Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Which of the nurse's assessment questions most directly addresses the client's level of health, based on the World Health Organization's definition of health? "How would you rate your overall sense of well-being?" "How often have you been sick over the past 12 months?" "What are the things that give you the most joy in your life?" "Would you consider yourself to be more healthy, less healthy, or average?"
"How would you rate your overall sense of well-being?" Explanation: The WHO defines health as a "state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity." For this reason, an assessment question that directly addresses overall well-being is reflective of this definition. The other listed questions are clinically relevant, but none directly reflects the WHO definition of health.
A client has recently been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and is meeting with an oncologist for the first time. Which statement best describes the client's prognosis? "The formal name for what you have is pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia III." "I've determined that your cancer is at stage II B, which I'll explain to you." "Your likelihood of 5-year survival of pancreatic cancer is a very low percentage." "The plan of treatment will be based on the stage of your cancer, your response to therapy, and your preferences."
"Your likelihood of 5-year survival of pancreatic cancer is a very low percentage." Explanation: Prognosis refers to the probable outcome and prospect of recovery from a disease. For many diseases, it is expressed as a percentage. Cancer of the pancreas is a leading cause of cancer death each year in the United States. It is difficult to diagnose early because the pancreas is hidden and surrounded by other organs. Treatment has limited results, and 5-year survival rates are low. None of the other listed statements directly addresses the client's chances for recovery.
When attempting to reach a health diagnosis, the health care provider commonly applies four primary steps. Place the steps for reaching a diagnosis in order. Use all the options. Click an option, hold and drag it to the desired position, or click an option to highlight it and move it up or down in the order using the arrows to the left. 1Conduct a physical examination. 2Perform diagnostic testing. 3Determine the most likely cause of the client's presentation. 4Obtain clinical history.
1Obtain clinical history. 2Conduct a physical examination. 3Perform diagnostic testing. 4Determine the most likely cause of the client's presentation. Explanation: The client's presentation, including clinical history and any initial complaints, helps to direct the rest of the steps. For example, when a client presents reporting chest pain, this will direct the focus of the examination and diagnostic testing. This course would be different for a client presenting with hip pain. The findings of the physical examination will direct more specific diagnostic testing, though some basic investigations may be done concurrently with the examination. Finally, the health care provider would need to weigh the findings against client characteristics and determine the most likely cause of the clinical findings.
A daycare provides daily services to 60 children from 3 months to 5 years of age. Fifteen of the children have experienced an outbreak of diarrhea within the past week. The incidence rate of diarrhea among the children cared for by this daycare is at what percent?
25% Explanation: Incidence rate reflects the number of new cases arising in a population at risk during a specified time. The population at risk is considered to be people without the disease but who are at risk for developing it. It is determined by dividing the number of new cases of a disease by the population at risk for development of the disease during the same period.
A nurse is conducting a staff educational program on diagnostic tests. The nurse should include that the normal value of a laboratory test represents the test results that fall within which distribution level? 95% 80% 100% 75%
95% Explanation: The normal value of a laboratory test represents the test results that fall within the 95% distribution level.
A nurse researcher is examining the specificity of a screening test for kidney disease. Of the 1000 people tested, 33 tested positive for kidney disease. After further testing, 28 of these clients were confirmed to have kidney disease. What is the specificity of this test? Record your answer as a percentage to one decimal place.
99.5 Explanation: The test correctly identified 972 of the people without the disease but falsely identified 5 people as having the disease who did not. Thus, the false positives were 5. To calculate the specificity, take the true negative of 972 and divide it by the true negative plus the false positive which is 977. The result is 0.9948, which is multiplied by 100 to convert into a percent of specificity of 99.5%.
When the nurse is assisting with the diagnostic process for a client with an illness, what is a priority when compiling all of the data to have an accurate diagnosis? Select all that apply. Diagnostic tests Detailed physical examination Social data A careful history Financial information
A careful history Detailed physical examination Diagnostic tests Explanation: The diagnostic process requires a careful history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests. The history is used to obtain a person's account of his or her symptoms and their progression, and the actors that contribute to a diagnosis. The physical examination is done to observe for signs of altered body structure or function. The diagnostic tests are ordered to validate what is thought to be the problem. They are also performed to determine other possible health problems that were not obtained from the history and physical examination, but may be present given the signs and symptoms identified.
