Chapter 10 and 11 anatomy

Ch 10 24. An individual muscle cell is called a ______________. Muscle fiber Myofibril Sarcomere Fascicle Select one: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

1

Ch 10 Part B - Steps in a Cross Bridge CyclePart complete The sarcomere shortens when the myosin heads of the thick filaments, in a cocked position, form cross bridges with the actin molecules in thin filaments. This activity will test your understanding of the steps that occur in one complete cross bridge cycle. Place the steps that occur during a single cross bridge cycle in the correct order from left to right. Hint 1. What Are Thick and Thin Filaments?

ATP hydrolysis activates the myosin head 1.)The activated myosin head binds to actin,forming a cross bridge. 2.)ADP is released and myosin slides the thin filament toward the center of the sarcomere. 3.)ATP binds to the myosin head and detaches it from actin. 4.) ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi and the energy released re-cocks the myosin head. Explains: The thin filaments are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere by the myosin heads of the thick filament. This shortens the sarcomeres in the muscle fiber and causes the whole skeletal muscle to contract. The cross bridge cycle ends when Ca2+ are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The cycle repeats as long as the binding sites on actin remain exposed, and both Ca2+ and ATP are available.

Ch 10 A&P Flix Activity: Excitation-Contraction Coupling Hint 1. What Is the Difference between the Sarcolemma and the Sarcoplasm? Hint 2. What Is the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR)?opened hint Hint 3. What Is the Difference between T Tubules and Triads?

Answers: 1.)AP propagates along sarcolemma 2.)AP travels down T tubules to triads 3.) Voltage-sensitive proteins open Ca2+ channels 4.) Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+ 5.) Ca2+ levels in sarcoplasm increase Explain: Recall from the video that a single motor neuron can conduct action potentials to several skeletal muscle fibers within a muscle. Excitation-contraction coupling converts these action potentials in a muscle fiber to a contraction. As muscle fibers contract, the entire muscle shortens and pulls the tendons on either end of the muscle, producing muscle tension.

Ch 10 Events at the Neuromuscular Junction part A: Hints: How are Voltage-gated Channels Opened? How are Ligand-gated Channels Opened? What are Acetylcholine (Ach) ? What Are Acetylcholine (Ach) Receptors?

Answers: 1..)Membrane potential is less negative 2.)Na+ enters and K+ exits 3.)Ligand-gated cation channels open 4.)Synaptic vessels release ACh 5.)ACh binds to ACh receptors 6.) Ca2+ enters the axon terminal Explanation: The neuromuscular junction is a chemical synapse. An electrical signal (known as an action potential) from the motor neuron is converted into a chemical signal (ACh release). The skeletal muscle fiber responds to the chemical signal (ACh) by depolarizing and initiating an action potential. This action potential is propagated along the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber, which triggers sliding of the myofilaments for muscle contraction.

CH 10 Events at the Neuromuscular Junction part B Which of the following is/are mechanism to end neural transmission at the neuromuscular junction? Answers: chose as many as you think? ACh binds to ACh receptors. ACh is broken down into acetic acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE). ACh diffuses away from the synaptic cleft. ACh is taken up by the axon terminal via endocytosis.

Answers: ACh is broken down into acetic acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE). ACh diffuses away from the synaptic cleft. Explanation: The chemical signal (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction is very short! Soon after ACh is released from the axon terminal, it is rapidly degraded by AChE or diffuses out of the synaptic cleft. These two mechanisms ensure that just enough ACh binds to its receptor to initiate an action potential and that the muscle fiber's response is quickly terminated.

Ch 10 Initiation of the cross bridge cycle: Part A The cross bridge cycle starts when _________. Hint 1. How Do Cross Bridges Form? What are the answers? Chose as many as you think. Ca2+ is actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum ATP binds to troponin and is hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to tropomyosin Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin acetylcholine diffuses away from the synaptic cleft

Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin Explain: The release of Ca2+ is triggered by the propagation of an action potential along a skeletal muscle fiber. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and into the sarcoplasm of the muscle fiber. When Ca2+ concentration is high in the sarcoplasm, Ca2+ binds to troponin causing change in its shape. This shape change alters the position of tropomyosin and moves it away from myosin binding sites on actin, thus allowing the myosin head to bind actin and form a cross bridge.

