CH 62, 72, 73 Burns/Emergency
The resuscitation goal of fluid replacement therapy, post burn injury, is a urinary output of what for adults?
0.5 to 1.0 mL/kilogram/hour
The most common victims of snakebites are those between the ages of:
1 and 9 years
The nurse is monitoring a patient during the fluid re-mobilization phase of a burn injury. What expected findings should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.) a. Hemodilution b. Increased urinary output c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Sodium deficit e. Hypoglycemia
a. Hemodilution b. Increased urinary output d. Sodium deficit
Burns that exceed _______ of the total body surface area are considered major burn injuries in producing both a Local and a systemic inflammatory response.
1/3
Cremation is preferred for all deaths due to smallpox because the virus can survive in scabs for up to how many years?
13 years
A sample consensus formula for fluid replacement recommends that a balance salt solution be administered in the first 24 hours of a burn in the range of 2 to 4 mL/kilogram/% of burn, with 50% of the total given in the first eight hours post to burn. A 176 pound (80kg) man with a 30% burn should receive a minimum of how many milliliters of fluid replacement in the first eight hours?
2400 mL
Antivenin is to treat snake bites must be given within a timeframe of how many hours?
4 to 12 hours
Depending on the severity of a snakebite, antivenin is diluted in ___________ mL to _________ mL of ____________.
500, 1000, normal saline solution
Name and define the three categories commonly used in triage in the ED:
A basic and widely used triage system that has been in use for many years utilized three categories: emergent, urgent, and non-urgent. In this system, emergent patients have the highest priority, urgent patients are those with serious health problems, but not immediately life-threatening ones, and non-urgent patients are those with episodic illnesses
Name and describe each of the four affects that a blast wave has on a victim:
A blast wave has four effects. These include spalling, which refers to the pressure wave itself; implosion, which refers to rupture of organs from entrapped gases; shearing, which refers to the blast response of different body tissues, dependent on their density; and irreversible work, which refers to the presence of forces that exceed the tensile strength of an organ or tissue.
Explain why patients who are most critically ill, with a high mortality rate, would be assigned a low triage priority in a disaster situation:
A critically ill individual with a high mortality rate would be assigned a low triage priority because it would be unethical to use limited resources on those with a low chance of survival. Others who are seriously ill and have a greater chance of survival should be treated.
When the nurse is performing a rapid neurologic assessment in the ED, what mnemonic is helpful?
A quick neurologic assessment baby performed using the AVPU mnemonic: A- alert; is the patient alert and responsive? V- verbal; does the patient respond to verbal stimuli? P- pain; does the patient respond only to painful stimuli? U- unresponsive; is the patient unresponsive to all stimuli, including pain?
The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a major burn. What outcome will be optimal during fluid replacement? a. Urinary output of 10 mL per hour b. Urinary output of 30 mL per hour c. Urinary output of 80 mL per hour d. Urinary output of 100 mL per hour
b. Urinary output of 30 mL per hour
To meet early nutritional demands for protein, a 198 pounds (90kg) burned patient will need to adjust a minimum of how much protein every 24 hours? a. 90 g per day b. 110 g per day c. 180 g per day d. 270 g per day
c. 180 g per day
A patient was suspected of being in direct contact with anthrax but is exhibiting no signs or symptoms. What type of prophylaxis does the nurse know this patient will have to take? a. Penicillin G IM for 1 dose b. Ceftriaxone IV for 7 days c. Ciprofloxacin for 60 days d. Erythromycin for 2 weeks
c. Ciprofloxacin for 60 days
Denuded skin:
Abrasion
Two pulmonary complications that occur secondary to inhalation injuries are:
Acute respiratory failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome
What factors have been instrumental in improving the survival rate for burn victims over the last 80 years?
Advances in burn care over the past 80 years have contributed to significant improvements and morbidity and mortality of patients with burns. These advances include the introduction of systemic antibiotics and topical make anti-microbial's, advances in fluid resuscitation, aggressive nutrition, early excision and wound closure, the introduction of engineered tissue therapies, advances in critical care therapies, and the advent of specialized burn centers
Tearing away of tissue from supporting structures:
Avulsion
What color category would C-1 spinal transaction fall under?
