressing symptoms of the disease. Palliative care will not cure terminal disease but help with end-of-life care to improve the patient's quality of life that remains—typically used in hospice care.
Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at the bronchioles. trachea. bronchi. alveoli.
alveoli. Alveoli are the tiny air sacs at the very end of the bronchioles that are very thin to allow the gas exchange to take place with the blood in the capillaries that surround the alveoli. The trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles are passageways for oxygen to travel toward the alveoli.
A common contraceptive that is implanted in the uterus induces slight endometrial inflammation, which attracts neutrophils to the uterus. These neutrophils are toxic to sperm and prevent the fertilization of the ovum. This contraception is termed an IUD. oral contraceptives. spermicides. progestin injections.
an IUD. Intrauterine device (IUD) fits inside the uterus and prevents pregnancy by stopping sperm from reaching and fertilizing eggs. Oral contraceptives are medications taken in pill form. Spermicides are gels or foams into vagina before sex. Progestin injections are shots given at specified times.
A severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening, due to a swollen throat, difficulty breathing, rash, and dizziness that must be treated with injectable epinephrine is termed asthma. arrhythmia. anaphylaxis. amyloidosis.
anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a rare, generalized, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction to a particular substance (allergen) to which individuals have previously developed an extreme sensitivity (hypersensitivity).
Ingrid Anderson presents with a skin infection that began as a raised, itchy bump, resembling an insect bite. Within 1-2 days, it developed into a vesicle. Now it is a painless ulcer, about 2 cm in diameter, with a black necrotic area in the center. During the history, her doctor learns that she has recently returned from an overseas vacation that included a trip to a sheep farm and becomes concerned that she may have become infected with anthrax. He will prescribe an antiviral. antibiotic. antiparasitic. antineoplastic.
antibiotic. Cutaneous anthrax is caused by the bacteria Bacillus anthracis, found in wild animals, as well as domestic stocks of cows, sheep, and goats. Because of its propensity to occur in sheep, it is sometimes called "woolsorter's disease." Since anthrax is caused by a bacterium, an antibiotic is the medication of choice since it destroys bacteria. The other medications listed would have no effect on the bacteria.
When the body's immune system reverses itself and attacks the organs and tissues, this process is called autoimmunity. immunodeficiency. an allergy. immunosuppression.
autoimmunity. Autoimmunity is the system of immune responses of an organism against its own healthy cells and tissues. Any disease that results from such an aberrant immune response is termed an "autoimmune disease." Allergies are a type of hypersensitivity reaction. Immunosuppression occurs when medication decreases the effectiveness of the immune response. Immunodepression is when the body cannot protect itself due to the immune system inability to work properly.
Which of the following is a risk factor involved in the etiology of gallstones? being overweight being an adolescent the presence of a peptic ulcer low-fat diets
being overweight Gallbladder patients typically have the "4 F's"—fat, female, forty or older, and fertile (premenopause).
Pain is a symptom of which of the following conditions? second-degree burn (partial thickness) both first-degree burn (superficial) and second-degree burn (partial thickness) first-degree burn (superficial) third-degree burn (full thickness)
both first-degree burn (superficial) and second-degree burn (partial thickness) The degree of pain is not related to the severity of the burn, as the most serious burns can be painless.
O2 is carried in the blood plasma. serum. bound to hemoglobin. in the form of carbonic acid.
bound to hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is required in order for oxygen molecules to stick to the red blood cells in order to be transported throughout the body.
Cancer derived from epithelial tissue is classified as a(n) lipoma. sarcoma. carcinoma. adenoma.
carcinoma. Carcinomas, the most commonly diagnosed cancers, originate in the skin, lungs, breasts, pancreas, and other organs and glands. Cancers are classified by their tissue of origin: lipomas originate from fatty tissues, and sarcomas from connective tissue.. and adenomas arise from the glandular portions of the epithelial tissue.