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the elbow joint Part B Which of the following statements about muscles of the elbow joint is true? Answers: The biceps brachii is a posterior extensor. The biceps brachii has two heads that share the same origin site. The brachioradialis originates and inserts on the ulna. None of these statements is correct.

None of these statements is correct.

Ch 10 ATP Part A Which of the following is a way that muscle fibers get energy needed for contraction? Answers: During moderate exercise, such as jogging on the treadmill, pyruvate and hydrogen ions accumulate causing muscle fatigue. Aerobic exercise is beneficial to a muscle because it increases the muscle's ability to acquire greater amounts of glucose from the blood for ATP production. Because energy demands are low in a resting muscle, a resting muscle is able to meet its ATP requirement through glycolysis. During peak activity levels, glycolysis is the only pathway by which ATP can be produced to supply energy to the muscle. When a muscle is contracting during peak activity, it quickly uses up stored creatine phosphate which was produced during moderate exercise.

Part A During peak activity levels, glycolysis is the only pathway by which ATP can be produced to supply energy to the muscle.

Ch 10 Muscle Metabolism Part A What is the type of chemical reaction used to rebuild ADP into ATP? View Available Hint(s) Hint: A water molecule must be removed in this process where molecules are combined. dehydration synthesis rehydration synthesis hydrolysis Part B Which of the following processes produces molecules of ATP and has two pyruvic acid molecules as end products? Hint: This process to produce ATP is also known as "sugar splitting" (the breakdown of glucose to produce ATP) and takes place in the cytoplasm. glycolysis hydrolysis of creatine phosphate Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation Part C Which of the following processes produces 36 ATP?) Hint 1. This process is known as aerobic respiration. Answers: hydrolysis of creatine phosphate Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation glycolysis

Part A answer: Dehydration synthesis explain: Yes, a water molecule is removed, thus it is called dehydration synthesis. Building ATP from ADP requires a synthetic enzyme plus a source of energy to rebuild the high energy bond. Part B answer: glycolysis explain:Yes, glucose is broken down in the process called glycolysis. This process takes place in the cytoplasm and does not require oxygen - hence it is called anaerobic respiration. If oxygen is available, the pyruvic acid moves into the mitochondria and glycolysis contributes to aerobic respiration. Part C answer: Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation explain: Yes, 36 ATPs are produced for each glucose molecule. This process, which takes place in the mitochondria, is considered aerobic respiration because oxygen is required.

Ch 11 Clinic Trial David is a 25-year-old insurance salesman and avid "weekend warrior" water-skier. He is skiing behind a powerful speedboat with both feet strapped into a wake board when the boat driver hits the throttle. David starts to fall awkwardly to his right. He resists the fall and digs into the board with his right foot. Suddenly he feels an extremely painful, incapacitating pop below his right gluteal region and falls into the water. David is unable to swim; it feels as if his right lower extremity is paralyzed. Fortunately, he is wearing a life vest, and within minutes he is pulled into the boat and rescued. Back at the dock, he finds he cannot flex his knee at all but is able to get around by locking his quads, "hiking" his hip (knee in extension), and doing an "abduction swing" to place his right foot forward while leaning on a friend for support. He cannot sit on his right side. The next evening, massive bruising appears on the entire posterior surface of his thigh and knee. Three weeks later, the bruising and swelling finally begin to resolve, but David can still feel a ball of muscle behind his right knee. One month post-injury, David is still unable to flex his knee. He visits an orthopedist, who immediately schedules him for surgery. Part A David sustained a complete avulsion of his hamstring tendons from their origin on the ischial tuberosity. Hamstrings are part of what class of lever at the knee? Answer: The hamstrings are part of a third-class lever, where the applied force is between the load and the fulcrum. The hamstrings are part of a second-class lever, where the load is between the applied force and the fulcrum. The hamstrings are not part of the lever system. The hamstrings are part of a first-class lever, where the fulcrum is between the applied force and the load.

