Ch 17, 29, & 30 Pearson Qs

Arrival and transport times fall under which component of the prehospital care​ report? A. Administrative information B. Subjective field C. Narrative section D. Treatment area

A. Administrative information

Which of the following components of an EMS communication system would most likely provide the farthest transmission of​ voice? A. Base station with a repeater B. A​ 50-watt mobile radio C. Portable​ ambulance-mounted radio D. Portable handheld radio

A. Base station with a repeater

Which of the following is typically NOT included in the patient information section of the minimum data​ set? A. Breath sounds B. Respiratory rate and effort C. Skin color and temperature D. Chief complaint

A. Breath sounds

You are assessing a​ 53-year-old male with severe blood loss from a wound that is covered with a pressure bandage. Bleeding appears to have stopped. The​ patient's pulse and respiration are​ elevated, but blood pressure is falling. The​ patient's skin around the lips shows signs of​ cyanosis, and the​ patient's pupils are dilated. What is a sign that the patient has entered decompensated​ shock? A. Cyanotic skin B. Severe blood loss C. Elevated pulse D. Elevated respiration

A. Cyanotic skin

You suspect that your patient has a GI bleed. She presents with​ tachycardia, hypotension, and pale skin. What stage of shock is she most likely​ in? A. Decompensated shock B. Early shock C. Compensated shock D. Hypovolemic shock

A. Decompensated shock

Which of the following blood vessels do you believe will cause the most significant hemorrhage if​ injured? A. Femoral artery B. Saphenous vein C. Brachial artery D. Radial artery

A. Femoral artery

Your patient has a large bump on the forehead from being hit by a baseball. What type of injury is​ this? A. Hematoma B. Stellate C. Crush injury D. Contusion

A. Hematoma

In all forms of​ shock, what is the greatest consequence to the​ body? A. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the cells B. Inadequate delivery of nutrients to the tissue C. Decreased removal of waste from the tissue D. Decreased blood flow to the tissue

A. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the cells

Which type of radio may be carried by the​ EMT? A. Portable B. Base C. Mobile D. Repeater

A. Portable

A simple scratch or scrape of the outer layer of the skin is called​ a(n): A. abrasion. B. contusion. C. laceration. D. avulsion.

A. abrasion.

Question content area top Part 1 Another name for an abbreviated​ transfer-of-care form​ is: A. drop report. B. condensed report. C. short report. D. incomplete report.

A. drop report.

Documenting pertinent negatives means​ documenting: A. examination findings that are negative but important to note. B. anything you decided not to do. C. your actions when a patient refuses care. D. any time the patient said​ "no."

A. examination findings that are negative but important to note.

It is characteristic of hemostatic dressings​ to: A. stop or slow bleeding. B. be bulky. C. form an airtight seal. D. control bleeding through pressure.

A. stop or slow bleeding.

Which of the following forms of shock is associated with volume​ loss? A. Neurogenic shock B. Hypovolemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Septic shock

B. Hypovolemic shock

Burns involving the airway often lead​ to: A. hypertensive crisis. B. hypoglycemia. C. respiratory compromise. D. bradycardia.

C. respiratory compromise.

Of the following adjustments to the vascular​ system, which will contribute the most to increased perfusion to the​ core? A. Decreased heart rate B. Increased blood volume C. Increased oxygen consumption D. Decreased vascular diameter

D. Decreased vascular diameter

Which layer of the skin provides shock absorption and​ insulation? A. Adipose B. Dermis C. Epidermis D. Subcutaneous

D. Subcutaneous

You have just transported a patient to the emergency department at your local hospital. What additional information that is not typically included in the radio report should be shared with the ED​ staff? A. Additional vital signs that were taken in route B. The chief complaint C. Pertinent medical history D. Baseline vital signs

A. Additional vital signs that were taken in route

Which of the following patients at the scene of an accident is most likely developing​ shock? A. An elderly female is vomiting on her hands and knees. B. A male child is crying in an adult​ female's arms. C. A​ middle-aged male is leaning against a paramedic for support. D. A young adult female is gesturing for your attention.

A. An elderly female is vomiting on her hands and knees.

Your patient presents with signs and symptoms of shock after a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be one such​ sign? A. Apparent agitation B. Increased docility C. Heightened alertness D. Measured speech

A. Apparent agitation any mental alterations!

You are treating a​ 43-year-old female who was hunting with a pistol. When she sat down in the​ outhouse, her gun went off and created a large hole in her right​ femur, which is now severely spurting blood. What is the most appropriate method of bleeding control for this injury if direct pressure​ fails? A. Application of a tourniquet B. Direct pressure and elevation C. Application of ice on the wound D. Looking for a pressure point to apply

A. Application of a tourniquet

Damage to which of the following organs is least likely in the case of abdominal​ bruising? A. Lungs B. Spleen C. Liver D. Kidneys

A. Lungs

Crush injuries often can be identified by​ what? A. Palpation of the wound B. Mechanism of injury C. Finding of bleeding from the nose or ears D. Swelling or deformity

B. Mechanism of injury

Which of the following violates FCC​ regulations? A. Improperly using codes B. Using offensive language C. Using unauthorized abbreviations D. Saying​ "please" and​ "thank you" excessively

B. Using offensive language

Which of the following is the term for the unit of measurement of the output power of a​ radio? A. Ampere B. Watt C. Joule D. Volt

B. Watt

What are all the types of communication an EMT is likely to employ on a typical​ call? A. Body language and written B. ​Oral, body​ language, written C. Oral and written D. Oral and body language

B. ​Oral, body​ language, written

A degloving injury is an example of​ a(n): A. amputation. B. hand fracture. C. avulsion. D. bite.