Diagnostic testing for meningitis usually involves blood cultures. stool C and S. cerebrospinal fluid analysis. testing urine.
cerebrospinal fluid analysis. Cerebrospinal fluid floats around the brain and spinal cord providing cushioning, and the meninges are the layers of tissue that encapsulate the brain and spinal cord. Urinalysis is usually done for metabolic issues. Blood cultures identify infections and culture, and sensitivity testing determines not only the bacteria causing the infection but which antibiotics would be most effective in treating it.
An 81-year-old male with arteriosclerosis and a long-standing history of taking Coumadin presents to his physician's office for his biweekly prothrombin time (PT) test. The PT test is one of the most common hemostasis tests used as a presurgery screening and monitoring Coumadin (warfarin) therapy. This test evaluates coagulation of the blood. the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs. the iron-binding capacity of RBCs. the type and cross-match of blood.
coagulation of the blood. Prothrombin time (PT) is a blood test that measures how long it takes blood to clot; a PT test can be used to check for bleeding problems. PT is also used to check whether medicine to prevent blood clots is working. A PT test may also be called an INR test. Type and cross-match are done for blood transfusions and transplants to identify compatibility. Iron-binding capacity is measured with hemoglobin. Arterial blood gas test shows how well the blood delivers oxygen to the tissues.
A treatment for sensorineural hearing loss is stapedectomy. removal of impacted cerumen. myringotomy. cochlear implants.
cochlear implants. A cochlear implant bypasses the damaged or missing part of the delicate inner ear and transmits signals directly to the auditory center of the brain, where these electrical impulses will be interpreted much like the brain processes speech through a normal-hearing ear. The remaining treatments are for conduction deafness, a condition that inhibits or impedes the sound waves from being picked up.
A surgical procedure that cuts into the skull to drain blood from a subdural hematoma in order to decrease the intracranial pressure is termed a(n) craniectomy. angioplasty. craniotomy. hemispherectomy.
craniotomy. Craniotomy is any bony opening that is cut into the skull (cranium) to access the brain underneath. There are many types of craniotomies, which are named according to the area of skull to be removed. Craniectomy is removal of part of the skull. Hemispherectomy is the removal of entire one side of the brain. Angioplasty is the repair of a blood vessel.
When a physician orders a liver panel, which of the following tests are NOT included? bilirubin albumin creatinine alkaline phosphatase
creatinine A liver function panel is a blood test to check how well the liver is working; it measures the blood levels of total protein, albumin, bilirubin, and liver enzymes. Creatinine levels are checked to diagnose kidney diseases.
A common cardiac glycoside medication that increases the force of the cardiac contraction without increasing the oxygen consumption, thereby increasing the cardiac output is typically given to patients with heart failure. However, there is a very narrow therapeutic window between effectiveness and toxicity, and the patient must be monitored closely. This common cardiac medication is COX-2 inhibitor. digoxin. acetylsalicylic acid. nitroglycerin.
digoxin. Digoxin strengthens the force of the heart muscle's contractions, reduces strain on the heart, and helps it maintain a normal, steady, and strong heartbeat. Acetylsalicylic acid is aspirin therapy used as a mild anticoagulant. Nitroglycerin is used to alleviate chest pain in coronary artery disease. COX-2 inhibitors are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
Which step of the "chain of infection" is disrupted by eliminating the standing water in old tires, birdbaths, and empty buckets when combatting the Zika virus epidemic? eliminating the reservoir killing the virus particle identifying the susceptible host stopping the direct transmission
eliminating the reservoir The reservoir is where the organism or its vector resides—eliminate it and there is no place for it to live and breed. Stopping the direct transmission involves the use of gloves, condoms, etc. Susceptible host identifies who is vulnerable to infections due to health status or point of entry. Killing the organism obviously prevents it from causing the next infection.
The first stage of alcoholic liver disease is alcoholic hepatitis. fatty liver. cirrhosis. jaundice.
fatty liver. Fatty liver (steatosis) is the earliest stage of ALD and the most common alcohol-related liver disorder; approximately 35% of heavy drinkers develop alcoholic hepatitis, which can be mild or severe. Symptoms may include fever, jaundice, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and tenderness.