A member of the health care team is researching the etiology and pathogenesis of a number of clients who are under her care in a hospital context. Which client situation best characterizes pathogenesis rather than etiology? A client with multiple skeletal injuries secondary to a motor vehicle accident A client who has been exposed to the mycobacterium tuberculosis bacterium A client who has increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis A client who was admitted with the effects of methyl alcohol poisoning
A client who has increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis Explanation: Pathogenesis refers to the progressive and evolutionary course of disease, such as the increasing ammonia levels that accompany liver disease. Bacteria, poisons, and traumatic injuries are examples of etiologic factors that set a disease in motion.
The nurse observes that blood pressure readings taken by a new unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are very different from what other nurses obtain. What does the nurse understand is occurring with these readings? The validity of the blood pressure calibration is inconsistent. The blood pressure machine is not sensitive. A lack of reliability in the readings of the UAP. The blood pressure readings from the UAP are not specific.
A lack of reliability in the readings of the UAP. Explanation: Reliability refers to the extent to which an observation, if repeated, gives the same result. A poorly calibrated blood pressure machine may give inconsistent measurements of blood pressure, particularly of pressures in either the high or low range. Reliability also depends on the person's skill in taking the measurements.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who states she fell and twisted her right ankle during a softball game. The nurse notes that the right ankle is edematous and will probably need to be x-rayed. What term does the nurse use to describe the changes that accompany this finding? A syndrome A chronic disorder A sign A symptom
A sign Explanation: A sign is a manifestation that is noted by an observer. An elevated temperature, a swollen extremity, and changes in pupil size are objective signs that can be observed by someone other than the person with the disease.
The nurse is interviewing a client during the admission process to an acute care facility. The nurse asks the client what brought her in to seek health care. The client states, "I have been very dizzy and nauseated for the last 3 days." What information has the nurse received from this client? A symptom An event A sign A morphologic change
A symptom Explanation: A symptom is a subjective complaint that is noted by the person with a disorder, whereas a sign is a manifestation that is noted by an observer. Pain, difficulty in breathing, and dizziness are symptoms of a disease. An elevated temperature, a swollen extremity, and changes in pupil size are objective signs that can be observed by someone other than the person with the disease. Signs and symptoms may be related to the primary disorder or they may represent the body's attempt to compensate for the altered function caused by the pathologic condition.
A nurse documenting a client's health history places hypertension under which category? Complications Mortality Congenital Acquired
Acquired Explanation: An acquired condition, such as hypertension, is caused by events that occur after birth.
An infant has a difficult time passing through the birth canal and the physician uses forceps to deliver the child. In the process, the facial nerve was damaged, resulting in a facial droop. Which condition does the nurse recognize this to be? Congenital condition Morphologic change Pathogenesis Acquired defect
Acquired defect Explanation: Acquired defects are those that are caused by events that occur after birth. These include injury, exposure to infectious agents, inadequate nutrition, lack of oxygen, inappropriate immune responses, and neoplasia. Congenital conditions are defects that are present at birth, although they may not be evident until later in life or may never manifest. Morphologic changes are concerned with both the gross anatomic and microscopic changes that are characteristic of a disease. Pathogenesis explains how the disease process evolves.
A client tests positive for an infectious disease but does not have any symptoms. The physician informs the client that she is capable of infecting others. Which stage of the clinical course is this client experiencing? Carrier state Clinical disease Acute disorder Subclinical disease
Carrier state Explanation: Carrier status refers to a person who harbors an organism but is not infected, as evidenced by antibody response or clinical manifestations. This person still can infect others. Carrier status may be of limited duration or it may be chronic, lasting for months or years. Subclinical disease is not clinically apparent, and is not destined to become clinically apparent. Clinical disease is manifested by signs and symptoms. An acute disorder is one that is relatively severe but self limiting.
A client develops an infection with a resistant organism while hospitalized for surgery. After treatment, there are no obvious signs of infection, but a culture shows that the organism is present. Which term describes the client's status? Clinical disease Preclinical stage Chronic disease Carrier status
Carrier status Explanation: In carrier status, the client shows no symptoms, tests positive for the disease, and may still transmit the disease but is not infected. Chronic disease is a long-term, continuous process. In the preclinical stage of a disease, a client may show no symptoms but will progress to clinical disease. In clinical disease, the condition is overtly present.