C. avulsion.

When communicating within the EMS​ system, you should keep your transmission brief and remember​ to: A. state your ID number and then the number of the unit you are calling. B. begin talking as soon as you press the microphone button. C. listen before transmitting. D. speak with your lips directly on the microphone.

C. listen before transmitting.

You have been called to a nursing​ home, where you find an​ 88-year-old female patient who is confused and combative. The staff states that this is not her normal behavior but that she has been bedridden from a previous stroke. They also report that she has had a recent urinary tract infection from an indwelling catheter. You note that her skin is flushed and​ warm, her pulse is​ 108, and her blood pressure is​ 80/44. You should​ suspect: A. anaphylactic shock. B. hypovolemic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. septic shock.

D. septic shock.

The structures within the dermis​ include: A. adipose tissue. B. muscle cells. C. periosteum. D. sweat glands.

D. sweat glands.

To whom information about a patient may be distributed is dictated​ by: A. the​ patient's family. B. an attorney for the receiving hospital. C. medical direction. D. ​HIPAA, state, and local regulations.

D. ​HIPAA, state, and local regulations.

In neurogenic​ shock, what mechanism causes​ hypoperfusion? A. Arteries that are under continuous nervous control lose their ability to maintain contraction and dilate​ fully, causing a drop in blood pressure. B. Loss of nervous regulation results in the blood vessels contracting​ completely, not allowing blood to flow. C. Nervous control necessary for the heart to continue to beat effectively is lost. D. Injury to the neurological system causes the blood vessels to leak extensively.

A. Arteries that are under continuous nervous control lose their ability to maintain contraction and dilate​ fully, causing a drop in blood pressure.

What is the first step in removing dry chemicals from the​ body? A. Brush off the excess material. B. Neutralize the chemical with vinegar. C. Pour water on the body. D. Vacuum off excess material.

A. Brush off the excess material.

How does the vascular system control temperature​ regulation? A. By expanding or narrowing the blood vessels B. By increasing blood flow to the thermoregulatory center in the brain C. By dilating blood vessels in the periphery of the body to conserve heat D. By gathering heat from the surface of the body and delivering it to the core

A. By expanding or narrowing the blood vessels

You respond to the scene of a​ 27-year-old female who was working on her car when she​ "snagged her hand on a sharp​ edge." She has napkins around her hand covering the wound. You uncover it and note that the bleeding is slow and dark red in color. Direct pressure easily stops the bleeding. Based on this​ information, what is the source of her​ bleeding? A. Cephalic vein B. Capillary bleed C. Radial artery D. Brachial artery

A. Cephalic vein

Which of the following would generally lead to poor communication with a patient in the prehospital​ environment? A. Choosing the most soothing answer to any question B. Using the​ patient's name throughout the contact C. Speaking​ clearly, slowly, and​ distinctly, using language the patient understands D. Being aware of how your body language may send messages to the patient

A. Choosing the most soothing answer to any question

Which of the following is the federal agency that assigns and licenses radio​ frequencies? A. FCC B. DOT C. NHTSA D. FAA

A. FCC

You are caring for a​ 28-year-old male patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. He has sustained a closed head injury and​ blunt-force trauma to his chest and​ abdomen, and is unconscious and in shock. In what position should you transport​ him? A. In a supine position with sufficient spinal immobilization B. In a left lateral​ position, to allow for vomiting and to prevent aspiration C. In a sitting​ position, because of his closed head trauma D. In a reverse Trendelenburg​ position, because of the​ patient's head trauma and pulmonary injury

A. In a supine position with sufficient spinal immobilization

You are called to the scene of a metal fabrication​ plant, where you are presented with a​ 30-year-old male patient complaining of bilateral severe eye pain. Upon​ examination, you notice both eyes are red and irritated. Patient states that one of the dyes he was working with splashed into his eyes. How would you manage this​ patient's injury? A. Irrigate both eyes with copious amounts of water for at least 20 minutes or until you arrive at the medical facility. B. Cover both eyes with​ dry, sterile dressing and transport immediately to the nearest appropriate facility. C. Neutralize the acid immediately with vinegar or baking soda. D. Cover both eyes with a​ moist, sterile dressing.

A. Irrigate both eyes with copious amounts of water for at least 20 minutes or until you arrive at the medical facility.

One of the EMTs at the station has been cited by the medical director for his​ sloppy, incomplete, and sometimes inaccurate patient care documentation. What is the most important reason documentation must be clear and​ accurate? A. Poor communication can lead to misunderstanding and medical errors. B. The service cannot bill for sloppy report forms. C. Patient care documentation may be used later as legal evidence. D. Failure to document properly will make it easier for the EMS system to be successfully sued.