There are no legal restrictions on the use or disclosure of patient health information that has been de-identified. This de-identification can be done in one of two ways: 1. Removal of 18 specific data points, or 2. _____. signed affidavit by the individual receiving the records to promise not to disclose computer scan of the records formal determination by a qualified statistician covering the patient names
formal determination by a qualified statistician Formal determination by a qualified statistician is the second method of deidentification. INCORRECT ANSWERS:Scanning records into a computer does not protect the data.An affidavit of a promise is not legally binding.Patient names are not the only data that can reveal patient identity.
Clinical manifestations of this disease include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperglycemia. Which of the following tests would be ordered to confirm the disease? glucose tolerance test postprandial blood sugar fasting blood sugar glucagon
glucose tolerance test A glucose tolerance test shows how well the body metabolizes sugar from foods and if the patient is at risk for diabetes. A postprandial blood test is done within 1-2 hours after the ingestion of a meal to see if the blood glucose level returns to normal; a fasting blood sugar test is done after the patient has not eaten in at least 8 hours. Glucagon is tested in response to hypoglycemia and works to raise the glucose levels in the body.
A cardiac condition where there is an abnormality in the way the electricity passes through the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node to generate a pulse or heartbeat is called tachycardia. heart block. acute myocardial infarction. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
heart block. Heart block is an abnormal heart rhythm where the heart beats too slowly (bradycardia); with this condition, the electrical signals that tell the heart to contract are partially or totally blocked between the upper chambers (atria) and the lower chambers (ventricles). Acute myocardial infarction is a heart attack. Tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rate. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is where the heart muscle is abnormally enlarged.
Full-blown AIDS sets in as CD4 receptors increase. immunity to HIV increases. helper T-cell concentrations decrease. HIV virus concentrations decrease.
helper T-cell concentrations decrease. People with HIV are diagnosed with AIDS if they have a CD4 count of less than 200 cells/mm3 or if they have certain opportunistic infections; without treatment, people with AIDS typically survive about 3 years.
The state of balance or normality that the human body continuously tries to attain is referred to as etiology. pathogenesis. iatrogenic. homeostasis.
homeostasis. The stability, or balance, that is attained is called a dynamic equilibrium; as changes occur, the body works to maintain relatively uniform conditions. Controlling such things as body temperature, blood pH, and the amount of glucose in the blood is among the ways the body works to maintain homeostasis.Iatrogenic means caused by treatment. Pathogenesis is the ability of an organism to cause a disease. Etiology is the cause of the condition.
Rachel, a 17-year-old female, was brought into the emergency department (ED) after a motor vehicle accident (MVA) between a car and the motorcycle on which she was riding. She needed additional blood, and the nurse grabbed A+ blood, which was immediately administered. However, Rachel is actually B+. The danger to the patient is a result of blood incompatibility, a nonreimbursable _____. ethical violation hospital-acquired condition component of the surgical package patient out-of-pocket expense
hospital-acquired condition This is a non-reimbursable hospital-acquired condition. Existing patient safety protocols require this to never occur. INCORRECT ANSWERS:This situation is not covered by ethics.The patient will not need to pay for this error. The hospital is required to cover this.There is no documentation that the patient had surgery.
The ability of an individual to resist infections due to their good health, immunization status, lifestyle behaviors, and environmental controls is termed pathogenicity. host resistance. host susceptibility. virulence.
host resistance. Virulence is the degree of pathogenicity and how severe the infection is, measured by the case fatality rate. Pathogenicity is the capacity of a microbe to cause a disease. Host susceptibility are the weaknesses an individual would have that give organisms a higher probability to cause infection.
A patienth as diabetes. Her physician has told her about some factors that put her more at risk for infections. Which of the following factors would probably NOT be applicable? hypoxia increased blood supply increased glucose in body fluids microangiopathy
increased blood supply Diabetes causes immune dysfunction, damages blood vessels, oxygen to tissues is diminished, and glucose is not efficiently used by the cells.