Part A : The hamstrings are part of a third-class lever, where the applied force is between the load and the fulcrum. Explain: Third-class levers are the most common type of lever in the body.

Chapter 11 Clinical Note Questions 1 and 2: Hernia Item 21 Complete Review Hernia When the abdominal muscles contract forcefully, pressure in the abdominopelvic cavity can increase dramatically, applying pressure to the internal organs. If the person e xhales at the same time, the pressure is relieved because the diaphragm, the muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities, can move upward as the lungs deflate. But during vigorous isomet ric exercises or when lifting a weight while holding one's breath, pressure in the abdominopelvic cavity can rise to roughly 100 times the normal pressure. A pressure that high can cause a variety of probl ems, including hernia. A hernia develops when a visceral organ or part of an organ protrudes abnormally through an opening in a surrounding muscular wall. There are many types of hernias. Here we will consider only inguinal (groin) hernias and diaphragmatic hernias. In adult males, the spermatic cords penetrate the abdominal musculature through the inguinal canals on their way to the abdominal reproductive organs. In an inguinal hernia, the inguinal canal enlarges, and organs, such as a portion of the intestine, or (more rarely) urinary bladder, enter the inguinal canal. If these structures become trapped or twisted, surgery may be required. In a diaphragmatic hernia, abdominal organs protrude through a weakness in the diaphragm. If these organs protrude through the esophageal hiatus, the passageway used by the esophagus, a hiatal hernia (hi-A-tal; hiatus, opening) exists. Hiatal hernias are very common. Most go unnoticed, although they may increase the gastric acid entry into the esophagus, causing heartburn. Part A In an inguinal hernia, abdominal contents protrude through an enlarged inguinal canal. Which of the following muscles is not superficial to the inguinal canal? Answer: transversus abdominis internal oblique external oblique latissimus dorsi Part B A hiatal hernia develops when abdominal contents protrude into the thoracic cavity through openings in the muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. What is the name of the muscle? Answer: diaphragm transverse abdominis the rectus abdominis the serratus anterior

Part A : latissimus dorsi Part B: diaphragm

Ch 10 Clinic Study Tamara, a 33-year-old violinist, has waited for this neurology appointment for three weeks. That's how long she has been unable to play gigs with her band. She can still play her violin in the morning, but by afternoon, her arms are so tired and weak they feel like wood. During her last performance, she noticed she had drooled on her instrument, much to her embarrassment. This morning she feared she might choke on her toast. She has been unable to drive because of double vision. Her eyelids have been increasingly droopy, and when she woke up this morning, she couldn't open her left eyelid at all. Tamara's neurologist takes a complete medical history and does a thorough physical exam. Tamara hadn't realized how weak her legs have gotten until the doctor asks her to stand up from her chair without using her arms. Walking on her toes is impossible. When the doctor lifts her weak left eyelid, she is not able to track his finger with her gaze and is still seeing double. "I would like to perform a test," says the neurologist, starting an IV. He injects a small amount of a drug. Suddenly Tamara's strength returns. She opens both eyes wide and no longer sees double. She can toe walk, heel walk, and get up unassisted many times in a row. She feels as if she could play her instrument forever. But after 30 minutes, her weakness returns. Part A Question: Tamara's muscle weakness and fatigue becomes progressively worse over the course of the day. This is a hallmark sign of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that affects the ability of a motor neuron to communicate with a muscle fiber. What synaptic events must happen first for excitation to occur? Answer: Calcium binds to tropomyosin, shifting it from the active site on actin, allowing cross-bridge formation to occur as myosin binds to the active site. Acetylcholine is released from the axon terminal and diffuses across the synapse to bind to a receptor in the surface of the motor end plate. Sodium ions from the extracellular fluid diffuse into the cytosol of the muscle fiber, triggering the generation of an action potential in the sarcolemma. The action potential travels down the T tubules in the sarcolemma and triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Part A: Acetylcholine is released from the axon terminal and diffuses across the synapse to bind to a receptor in the surface of the motor end plate. Explain: Neurotransmitter release and subsequent binding to its receptor is the critical first step in neuronal excitation of a muscle fiber