A. Poor communication can lead to misunderstanding and medical errors.

While reviewing a written PCR for your QI​ committee, you come across a word that was misspelled. There was a single line drawn through​ it, and the correctly spelled word was next to it. Characterize how well the EMT corrected this mistake. A. The EMT forgot to initial the mistake after striking out the wrong word and writing in the correct one. B. The EMT corrected the mistake correctly. C. The EMT was supposed to circle the incorrect​ word, write the correct word beside​ it, and then initial the change. D. The EMT should have scribbled out the word to make it illegible and then written in the correct word.

A. The EMT forgot to initial the mistake after striking out the wrong word and writing in the correct one.

What is the difference between the patient information section of the minimum data set and the administrative information that is included on the minimum data​ set? A. The patient information includes specific assessment​ findings, and the administrative information includes the trip times. B. The patient information includes the patient assessment​ information, and the administrative section is the name and address of the EMS system. C. The patient information includes the​ patient's address​ only, and the administrative section includes the trip times. D. The patient information is the chief​ complaint, and the administrative information is the EMS arrival time.

A. The patient information includes specific assessment​ findings, and the administrative information includes the trip times.

You document that a patient was administered​ oxygen, which you know did not happen. The failure to administer oxygen​ is: A. an error of omission. B. an error of commission. C. a pertinent negative. D. a falsification.

A. an error of omission.

Your patient suffered a severe electrical burn injury. In your emergency​ care, you should​ always: A. assess for an entrance and an exit wound. B. hose the patient​ down, to stop the burning reaction. C. pull the patient off the electrical source as soon as possible. D. treat the patient in the same area where the burn injury occurred.

A. assess for an entrance and an exit wound.

Written documentation​ should: A. avoid radio codes and nonstandard abbreviations. B. describe everything that the EMT observed on the call. C. suggest potential diagnoses for the​ patient's condition. D. describe every statement the EMT made during the call.

A. avoid radio codes and nonstandard abbreviations.

When a flap of tissue is traumatically​ removed, this condition is called​ a(n): A. avulsion. B. laceration. C. puncture. D. incision.

A. avulsion.

Hemorrhagic shock is due​ to: A. blood loss. B. dehydration. C. sepsis. D. spinal trauma.

A. blood loss.

Your​ 14-year-old male patient has fallen off his bike and scraped his arm. The bleeding is dark red and oozing slowly. This type of bleeding is usually from​ damaged: A. capillaries. B. arteries. C. venules. D. veins.

A. capillaries.

If a patient in shock is able to maintain​ perfusion, then this​ is: A. compensated shock. B. physiological shock. C. decompensated shock. D. irreversible shock.

A. compensated shock.

For a young child with isolated genital​ injuries, you​ should: A. consider the possibility of​ abuse, and treat the child with sensitivity. B. challenge the parents directly about the possibility of child abuse. C. avoid questioning the child about the cause of the​ injuries, so as not to embarrass the child. D. withhold care until law enforcement arrives.

A. consider the possibility of​ abuse, and treat the child with sensitivity.

​Generally, when providing emergency care of open​ wounds, the first thing you would do​ is: A. expose the wound. B. control the bleeding. C. bandage a dressing in place. D. clean the wound surface.

A. expose the wound. cut away any clothes in the way

When you encounter a patient who refuses​ treatment, you​ should: A. inform the patient of the consequences of that decision. B. forcibly treat the patient. C. tell the patient that the patient will die. D. simply leave the scene.

A. inform the patient of the consequences of that decision

The narrative section or sections of a prehospital care​ report, compared with the​ fill-in or​ check-box sections,​ are: A. less structured. B. strictly subjective. C. more structured. D. strictly objective.

A. less structured.

A bulky dressing that is held in place by a tightly wrapped bandage and is used to control bleeding is called​ a: A. pressure dressing. B. tourniquet. C. hemostatic dressing. D. cravat bandage.

A. pressure dressing.

Lacerations are cuts that​ are: A. smooth or jagged. B. a tearing away or off. C. penetrating or perforating. D. crushing or fracturing.

A. smooth or jagged.

Singed nasal hairs in a burned patient are an ominous sign​ because: A. they could indicate airway damage. B. the smell can be overpowering. C. they are very painful. D. they make it difficult to administer oxygen.

A. they could indicate airway damage.

When speaking during a radio​ transmission, you​ should: A. use pronouns such as​ "we" instead of​ "I." B. say​ "yes" and​ "no," not​ "affirmative" and​ "negative." C. use slang you know the dispatcher will understand. D. give a nonstop commentary on everything you do during transport.

A. use pronouns such as​ "we" instead of​ "I."

The problem of blood vessels dilating in compensation for trauma is primarily related​ to: A. vascular capacity that is too great. B. inadequate gas exchange. C. heart failure. D. lost blood volume.

