Ch. 5 A&P
78) The arrangement of lamellae around central (Haversian) canals forms osteons. t/f
true
82) The zygomatic bones form the cheekbones. t/f
true
88) Plane, hinge, and pivot joints are all types of synovial joints. t/f
true
26) The radius bone is indicated by letter __________.
Q
1) The proximal epiphysis is represented by letter __________.
B
75) Bone formation can be referred to as:
ossification
102) Elbow joint
A) hinge joint
110) Sternum
C) flat bone
36) In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to:
D) store adipose tissue
72) The wrist bones are actually:
E) carpals
23) The femur is indicated by letter __________.
H
99) Area where bone growth takes place
H) epiphyseal plate
27) The mandible is indicated by letter __________.
N
67) The tailbone is the:
coccyx
77) Articular cartilage covers the diaphysis of long bones. t/f
false
79) Osteoblasts respond to the parathyroid hormone (PTH). t/f
false
41) A round or oval opening through a bone is a:
foramen
60) The sella turcica is part of the __________ bone.
sphenoid
76) Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones. t/f
true
71) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are __________, whereas articulations permitting no movement are called __________.
A) amphiarthroses; synarthroses
53) A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n):
A) compression fracture
106) Femur
A) long bone
107) Phalanges
A) long bone
108) Ulna
A) long bone
111) Fibula
A) long bone
58) Which of these bones is associated with the hand:
A) metacarpals
50) A compound fracture can be described as when:
A) the broken bone is exposed to the outside
68) Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis:
A) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
5) The periosteum, a connective tissue covering on the diaphysis, is represented by letter __________.
F
101) Shoulder joint
F) ball-and-socket joint
97) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone
F) canaliculi
9) Thin, flattened, and typically curved bones, such as the ribs and sternum, form __________ bones.
Answer: flat
11) A round or oval hole through a bone, which contains blood vessels and/or nerves, is called a __________.
Answer: foramen
16) The large hole located in the base of the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord and brain to connect is the __________.
Answer: foramen magnum
19) The head of the humerus fits into the __________ of the scapula.
Answer: glenoid cavity
20) The disease in which uric acid accumulates in the blood and may be deposited as needle-shaped crystals in the soft tissues of joints is called __________.
Answer: gout
7) Blood cell formation is called __________.
Answer: hematopoiesis
10) The type of fiber connecting the periosteum to the underlying bone are called __________.
Answer: perforating, or Sharpey's, fibers
21) Immovable joints are functionally classified as __________.
Answer: synarthroses
17) The external acoustic meatus is found on the __________ bone.
Answer: temporal
12) A large rounded projection on a bone is called a __________.
Answer: tuberosity
69) The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is:
B) a synovial joint
37) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:
B) bone length is increasing
31) The most important minerals stored in bones are:
B) calcium and phosphorus
62) Transverse foramina are found in the:
B) cervical vertebrae
45) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo:
B) hyaline cartilage
34) The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as:
B) long bones
32) The arrangement of bone tissue shown in Figure 5.3 is formed by:
B) osteons
100) Wrist joint
B) plane joint
93) Disease of children in which bones fail to calcify
B) rickets
105) Tarsals
B) short bone
33) Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct:
B) skull bones - flat bones
66) Which two bones constitute the forearm:
B) ulna and radius
30) The ilium, pubis, and ischium fuse to form the bone marked by letter __________.
G
3) The area that serves as a storage area for fat in adults is indicated by letter __________.
H
90) Disease resulting from accumulating of uric acid crystals
H) gouty arthritis (gout)
91) Disease of the aged in which articular cartilage is affected
I) osteoarthritis
4) The diaphysis is indicated by letter __________.
C
49) Bone growth that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely:
C) appositional ossification
38) What tiny canal connects central canals to lacunae in compact bone:
C) canaliculus
113) True ribs
C) flat bone
114) Parietal bones
C) flat bone
44) The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called:
C) lacunae
96) Layers of calcification that are found in bone
C) lamellae
55) The suture found between the parietal and temporal bone is the:
C) squamous suture
64) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior:
C) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
28) The carpals indicated by letter __________.
T
6) The area that contains glassy hyaline cartilage that provides a smooth slippery surface which decreases friction is indicated by letter __________.
