Chapter 12: Management of Patients with Oncologic Disorders
The client is to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) 50 mg/kg intravenously in divided doses over 5 days. The client weighs 176 pounds. How many mg of cyclophosphamide will the client receive each day? Enter the correct number ONLY.
Correct response: 800 Explanation: The client's weight of 176 pounds equals 80 kg. The client is to receive 50 mg of cyclophosphamide for each 1 kg of body weight. This is to be divided into 5 doses. 80 kg x 50 mg/kg = 4000 mg. 4000 mg/5 days = 800 mg.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? "I floss my teeth every morning." "I take a stool softener every morning." "I removed all the throw rugs from the house." "I use an electric razor to shave."
Correct response: "I floss my teeth every morning." Explanation: A client with a platelet count of 30,000/mm3 is at risk for bleeding and shouldn't floss his teeth. Flossing may increase the risk of bleeding in a client with a platelet count less than 40,000/mm3. Using an electric razor is appropriate because doing so helps minimize the risk of cutting when shaving. Taking a stool softener helps decrease potential trauma to the GI tract that may cause bleeding. Removing throw rugs from the house helps prevent falls, which could lead to uncontrolled bleeding.
A client is recovering from a craniotomy with tumor debulking. Which comment by the client indicates to the nurse a correct understanding of what the surgery entailed? "I will be glad to finally be done with treatments for this thing." "Thank goodness the tumor is contained and curable." "I guess the doctor could not remove the entire tumor." "I am so glad the doctor was able to remove the entire tumor."
Correct response: "I guess the doctor could not remove the entire tumor." Explanation: Debulking is a reference made when a tumor cannot be completely removed, often due to its extension far into healthy tissue. Without complete removal, this is not a cure and, the cancer cells will continue to replicate and require adjuvant therapies to prevent further invasion. The physician, not the nurse, will need to clarify the details of the surgery.
A patient is scheduled for cryoablation for cervical cancer and tells the nurse, "I am not exactly sure what the surgeon is going to do." What is the best response by the nurse? "The surgeon is going to use a laser to remove the area." "The surgeon is going to use radiofrequency to ablate the area." "The surgeon is going to use medication to inject the area." "The surgeon is going to use liquid nitrogen to freeze the area."
Correct response: "The surgeon is going to use liquid nitrogen to freeze the area." Explanation: Cryoablation is the use of liquid nitrogen or a very cold probe to freeze tissue and cause cell destruction. It is used for cervical, prostate, and rectal cancers. Chemosurgery is the use of medication. Laser surgery is the use of a laser. Radiofrequency ablation is the use of thermal energy.
A young female client has received chemotherapeutic medications and asks about any effects the treatments will have related to her sexual health. The most appropriate statement by the nurse is "You will be unable to have children." "You will continue having your menses every month." "You will experience menopause now." "You will need to practice birth control measures."
Correct response: "You will need to practice birth control measures." Explanation: Following chemotherapy female clients may experience normal ovulation, early menopause, or permanent sterility. Clients are advised to use reliable methods of birth control until reproductivity is known
The oncology nurse is giving chemotherapy to a client in a short stay area. The client confides that they are very depressed. The nurse recognizes depression as which of the following? A side effect of the neoplastic drugs. A psychiatric diagnosis everyone has at one time or another. An aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy. A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer.
Correct response: A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer. Explanation: Clients have many reactions, ranging from anxiety, fear, and depression to feelings of guilt related to viewing cancer as a punishment for past actions or failure to practice a healthy lifestyle. They also may express anger related to the diagnosis and their inability to be in control. While depression is understandable, it also needs to be acknowledged and treated if necessary. Depression is not a side effect of the neoplastic drugs nor is it an aberrant psychologic reaction to the chemotherapy.
Which type of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is characterized by cells from a donor other than the patient? Homogenic Syngeneic Autologous Allogeneic
Correct response: Allogeneic Explanation: If the source of donor cells is from a donor other than the patient, it is termed allogeneic. Autologous donor cells come from the patient. Syngeneic donor cells are from an identical twin. Homogenic is not a type of stem cell transplant.
The nurse is providing client teaching for a client undergoing chemotherapy. What dietary modifications should the nurse advise? Eat wholesome meals. Eat warm or hot foods. Avoid spicy and fatty foods. Avoid intake of fluids.
Correct response: Avoid spicy and fatty foods. Explanation: The nurse advises a client undergoing chemotherapy to avoid hot and very cold liquids and spicy and fatty foods. The nurse also encourages the client to have small meals and appropriate fluid intake.
Which should a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a bone marrow transplant (BMT) procedure? Blood studies Allergy history Family history Drug history
Correct response: Blood studies Explanation: Before the BMT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the client's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past exposure to antigens such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before a BMT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate the client's family, drug, or allergy history.