A. vascular capacity that is too great.

You arrive at the scene to find a​ 55-year-old female who first stated that she hurts all over but now refuses to talk. Her friend volunteers that the​ patient's husband recently passed away and the patient is becoming increasingly despondent. You would use this information​ to: A. watch the​ patient's body language for clues. B. avoid speaking to the patient. C. establish depression as the​ patient's chief complaint. D. authoritatively direct the patient to answer your questions.

A. watch the​ patient's body language for clues.

In caring for an amputated​ part, it is important​ to: A. wrap the part in sterile gauze and keep it cool. B. wrap the part in sterile gauze and pack it in ice. C. place the part in milk. D. place the part in ice water.

A. wrap the part in sterile gauze and keep it cool.

Which of the following should be used instead of​ "yes" over the​ radio? A. ​"Affirmative" B. ​"Copy" C. ​"Negative" D. ​"Roger that"

A. ​"Affirmative"

What type of special reporting situation typically employs the use of triage​ tags? A. ​Multiple-casualty incidents B. Sporting event scenes C. Crime scenes D. Pediatric arrest scenes

A. ​Multiple-casualty incidents

During severe external​ bleeding, the brain may suffer a lack of oxygen. Which of the following contributes most to that lack of​ oxygen? A. The vasodilation that occurs during shock B. A reduction in the number of red blood cells and blood pressure C. A reduction in the rate of​ breathing, from shock D. A redirection of blood flow to the site of the injury

B. A reduction in the number of red blood cells and blood pressure

How does the skin provide temperature​ regulation? A. By opening temperature pores in the skin B. By altering the blood flow to the skin and by controlling perspiration C. By increasing or decreasing the metabolism within the skin structures D. By thickening or thinning the layers of the skin

B. By altering the blood flow to the skin and by controlling perspiration

You are caring for a​ 46-year-old female who accidentally sustained burns to her left hand up to the wrist from boiling water. You arrive moments after the incident. Of the​ following, which should you do​ first? A. Check the​ patient's pulse and blood pressure in the affected extremity. B. Cool the burned area to stop the burning process. C. Apply a topical analgesic ointment to the burn area to reduce the pain. D. Remove any rings or other jewelry from the​ patient's hand and wrist.

B. Cool the burned area to stop the burning process.

As you approach a patient with severe hemorrhaging from one​ arm, what should you do​ first? A. Immediately elevate the arm and apply direct pressure B. Don Standard Precautions before touching the patient C. Place the patient on​ high-flow oxygen to manage the​ patient's hypoperfusion D. Check the​ patient's airway

B. Don Standard Precautions before touching the patient

Which of the following is the term for an abbreviated form of the PCR that an EMS crew can leave at the hospital when there is not enough time to complete the PCR before​ leaving? A. Quality assurance report B. Drop report C. Patient care record D. Run data

B. Drop report

You are caring for a​ 15-year-old female who has sustained a laceration to her lower arm. It is spurting bright red blood uncontrollably. What personal protective equipment would be most preferred in managing this​ wound? A. Gown and mask B. Gloves and a face shield C. Gloves only D. Gloves and a gown

B. Gloves and a face shield

A patient with an electrical injury is least likely to present with which of the following signs and​ symptoms? A. Muscle tenderness B. Hypotension C. Restlessness or irritability D. Visual difficulties

B. Hypotension

When the body responds to​ shock, what physiological effects would you expect to​ occur? A. Peripheral vasodilation B. Peripheral vasoconstriction C. Bradypnea D. Bradycardia

B. Peripheral vasoconstriction

Which of the following provides the greatest chance of survival for a critical trauma​ patient? A. IV fluids B. Surgery C. ​High-flow oxygen D. ALS response

B. Surgery

Gas exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide occurs at the cellular level of the body​ between: A. arteries and capillaries. B. capillaries and body cells. C. arteries and body cells. D. capillaries and veins.

B. capillaries and body cells.

Your patient is a​ 49-year-old female with complaints of shortness of breath and generalized weakness. On​ examination, you note that she has extensive crackles in her​ lungs, swelling of her feet and​ ankles, and difficulty in breathing when lying down. This is troublesome for her because she gets lightheaded when sitting​ up, because of her low blood pressure. You would classify her shock​ as: A. neurogenic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. anaphylactic shock. D. septic shock.

B. cardiogenic shock.

If blood is not circulated adequately through the​ body's capillaries, cells become starved for oxygen and​ nutrients, and overloaded with carbon dioxide and waste products. This condition is known​ as: A. circulatory depression. B. hypoperfusion. C. hypotension. D. cardiac compromise.

B. hypoperfusion.

To stabilize an object impaled in an​ eye, you​ should: A. place a paper cup over the impaled object and secure in place with a​ self-adherent roller bandage. B. place a roll of​ 3-inch gauze bandage or folded 4 × 4s on either side of the​ object, along the vertical axis of the​ head, in a manner that will stabilize the object. C. wrap a roll of​ 3-inch gauze bandage around the entirety of the​ patient's head along the horizontal​ axis, covering the eyes. D. snap off as much of the object as you can and then seal the eye with an occlusive dressing before bandaging it with a​ self-adherent roller bandage.

B. place a roll of​ 3-inch gauze bandage or folded 4 × 4s on either side of the​ object, along the vertical axis of the​ head, in a manner that will stabilize the object.