Ch 10 Motor Unit Part A Which of the following statements is true concerning motor units? Lesser tension is required in lifting a dumbbell than in lifting a cup of coffee. Movement of the eyeball requires fewer muscle fibers with less tension being produced. An increased number of motor neurons is needed in precise movements such as lifting a cup of coffee than in lifting a dumbbell. A small number of muscle fibers with increased tension is needed in large, gross movements. A motor unit consists of all the muscle fibers it controls as well as the area of the spinal cord where it originates.

Part A: Movement of the eyeball requires fewer muscle fibers with less tension being produced. Explanation: Precise muscle movements require less motor units, fewer fibers, and lesser tension than large, gross muscle movements.

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement at the glenohumeral joint: An overview Part A A reduction in the lateral angle of the glenohumeral joint in relation to the anatomical position would be called __________. answer: abduction flexion extension adduction Part B Movement of the shoulder laterally away from the body is called __________. answer: abduction extension adduction flexion

Part A: adduction Part B: abduction

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles that act on the shoulder joint and humerus: An overview Part A: Which joint is considered the most flexible joint in the body? Answers: the shoulder joint the wrist joint the elbow joint the hip joint Part B: Muscles of the shoulder can be divided into groups based on __________. answer: distribution and functional relationships location (anterior and posterior) size location (superior and inferior) Part C: Which of the following groups of muscles are not muscles of the shoulder? answer: the anterior flexor muscles muscles that act on the pectoral girdle the rotator cuff muscles muscles that stabilize and cross the glenohumeral joint

Part A: the shoulder joint Part B: distribution and functional relationships Part C: the anterior flexor muscles

Ch 10 Delayed-Onset Muscle Soreness Have you experienced muscle soreness the next day or several days after a period of physical exertion? Considerable controversy exists over the source and significance of this pain, which is known as delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS). You may have noticed a few of its characteristics: DOMS is distinct from the soreness you experience immediately after you stop exercising. The initial short-term soreness is probably related to the biochemical events associated with muscle fatigue. DOMS generally begins several hours after exercise and may last three or four days. The amount of DOMS is highest when the activity involves eccentric contractions (in which a muscle elongates despite producing tension). Activities dominated by concentric or isometric contractions produce less soreness. Levels of creatine kinase and myoglobin are elevated in the blood, indicating damage to muscle plasma membranes. The nature of the activity (eccentric, concentric, or isometric) has no effect on these levels. Nor can the levels be used to predict the degree of soreness experienced. Three mechanisms have been proposed to explain DOMS: Small tears may occur in the muscle tissue, leaving muscle fibers with damaged membranes. The sarcolemma of each damaged muscle fiber permits the loss of enzymes, myoglobin, and other chemicals that may stimulate nearby pain receptors. The pain may result from muscle spasms in the affected skeletal muscles. In some studies, stretching the muscle involved after exercise reduces the degree of soreness. The pain may result from tears in the connective tissue and tendons of the skeletal muscle. Part A: How is delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) different from muscle fatigue? Answers: Delayed-onset muscle soreness involves pain. There may be damage to the sarcolemma. Muscle performance is impaired. Delayed-onset muscle soreness occurs a day or more after the physical exertion. Part B Activities involving eccentric contractions more commonly lead to delayed-onset muscle soreness than concentric or isometric contractions. Which of the following activities is thus a candidate for delayed-onset muscle soreness? Flexion of the biceps brachii Pushing against the wall in the gym Carrying a bowling ball Extension of the biceps brachii

