Ch 21-27
Which of the following best characterizes mumps? A Acute viral disease; fever, loss of appetite, headache; inflamed parotid glands makes it difficult to talk or chew. B Chronic diarrheal disease that can induce Crohn's colitis. C Acute herpes infection; small pustular lesions on most body surfaces. D Red macular lesions on body surface; complications include encephalitis.
Acute viral disease; fever, loss of appetite, headache; inflamed parotid glands makes it difficult to talk or chew.
Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to A Vibrio spp. B C. jejuni. C Salmonella spp. D enterobacteria. E All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Entamoeba histolytica A causes amebiasis. B may form cysts. C cysts survive passage through the stomach. D may produce a cytotoxic enzyme. E All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following strategies is the best way to prevent bovine spongiform encephalopathy in cattle raising operations? A) Avoid giving cattle food containing animal parts. B) Heat all food before feeding to cattle. C) Ensure that cattle do not share drinking water. D) Give cows only organically grown feed. E) Avoid feeding cattle calcium in the feed.
Avoid giving cattle food containing animal parts.
6 A zoonotic causative agent of urinary infections that enters the urinary system through the blood rather than through the urethra is A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus. B) Escherichia coli. C) Enterobacter. D) Leptospira interrogans
D) Leptospira interrogans
All of the following are true about CNS infections EXCEPT: A) The chief source of CNS bacterial infections is by the organisms invading from the bloodstream. B) Harmful agents are usually prevented from entering the brain because of the blood-brain barrier. C) Pathogens can gain entrance to the CNS via peripheral nerves, the blood, and from the sinuses of the skull. D) The normal flora of the CNS protects it from most pathogens. E) All of these choices are correct.
D) The normal flora of the CNS protects it from most pathogens.
20 All of the following are symptoms of genital herpes EXCEPT: A) fever blisters. B) itching. C) painful urination. D) cystitis.
D) cystitis.
3 The normal flora of the vagina is influenced by the action of ____________ on the mucosal epithelial. A) enzymes B) protein C) vaginal acid D) estrogen
D) estrogen
9 Which of the following is NOT usually a symptom of sexually transmitted infections? A) abnormal discharge from the vagina or penis B) pain or burning sensation with urination C) itching in the vagina or rectal area D) fever and headache
D) fever and headache
A mysterious sequel to C. jejuni infections is A Reye's syndrome. B Tourette's syndrome. C Pasteur's syndrome. D Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Guillain-Barré syndrome.
All of the following are true about CNS infections EXCEPT: A) The chief source of CNS bacterial infections is by the organisms invading from the bloodstream. B) Harmful agents are usually prevented from entering the brain because of the blood-brain barrier. C) Pathogens can gain entrance to the CNS via peripheral nerves, the blood, and from the sinuses of the skull. D) The normal flora of the CNS protects it from most pathogens. E) All of these choices are correct.
The normal flora of the CNS protects it from most pathogens.
African sleeping sickness is caused by which of the following organisms? A) Naegleria fowleri B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Trypanosoma brucei D) Giardia lamblia E) Tsetse fly
Trypanosoma brucei
College students planning to stay in group housing should consider vaccinations against which of the following diseases: A) Listeriosis. B) Meningococcal (Neisseria meningitidis) meningitis. C) Hansen's disease. D) Viral encephalitis. E) Rabies.
Meningococcal (Neisseria meningitidis) meningitis.
Which of the following species of bacteria is most likely to be involved in epidemics of meningitis among people in crowded, stressed conditions? A) Neisseria meningitidis B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Listeria monocytogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae
Neisseria meningitidis
The principal cause of dental caries is A S. mutans. B S. salivarius. C S. mitis. D S. sanguis.
S. mutans.
Which of the following is TRUE about viral meningitis A) It is much rarer than bacterial meningitis. B) Like bacterial meningitis, it is usually severe and life-threatening. C) Symptoms include severe fever, headache, stiff neck, sensitivity of eyes, nausea, and vomiting. D) The majority of the cases are caused by large DNA viruses like herpesvirus. E) Like bacterial meningitis, there are many cells in the cerebrospinal fluid with a high percentage of PMNs.
Symptoms include severe fever, headache, stiff neck, sensitivity of eyes, nausea, and vomiting.
Which of the following has shown some effectiveness in treating a herpes infection? A AZT B protease inhibitors C acyclovir D cephalosporin
acyclovir
The symptoms of cholera are due to the action of A an endotoxin. B modified mucus. C flagella. D an exotoxin.
an exotoxin.
HBV is mainly spread by A blood. B blood products. C semen. D saliva. E blood, blood products AND semen.
blood, blood products AND semen.