D
57) The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are:
D) fontanels
52) A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n):
D) greenstick fracture
109) Atlas
D) irregular bone
112) Coxal bone
D) irregular bone
98) Cells that can build bony matrix
D) osteoblasts
104) Joint between atlas and axis
D) pivot joint
46) Which of the following is an example of a bone that forms from fibrous membranes:
D) the parietal bone
2) The area that causes the lengthwise growth of a long bone is indicated by letter __________.
E
29) The greater tubercle and trochlea are bone markings situated on the bone marked by letter __________.
E
48) There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages:
E) 4, 3, 1, 2 (hematoma formation, fibrocartilage callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling)
35) What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints:
E) articular cartilage
43) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains:
E) blood vessels and nerve fibers
51) A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a:
E) comminuted fracture
103) Knuckle joints
E) condylar joint
63) The atlas is the:
E) first cervical vertebra
94) Bone breaks
E) fractures
70) A structure found on the femur is the:
E) intercondylar fossa
59) The hyoid bone is unique because:
E) it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
65) The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the:
E) manubrium, body, xiphoid process
39) The bone cells that respond to parathyroid hormone (PTH) to destroy bone matrix and release calcium into the blood are called:
E) osteoclasts
Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix
E) osteoclasts
61) How many true ribs do humans have:
E) seven
47) The factor(s) that determinewhere bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are):
E) stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton
80) The master gland of the body (pituitary gland) is housed in a saddlelike depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica. t/f
false
81) The last two pairs of ribs are called true ribs because they have no anterior attachments. t/f
false
83) The spinal cord passes through the body of each vertebra. t/f
false
87) Spinal curvatures that are present at birth are called primary curvatures (the cervical and lumbar curvatures) and those that develop later are secondary curvatures (the thoracic and sacral curvatures). t/f
false
89) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects fibrous joints. t/f
false
74) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception.
fibula
40) A shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface is a:
fossa
73) Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg:
patella
54) The axial skeleton contains:
A) 1, 3, 4 (skull, ribs and sternum, vertebrae)
18) The thigh bone is called the __________.
Answer: femur
116) List and discuss the structures of a long bone.
Answer: 1. Diaphysisthe shaft of the long bone: a) it is made of compact bone; b) it is covered by a fibrous connective tissue membrane, the periosteum. The periosteum is securely held to the compact bone beneath by connective tissue fibers called perforating or Sharpey's fibers; c) it contains a hollow cavity called the medullary cavity that stores adipose tissue as yellow marrow, and is the site of hematopoiesis (red blood cell formation) in infants when it contains red marrow. 2. Epiphysessomewhat rounded ends of the long bone: each epiphysis has an outer layer of compact bone covering an inner core of spongy bone. The external surface is covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage, instead of a periosteum, called articular cartilage. This provides for a smooth, gliding joint. 3. Epiphyseal line/platethe junction between the epiphyses and the diaphysis. During growth years is made of hyaline cartilage and is called the epiphyseal plate. It causes the lengthwise growth of the bone. By the end of puberty, long bones stop lengthening when the plate has been replaced by bone. It now appears as a thin bony ridge and is called the epiphyseal line.
115) Explain the five functions of the skeletal system.
Answer: 1. Supportthe skeletal system forms the body's internal structural framework. The bones of the legs act as pillars to support the body trunk when we stand, and the rib cage supports the thoracic wall.2. Movementthe skeletal muscles, attached to bones by tendons, use the bones as levers to move the body and its parts. 3. Protectionbones, such as the skull, thorax, and pelvis, protect the enclosed soft body organs.4. Storagefat is stored in the internal cavities of bones. Bones also serve as a storehouse for minerals, the most important being calcium and phosphorus.5. Hematopoiesisblood cell formation occurs within the red marrow of certain bones.
124) Differentiate among the three types of joints based on structural and functional classification. Provide examples of each type of joint.
Answer: 1. Synarthroses are immovable joints. These joints are structurally classified as fibrous joints since the bones are united by fibrous tissue. Skull sutures are one example of a fibrous joint.2. Amphiarthroses are slightly movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as cartilaginous joints since the bone ends are connected by cartilage. The pubic symphysis and intervertebral joints are two examples.3. Diathroses are freely movable joints. These joints are structurally classified as synovial joints since the articulating bone ends are separated by a joint cavity containing synovial fluid. There are many examples of synovial joints, including the elbow, knee, and shoulder.