Part A: Answer: Delayed-onset muscle soreness occurs a day or more after the physical exertion. Part B: Answer: extension of the biceps brachii

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Pectineus Part A The insertion of the pectineus muscle is __________ and on the __________. answer: anterior; pubis posterior; pubis anterior; femur posterior; femur Part B The pectineus muscle __________ the thigh and is innervated by the __________ nerve. answer: abducts and extends; femoral adducts and flexes; femoral adducts and flexes; fibular abducts and extends; fibular

Part A: posterior; femur Part B: adducts and flexes; femoral

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Gluteus medius Part A The gluteus medius muscle is innervated by the __________. Answer: inferior gluteal nerve inferior coxial nerve superior coxial nerve superior gluteal nerve

Part A: superior gluteal nerve

Ch 10 Clinic study part 2 Part B: Question: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in the production of antibodies that either block or cause the destruction of the ACh receptor. Why do you think that Tamara's symptoms become worse as the day progresses? Answers: In the morning, the reserves of ATP are larger, allowing for sufficient acetylcholine release to overcome the unresponsive receptors. However, as the day progresses and stores of ATP become depleted, muscle function becomes progressively worse. In the morning, the neuronal reserves of acetylcholine are larger, allowing for sufficient neurotransmitter release and resulting in effective muscle signaling. As the day progresses and the stores of acetylcholine become depleted, muscle function becomes progressively worse. In myasthenia gravis the ACh receptors have a hyperaffinity to acetylcholine. After muscle activity, fatigue and weakness occur as fewer unbound receptors are available to bind acetylcholine. As the muscle becomes fatigued over the course of the day's activities, the receptors bind less acetylcholine, which results in smaller and smaller action potentials being generated. Smaller action potentials mean weaker contractions, as seen by the increasing muscle weakness.

Part B: In the morning, the neuronal reserves of acetylcholine are larger, allowing for sufficient neurotransmitter release and resulting in effective muscle signaling. As the day progresses and the stores of acetylcholine become depleted, muscle function becomes progressively worse. Explanation: This is why rest or sleep helps with the severity of myasthenia gravis muscle symptoms; it allows sufficient time to replenish the acetylcholine reserves.

Ch 11 Clinical Trial Part B The origin of the hamstring muscles is on the ischial tuberosity; where are their insertions? Answers: The biceps femoris inserts on the anterior superior iliac spine, and both the semimembranosus and the semitendinosus have insertions on the lateral condyle of the femur. The biceps femoris and semitendinosus both have insertions on the linea aspera of the femur, while the semimembranosus inserts on the linea aspera and also on the tubercle of the femur. The biceps femoris inserts on the head of the fibula and lateral condyle of the tibia, the semimembranosus inserts on the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia, and the semitendinosus inserts on the medial surface of the tibia. The biceps, semimembranosus, and the semitendinosus all have insertions on the tibial tuberosity on the medial surface of the tibia.

Part B: The biceps femoris inserts on the head of the fibula and lateral condyle of the tibia, the semimembranosus inserts on the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia, and the semitendinosus inserts on the medial surface of the tibia. Explain: The site where the movable end attaches to another structure is the insertion of the muscle.11111

Ch 10: Clinic Study Part C The injection that dramatically improved Tamara's symptoms was Tensilon, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. What is acetylcholinesterase, and why was this injection effective in relieving Tamara's symptoms? Answers: Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that degrades the ACh receptors. When acetylcholinesterase is inhibited, there are more receptors available for acetylcholine to bind, and muscle function improves. Acetylcholinesterase is a regulatory enzyme that inhibits the ACh receptors on the motor end plate. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase improves muscle function because the ACh receptors are temporarily more active. Acetylcholinesterase is an acetylcholine antagonist that binds to motor end plate receptors and decreases the permeability of the sarcolemma to sodium. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase increases the influx of sodium, leading to the generation of action potentials and an improvement in muscle function. Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that clears acetylcholine from the synapse. Inhibiting this enzyme will enable acetylcholine to be available for a longer period to bind to receptors.