A common source of cholera infection is A acid rain. B unpasteurized milk. C fecal contaminated material, especially water. D boiled water. E acid rain AND boiled water.
fecal contaminated material, especially water.
This mineral, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid. A calcium B chlorine C chloramine D fluoride
fluoride
The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is A amoebiasis. B cryptosporidiosis. C balantidiasis. D giardiasis.
giardiasis.
The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is A hepatitis A B hepatitis B C hepatitis C D hepatitis D
hepatitis C
The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically A kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis. modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. B modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes. C kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis. D kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
Meningitis is the most common result of ______, a foodborne disease A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob B) African Sleeping Disease C) listeriosis D) rabies E) botulism
listeriosis
Which part of the human body possesses the flora of greatest diversity? A mouth B stomach C large intestine D skin
mouth
The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is A measles. B herpes. C chickenpox. D mumps.
mumps.
Amebiasis A is caused by C. parvum. B often causes a bloody diarrhea. C is an infection of the stomach. D is restricted to temperate climates. E is caused by C. parvum AND often causes a bloody diarrhea.
often causes a bloody diarrhea.
The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by A flagella. B cilia. C pseudopodia. D pili.
pili.
Some states are trying to eradicate rabies by providing wildlife with food containing rabies vaccine. Which animal species would this process most benefit? A) field mice B) bears C) eagles D) raccoons E) None of these choices are correct.
raccoons
The primary treatment for cholera is A the administration of antibiotics. B vaccination. C by blood transfusion. D simply rehydration. E vaccination and by blood transfusion.
simply rehydration.
Which part of the alimentary system has an enormous surface area and reabsorbs approximately 9 liters of fluid per day? A stomach B liver C large intestine D small intestine
small intestine
Hepatitis A spreads via A the respiratory route. B blood transfusion. Cbody fluids. D the fecal-oral route.
the fecal-oral route.
Protozoan infections are typically spread by A the respiratory route. B blood transfusion. C body fluids. D the fecal-oral route.
the fecal-oral route.
Which of the following about intestinal bacteria is false A They produce vitamins B they can procude carcinogens C they are mostly aerobes D they produce gas from indigestibles substances in food
they are mostly aerobes
Which of the following symptoms occur in rabies? A) tingling or twitching sensation at the site of viral entry B) hydrophobia C) coma D) hallucinations E) All of these choices are correct.
tingling or twitching sensation at the site of viral entry hydrophobia coma hallucinations (ALL CHOICES ARE CORRECT)
H. pylori appears to have some connection with A acid reflux disease. B ulcers. C dental caries. D stomach cancer. E ulcers AND stomach cancer.
ulcers AND stomach cancer.
Public health officials noted a sudden localized outbreak of encephalitis in a rural community located near swampy areas. The outbreak occurred in late spring and correlated with an unusually large number of mosquitoes in the area. Which of the following is the most probable type of encephalitis? A) meningococcal meningitis B) viral meningitis C) venereal meningitis D) Haemophilus meningitis E) viral encephalitis
viral encephalitis
14 Ophthalmia neonatorum is associated with which of the following? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Treponema pallidum D) Hepatitis B Virus
D) Hepatitis B Virus
Which of the following are TRUE about listeriosis? 1. It is a foodborne disease caused by Listeria monocytogenes that can sometimes progress to meningitis. 2. Mode of entry is usually through the digestive system. 3. In pregnant women the bacteria can cross the placenta to infect the fetus. 4. Listeria monocytogenes can only rarely be found in natural waters and vegetation. In the majority of cases, if it is ingested it will cause severe symptoms and disease. 5. Coleslaw, milk, soft cheeses, and hot dogs are foods that can be contaminated. A) 1,2. B) 1,3,5. C) 1,2,3. D) 1,2,3,5. E) 1,2,3,4,5.
1. It is a foodborne disease caused by Listeria monocytogenes that can sometimes progress to meningitis. 2. Mode of entry is usually through the digestive system. 3. In pregnant women the bacteria can cross the placenta to infect the fetus. 5. Coleslaw, milk, soft cheeses, and hot dogs are foods that can be contaminated. 1,2,3,5.
Which of the following diseases are or can be caused by viruses? 1. Meningitis, 2. Hanson's disease, Which of the following diseases are or can be caused by viruses? 1. Meningitis, 2. Hanson's disease, 3. rabies, 4. Eastern Equine Encephalitis, 5. cryptococcal meningoencephalitis, A) 1,2,3. B) 1,3,5. C) 1,3,4. D) 1,3,4,5. E) 1,4,5.