Which of the following is an effect of insulin? increases glucose metabolism decreases glycogen concentration in liver increases blood glucose increases the breakdown of fats
increases glucose metabolism Insulin allows the cells to accept the sugar that is transported by the blood stream to be absorbed and used for all cellular processes. Blood glucose increases due to excess consumption of sugars or the cell's lack of ability to absorb it.
Which of the following is the most effective method for the prevention of influenza? intramuscular injection vaccine handwashing FluMist nasal spray vaccine coughing into the crook of the elbow
intramuscular injection vaccine A yearly flu shot is the best method of preventing influenza due to the mutations the organism experiences as it circles the globe.
Sex-linked genetic diseases occur only in males. occur equally between males and females. are transmitted during sexual activity. involve a defect on a chromosome.
involve a defect on a chromosome. These conditions are a result of issues or mutations on the X or Y chromosome.
Portal hypertension can contribute to all of the following EXCEPT kidney failure. dilation of the blood vessels lining the intestinal tract. esophageal varices. ascites.
kidney failure. Portal hypertension is an increase in blood pressure within the system of veins called the portal venous system. This venous system originates in the stomach and progresses through the intestine, spleen, and pancreas before merging into the portal vein, which then branches into smaller vessels and travels through the liver. If vessels in the liver are blocked due to liver damage, blood cannot flow properly through the liver.
In systemic circulation, which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood? pulmonary veins right vena cava renal arteries left ventricle
left ventricle Oxygenated blood is returned from the lungs to the left ventricle before being pumped out to the body.
The hypothalamus and the thalamus are part of the brain stem cerebellum. limbic system. exocrine system
limbic system. The limbic system is a sensory relay and also deals with emotions and memory. The amygdala and the hippocampus are also included in this system. The cerebellum lies above the brain stem, has three small lobes, and is responsible for posture, balance, and coordinating complex voluntary muscle movement. The brain stem is the stalk-like structure connecting the brain to the spinal cord. Exocrine glands release substances to the body's cavities, tissues, or organs, usually through ducts.
The drug commonly used to treat bipolar mood swings is lorazepam. lithium carbonate. Lasix. Lanoxin.
lithium carbonate The most widely used drugs for the treatment of bipolar disorder are mood stabilizers, including lithium carbonate and valproic acid. Lorazepam is an anti-anxiety drug. Lanoxin is used to treat heart failure. Lasix is a diuretic.
The _____ is the largest solid organ of the body, but the ____ is the largest organ overall. liver, skin intestine, liver brain, latissimus dorsi skin, brain
liver, skin The liver is the largest internal solid organ, weighing approximately 3.5 pounds, and the skin is the largest organ (external) overall, with the size dependent upon the height and weight of the individual.
Fractures occur in patients with osteoporosis due to falling from loss of balance. fibrous joint adhesions tearing apart small bones. a tendency to fall from a lack of joint mobility. loss of bone mass.
loss of bone mass Due to the lack of calcium stores in the bones, they become brittle and weak increasing the likelihood of fractures. The risk factors include aging, being female, low body weight, low sex hormones or menopause, smoking, and some medications.
Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological factor in anemia? loss of bone marrow function loss of spleen function excessive RBC breakdown lack of RBC maturation
loss of spleen function The spleen does not have any impact on the production of red blood cells. The spleen acts as a reservoir and filter for red blood cells.
The key diagnostic finding for typical pneumonia is -lung consolidation on CXR. -abnormal chemical electrolytes. -a positive sputum culture. -elevated WBC
lung consolidation on CXR. A chest X-ray (CXR) can show fluid build up in any of the five lobes of the lungs. CXR is chest X-ray. Sputum cultures do not always show causative organism for pneumonia. Blood tests for electrolytes do not evaluate for pneumonia.