Part C Acetylcholinesterase is the enzyme that clears acetylcholine from the synapse. Inhibiting this enzyme will enable acetylcholine to be available for a longer period to bind to receptors. Explanation: Tensilon is edrophonium chloride, a temporary AChE inhibitor that is commonly used to diagnose myasthenia gravis.

Ch 11 clinical trial Part C In complex movements, muscles commonly work in groups rather than individually. The hamstrings flex the knee. Which muscles are antagonists to the hamstrings? Answer: rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis iliacus and psoas major adductor brevis and adductor longus biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and sartorius

Part C: rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis Explanation: These muscles are all extensors of the knee

Ch 10 Muscle Metabolism Part D: The "rest and recovery" period, where the muscle restores depleted reserves, includes all of the following processes EXCEPT __________. View Available Hint(s) Hint 1. These processes are usually referred to as repaying the oxygen debt. Answers: Glycogen is synthesized from glucose molecules. ATP is used to rephosphorylate creatine into creatine phosphate. Pyruvic acid is converted back to lactic acid. Oxygen rebinds to myoglobin. Part E Which type of muscle fiber has a large quantity of glycogen and mainly uses glycolysis to synthesize ATP?) Hint 1. These fibers also have reduced myoglobin and very few capillaries surrounding them. Answers: white fast twitch fibers red slow twitch fibers

Part D: Pyruvic acid is converted back to lactic acid. Explain: Yes, this is NOT a part of the "rest and recovery" period. When oxygen is available, lactic acid is converted back to pyruvic acid (not vice versa) that then enters the Krebs cycle. Lactic acid is the end product of the anaerobic pathway. Part E: white fast twitch fibers Explains: Yes, white fast twitch fibers have high glycogen content for a readily available source of glucose for glycolysis. They appear white because of the reduced amount of myoglobin and fewer capillaries surrounding them. Because these fibers have reduced myoglobin and very few capillaries surrounding them, they have very little oxygen available for the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation. They also have fewer mitochondria (where the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation would take place).

Ch 11 clinical trial Part D One of the extensors of the knee, the rectus femoris, has a distinct arrangement of fascicles, which facilitate the muscle contraction at the knee. Which arrangement is this known as? Answer: bipennate parallel convergent circular

Part D: bipennate Explain: The bipennate fascicle arrangement has muscle fibers connecting to a central tendon, which helps generate more tension than that seen in a parallel muscle of the same size.

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the pectoral girdle The rhomboideus minor muscle originates on which process on the vertebrae? answer: Spinous process Posterior process Transverse process Pedicle

Spinous process

Ch 10 Which of these statements about skeletal muscles is FALSE? Answers: Their fibers branch They store nutrient reserves They pull on tendons They support soft tissues

Their fiber branches

Ch 10 What connective tissue sheath covers the entire muscle? 1.) Epimysium 2.)Perimysium 3.)endomysium Select one: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3

a. 1

Ch 10 During the contraction of skeletal muscle, what is released from the synaptic terminal into the synaptic cleft? a. Ach (acetylcholine) b. Na+ c. Cl- d. Troponin Select one: a. a b. b c. c d. d

a. a

Ch 10 The expanded chambers of the sarcoplastic reticulum that contain high concentrations of calcium are called ___________ ? a. Cisternae b. Ribosomes c. myofibrils d. actin Select one: a. a b. b c. c d. d

a. a

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement at the hip joint The tensor fascia latae is involved in hip __________. answer: abduction adduction lateral rotation extension

abduction explain: The tensor fascia latae flexes, abducts, and rotates the hip medially.