The nurse researcher has gathered the above data. The nurse will apply this data in what type of study?
Case-control study Explanation: Case-control studies are designed to compare people known to have the outcome of interest (cases) and those known not to have the outcome of interest (controls). In the study outlined, the condition of interest is influenza and the exposure wishing to be measured is vaccination against influenza. This helps the nurse calculate the degree of protection against the condition that may have been created by the vaccine; other influencing factors would need to be controlled. In a cohort study (also called a longitudinal study), people are followed over a period of time to observe a specific health outcome that does not fit the data presented. A randomized control trial of this topic would involve not knowing who received the vaccine prior to gathering the data.
A client is diagnosed with Crohn's disease and is informed that there is no cure; however, the client will have periods when there are no symptoms nor periods of exacerbations. Which type of clinical course does the nurse determine the client will have?
Chronic Explanation: A chronic disease implies a continuous, long-term process. It can run a continuous course or can present with exacerbations and remissions. An acute disorder is one that is relatively severe, but self-limiting. A subacute disease is intermediate or between acute and chronic. It is not as severe as an acute disease and not as prolonged as a chronic disease.
During an assessment, a client tells the nurse that he has suffered from asthma since childhood. He is not experiencing any symptoms at this time but takes an inhaled steroidal medication daily. The nurse should document the asthma as being which type of condition?
Chronic Explanation: Chronic disease is one that has a long, continuous course. It can present with exacerbations and remissions. Acute disease is one that is relatively severe, but self-limiting. Subclinical disease is not clinically apparent and not destined to become so. Subacute disease is not as severe as an acute disease and not as prolonged as a chronic disease.
During an assessment, a client tells the nurse that he has suffered from asthma since childhood. He is not experiencing any symptoms at this time but takes an inhaled steroidal medication daily. The nurse should document the asthma as being which type of condition? Acute Subclinical Subacute Chronic
Chronic Explanation: Chronic disease is one that has a long, continuous course. It can present with exacerbations and remissions. Acute disease is one that is relatively severe, but self-limiting. Subclinical disease is not clinically apparent and not destined to become so. Subacute disease is not as severe as an acute disease and not as prolonged as a chronic disease.
Which client conditions would be considered a congenital defect? Select all that apply. Club foot Rheumatoid arthritis Colon cancer Cleft lip and palate Hypospadias
Cleft lip and palate Club foot Hypospadias Explanation: Congenital defects are present at birth and occur as a result of neonatal factors and may be influenced by genetic influences, environmental factors, maternal drug use, and radiation. Acquired defects are those that develop as a result of events after birth, including exposure to infectious agents, injury, inadequate nutrition, lack of oxygen, inappropriate immune response, and neoplasia.
A client is experiencing signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure. The client's disease is in which phase of its clinical course? Subclinical Clinical Preclinical Postclinical
Clinical Explanation: When a client is experiencing signs and symptoms of disease, the disease is considered to be in the clinical phase of its clinical course.
Researchers have designed a study where the health of a large group of babies will be followed for several years. What type of study is this? Case-control Double-blind placebo Cohort Repetition
Cohort Explanation: Persons enrolled in a cohort study (also called a longitudinal study) are followed over a period of time to observe one or more specific health outcomes. A case-control study is done on an individual, case-by-case situation. The double-blind placebo is a drug study. Repetition is a type of study carried out in a laboratory with very tight controls in place.
The Framingham cohort study examined characteristics of people who would later develop which disease?
Coronary disease Explanation: The Framingham cohort studied examined the characteristics of the people who would later develop coronary disease. The study was set up in 1950 by the U.S Public Health Service.
The nurse evaluates a client for manifestations of a disease. Which assessment data are signs of a disorder? Select all that apply. Dizziness Tachycardia Itching Dilated pupils Pain Skin rash
Dilated pupils Tachycardia Skin rash Explanation: Diseases produce clinical manifestations. Signs are manifestations that can be observed objectively such as changes in vital signs, exudate, rash, and changes in pupil size. Symptoms are subjective manifestations that cannot be measured objectively and include pain, dizziness, itching, and difficulty breathing.