Black
What color category would penetrating head wound with ice pack fall under?
Black
What color category would radiation exposure with seizures 24 hours after exposure fall under?
Black
What color category would third degree burns over 75% total body surface area fall under?
Black
Only three states and the District of Columbia have locations for national medical response teams for weapons of mass destruction. These states are:
California, Colorado, North Carolina
Explain the pathophysiology of carbon monoxide poisoning:
Carbon monoxide, a byproduct of the combustion of organic materials, combines with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin. Carboxyhemoglobin competes with oxygen for available hemoglobin-binding sites
What is a key component of disaster management?
Communication
Shrinkage of burn scar through collagen maturation:
Contracture
Incision of the skin with well-defined edges, usually longer than deep:
Cut
Removal of foreign material and devitalized tissue until surrounding healthy tissue is exposed:
Debridement
Blood trapped under the surface of the skin:
Ecchymosis
Four federal agencies that provide disaster assistance are:
Department of Health and Human Services, Department of Justice, Department of Defense, Department of Homeland Security
The second most common cause of unintentional death in children younger than 14 years of age is:
Drowning
According to _____, every emergency department with a Medicare provider agreement must perform a medical screening examination on all patients arriving with an emergency medical complaint if they are acute signs and symptoms could result in serious injury or death if left untreated?
Emergency medical treatment and active labor act
Describe the indications for endotracheal intubation:
Endotracheal intubation is indicated to establish an airway for a patient who cannot be adequately ventilated with an oropharyngeal airway, bypassing upper airway obstruction, prevent aspiration, permit connection of the patient to a resuscitation bag or mechanical ventilator, or facilitate the removal of tracheobronchial secretions
Devitalized tissue resulting from a burn or wound:
Eschar
Linear excision made it through eschar to release construction of underlying tissue:
Escharotomy
Name three of the risk factors of upper airway obstruction in the older adult:
For older adult patients, especially those in extended-care facilities, sedatives and hypnotic medications, diseases affecting motor coordination, and mental dysfunction are risk factors for asphyxiation by food
What color category would burn to hand fall under?
Green
Discuss why congestive heart failure is a potential complication of an acute burn:
Fluid overload may occur when fluid is mobilized from the interstitial compartment back into the intravascular compartment. If the cardiac system cannot compensate for the excessive volume, congestive heart failure may result.
What color category would depression fall under?
Green
What color category would fractured humerus fall under?
Green
Describe five factors that influence and individuals response to disaster:
Factors that influence a persons response to disaster include the degree and nature of the exposure to the disaster, loss of friends and loved ones, existing coping strategies, available resources and support, and the personal meaning attached to the event.
Incision made through the fascia to release constriction of underlying muscle:
Fasciotomy
Tumor-like mass of blood trapped under the skin:
Hematoma
Graft transferred from one human to another human; also called allograft:
Homograft
What is the immediate consequence of ensuing fluid loss and results in decreased perfusion and oxygen delivery?
Hypovolemia
Signs of post burn sepsis include:
Increased temperature, tachycardia, why did pulse pressure, flushed, skin dry and non-burned areas
When a patient sustains inhalation injury below the vocal cords, what is the usual cause?
Inhalation injury below the vocal cords results from inhaling the products of incomplete combustion or noxious gases, and is often the source of death at the scene of a fire.
Skin tear with irregular edges in vein bridging:
Laceration
Why is lactated ringer's solution initially useful as fluid replacement for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock?
Lactated ringer solution is initially useful because it approximates plasma electrolyte composition and osmolality, allows time for blood typing and screening, restoring circulation, and serves as an adjunct to blood components therapy
The carnal manifestations of heat cramps include _______, particularly in the shoulders, abdomen, and lower extremities; _______, and ________
Muscle cramps; profound diaphoresis, profound thirst
Wound representing the outline of the object causing the wound:
Patterned
Describe the measures that can be taken to avoid the development of hypertrophic and keloid scars after a burn injury:
Preventative treatment modalities are used to prevent scar contractures and excess hypertrophic tissue. Compression is introduced early in burn wound treatment. Elastic bandage wraps are used initially to help promote adequate circulation, but they can also be used as the first form of compression for scar management, followed by elasticized tubular bandage until the patient can be measured for a customized garment.