A single strand of genetic material that is the complementary to one of the DNA strands of a gene and that leaves the cell nucleus and is read by a ribosome in order to synthesize or make an amino acid protein is referred to as mRNA. nucleus. mitochondria. chromosome.
mRNA mRNA is a single-stranded molecule of RNA that corresponds to the genetic sequence of a gene and is read by a ribosome in the process of synthesizing a protein. Mitochondria are organelles found in most cells that perform respiration & energy metabolism for the cell in or to function correctly. Nucleus contains the cell's chromosomes and controls all the activities of the cell. Chromosomes are the thread like structures that contain the genetic material and instructions that govern the cells function and purpose in an organism.
In which gender is the urethra significantly longer? -it is the same length regardless of gender -males -females -it depends on the height of the individual
males The urethra also allows the semen to be transported through the penis and is therefore longer.
Which of the following cells produce histamine in a type I hypersensitivity reaction? mast cells lymphocyte macrophages neutrophils
mast cells Type I involves immunoglobulin E (IgE) that stimulates the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells and basophils as part of the immune response Lymphocytes are white blood cells produced by the bone marrow that fight antigens. Neutrophils are then most common type of white blood cell and help heal damaged tissues. Macrophages destroy bacteria and other antigens typically by phagocytosis
The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the formation of immunosurveillance. memory cells. helper B cells. mast cells.
memory cells. When initially exposed to an antigen (such as a vaccination), the body's B & T cells create memory cells. When subsequent exposure(s) occur, the body is able to act faster and give a more powerful response to the antigen because it had already created the defensive reaction with the first exposure. Immunosurveillance is the body's process to scope out unusual changes in any of the cells. Mast cells release histamine in the allergenic response, and helper B cells produce antibodies against antigens.
A 19-year-old college student, who lives on campus in a dormitory, is brought to the ER by his roommates, complaining of a severe headache, nuchal rigidity, fever, and photophobia. The ER physician performs an LP and orders a CSF analysis with a bacterial culture and sensitivity. The young man is admitted to the ICU with a provisional diagnosis of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid. tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum. a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection.
meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid. Meningitis is a contagious, life-threatening condition that can cause brain damage. It can be caused by a virus, fungus, or bacteria. Neisseria meningitidis is a typical bacterial causative agent. Nuchal rigidity is a stiff neck caused by severe swelling of the meninges of the spinal cord and swelling. Meningitis affects the brain and nervous system. TB is a lung infection, while MRSA is a skin infection, which can lead to sepsis if untreated. Group A streptococcus (GAS) bacteria is a Gram-positive, beta-hemolytic coccus in chains. It is responsible for a range of diseases in humans. These diseases include strep throat (acute pharyngitis) and skin and soft tissue infections such as impetigo and cellulitis. These can also include rare cases of invasive (serious) illnesses such as necrotizing fasciitis (flesh eating disease) and toxic shock syndrome (TSS).
One of the most common manifestations of Zika virus exposure in utero is severe fetal brain malformation due to the virus attacking and destroying the neurons. This condition is called meningitis. encephalitis. myelomeningocele. microcephaly.
microcephaly. Acquired microcephaly means the child's brain came into contact with something that harmed its growth and development. Meningitis is inflammation of the meninges. Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain tissue. Myelomeningocele is a type of spina bifida, a neural tube defect.
Which valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle? mitral pulmonary aortic tricuspid
mitral The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve or left atrioventricular valve, is a valve with two flaps in the heart, which lies between the left atrium and the left ventricle. Tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle. Aortic valve is between the left ventricle and the aorta. The pulmonary valve is between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
A standard surgical procedure used for the treatment of early-stage breast cancer involves the removal of the cancerous tumor, skin, breast tissue, areola, nipple, and most of the axillary lymph nodes but leaves the underlying chest muscles intact. This procedure is termed a(n) lumpectomy. partial mastectomy. incisional breast biopsy. modified radical mastectomy.
modified radical mastectomy. A modified radical mastectomy is where the entire breast is removed, including the skin, areola, nipple, and most axillary lymph nodes; the pectoralis major muscle is spared; historically, it was the primary method of treatment of breast cancer. The incisional breast biopsy surgically removes only part of the tumor for evaluation (additional surgery may be required). Lumpectomy is the removal of the tumor and no other surrounding tissue. Partial mastectomy removes the tumor and only a small portion the surrounding breast tissue.