Which science is called on to study the risk factors in multifactorial diseases? Epidemiology Histology Scientology Morphology
Epidemiology Explanation: Epidemiology is the study of patterns of disease, such as the spread of a disease in an epidemic. It has also emerged as a science to study the risk factors in multifactorial diseases, such as heart disease and cancer. Scientology is a religion. Morphology refers to the fundamental structure or form of cells or tissues. Histology deals with the study of the cells and extracellular matrix of body tissues.
What do morbidity and mortality statistics refer to? Effects a disease has on a person's life and treatment Long-term consequences and recovery rates of a disease Functional effects and death-producing characteristics of a disease Cause of death and impact on the family because of a disease
Functional effects and death-producing characteristics of a disease Explanation: Morbidity and mortality statistics provide information about the functional effects (morbidity) and death-producing (mortality) characteristics of a disease. Morbidity statistics do address the effects a disease has on a person's life and the long-term consequences of the disease state, but morbidity and mortality statistics taken together have a broader scope. Neither morbidity nor mortality statistics address recovery rates from a disease or treatment modalities for a disease. Although mortality does address the causes of death in a given population, morbidity does not address the impact the disease state has on the family.
For a physician to diagnose a client, which process must be followed? Select all that apply.
Getting a complete history Performing a careful physical examination Diagnostic testing Explanation: The diagnostic process requires a careful history, physical examination (PE), and diagnostic tests. The history is used to obtain a person's account of his or her symptoms and their progression and the factors that contribute to a diagnosis. The PE is done to observe signs of altered body structure or function. Diagnostic tests are ordered to validate what is thought to be the problem. Tests are also performed to determine other possible health problems that were not obtained from the history and PE but may be present, given that the signs and symptoms are identified.
Pathogenesis is the term used to describe the sequence of cellular and tissue events that occur from the time of first contact with an etiologic agent until the disease becomes evident. What is another way of defining pathogenesis? The causes of disease What sets the disease process in motion Multiple factors that predispose a person to a particular disease How the disease process evolves
How the disease process evolves Explanation: The pathogenesis of a disease is the mechanism by which an etiologic factor causes the disease. Etiology is what sets the disease process in motion, or what causes the disease. Risk factors are multiple factors that predispose a person to a particular disease.
After teaching a client, the nurse wants to see if the client understands the risk factors for heart disease. Which response by the client would indicate the need for further instruction? "If I lose as little as 10 pounds, it will help cut my risk." "A healthy blood pressure should be below 120/80." "I will switch from smoking to chewing tobacco." "My hemoglobin A1c should be between 4% and 5.6%."
I will switch from smoking to chewing tobacco." Explanation: Tobacco use is a strong factor in heart disease no matter what form is used. Overweight clients who implement weight reduction experience benefits even if they are still above their ideal weight. For the average individual, a blood pressure between 90/60 and 120/80 is considered healthy. A healthy hemoglobin A1c is between 4% and 5.6%. Clients at increased risk are those with higher levels.
Despite using the same screening tools as previous years (which have been confirmed as highly valid, reliable, sensitive, and specific), the public health nurse notes an increase in the number of people in the population testing positive for type 2 diabetes this year. What action should the nurse take? Ask all people who tested positive to return to the screening clinic to be retested. Investigate the population for factors that would cause an increase in the prevalence of diabetes. Send all people who test positive to a laboratory for assessment using a different diagnostic test. Examine the commonalities of those people who did not test positive for diabetes.
Investigate the population for factors that would cause an increase in the prevalence of diabetes. Explanation: Since the validity, reliability, sensitivity, and specificity of the test has been confirmed, the reason for the increase in prevalence should be investigated. Repeating the same test on the same people would be a measure of reliability; this has already been established. Sending the people for laboratory testing would only be needed if validity was in question. Examining the commonalities of those who did not test positive is not the priority compared to investigating the commonalities of those who did test positive.
Which attribute is a benefit of health care providers using an evidence-based practice guideline?
It directs research into forming a diagnosis and treatment for a certain condition. Explanation: Evidence-based practice guidelines often use methods to combine evidence from different studies to produce a more precise estimate of the accuracy of a diagnostic method or the effects of an intervention method. Practice guidelines require continuous updates as new research is conducted and supported. Practice guidelines are developed on numerous research studies. Not all research is directed toward healing time.