What survey focuses on stabilizing life-threatening conditions?
Primary
What types of general emergency procedures should be employed at the burn scene?
Primary survey, prevention of shock, prevention of respiratory distress, detection and treatment of concomitant injuries, wound assessment, and initial care.
The three major bacteria responsible for infection in burn centers are:
Pseudomonas, MRSA, Acinetobacter
What color category with third degree burns over 25% total body surface area fall under?
Red
What color category would hemothorax fall under?
Red
What color category would open femur fracture fall under?
Red
What color category would sucking chest wound fall under?
Red
In the case of gunfire in the emergency department, what is a priority?
Self protection
The leading cause of death in thermally injured patients is:
Sepsis
Name at least four cultural variables that healthcare providers need to consider in any disaster situation in which a large number of diverse religious and ethnic groups of patients need to be treated:
Some cultural considerations include language differences, a variety of religious preferences, rituals of prayer, traditions for burying the dead, and the timing of funeral services
A patient with a foreign body airway obstruction typically demonstrates the inability to _____________? With complete obstruction, permanent brain injury will result in how many minutes?
Speak, breathe, cough; 3 to 5 minutes
Incision of the scan with well defined edges, usually caused by a sharp instrument; this type of wound is typically deeper than long: a
Stab
What are the three zones of burn injury and what areas are involved with each?
The central area of the wound is termed the zone of coagulation due to the characteristic coagulation necrosis of cells that occur. The surrounding zone, the zone of stasis, describes an area of injured cells that may remain viable but, with persistent and decreased blood flow, will undergo necrosis within 24 to 48 hours. The zone of hyperemia, the outer-most zone, sustains minimal injury and may fully recover over time
The nurse in the emergency department receives a patient who sustained a severe burn injury. What is the priority action by the nurse in this situation? a. Establish a patent airway b. Insert an indwelling catheter c. Replace fluids d. Administer pain medication
a. Establish a patent airway
What does the depth of burn injury depend on?
The depth of the injury depends on the temperature of the burning agent and the duration of contact with the agent.
Burn injuries are classified according to:
The depth of the injury, the extent of burn body surface area
What two detrimental effects does radiation injury have?
The first is a thermal effect, which results in cutaneous burn injuries. The second affect is damage to the cellular DNA, which may be localized or affect the whole body.
What role does incident Command System perform in the event of a specific local mass casualty incident?
The incident Command System as a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication for any emergency. It's activation during emergencies is mandated by the federal government. Successful incident management requires equipment compatibility, effective communication, adequate distribution of resources, and clear differentiation of members rules. The ICS ensures that any hazardous substances used during an MCI are identified promptly and that appropriate personal protection equipment is distributed. In addition to all of these responsibilities, the ICS is also responsible for determining when an MCI has ended.
The nurse is performing a secondary survey for a patient who sustained severe burns. What should the nurse include in the survey?
The secondary survey focuses on obtaining a history, the completion of the total body system assessment, initial fluid resuscitation, and the provision of psychosocial support of the conscious patient.
A patient with frostbite to both lower extremities from exposure to the elements is preparing to have rewarming of the extremities. What intervention should the nurse provide prior to the procedure? a. Give an analgesic as prescribed b. Massage the extremities c. Elevate the legs d. Apply a heat lamp
a. Give an analgesic as prescribed
Graft obtain from an animal of a species other than that of the recipient; also called a heterograft:
Xenograft
What color category would maxillofacial wound without airway compromise fall under?
Yellow
What color category would soft tissue injury of lower extremity with adequate collateral circulation fall under?
Yellow
What color category would stable abdominal wound without hemorrhage fall under?