1. Meningitis. 3. rabies, 4. Eastern Equine Encephalitis 1,3,4
For which of the following diseases or pathogens is there an available vaccine? 1. polio, 2. botulism, 3. Haemophilus influenza type b, 4. Neisseria meningitidis, 5. listeriosis A) 1,2,3. B) 1,2,3,4. C) 1,3,4. D) 1,2,3,4,5. E) 1,3,4,5.
1. polio 3. Haemophilus influenza type b, 4. Neisseria meningitidis 1,3,4
Which of the following are TRUE about polio? 1. It is caused by bacteria. 2. The disease involves the destruction of motor neurons. 3. In severe cases, respiratory failure and death occur. 4. Transmission occurs by ingestion into the gastrointestinal tract. 5. The Salk and Sabin vaccines are effective at preventing polio A) 1,2,3,5. B) 2,3,5. C) 2,3,4,5. D) 1,2,3,4. E) 1,2,3,4,5.
2. The disease involves the destruction of motor neurons. 3. In severe cases, respiratory failure and death occur. 4. Transmission occurs by ingestion into the gastrointestinal tract. 5. The Salk and Sabin vaccines are effective at preventing polio 2,3,4,5
People recovering from listeriosis can still spread the disease despite feeling healthy enough to return to work. What type of job should people with listeriosis avoid until they are totally recovered? A) A job that involves handling food. B) A job that requires contact with children. C) A job involving contact with pregnant women. D) All of these choices are correct.
A job that involves handling food. A job that requires contact with children. A job involving contact with pregnant women (ALL CHOICES ARE CORRECT)
18 Which of these organisms is a cause of non-venereal genital tract infections? A) Candida albicans B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Treponema pallidum D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A) Candida albicans
21 It is common for physicians to collect urine for microbiological analysis. Which of the following organisms from a female patient's urine culture would alert physicians to a potential urinary tract infection? A) Escherichia coli B) Corynebacterium C) Streptococcus D) Candida albicans E) Bacteroides
A) Escherichia coli
16 The causative agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid is A) Haemophilus ducreyi. B) Human papillomaviruses. C) Treponema pallidum. D) Herpes simplex virus, type 2. E) Calymatobacterium
A) Haemophilus ducreyi.
10 Which of the following was first named the "French pox"? A) Syphilis B) Gonorrhea C) Genital Herpes D) HIV
A) Syphilis
A bacterial disease that causes inflammation of the bladder is commonly referred to as A) cystitis. B) pyelonephritis. C) endocytosis. D) lymphadenopathy.
A) cystitis.
13 Which of the following is the primary cause of non-gonococcal urethritis in women? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Treponema pallidum D) Leptospira interrogans
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
Which of the following is the primary cause of non-gonorrheal urethritis in women? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Treponema pallidum D) Leptospira interrogans E) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
This anaerobic, endospore-forming Gram-positive rod-shaped genus includes species responsible for tetanus, gas gangrene, and botulism: A) Staphylococcus. B) Clostridium. C) Bartonella. D) Pseudomonas. E) Bacillus.
B) Clostridium.
24 The Centers for Disease Control and the World Health Organization are striving to eradicate syphilis. Which of the following is the most important barrier to eliminating the disease? A) Finding enough antibiotics to treat the disease. B) Eliminating all cases in small, unidentified populations spread around the world. C) Finding funding to carry out programs in developing nations. D) Distributing the treatment to afflicted people. E) Treating babies with congenital syphilis is dangerous.
B) Eliminating all cases in small, unidentified populations spread around the world.
5 Specific strains of _____________________ cause most of the cases of bacterial urinary infection. A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus B) Escherichia coli C) Proteus vulgaris D) Klebsiella
B) Escherichia coli
Specific strains of _____________________ cause most of the cases of bacterial urinary infection. A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus B) Escherichia coli C) Proteus vulgaris D) Klebsiella
B) Escherichia coli
11 Gonorrhea is caused by a member of the genus A) Staphylococcus. B) Neisseria. C) Escherichia. D) Treponema.
B) Neisseria.
This wide-spread normal flora bacterium is usually non-pathogenic, but can be a cause of endocarditis: A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. C) Streptococcus pyogenes. D) Streptococcus mutans. E) None of these choices are correct. Feedback:
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Microbes that are pyogenic induce the formation of A) fever. B) pus. C) antibodies. D) abscesses. E) None of these choices are correct.
B) pus
4 A serious cause of urinary infection involves the kidneys and is called A) cystitis. B) pyelonephritis. C) glomerulonephritis. D) urethritis.
B) pyelonephritis.