A disease agent can affect more than one organ of the body, and more than one disease agent can affect the same organ of the body. Which term best describes this aspect of disease etiology? Simple and less complex to diagnose Complicated and hard to diagnose Multifactorial in origin Singular cause
Multifactorial in origin Explanation: The majority of diseases are multifactorial in origin. This is especially true of diseases such as cancer, heart disease, and diabetes. Most disease states do not have a single cause but instead stem from a number of factors. Some disease states are complicated and hard to diagnose, such as multiple sclerosis, whereas some are simple, straightforward, and easy to diagnose, such as a broken leg.
The nurse is caring for a client in the burn unit who has sustained partial and full thickness burns over 16 percent of the body. What type of etiologic factor does the nurse recognize these burns are? Biologic agents Physical forces Psychological factors Chemical agents
Physical forces Explanation: The causes of disease are known as etiologic factors. Among the recognized etiologic agents are biologic agents (e.g., bacteria, viruses), physical forces (eg., trauma, burns, radiation), chemical agents (e.g., poisons, alcohol), one's genetic inheritance, and nutritional excess or defects.
A school nurse compares the number of cases of measles in one elementary classroom to the number of students in the school. Which term describes this type of comparison? Morbidity Risk analysis Primary prevention Prevalence
Prevalence Explanation: Prevalence is a measure of existing disease in a population at a given point in time. Primary prevention is intervention to avoid disease. Morbidity is the functional effect of a disease, such as missed school days. Risk analysis would evaluate which members of the population were at risk for a disease.
A nurse researcher is collecting data on the number of people who have been diagnosed with diabetes in a local population at a given time. Which term best categorizes the aspect of epidemiology the nurse is collecting? Morbidity Mortality Prevalence Incidence
Prevalence Explanation: The prevalence rate is a measure of an existing disease in a population at a given point in time. An incidence rate reflects the number of new disease cases arising in an at-risk population. Morbidity and mortality statistics provide information about the functional effects (morbidity) and death-producing (mortality) characteristics of a disease.
Which assessment data would a nurse identify as a complication of a disease or disorder? Reduced range of motion following a fracture Weight gain of 1 to 2 pounds per week during pregnancy Hyperlipidemia in cardiovascular disease Pulmonary emboli following deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Pulmonary emboli following deep vein thrombosis (DVT) Explanation: Pulmonary emboli are a dangerous complication of DVT. Sequelae are lesions or impairments that follow or are caused by a disease. Reduced range of motion following a fracture is a common, often temporary, result of the injury. Weight gain of 1 to 2 pounds per week during pregnancy is considered normal. Hyperlipidemia is a common cause of cardiovascular disease, not the result of the disease.
The nurse documents which assessment data as a symptom?
Report of pain Explanation: A symptom is a subjective complaint that is noted by the person with a disorder, whereas a sign is a manifestation that is noted by an observer. A report of pain is a symptom, which is a subjective complaint. Temperature, pupil size, and lymph node enlargement are signs that can be observed by another person.
There are three fundamental types of prevention used in health care: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Which statement accurately describes secondary prevention? Secondary prevention takes place within health care systems and involves the services of a number of different types of health care professionals. Secondary prevention is often accomplished outside the health care system at the community level. Secondary prevention detects disease early, and most is done in clinical settings. Secondary prevention goes beyond treating the problem with which the person presents.
Secondary prevention detects disease early, and most is done in clinical settings. Explanation: Secondary prevention detects disease early in its course when it is still asymptomatic and treatment measures can effect a cure or stop the disease from progressing. Most secondary prevention is undertaken in clinical settings. Tertiary prevention goes beyond treating the presenting problem. Tertiary prevention programs are located within health care systems and involve the services of a number of different types of health care professionals. Primary prevention is often accomplished outside the health care system at the community level.
A client has been admitted to the intensive care unit with a myocardial infarction. After the client recovers from the acute course of the event and ready for discharge, the nurse provides information about the beta adrenergic blocker, atenolol, that the client will take to prevent complications after the MI. What type of prevention is the nurse providing? Primary prevention Secondary prevention Tertiary prevention Initial prevention
Tertiary prevention Explanation: Tertiary prevention is directed at clinical interventions that prevent further deterioration or reduce the complications of a disease once it has been diagnosed. An example is the use of beta adrenergic drugs to reduce the risk of death in people who have had a heart attack. The boundaries of tertiary prevention go beyond treating the problem with which the person presents
Why are some diseases termed syndromes? They have complications. They are a compilation of signs and symptoms characteristic of a specific disease state. They are a group of disease states that has the same etiology. They leave sequelae (e.g., lesions) and residual effects.