Yellow
The two age groups that have increased the morbidity and mortality from burn injuries are:
Young children, older adults
The nurse is applying in occlusive dressing to a burned foot. What position shouldn't but be placed in after application of the dressing? a. Adduction b. Dorsiflexion c. External rotation d. Plantar flexion
a. Adduction
A patient is brought to the ED by a friend, who states that a tree fell on the patient's leg and crashed it while they were cutting firewood. What priority action should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.) a. Applying a clean dressing to protect the wound b. Elevating the site to limit the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces c. Inserting an indwelling catheter d. Splinting the wound in a position of rest to prevent motion e. Performing a fasciotomy
a. Applying a clean dressing to protect the wound b. Elevating the site to limit the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces d. Splinting the wound in a position of rest to prevent motion
The nurse is admitting a patient with a penetrating abdominal injury from a knife wound. What are the priority action by the nurse for this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing for manifestations of hemorrhage b. Covering any protruding viscera with sterile dressing soaked in normal saline solution c. Looking for any associated chest injuries d. Exploring the abdominal wound with a gloved finger e. Irrigating the wound with normal saline and a syringe
a. Assessing for manifestations of hemorrhage b. Covering any protruding viscera with sterile dressing soaked in normal saline solution c. Looking for any associated chest injuries
The nurse is monitoring for fluid and electrolyte changes in the emergent phase of burn injury for a patient. Which will be an expected outcome? (Select all that apply.) a. Base-bicarbonate deficit b. Elevated hematocrit levels c. Potassium deficit d. Sodium deficit e. Magnesium deficit
a. Base-bicarbonate deficit b. Elevated hematocrit levels d. Sodium deficit
A person experiences leg burns from spilled charcoal lighter fluid. A family member extinguishers the flames. While waiting for an ambulance, what should the burn person do? a. Be assisted into a bath of cool water well waiting for emergency personnel b. Lie down, be covered with a blanket, and cover legs with petroleum jelly c. Remove the burned pants so that the air can help call the wound d. Sit in a chair, elevate the legs, and have someone cut the pants off around the burned area
a. Be assisted into a bath of cool water well waiting for emergency personnel
A patient was involved in an avalanche that killed many people on a ski trip, including the patient's brother. The nurse is educating the patient about recognition of stress reactions and ways to manage stress. What type of process is the nurse introducing to the patient? a. Defusing b. Debriefing c. Preparedness d. Demobilization
a. Defusing
A patient brought to the ED by the rescue squad after getting off a plane at the airport reports severe joint pain, numbness, and an inability to move the arms. The patient was on a diving vacation and went for a last dive this morning before flying home. What is a priority action by the nurse? a. Ensure a patent airway and that the patient is receiving 100% oxygen b. Send the patient for a chest x-ray c. Send the patient to the hyperbaric chamber d. Draw labs for a chemistry panel
a. Ensure a patent airway and that the patient is receiving 100% oxygen
A soldier is preparing to enter an area in which there is a high risk for chemical exposure to a nerve agent. What should the soldier be given prior to entering this area? a. Mark I automatic injectors that contain 2 mg atropine and 600 mg pralidoxime chloride b. Mark I automatic injectors that contain an anticonvulsant medication such as carbamazepine c. Mark I automatic injector filled with morphine 10 mg d. Mark I automatic injector filled with cyanide
a. Mark I automatic injectors that contain 2 mg atropine and 600 mg pralidoxime chloride
The nurse is triaging patients from a 10-car pile-up on the interstate and assesses a patient with a sucking chest wound. What category should this patient be placed in? a. Priority 1 b. Priority 2 c. Priority 3 d. Priority 4
a. Priority 1
The nurse received a call from EMS personnel that they are bringing in eight patients who have been exposed to a chemical after a spill. The patients have been "washed off.: After the initial assessment, what should be done? a. Remove clothing and jewelry and rinse the patients off with water b. Have the patience wash with soap and water and then rinse c. Treat the patients for any burned areas from the chemical since they have already been decontaminated d. Start an IV with lactated ringer's solution at 125 mL/h
a. Remove clothing and jewelry and rinse the patients off with water
Two biological agents most likely to be used during a terrorist attack are:
anthrax, smallpox
An example of a biological weapon of mass destruction is ________; An example of chemical weapon of mass destruction is _______
anthrax; chlorine