Which of the following procedures is typically performed on children to facilitate the drainage of serous exudate behind the tympanic membrane in chronic otitis media? cochlear implants stapedectomy cerumen evacuation myringotomy with tympanostomy tubes
myringotomy with tympanostomy tubes Tympanostomy tube is a small tube inserted into the eardrum (after an incision into the eardrum—myringotomy) to keep the middle ear aerated for a prolonged period of time and to prevent accumulation of fluid in the middle ear. Closed reductions involve no surgery, but open ones require surgery. External fixation is where the rods or pins are on the outside of the body. Osteotomy is cutting into a bone.
HIPAA states that obtaining consent in writing from a patient is _____ under the Privacy Rule for all covered entities. mandatory unusual optional forbidden
optional HIPAA states that obtaining consent in writing from a patient is optional under the Privacy Rule for all covered entities. This is listed in the Permitted Uses and Disclosures section. INCORRECT ANSWERS:This is not mandatory because patients can agree or object when they are present.This is not forbidden because in certain circumstances, written consent is necessary.This is not unusual because sometimes it is necessary while other times it is not.
A stapedectomy is a common treatment for otosclerosis. multiple sclerosis. scoliosis. atherosclerosis.
otosclerosis. Otosclerosis occurs when the small bone in the middle ear, the stapes, gets stuck in place; surgery will move or free up the stuck stapes bone, thus letting sound waves travel to the inner ear in order to hear better. Atherosclerosis is hardening of the arteries caused by fat buildup in the arteries. Scoliosis is lateral curvature of the spine. Multiple sclerosis is a degenerative neuromuscular condition caused by an autoimmune response attacking the myelin sheath around the nerves.
The muscular contractions that move food through the alimentary canal from the mouth to the anus is referred to as peritonitis. pleural effusion. paralysis. peristalsis.
peristalsis The involuntary constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestine or another canal create wavelike movements that push the contents of the canal forward. Paralysis is the lack of any muscle contraction. Pleural effusion is the fluid around the lungs. Peritonitis is inflammation in the peritoneum.
A 75-year-old patient has a sore tongue with tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. She has headaches and is fatigued. Following diagnostic workup, the doctor orders monthly injections of vitamin B12. This patient most likely has which of the following conditions? pernicious anemia sickle cell anemia autoimmune hemolytic anemia aplastic anemia
pernicious anemia Vitamin B12 is essential for the production of healthy red blood cells. If not available or not absorbed from ingested food, the cells are immature and enlarged, production is decreased, and the red blood cells do not have the typical life span. Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary condition usually in African Americans. Bone marrow damage or failure leads to aplastic anemia. The immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells causing autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
Which endocrine gland secretes melatonin, which controls the circadian rhythm of an individual? pineal beta cells of the pancreas alpha cells of the pancreas adrenal medulla
pineal Melatonin is the hormone produced in the pineal gland in the center of the brain; it regulates the body's daily rhythms such as the sleep-wake cycle. Beta cells produce insulin. Alpha cells produce glucagon. Adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine.
A physician prescribes a diuretic for his patient. He could be treating any of the following disorders EXCEPT pneumonia. mitral stenosis. congestive heart failure. pulmonary edema.
pneumonia. Fluid collects in the lungs usually during an inflammatory response and is treated with antibiotics, antivirals, or other medications depending upon organism. A diuretic decreases the amount of excess fluid buildup anywhere in the body. Pulmonary edema, congestive heart failure (CHF), and mitral stenosis can be worsened by the pressure from excess fluid around them.