Ch 11 The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________. Answers: coracoid process of the scapula humerus clavicle acromion of the scapula

acromion of the scapula

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the pectoral girdle The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to __________. answer: act as an attachment site for muscles that move the arm provide the only connection between the arm and the axial skeleton act as an attachment point for the rotator cuff muscles provide the only connection between the humerus and the scapula

act as an attachment site for muscles that move the arm

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Medial muscles that cross the hip joint Part A The medial muscles of the hip joint that insert on the linea aspera are the __________. answer: adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and pectineus adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and adductor longus gracilis, adductor magnus, pectineus, and adductor longus pectineus, adductor magnus, and adductor longus

adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and adductor longus

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the elbow joint Part D The smallest of the posterior extensors of the elbow joint is the __________. Answer: anconeus biceps brachii triceps brachii brachioradialis

anconeus

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Sartorius Part A The origin of the Sartorius muscle is from the __________ spine. answer: posterior superior iliac anterior inferior iliac posterior inferior iliac anterior superior iliac

anterior superior iliac

Ch 10 During the contraction of skeletal muscle, _____________ filaments slide toward the center along ______________ filaments. a. Thick; Thin b. Thin; Thick c. Long; Short d. Short; Long Select one: a. a b. b c. c d. d

b. b

Ch 10 When running a marathon which muscle fiber type are you primarily using? a. fast fibers b. slow fiber c. moderate fibers Select one: a. a b. b c. c

b. b

Which of these is NOT a member of the quadriceps group? answer: biceps femoris vastus medialis vastus intermedius vastus lateralis

biceps femoris

Ch 11 Which of these muscles adducts the humerus? answer: latissimus dorsi pectoralis major deltoid both pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

both pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement at the elbow joint Part A The muscle that generates the most power during elbow flexion is the __________. triceps brachii brachioradialis brachialis biceps brachii

brachialis

Ch 10 Which of the following does not cause muscle fatigue? a. depletion of metabolic reserves b. decline in pH c. build up of lactic acid d. psychological fatigue Select one: a. a b. b c. c d. d

c. c

ch 11 Muscles that surround the mouth and eyes are __________ muscles. answer: parallel convergent circular pennate

circular

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the pectoral girdle The pectoral girdle consists of the __________. answer: clavicle and humerus clavicle, scapula, and humerus clavicle and scapula scapula and humerus

clavicle and scapula

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Internal obliques The actions of the internal obliques include __________. answers: compression of the rib cage to assist in forced inspiration compression of the rib cage to assist in forced expiration compression of the abdomen to assist in forced inspiration compression of the abdomen to assist in forced expiration

compression of the abdomen to assist in forced expiration

Ch 10 A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates is called what? a. contraction unit b. fiber unit c. mobile unit d. motor unit Select one: a. a b. b c. c d. d

d. d

Ch 10 What is the smallest functional unit of the muscle fiber (this is what contracts when filaments slide)? a. sarcoplasmic reticulum b. sacroplasm c. sarcolemma d. sarcomere Select one: a. a b. b c. c d. d

d. d

Ch 10 When you complete a successful push-up (i.e. you raise yourself from the floor) your chest muscles and triceps have performed what type of contraction? a. isoconcentric b. isokinesic c. isometric d. isotonic Select one: a. a b. b c. c d. d

d. d

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Brachialis The brachialis muscle is located __________ to the biceps brachii muscle. Answer: superficially superiorly deep laterally

deep

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement of the pectoral girdle The action that moves the scapula towards the head is called __________. Answer: retraction medial rotation elevation protraction

elevation

Ch 11 A&P Flix: The elbow joint and forearm: An overview Part A Movement of the elbow joint movement is limited to __________. Answer: supination and flexion flexion and extension pronation and supination extension and pronation

flexion and extension

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Brachioradialis The brachioradialis is a strong forearm __________. answers: extensor supinator pronator flexor

flexor

Ch 11 Which muscle is a powerful extensor of the hip? Answer: gluteus maximus rectus femoris piriformis psoas major

gluteus maximus

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement at the hip joint The prime mover of hip extension is the __________. answer: adductor magnus gluteus maximus gracilis pectineus