The nurse received a patient from a motor vehicle crash who is hemorrhaging from a femoral wound. What is the initial nursing action for the control of the hemorrhage? a. Apply a tourniquet b. Apply firm pressure over the involved area or artery c. Elevate the injured part d. Immobilize the area to control blood loss
b. Apply firm pressure over the involved area or artery
A female patient was sexually assaulted when leaving work. When assisting with the physical examination, what nursing intervention should be provided? (Select all that apply.) a. Have the patient shower or wash the perineal area before the examination b. Assess and document any bruises and lacerations c. Label all torn or bloody clothes and place each item in a separate brown bag so that any evidence can be given to the police d. Ensure that the police are present when the examination is performed
b. Assess and document any bruises and lacerations c. Label all torn or bloody clothes and place each item in a separate brown bag so that any evidence can be given to the police d. Ensure that the police are present when the
The nurse in the ED is triaging patients during the shift. What does the nurse know is the first priority in treating any patient in the ED? a. Controlling hemorrhage b. Establishing an airway c. Obtaining consent for treatment d. Restoring cardiac output
b. Establishing an airway
Patient was brought into the ED after sustaining injuries due to an explosion while welding. The patient is breathing but has an oxygen saturation of 90%, a respiratory rate of 32, and is coughing. What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Give oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula b. Give oxygen with a nonrebreather mask c. Start an IV of normal saline solution at 125 mL/h d. Obtain a chest x-ray
b. Give oxygen with a nonrebreather mask
The nurse is triaging people that have been involved in a bus accident. A triage patient with psychological disturbances would be tagged with which color? a. Black b. Green c. Red d. Yellow
b. Green
The department of homeland security issues a code "blue" relative to a situation. What does the nurse recognize that this indicates? a. Perceived low risk b. Guarded risk c. Possible risk but ill-defined d. High risk with no specific site
b. Guarded risk
The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a full thickness burn to the arm after being scolded with boiling water. How did the nurse determine that the patient's burns are full-thickness burns? a. Classification by the appearance of blisters b. Identification by the destruction of the dermis and epidermis c. Not associated with edema formation d. Usually very painful because of exposed nerve endings
b. Identification by the destruction of the dermis and epidermis
The nurse is administering an analgesic to a patient with major Burns. What is the recommended route for administration for this patient? a. Intramuscular b. Intravenous c. Oral d. Subcutaneous
b. Intravenous
A triage patient with a significant injury that can wait several hours for treatment would be a sign of white priority? a. Priority 1 b. Priority 2 c. Priority 3 d. Priority 4
b. Priority 2
An adolescent is brought to the ED after a motor vehicle accident and is pronounced dead on arrival. When the parents arrive at the hospital, what is a priority action by the nurse? a. Ask them to sit in the waiting room until the nurse can spend time alone with them b. Speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their emotions freely c. Speak to one parent at a time in a private setting so that each can ventilate feelings of loss without upsetting the other d. Ask the ED healthcare provider to medicate the parents so that they can handle their child's unexpected death quietly
b. Speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their emotions freely
The nurse is caring for a patient in the ED who is breathing but unconscious. In order to avoid an upper airway obstruction, the nurse is inserting an oropharyngeal airway. What technique should the nurse use during insertion? a. At an angle of 90° b. Upside down and then rotated 180° c. With the concave portion touching the posterior pharynx d. With the convex portion facing upward
b. Upside down and then rotated 180°
For a patient who is experiencing multiple injuries, which sequence of medical or nursing management with the nurse identify as a priority? a. Assess for head injuries, control hemorrhage, establish an airway, prevent hypovolemic shock b. Control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, establish an airway, assess for head injuries c. Establish an airway, control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries d. Prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries, establish an airway, control hemorrhage
c. Establish an airway, control hemorrhage, prevent hypovolemic shock, assess for head injuries
A nurse is working as a camp nurse during the summer. A camp counselor comes to the clinic after receiving a snake bite on the arm. What is the first action by the nurse? a. Apply ice to the area b. Apply a tourniquet to the arm above the bite c. Have the patient lie down and place the arm below the level of the heart d. Mark an incision and suck the venom out
c. Have the patient lie down and place the arm below the level of the heart