Medical direction has asked you to give the patient three nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following responses to medical control is​ best? A. ​"The physician has ordered three nitroglycerine tablets. Roger​ that." B. ​"Nitroglycerin sublingual, repeat in 5 minutes up to​ three, correct?" C. ​"Copy that. Three​ nitros." D. ​"10-4. Will​ do."

B. ​"Nitroglycerin sublingual, repeat in 5 minutes up to​ three, correct?"

Which patient is in the initial stages of​ shock? A. ​16-year-old female with a possible traumatic brain injury presenting with altered mental status and low blood pressure B. ​45-year-old motor vehicle crash victim with​ pale, cool, skin and tachycardia C. ​36-year-old fall victim with absent peripheral pulses D. ​52-year-old assault victim with bilaterally dilated pupils and cyanosis

B. ​45-year-old motor vehicle crash victim with​ pale, cool, skin and tachycardia

You are performing a secondary assessment on your​ 19-year-old trauma patient with a severely bruised trunk and signs of damage to the ribs and sternum. He is coughing up frothy red blood and having difficulty breathing. What injury do these signs point​ to? A. Damage to the brain B. Injury to abdominal organs C. A punctured lung D. Damage to the cervical spine

C. A punctured lung

You are called to the scene of a patient who was burned by an electrical shock while installing a washing machine. On your​ arrival, the patient is lying beside the washing machine on which he was working. What is your first consideration for this​ patient? A. Establish baseline vital signs on the patient. B. Place an AED on the patient. C. Assume the source of electricity is still active. D. Establish an​ airway, because he may have suffered burns to the mouth.

C. Assume the source of electricity is still active.

A way of identifying the seriousness of a burn is by its degree. Which of the following statements is​ true? A. A​ second-degree burn is characterized by​ red, dry, smooth skin. B. A​ first-degree burn is the most serious and the deepest. C. A​ full-thickness burn is also known as a​ third-degree burn. D. A superficial burn is also called a​ second-degree burn.

C. A​ full-thickness burn is also known as a​ third-degree burn.

You are treating a​ 42-year-old male complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. You notice that he appears​ pale, cool, and sweaty. What is the most likely reason for these​ findings? A. Blood vessels are​ dilating, causing inadequate gas exchange. B. The​ patient's pain receptors are causing his vessels to expand and dilate. C. Blood vessels constrict in response to sympathetic​ stimulation, causing a decrease in blood flow to the skin. D. The body is attempting to rid waste products through the skin as well as the kidneys.

C. Blood vessels constrict in response to sympathetic​ stimulation, causing a decrease in blood flow to the skin.

You are caring for a victim who was rescued from a burning building by the fire department. The patient is alert and oriented with superficial burns to the​ arms, chest,​ neck, and face. He complains that he cannot breathe well. What is this​ patient's most critical​ injury? A. Burns to the neck B. Burns to the arms C. Burns to the face D. Burns to the chest

C. Burns to the face

You are treating a​ 64-year-old female patient complaining of weakness and abdominal pain. You find the patient​ pale, cool, and​ diaphoretic, leaning against the wall adjacent to her toilet. You note the presence of​ bright, red blood in the toilet. Based on these​ findings, what treatment option will improve the​ body's ability to​ clot? A. Transport the patient to the most appropriate facility as soon as possible. B. Request advanced life support​ assistance, so that intravenous fluids can be infused to replace lost blood volume. C. Cover the patient in a blanket to prevent hypothermia. D. Place the patient on​ high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather.

C. Cover the patient in a blanket to prevent hypothermia.

Which of the following would most likely lead to hypovolemic​ shock? A. Crush injury to the foot B. Subdural hematoma C. Crush injury to the abdomen D. Open fracture of the hand

C. Crush injury to the abdomen due to blood loss

Which of the following is not one of the roles of the Federal Communications​ Commission? A. Licensing users B. Assigning radio frequencies C. Developing standardized 10 codes D. Overseeing radio communications

C. Developing standardized 10 codes

Which of the following best describes the manner in which an EMT should correct a known error on a written patient care​ report? A. Erase the error and write the correction over the erasure. B. Scribble out the word and write the correct one beside it. C. Draw a single horizontal line through the error and write the correction beside it. D. Circle the word and write the correct one beside it.

C. Draw a single horizontal line through the error and write the correction beside it.

Which of the following statements about puncture wounds is​ correct? A. If there is little external evidence of​ bleeding, internal bleeding is unlikely. B. A puncture wound is not serious unless it is deep. C. Even​ insignificant-looking puncture wounds can cause devastating injuries. D. Puncture wounds carry a much lower risk of infection than do other open wounds.