Which of the following are TRUE about polio? 1. It is caused by bacteria. 2. The disease involves the destruction of motor neurons. 3. In severe cases, respiratory failure and death occur. 4. Transmission occurs by ingestion into the gastrointestinal tract. 5. The Salk and Sabin vaccines are effective at preventing polio. A) 1,2,3,5. B) 2,3,5. C) 2,3,4,5. D) 1,2,3,4. E) 1,2,3,4,5.
C) 2,3,4,5.
17 Which of the following statements is NOT true of viral STIs? A) They are at least as common as bacterial STDs. B) They are very widespread. C) They are all curable with antiviral medication. D) They may play a role in cancer of the cervix.
C) They are all curable with antiviral medication.
19 Which of these organisms can cause problems in a developing fetus? A) Candida albicans B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Treponema pallidum D) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Treponema pallidum
Cystitis is a term that describes A) an acute viral disease of the inguinal lymph nodes. B) a bacterial disease that causes inflammation of the kidneys. C) a bacterial disease that causes inflammation of the bladder. D) the formation of abscesses in the genito-urinary system. E) None of these choices are correct.
C) a bacterial disease that causes inflammation of the bladder.
Damaged wound tissue that is devoid of oxygen is considered A) necrotic. B) ischemic. C) anaerobic. D) All of these choices are correct.
C) anaerobic.
Meningitis is best characterized as an infection that A) causes inflammation of the brain. B) spreads from the blood to the CNS. C) causes inflammation of the tissue lining the central nervous system. D) is caused by viruses. E) None of these choices are correct.
C) causes inflammation of the tissue lining the central nervous system.
7 The most common treatment for vaginosis is Responses: A) bacitracin. B) penicillin. C) metronidazole. D) None of these choices are correct.
C) metronidazole.
2 What physical characteristic of urine helps to prevent bacterial growth? A) color B) odor C) pH D) water content
C) pH
12 A progressive complication of gonorrhea in women that occurs when fallopian tubes become involved is called A) gonorrheal peritonitis. B) ophthalmia neonatorum. C) pelvic inflammatory disease. D) disseminated gonococcal infection.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease.
15 During which of the following stages of syphilis are infected people NOT able to transmit the disease to others? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) secondary and tertiary
C) tertiary
8 Vulvovaginal candidiasis often occurs as a result of A) antibacterial therapy. B) imbalance in the normal vaginal flora. C) uncontrolled diabetes. D) All of these choices are correct.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of wound infections because A) it is part of the normal human skin flora. B) it is readily communicable. C) it possesses multiple virulence factors. D) All of these choices are correct.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Vulvovaginal candidiasis often occurs as a result of A) antibacterial therapy. B) imbalance in the normal vaginal flora. C) uncontrolled diabetes. D) All of these choices are correct.
D) All of these choices are correct.
22 Toxic shock syndrome was most commonly noted in menstruating women during the early 1980s. Which of the following was the reason for this observation? A) Fewer condoms were being used during sexual activity in the 1980s. B) Stressful lifestyles in the 1980s weakened the immune system of women. C) Birth control pills became common, leading to an overgrowth of vaginal Staphylococcus. D) Certain, high-absorption tampons encouraged the growth of the bacteria causing toxic shock. E) Its increase correlated with the increase in AIDS.
D) Certain, high-absorption tampons encouraged the growth of the bacteria causing toxic shock.
25 Physicians diagnosing this sexually transmitted disease regularly advise female patients to be vigilant about getting checkups for cervical cancer: A) Genital herpes. B) Syphilis. C) Gonorrhea. D) Genital warts. E) Non-gonococcal urethritis.
D) Genital warts.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about botulism? A) It is caused by Clostridium botulinum. B) Early symptoms include blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting. C) The bacteria produce endospores that can persist and grow in food even if boiled. D) Death is usually due to paralysis from generalized muscle contractions. E) Disease is caused by a neurotoxin that is one of the most powerful poisons known.
Death is usually due to paralysis from generalized muscle contractions
23 Which of the following is a major problem with tracking the spread of STIs? A) Many people cannot recall all of their sex partners. B) The diseases kill many people. C) Some STDs are transmitted by means other than sexual contact. D) It takes a long time to identify STD organisms. E) Many of the diseases go unnoticed and undiagnosed.
E) Many of the diseases go unnoticed and undiagnosed.
Which of the following statements about meningococcal Neisseria meningitides meningitis is FALSE? A) Humans are the only source of the infection. B) People can be carriers without getting the disease themselves. C) A vaccine is available for this form of meningitis. D) Even if treated, the mortality rate is greater than 60%. E) The bacteria enter the bloodstream from the upper respiratory tract.