Each of the following conditions fall under the category of COPD EXCEPT smoking. emphysema. pneumonia. chronic bronchitis.
pneumonia. Pneumonia is a condition where there is excess fluid in the lung, typically due to the inflammatory response to a virus, bacteria, or other organisms. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema are obstructive types of inflammation, and smoking is a typical cause.
A 72-year-old male patient is on Coumadin therapy. Which of the following tests is commonly ordered to monitor the patient's Coumadin levels? prothrombin time partial thromboplastin time blood smear bleeding time
prothrombin time The most common reason to perform PT testing is to monitor your levels when you are taking a blood-thinning medicine like Coumadin. Anticoagulant therapy, used to prevent strokes, heart attacks, and deep vein thrombosis, needs to be monitored so that excess bleeding does not occur due to the decrease in the clotting process.
An organism that uses reverse transcriptionase in order to make proteins for its metabolism, uses RNA only, and HIV is an example of, is termed a retrovirus. rickettsiae. protozoa. helminth.
retrovirus Protozoa are unicellular, usually parasitic, and usually motile, and cause malaria and amebic dysentery. Rickettsiae is a gram-negative bacterium requiring a host cell and is transmitted by insect vectors. Helminths are worms.
An African American couple is undergoing genetic counseling to determine the likelihood of producing children with a recessively genetic blood condition. The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when O2 is low. This condition causes painful crises and multiple infarcts and is termed sickle cell anemia. iron-deficiency anemia. thalassemia. hemophilia.
sickle cell anemia. Sickle cell disease is a genetic condition where the RBCs are abnormally shaped, like crescents, which prevents them from flowing smoothly through the capillaries decreasing the amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues. Hemophilia is a genetic condition in which there are reduced clotting factors in the blood. Thalassemia is diagnosed when there is a significant reduction in hemoglobin. Lack of proper nutrients in the diet leads to iron-deficiency anemia.
Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the ascending colon. small intestine. stomach. esophagus.
small intestine The esophagus is the tube to the stomach from the mouth, the small intestine is where the breakdown of the food and nutrient absorption occur, and the colon is where most of the water is extruded from the eaten food.
Sam has been severely injured in an MVA because he was not wearing a seat belt. The organ in his body, situated at the upper left of his abdominal cavity, under the ribs, that is part of his lymphatic system has been ruptured, and he is bleeding internally. Sam needs a surgical procedure known as sequestrectomy. splenectomy. sialoadenectomy. sigmoidoscopy.
splenectomy. The spleen is an organ, sitting under the rib cage on the upper left quadrant of the abdomen. The most frequent reason for performing a splenectomy is to remove a ruptured spleen, often caused by injury. A sequestrectomy is a procedure to surgically remove portions of a bone; sialoadenectomy is the surgical excision of a salivary gland. A sigmoidoscopy is a visual inspection of the sigmoid portion of the large intestine.
Which of the following is not one of the five layers of the epidermis? stratum lucidum stratum fascia stratum spinosum stratum corneum
stratum fascia This skin is divided into five separate layers. In order from most superficial to deepest, they are the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and the stratum basale.
Which set of muscles controls the movement of the eye up and down? superior and inferior rectus medial and lateral oblique medial and lateral rectus superior and inferior oblique
superior and inferior rectus The superior rectus is an extraocular muscle that attaches to the top of the eye and it moves the eye upward. The inferior rectus is an extraocular muscle that attaches to the bottom of the eye.
Microbiological lab culture and sensitivity tests were performed on the skin scrapings of a groin lesion on a 27-year-old male patient who presented to a local health department clinic. The results confirm infection with Treponema pallidum. He was given a prescription for penicillin and told to return for a follow-up visit in 2 weeks. His diagnosis is herpes. HPV. HIV. syphilis.
syphilis. Syphilis is caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum. The remaining responses are all viruses and antibiotics that would have no effect on them.
In which brain lobe is the processing of smell and hearing stimuli performed? parietal temporal frontal occipital
temporal Each of the paired lobes of the brain lying beneath the temples, including areas concerned with the understanding of speech.