A patient will be receiving biologic dressings. The nurse understands that biologic dressings, which use skin from living or recently deceased humans, are known by what name? a. Autografts b. Heterografts c. Homografts d. Xenografts
c. Homografts
The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained severe burns to 50% of the body three days previously. What should the nurse report immediately when reviewing laboratory studies indicating massive cell destruction? a. Hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypercalcemia
c. Hyperkalemia
The nurse is assisting in a disaster caused by a massive tornado that has destroyed much of the community. This disaster will require state wide and federal assistance. What classification would this disaster be? a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV
c. Level III
A nuclear reactor overheated, releasing radiation throughout the plant. They were here close to the reactor received at least 800 rads and has had an onset of vomiting, bloody diarrhea, and, when brought to the hospital, was in shock. What is this patients predicted survival? a. Possible b. Probable c. Likely d. Improbable
c. Likely
A patient has experienced blunt abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle crash. The nurse assesses the patient, knowing that which organ is the most frequently injured solid abdominal organ? a. Duodenum b. Large bowel c. Liver d. Pancreas
c. Liver
The nurse is giving antivenin to a patient who was bitten on the arm by a poisonous snake. What intervention provided by the nurse is required prior to the procedure and every 15 minutes after? a. Give diphenhydramine b. Give cimetidine c. Measure the circumference of the arm d. Assess peripheral pulses
c. Measure the circumference of the arm
The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained major burn. What serious Gastro intestinal disturbance should the nurse monitor for that frequently occurs with a major burn? a. Diverticulitis b. Hematemesis c. Paralytic ileus d. Ulcerative colitis
c. Paralytic ileus
A patient is suspected to have an air embolus after being in a close proximity to an explosion at a sports arena. What position should the nurse place the patient in to prevent migration of the embolus? a. Supine with head of the bed at 30° b. High Fowler position c. Prone left lateral position d. Lithotomy
c. Prone left lateral position
The NATO triage system uses color coded tagging to identify severity of injuries. Patient was survivable but life-threatening injuries would be tagged with which color?. a. Black b. Green c. Red d. Yellow
c. Red
The nurse knows that which topical in a bacterial agent does not penetrate eschar? a. Acticoat b. Mafenide acetate c. Silver nitrate 0.5% d. Silver sulfadiazine 1%
c. Silver nitrate 0.5%
A patient was bitten by a tick 3 months ago and is now having muscle aches as well as joint pain and swelling. The patient is having difficulty with self-care and requires assistance with activities of daily living. What stage of Lyme disease does the nurse recognize the patient is in? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV
c. Stage III
The nurse is providing wound care for a client with burns to lower extremities. Which topical antibacterial agent carries a side effect of leukopenia that the nurse should monitor for within 48 hours after application? a. Cerium nitrate solution b. Gentamicin sulfate c. Sulfadiazine, silver d. Mafenide
c. Sulfadiazine, silver
Exposure to Anthrax, without clinical signs and symptoms of the disease, requires a 60 day treatment with one of two antibiotics: _______ or _______. The mortality rate associated with respiratory distress is:
ciprofloxacin, doxycycline; 100%
The nurse is assessing a patient for signs of potassium shifting during the acute phase of burn injury. During which time frame should the nurse assess for signs of potassium shifting? a. Within 24 hours b. Between 24 and 48 hours c. At the beginning of the third day d. Beginning on day 4 or day 5
d. Beginning on day 4 or day 5
A patient is being brought into the ED who is probably infected with anthrax. The nurse should ensure what level of personal protective equipment to wear for everyone who will come in contact with the patient? a. Level A b. Level B c. Level C d. Level D
d. Level D
Several patients that have been involved in a bombing are unlikely to survive. What priority are these patients given during triage? a. Priority 1 b. Priority 2 c. Priority 3 d. Priority 4
d. Priority 4
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory studies for a patient during fluid re-mobilization after a major burn. What laboratory value observed by the nurse should be immediately reported? a. Hematocrit level of 45% b. A pH of 7.2, PaO2 of 38 mm Hg, and bicarbonate level of 15 mEq/L c. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L d. Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
d. Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
A triage nurse in the ED determines that a patient with dyspnea and dehydration is not in a life-threatening situation. What triage category will the nurse choose? a. Delayed b. Emergent c. Immediate d. Urgent
d. Urgent
Three commonly use topical anti-bacterials for skin care are:
silver sulfadiazine (silvadene), silver nitrate, mafenide acetate (sulfamylon)