123) Explain how atlas and axis are different from other vertebrae. Discuss the roles they play in the body.
Answer: 1. Unlike all other vertebra, atlas (C1) has no body. Axis (C2) has a large process called the dens or odontoid process. 2. The structural differences of these two vertebrae allow you to rotate your head from side to side to indicate "no." The joint between these two vertebrae is a pivot joint.
118) Explain how the anatomy of compact bone differs from that of spongy bone.
Answer: Compact bone is composed of osteons. Concentric rings of matrix, called lamellae, are situated around a central (Haversian) canal. The rings and central canal constitute an osteon. Other canals, called canaliculi, spread outward from central canals to connect to lacunae. Osteocytes are mature bone cells that are found in air spaces known as lacunae. Spongy bone is open, airy, spiky and is composed of small, needlelike pieces of bone.
119) Explain how bones are remodeled in response to parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) activates bone-destroying cells called osteoclasts to break down the bone's matrix and release the stored calcium into the blood. PTH determines when bone will be broken down in response to the level of calcium ions in the blood.
117) List and explain the steps in the repair process of a simple fracture.
Answer: Step 1 is hematoma formation. A hematoma, or bloodfilled swelling, forms when bone breaks and blood vessels rupture. Bone cells are deprived of nutrition and die.Step 2 is fibrocartilaginous callus formation. The site of damage experiences growth of new capillaries into the clotted blood and disposal of dead tissue by phagocytes. Connective tissue cells of various types form a mass of repair tissue called fibrocartilage callus. This fibrocartilage callus contains several elements: some cartilage matrix, some bony matrix, and collagen fibers. This fibrocartilage callus acts to splint the broken bone, closing the gap. Step 3 is bony callus formation. As more osteoblasts and osteoclasts migrate into the area and multiply, fibrocartilage is gradually replaced by a callus of spongy bone (the bony callus).Step 4 is bone remodeling. Over the next few months, bony callus is remodeled in response to the mechanical stresses placed on it, so that it forms a strong, permanent patch at the fracture site.
121) If 6-year-old Sarah fell and broke her femur, damaging the proximal epiphyseal plate, what might she expect as she grows older? What is an epiphyseal plate and why is it significant to this situation?
Answer: The epiphyseal plate is a flat plate of hyaline cartilage seen in young growing bone. Epiphyseal plates cause the lengthwise growth of long bone. Since this child is still growing and has not completed puberty, she may expect impaired growth in that one epiphyseal plate. Lucky for Sarah, there is an epiphyseal plate located at both the distal and proximal ends of the femur. The healthy distal plate can continue to grow.
120) List some of the features of a female pelvis that make it different from a male pelvis.
Answer: The female pelvis: has a larger and more circular inlet. is shallower than the male pelvis. has lighter and thinner bones. has a shorter and less curved sacrum. has a more rounded pubic arch. has shorter ischial spines that are also farther apart.
122) Discuss the organization of the five regions of the spine.
Answer: There are seven cervical vertebrae that form the bones in the neck region. Twelve vertebrae constitute the thoracic region of the vertebral column. These bones correspond to the ribcage. Five vertebrae compose the lower back or lumbar vertebrae. Five fused vertebrae make up the sacral region while four vertebrae form the coccyx (tailbone).
8) Yellow marrow is a storage area for __________.
Answer: adipose tissue or fat
14) An increase in bone diameter is called __________ growth.
Answer: appositional
15) The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage form the __________ skeleton.
Answer: axial
13) A fracture where the bone breaks cleanly but does not penetrate the skin is termed a __________ fracture.
Answer: closed or simple
92) Inflammation of bursae associated with synovial membranes
J) bursitis
22) The frontal bone is indicated by letter __________.
L
25) The sternum is indicated by letter __________.
O
24) The tibia is indicated by letter __________.
W
42) Which of the following bones is NOT considered part of the appendicular skeleton:
sternum
84) The intervertebral discs that cushion the spine and absorb shock are composed of fibrocartilage. t/f
true
85) In anatomical position, the lateral lower leg bone is the fibula. t/f
true
86) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae. t/f
true
56) All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone:
vomer