Cengage Physicians Practice has hired an outside company to handle all things technological in their office, including the electronic health record software and the program used to create and submit health insurance claims. To ensure the facility's compliance with HIPAA, ___. hiring an outside company that will have access to patient information is a violation of HIPAA the outside company must sign a Business Associate Contract with the required HIPAA Privacy Rule clause computers in a medical facility are excluded from HIPAA obligations the outside company is not obligated to comply with HIPAA
the outside company must sign a Business Associate Contract with the required HIPAA Privacy Rule clause The outside company must sign a Business Associate Contract with the required HIPAA Privacy Rule clause because this company will have access to protected patient information. This contract is required by federal law. INCORRECT ANSWERS:According to the law, outside companies are obligated to comply with HIPAA.Hiring an outside company is not a violation of HIPAA, as long as that company signs a Business Associate Agreement contract.Computers housing patient information are covered by HIPAA.
An incision into the trachea below the larynx to insert a tube for air intake and is usually done in emergency situations and is temporary is referred to as a thoracentesis. thoracotomy. intubation. tracheotomy.
tracheotomy. Thoracotomy is making an incision into the chest cavity, usually between the ribs. Intubation is a procedure where a tube in inserted into the mouth and down the throat into the trachea to assist with breathing. Thoracentesis is an incision into the chest cavity to insert a tube to allow excess fluid or air so that lungs can remain open and full.
Early detection programs apply screening guidelines to detect cancers at an early stage, which provides the likelihood of increased survival and decreased morbidity. Which of the following would NOT be a diagnostic or screening test for colorectal cancer? double contrast barium enema sigmoidoscopy fecal occult blood test upper GI X-ray
upper GI X-ray An upper GI series is an X-ray of the upper gastrointestinal tract—esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Colorectal cancer only involves the large intestine and rectum.
Common kidney stone treatments that allow small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system include all of the following EXCEPT ureteroscopy and stone basketing. using medication to dissolve the stone(s). fluid hydration. extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy.
ureteroscopy and stone basketing. Ureteroscopy involves inserting a tube into the urethra and moving it up to the kidneys to remove the stones. Fluid hydration provides excess fluid to flush out stones. Medication can dissolve the stones to make passage easier. Lithotripsy breaks up the stones by shock waves making them easier to pass.
The assistant at the nurses' station calls down to the Imaging Department to tell them that the physician ordered a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for the patient in room 302. She provides the patient's name, diagnosis, and the specifics about the test being ordered. Under HIPAA's Privacy Rule, the patient's protected information is categorized as ___. use of PHI noncompliance disclosure not covered by HIPAA
use of PHI When PHI is being provided for treatment purposes within the same facility, it is being "used." INCORRECT ANSWERS: Disclosures are made to those outside of the facility and outside of the health care team.There is no violation of HIPAA in this scenario.Yes, this is covered by HIPAA's Privacy Rule.
A submicroscopic obligate intracellular parasite that requires a living host in order to replicate, has a protein coat, and has either RNA or DNA is a fungi. helminth. virus. bacteria.
virus. Virus must have a living host in order to survive, can have either RNA or DNA. Bacteria are not parasitic and can survive outside a host for decades. Helminths are worms, fungi are molds, or yeast organisms.
A mild, atypical lung infection with inflammation and fluid buildup, usually caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae or other bacteria, in which the patient is mildly ill but does not require hospitalization and is treated with antibiotics is termed pneumoconiosis. emphysema. intrinsic asthma. walking pneumonia.
walking pneumonia. Walking pneumonia is the least serious of the types of pneumonia. While still needing to be treated, patients can be somewhat active and do not need to be admitted to a hospital. Mild flu-like symptoms, cough, and slight chest pain are typical symptoms. Pneumoconiosis is where particles have imbedded into the lung tissue after a long exposure (asbestos/mesothelioma or coal/black lung disease). Emphysema is where the lung tissue has lost its contraction ability and expandability. Asthma involves excess mucus, swelling, and spasms of the lung tissue