They are a compilation of signs and symptoms characteristic of a specific disease state. Explanation: A syndrome is a compilation of signs and symptoms (e.g., chronic fatigue syndrome) that are characteristic of a specific disease state. Complications are possible adverse extensions of a disease or outcomes from treatment. Sequelae are lesions or impairments that follow or are caused by a disease. There is no name for a group of disease states that all have the same cause.
When the nurse questions the blood glucose level obtained via a glucometer, a serum blood level is ordered. This protocol is directed toward ensuring which measure of standardization? Predictability Reliability Standardization Validity
Validity Explanation: Validity refers to the extent to which a measurement tool measures what it is intended to measure, and is assessed by comparing a measurement method with the best possible method of measure that is available. Thus, the validity of a fingerstick method of testing blood glucose is compared with serum testing in the laboratory. Reliability refers to the extent to which an observation, if repeated, gives the same result. Predictive value is the extent to which an observation or test result is able to predict the presence of a given disease or condition. In the field of clinical laboratory measurements, standardization is aimed at increasing the accuracy and reliability of measured values.
A client with hypertension is given an IV medication and has an anaphylactic reaction. This is considered to be: a syndrome. a sequelae. a subacute presentation. a complication.
a complication. Explanation: Complications are possible adverse extensions of a disease or outcome from treatment. An example is an anaphylactic reaction to a medication.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a newly admitted client with asthma and hears wheezes in the upper lobes of the lungs. When the nurse documents this finding, the nurse recognize this to be: a diagnosis. a complication. a sign. an objective symptom.
a sign. Explanation: A sign is a manifestation that is noted by the observer, in this case the nurse auscultating the breath sounds. A symptom is a subjective report by the client. A diagnosis is not formed by the nurse auscultating lung sounds, as wheezes can be a manifestation of other illnesses. A complication is a possible adverse extension of a disease or outcomes from treatment.
Facility policies on wound dressing selection refer the nurse to a dressing algorithm. The nurse anticipates that the algorithm will include: standing orders for wound care. a step-by-step decision-making tree for dressing selection. guidelines for staging pressure ulcers. a pictorial representation of various dressings.
a step-by-step decision-making tree for dressing selection. Explanation: Algorithms are step-by-step methods for solving problems. An example would be a decision tree for selection of wound care dressings based on type of wound.
Which client conditions illustrate acquired defects? Select all that apply. colon cancer hypospadias rheumatoid arthritis cleft lip and palate club foot
colon cancer rheumatoid arthritis Explanation: Acquired defects are those which develop as a result of events after birth. These include exposure to infectious agents, injury, inadequate nutrition, lack of oxygen, inappropriate immune response, and neoplasia. Congenital defects are present at birth and occur as a result of neonatal factors and may be influenced by genetic influences, environmental factors, maternal drug use, and radiation.
A particular disease has a debilitating effect on the ability of sufferers to perform their activities of daily living and is a significant cause of decreased quality of life. However, few people die as a result of the disease's direct effects. There are hundreds of thousands of Canadians living with the disease but relatively few new cases in recent years. This disease has: low mortality, high morbidity, high incidence, and low prevalence. high morbidity, low mortality, high prevalence, and low incidence. low mortality, high morbidity, low prevalence, and high incidence. high mortality, low morbidity, high incidence, and low prevalence.
high morbidity, low mortality, high prevalence, and low incidence. Explanation: Morbidity is associated with quality of life, while mortality is indicative of causation of death. In this case, morbidity is high and mortality is low. Prevalence refers to the number of cases present in a population, while incidence refers to the number of new cases. In this case, prevalence is high, while incidence is low.
Which attribute is a benefit of health care providers using an evidence-based practice guideline? With continued use, it will decrease healing time for clients. Once a practice guideline is well developed, it does not require modification. It directs research into forming a diagnosis and treatment for a certain condition. It uses one research method for delivery of care.
it directs research into forming a diagnosis and treatment for a certain condition. Explanation: Evidence-based practice guidelines often use methods to combine evidence from different studies to produce a more precise estimate of the accuracy of a diagnostic method or the effects of an intervention method. Practice guidelines require continuous updates as new research is conducted and supported. Practice guidelines are developed on numerous research studies. Not all research is directed toward healing time.