C. Even​ insignificant-looking puncture wounds can cause devastating injuries.

Which of the following is a defense mechanism that the body uses to defend against​ shock? A. Vasodilation B. Decreased respirations C. Increased heart rate D. Decreased heart rate

C. Increased heart rate

Your​ 55-year-old female patient is suffering from a rupturing abdominal aortic​ aneurysm, and is entering into the decompensating stage of shock. What finding would not be an indicator of decompensated shock in this​ patient? A. Dilated pupils B. Cyanosis C. Increased heart rate D. Falling blood pressure

C. Increased heart rate

Which communication device has an output of 20-50 watts and a range of 10-15 ​miles? A. Base station B. Repeater C. Mobile radio D. Portable radio

C. Mobile radio

Question content area top Part 1 Which of the following sections is used by the EMT to add more detailed information to a​ PCR? A. Administrative section B. Demographic section C. Patient narrative section D. Treatment section

C. Patient narrative section

Your EMS system covers a large area. For reliable transmission between mobile and portable​ radios, which of the following is​ essential? A. Microwave radios B. Cell phones C. Repeaters D. Digital radios

C. Repeaters

If a patient seemed reluctant to​ speak, what would your next step​ be? A. Treat the patient as uncooperative. B. Decide whether the patient is hiding something. C. Rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties. D. Assume that pathology is not the cause.

C. Rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties.

Your patient has been severely injured in a fight. He is now lying​ supine, with gurgling respirations and visible blood in the throat. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. Apply oxygen B. Initiate PPV with oxygen C. Suction the airway D. Fully immobilize the patient

C. Suction the airway

You respond to the scene of a​ 34-year-old male whose left lower arm is bleeding profusely after an accidental amputation at the wrist while cutting planks with a circular saw. Direct pressure does not stop the​ bleeding, so you decide to place a tourniquet on the​ patient's limb. Which of the following statements is the most​ accurate? A. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow joint to stop the bleeding. B. Apply the tourniquet distal to the wound. C. The tourniquet should be applied proximal to the​ wound, but not over a joint. D. Twist the rod or windlass until the bleeding is not​ spurting, just flowing.

C. The tourniquet should be applied proximal to the​ wound, but not over a joint.

All burns are to be treated as more serious​ if: A. they involve the epidermis. B. they are accompanied by reddening of the skin. C. accompanied by other injuries or medical problems. D. they are from a thermal source.

C. accompanied by other injuries or medical problems.

Your​ 24-year-old patient was riding an ATV through the woods and impaled herself on a dead tree branch. The​ one-inch diameter branch went in through her mouth and out her right cheek before breaking from the tree. You can see both ends of the penetrating branch. On your​ arrival, the patient is bleeding heavily into her mouth and is struggling to breathe unless she is leaning forward. To gain control of the​ patient's bleeding and thereby her​ airway, you​ should: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B. pack the​ patient's mouth full of gauze and tell her to breathe through her nose. C. attempt to remove the object. D. sacrifice spinal immobilization and transport the patient in a sitting​ position, leaning forward.

C. attempt to remove the object. if you can see both ends of object then you can pull it out in the direction it entered, if not easily done then leave object in place

Your patient was involved in a serious industrial​ accident, and sustained critical electrical burns to both his hands when he accidentally grabbed a live wire. Despite the severity of his​ burns, the patient says he​ doesn't feel that bad. This patient will need​ to: A. have his wounds wrapped loosely in sterile bandages with no dressings. B. be administered​ bag-valve-mask ventilations. C. be transported as soon as possible. D. have his wounds flushed with​ hot, sterilized water immediately.

C. be transported as soon as possible.

The emotional and psychological damage from burn​ injuries: A. is not a concern for EMTs. B. usually occurs only with the most severe injuries. C. begins at the emergency scene. D. typically is not​ long-lasting.

C. begins at the emergency scene.

The layer of skin that is rich with blood​ vessels, nerves, and specialized structures is​ the: A. epidermis. B. subcutaneous. C. dermis. D. fascia.

C. dermis. it is the second deepest level of the skin; beneath the epidermis

Chemical burns to the eyes should​ be: A. rinsed with a neutralizing solution. B. left alone. C. flushed with water. D. bandaged shut.

C. flushed with water.

A wound under the skin that involves the collection of blood from injury to a large blood vessel is called​ a: A. contusion. B. concussion. C. hematoma. D. crush injury.

C. hematoma.

A substance that will stop bleeding is called​ a: A. compression device. B. pressure dressing. C. hemostatic agent. D. tourniquet.

C. hemostatic agent.

All shock​ involves: A. sepsis. B. heart failure. C. inadequate tissue perfusion. D. hypertension.

C. inadequate tissue perfusion.

Administrative information in the Department of​ Transportation's minimum data set includes the time when​ the: A. EMT radioed the patient report to the hospital. B. unit was en route to the call. C. incident was reported. D. unit left the hospital after transferring care.

C. incident was reported.

If a base station​ fails, then: A. EMTs should use only portable radios until further notice. B. EMTs should consider themselves to be off duty until the base station returns to full service. C. it is likely that a backup will be put into service. D. EMTs should use only mobile radios until further notice.

C. it is likely that a backup will be put into service.

Errors in prehospital care​ reports: A. cannot be corrected once the report has left the​ EMT's hands. B. are evidence of criminal negligence. C. must be corrected. D. are fine if they are clearly just a reflection of difficult circumstances.

C. must be corrected.

A puncture wound that is shallow or deep is​ a: A. perforating puncture wound. B. fracturing puncture wound. C. penetrating puncture wound. D. crushing puncture wound.