Even if treated, the mortality rate is greater than 60%.
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding viral encephalitis? A) It is much more likely than viral meningitis to cause death and disability. B) It can be sporadic or epidemic in nature. C) The sporadic form is usually due to a herpesvirus. D) Most people recover, but have some permanent neurologic impairment. E) All of these choices are correct.
It is much more likely than viral meningitis to cause death and disability. It can be sporadic or epidemic in nature. The sporadic form is usually due to a herpesvirus. Most people recover, but have some permanent neurologic impairment. (ALL CHOICES ARE CORRECT)
Which of the following statements about meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b is FALSE? A) Symptoms include fever, stiff neck, and a bulging fontanelle. B) It is a gram-negative, non-motile rod. C) If treated the mortality is about 5%. D) About 10%-30% of children treated for the infection will have some damage to the nervous system. E) The peak incidence of this form of meningitis is in adolescents and young adults.
The peak incidence of this form of meningitis is in adolescents and young adults.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about rabies? A) It is caused by a rhabdovirus. B) It is transmitted by the saliva and bite from a rabid animal. C) It is possible to be infected by inhaling aerosols containing the virus. D) The virus enters the blood and travels to the CNS via the bloodstream. E) Wounds on the face or closer to the head have a shorter incubation period than those on the feet and ankles.
The virus enters the blood and travels to the CNS via the bloodstream.
Which of the following statements about epidemic viral encephalitis is FALSE? A) It is usually caused by arboviruses that can be transmitted by insects, mites, and ticks. B) The leading causes of epidemic viral encephalitis in the U.S. are transmitted primarily by mosquitoes. C) The virus travels via peripheral nerves to reach the CNS. D) Only a minority of those infected develop encephalitis. E) The very young and the elderly tend to suffer the greatest complications.
The virus travels via peripheral nerves to reach the CNS.
Which of the following statements about the spongiform encephalopathies is FALSE? A) They are named because of the characteristic spongy appearance of the brain due to loss of tissue. B) The incubation period is very long, usually years to decades. C) Human to human transmission has occurred from corneal transplants and contaminated surgical instruments. D) The disease is caused a prion. E) There is an intense inflammatory response to the infection.
There is an intense inflammatory response to the infection.
Which of the following statements about enterovirus infections is FALSE? A) They account for a large number of cases of viral meningitis. B) They usually infect the throat and the intestinal epithelium and can enter the bloodstream which carries them to the brain. C) They can sometimes survive in chlorinated swimming pools. D) They are transmitted by fecal-oral route. E) Transmission of enterovirus is usually spring to early summer.
Transmission of enterovirus is usually spring to early summer
Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE? A) It is also called Hansen's disease. B) It is caused by Mycobacterium leprae. C) The earliest detectable signs of infection are in the small nerves of the skin. D) Transmission of the disease is usually by body lice. E) The source of the bacteria is mainly the nasal secretions from someone suffering from leprosy.
Transmission of the disease is usually by body lice
Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE? A) It is also called Hansen's disease. B) It is caused by Mycobacterium leprae. C) The earliest detectable signs of infection are in the small nerves of the skin. D) Transmission of the disease is usually by body lice. E) The source of the bacteria is mainly the nasal secretions from someone suffering from leprosy.
Transmission of the disease is usually by body lice.
The diarrhea of cholera has been described as A a viscous fluid. B small in volume. C somewhat watery. D a rice water stool.
a rice water stool.
The animal(s) most often associated with C. jejuni is/are A turtles. B iguanas. C chickens. D ducks. E All of the choices are correct.
chickens.
Part of the ability of S. mutans to produce dental caries depends on its ability to A invade plaque and dissolve the gums. B convert sucrose to lactic acid. C convert proteins to sugars. D attach to the gums.
convert sucrose to lactic acid.
Which of the following fungal diseases was uncommon prior to the HIV/AIDS pandemic? A) listeriosis B) bacterial meningitis C) cryptococcal meningoencephalitis D) primary amebic meningoencephalitis E) spongiform encephalopathy
cryptococcal meningoencephalitis
The most common infectious disease of humans is A the common cold. B dental caries. C hepatitis A. D halitosis
dental caries.
Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called A dental caries. B dental plaque. C halitosis. D periodontal disease.
dental plaque.
Diarrhea accompanied by pus and blood in the feces is called A gastroenteritis. B dysentery. C enteric fever. D ulcers.
dysentery.
The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella strains are A meat and seafood. B milk and cheese. C fruit and vegetables. D eggs and poultry.
eggs and poultry.