gluteus maximus

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Anterior muscles that cross the hip joint Part A The iliacus and the psoas major muscles are collectively known as the ____________ muscle because they share a common insertion on the __________ of the femur. answer: iliopsoas; greater trochanter iliopsoas; lesser trochanter psoasiliacus; greater trochanter psoasiliacus; lesser trochanter

iliopsoas; lesser trochanter

Ch 11 The knee is protected from lateral movement by the __________. answer: tensor fasciae latae iliotibial tract linea alba linea aspera

iliotibial tract

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the elbow joint The origin of the long head of the triceps brachii is on the __________. answer: anterior shaft of the humerus infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula olecranon process of the ulna posterior shaft of the humerus

infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Tensor fasciae latae Part A The tensor fasciae latae stabilizes the hip joint and the __________ joint. answer: ankle knee elbow sacral

knee

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the pectoral girdle Part D The four muscles that comprise the posterior group of the pectoral girdle are the __________. answer: pectoralis minor, rhomboideus major, levator scapulae, and trapezius rhomboideus minor, teres minor, trapezius, and levator scapulae levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and trapezius levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and pectoralis major

levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and trapezius

Ch 11 To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________. Answer: located anteriorly located posteriorly located in the same plane located distally

located in the same plane

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement of the pectoral girdle Which movement is not associated with the scapula? Answer: opposition elevation protraction depression

opposition

Ch 11 A muscle whose fascicles all pull in the same direction is a __________ muscle. Answer: pennate convergent divergent parallel

parallel

Ch 11 To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint. answers: sartorius semimembranosus popliteus biceps femoris

popliteus

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the elbow joint Part A The muscles that extend the forearm are located __________. Answer: posteriorly anteriorly laterally medially

posteriorly

Ch 11 A&P Flix: The elbow joint and forearm: An overview Part B Movement of the forearm includes __________. Answers: supination and flexion flexion and extension pronation and supination extension and pronation

pronation and supination

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Triceps brachii All fibers of the triceps brachii are innervated by the __________. answer: radial nerve humeral nerve ulnar nerve axillary nerve

radial nerve

Ch 11 What is the insertion of the biceps brachii? Answer: radial tuberosity infraglenoid tubercle medial epicondyle of the humerus olecranon process of the ulna

radial tuberosity

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Biceps brachii The two heads of the biceps brachii combine to insert on the __________. answer: radial notch ulnar notch olecranon process radial tuberosity

radial tuberosity

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles of the elbow joint Part C The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle come together distally to insert on the __________. Answer: radial tuberosity styloid process of the radius ulnar tuberosity deltoid tuberosity

radial tuberosity

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Anterior extensors that act on the knee Part A The anterior muscles of the thigh that originate on the os coxae are __________. answer: sartorius; vastus medialis rectus femoris; vastus medialis sartorius; rectus femoris vastus lateralis; vastus medialis

sartorius; rectus femoris

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement of the pectoral girdle Which movement results after the contraction of the serratus anterior muscle? answer: scapular elevation scapular protraction and rotation scapular retraction abduction of the humerus

scapular protraction and rotation

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Muscles that cross the knee joint: An overview Muscles that act on the knee joint form most of the mass of the __________. answer: calf thigh knee hip

thigh

Ch 11 The biceps brachii-radius arrangement represents a __________-class lever system. Answer: first second third fulcrum

third

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Tibialis posterior The tibialis posterior muscle originates at which three locations? answer: fibula, patellar surface, and interosseous membrane tibia, fibula, and interosseous membrane tibia, femur, and interosseous membrane tibia, patellar surface, and interosseous membrane

tibia, fibula, and interosseous membrane

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Movement at the elbow joint Part B The prime mover of elbow extension is the __________. Answer: anconeus brachialis triceps brachii biceps brachii

triceps brachii

Ch 11 A&P Flix: Extensor carpi radialis brevis The actions of the extensor carpi radialis brevis are localized to the __________. answer: elbow ulna wrist radius

wrist