C. penetrating puncture wound.

Emergency medical care for internal bleeding​ includes: A. applying supplemental oxygen by nasal cannula​ only, so that the circulatory system is not overwhelmed. B. applying direct manual pressure to the areas of internal bleeding. C. rapid transport for patients with signs and symptoms of shock. D. placing the patient with head and torso​ elevated, to better perfuse the brain.

C. rapid transport for patients with signs and symptoms of shock.

You have just received a medication order from your medical director over the radio. You should​ immediately: A. administer the drug. B. direct the physician to repeat the order. C. repeat the order. D. notify the patient.

C. repeat the order.

A​ refusal-of-care form: A. must be witnessed by an attorney when signed. B. must include the NHTSA minimum data set. C. should be read and signed by the patient. D. takes the place of a prehospital care report.

C. should be read and signed by the patient.

In the event that a patient refuses care or​ transport, you will have to make notes​ on: A. the​ patient's probable motivations for refusal. B. the​ patient's physical appearance. C. the​ patient's capacity. D. whether the patient has committed a crime.

C. the​ patient's capacity.

Part of the assessment of a thermal burn is to calculate the percentage of the body surface area that has been burned. Your patient has burns to her anterior torso​ (chest and​ abdomen) and the anterior surface of her right arm. What is the estimated percentage of body surface​ burned? A. ​27% B. ​13.5% C. ​ 22.5% D. ​18%

C. ​ 22.5% 18 for anterior torso, but since it is just the front part of the arm it is 4.5, thus 18+4.5= 22.5

You are treating a patient who was dizzy and​ fell, sustaining a laceration to the forehead. Aside from determining the cause of the dizziness and dealing with the bleeding with direct pressure and​ bandaging, should you assess the patient for internal​ bleeding? Why? A. ​No, because there are no signs of shock B. ​Yes, because of the laceration C. ​Yes, because of the fall D. ​No, because the fall only inflicted a laceration

C. ​Yes, because of the fall

Which EMS systems should be collecting the minimum data set on all emergency​ runs? A. Third service public EMS systems B. ​Fire-based EMS systems C. Private EMS systems D. All EMS systems

D. All EMS systems

You are managing a​ 27-year-old female with severe hemorrhage from her right ankle after a motor vehicle collision. You are unable to stop the hemorrhage with direct pressure. What intervention should you try​ next? A. Place the patient on​ high-flow oxygen. B. Apply a bulky sterile dressing. C. Apply a pressure dressing. D. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound on the​ patient's femur.

D. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound on the​ patient's femur.

You have a patient with a long laceration to his thigh after falling through a roof on which he was working. The bleeding is bright red and​ spurting, and the patient is becoming increasingly pale and disoriented. How would you characterize this​ bleeding? A. Capillary B. Venous C. Noncritical D. Arterial

D. Arterial

In bandaging a hand​ wound, what important consideration is​ necessary? A. The arm should be wrapped with elastic gauze from the elbow toward the fingertips. B. The dressing does not need to be​ sterile, because the hand is typically not clean. C. Bandage the lower​ arm, wrist, and​ hand, including the fingertips. D. Bandage the hand in the position of function.

D. Bandage the hand in the position of function. important to leave fingernails visible for color and wrap distal to proximal

You arrive on scene to an​ 8-year-old male patient who fell while skating. He is responsive but is lying down on the pavement. As you assess the​ patient, you notice abrasions with​ self-controlled bleeding located on both his knees. Based on your​ assessment, what type of external bleeding is​ this? A. Venous B. Arterial C. ​Non-significant D. Capillary

D. Capillary

A patient who was injured by lightning is awake on your arrival but is not able to hear what you are saying. He can​ talk, and is frightened because he does not know what happened. The patient was in a picnic area at a park and was thrown several feet to the ground when the lightning struck near him. Which of the following steps has the highest priority in this​ patient's assessment and​ treatment? A. Evaluate the electrical burns. B. Transport as soon as possible. C. Apply sterile dressings to the burn sites. D. Care for spine​ injuries, head​ injuries, and severe fractures.

D. Care for spine​ injuries, head​ injuries, and severe fractures.

For a patient at what stage of shock are the efforts of EMTs likely to be most successful and have the greatest impact on a positive​ outcome? A. Refractory shock B. Irreversible shock C. Decompensated shock D. Compensated shock

D. Compensated shock

Which of the following terms describes inaccurate information that has been documented on a PCR and may lead to revocation of EMT​ certification? A. Confidential B. Incomplete C. Inaccurate D. Falsified

D. Falsified

You are treating a​ 29-year-old motorcycle crash victim who appears​ pale, cool, and diaphoretic. You suspect he sustained a traumatic brain injury based on decreased pupillary response. Based on these findings and the mechanism of​ injury, which of the following is the most appropriate method to manage this​ patient? A. Perform a detailed secondary assessment on the patient prior to transportation. B. Splint all orthopedic injuries found prior to transporting the patient to the hospital. C. Assess and catalog all major and minor injuries prior to transporting the patient to the hospital. D. Limit​ on-scene time and promptly transport the patient to the hospital.

D. Limit​ on-scene time and promptly transport the patient to the hospital.

Which of the following is the best indicator of perfusion in the​ adult? A. Blood pressure B. Pulse C. Capillary refill D. Mental state and alertness

D. Mental state and alertness

In your care of a patient suffering from shock due to a motor vehicle​ crash, which of the following is most​ critical? A. Gathering information from the​ bystanders, family, or police officers before leaving the scene B. Closely examining the vehicles that were involved to determine the mechanisms of injury C. Conducting a detailed secondary assessment at the scene D. Minimizing your scene time

D. Minimizing your scene time

You are on scene for a​ 31-year-old female with bleeding from the medial aspect of her right upper arm. Emergency medical responders on scene applied a tourniquet. As you inspect the​ wound, you decide that a tourniquet is unnecessary. What are the proper steps for removing the​ tourniquet? A. Elevate the extremity and remove the tourniquet quickly. B. Lower the extremity and remove the tourniquet slowly. C. Once a tourniquet has been​ placed, you should remove it within 30 minutes. D. Once a tourniquet has been​ placed, you should not remove it unless approved by medical direction.

D. Once a tourniquet has been​ placed, you should not remove it unless approved by medical direction.

When making a radio​ report, which details are​ relevant? A. Any level of detail B. Diagnostic criteria C. Only the ETA D. Pertinent facts

D. Pertinent facts

Which of the following would be the best approach for a patient who was in shock secondary to internal​ bleeding? A. Provide necessary care while awaiting the arrival of paramedics. B. Provide necessary care and transport the patient to the local surgery clinic. C. Provide necessary care and transport the patient to the closest​ hospital, even though it is a community hospital. D. Provide necessary care while transporting the patient to a hospital that can provide surgical intervention.

D. Provide necessary care while transporting the patient to a hospital that can provide surgical intervention.

What could be a sign that a patient is experiencing internal bleeding into the​ abdomen? A. Cyanosis B. Erythema C. Contraction D. Tenderness

D. Tenderness

Which of the following statements about a​ partial-thickness burn is​ true? A. ​Partial-thickness burns are not very​ painful, because of the nerve ending damage. B. The damaged skin of a​ partial-thickness burn is called eschar. C. A​ partial-thickness burn involves only the epidermis. D. The formation of blisters is common.

D. The formation of blisters is common.

Which of the following is a function of the​ blood? A. Hormone production B. Metabolism C. Production of red blood cells D. Transportation of gases

D. Transportation of gases

The patient denying respiratory difficulty is an example​ of: A. a chief complaint. B. an irrelevant detail. C. a subjective judgment. D. a pertinent negative.

D. a pertinent negative.

If a child pulled a pot of boiling water off the stove and was burned by​ it, this burn would​ be: A. a delayed burn. B. a flash burn. C. an electrical burn. D. a thermal burn.

D. a thermal burn.

The patient​ hand-off is: A. the arrival at the emergency department. B. a​ drop-off form for patient transfers. C. verified delivery of the​ patient's personal effects. D. an oral​ transfer-of-care report.

D. an oral​ transfer-of-care report.

When​ crushed, the liver and​ spleen: A. cause severe inflammation and sepsis. B. cause contusions on the surface of the skin. C. cause​ muscle, nerve, and tissue damage. D. bleed profusely and cause shock.

D. bleed profusely and cause shock.

The first information you give to the emergency department staff when you arrive with a patient​ is: A. written. B. communicated through dispatch. C. ​form-based. D. oral.

D. oral.

Waste can build up in the body​ when: A. the blood volume reduces. B. excretion increases. C. the heart rate decreases. D. perfusion decreases.

D. perfusion decreases.

After treating an actively bleeding head laceration with a sterile dressing and​ bandage, you notice that the dressing has become​ blood-soaked and that blood is seeping through the bandage. You​ should: A. remove the bandage and reposition the​ dressing, being sure to rewrap it tightly. B. apply direct pressure to the​ patient's neck with both hands. C. remove the​ blood-soaked dressing and replace it with​ new, sterile dressing. D. reapply pressure and place additional sterile dressings over the​ blood-soaked dressing.

D. reapply pressure and place additional sterile dressings over the​ blood-soaked dressing.

A device that receives transmissions from one​ source, boosts the signal​ power, and then rebroadcasts the transmissions is called​ a: A. delay circuit. B. frequency modulator. C. converter. D. repeater.

D. repeater.

A triage tag is affixed to the patient and​ records: A. the​ patient's name,​ address, and date of birth. B. a narrative history of the patient that paints a picture of the​ patient's condition. C. the​ patient's transport priority on a scale of​ 1-10, with 1 being the highest priority. D. the​ patient's chief complaint and​ injuries, vital​ signs, and treatments given.

D. the​ patient's chief complaint and​ injuries, vital​ signs, and treatments given.

What is the resulting injury called when the burn penetrates all the way to the bottom layer of​ skin? A. Superficial B. ​Partial-thickness C. Superficial​ partial-thickness D. ​Full-thickness

D. ​Full-thickness