Which does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure? Allergy history Family history Blood studies Drug history
Correct response: Blood studies Explanation: Before the HSCT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the client's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past exposure to antigens such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before an HSCT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate client's family, drug, or allergy history.
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: Tis, N0, M0. What does this classification mean? No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis
Correct response: Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Explanation: Tis, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.
Which oncologic emergency involves the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space? Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone release (SIADH) Tumor lysis syndrome Cardiac tamponade
Correct response: Cardiac tamponade Explanation: Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation and fibrinolysis that results in thrombosis and bleeding. SIADH is a result of the failure in the negative feedback mechanism that normally regulates the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Tumor lysis syndrome is a rapidly developing oncologic emergency that results from the rapid release of intracellular contents as a result of radiation- or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia.
A nurse is planning caring for a client who has developed erythema following radiation therapy for a lesion on the left lower leg. Which intervention would the nurse include in the client's plan of care to best support skin recovery at the affected site? Apply an emollient immediately before treatment Cleanse with lukewarm water and pat dry Keep the area cleanly shaven Wear clothing that fits snugly Periodically apply ice
Correct response: Cleanse with lukewarm water and pat dry Explanation: Erythema is a term used to describe redness of body tissue. Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage; the client should cleanse the area with lukewarm water and mild, nondeodorant soap, and pat dry. Application of ice, shaving, and wearing tight fitting clothing over the area could further damage the already traumatized tissue. Emollients may be used as directed by the radiation oncologist to soothe and moisturize irritated skin. However, even approved emollients should not be used up to 4 hours before the treatment time.
A nurse is planning caring for a client who has developed erythema following radiation therapy for a lesion on the left lower leg. Which intervention would the nurse include in the client's plan of care to best support skin recovery at the affected site? Cleanse with lukewarm water and pat dry Wear clothing that fits snugly Apply an emollient immediately before treatment Periodically apply ice Keep the area cleanly shaven
Correct response: Cleanse with lukewarm water and pat dry Explanation: Erythema is a term used to describe redness of body tissue. Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage; the client should cleanse the area with lukewarm water and mild, nondeodorant soap, and pat dry. Application of ice, shaving, and wearing tight fitting clothing over the area could further damage the already traumatized tissue. Emollients may be used as directed by the radiation oncologist to soothe and moisturize irritated skin. However, even approved emollients should not be used up to 4 hours before the treatment time.
A client diagnosed with acute myelocytic leukemia has been receiving chemotherapy. During the last 2 cycles of chemotherapy, the client developed severe thrombocytopenia requiring multiple platelet transfusions. The client is now scheduled to receive a third cycle. How can the nurse best detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia? Perform a cardiovascular assessment every 4 hours. Check the client's history for a congenital link to thrombocytopenia. Closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising. Monitor daily platelet counts.
Correct response: Closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising. Explanation: The nurse should closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising. Daily laboratory testing may not reflect the client's condition as quickly as subtle changes in the client's skin. Performing a cardiovascular assessment every 4 hours and checking the clients history for a congenital link to thrombocytopenia don't help detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia.
The drug interleukin-2 is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? Antimetabolites Cytokine Monoclonal antibodies Retinoids
Correct response: Cytokine Explanation: Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.
While administering an intravenous chemotherapeutic medication to a client, the nurse assesses swelling at the insertion site. What is the nurse's first action? Administer a neutralizing solution. Apply a warm compress. Aspirate as much of the fluid as possible. Discontinue the intravenous medication.
Correct response: Discontinue the intravenous medication. Explanation: If extravasation of a chemotherapeutic medication is suspected, the nurse must immediately stop the medication. Depending on the drug, the nurse may then attempt to aspirate any remaining drug, apply a warm or cold compress, administer a neutralizing solution, or all these measures.
What intervention should the nurse provide to reduce the incidence of renal damage when a patient is taking a chemotherapy regimen? Withhold medication when the blood urea nitrogen level exceeds 20 mg/dL. Encourage fluid intake to dilute the urine. Limit fluids to 1,000 mL daily to prevent accumulation of the drug's end products after cell lysis. Take measures to acidify the urine and prevent uric acid crystallization.
Correct response: Encourage fluid intake to dilute the urine. Explanation: The nurse should ensure adequate fluid hydration before, during, and after drug administration and assess intake and output. Adequate fluid volume dilutes drug levels, which can help prevent renal damage.
A nurse is administering daunorubicin through a peripheral I.V. line when the client complains of burning at the insertion site. The nurse notes no blood return from the catheter and redness at the I.V. site. The client is most likely experiencing which complication? Extravasation Thrombosis Flare Erythema
Correct response: Extravasation Explanation: The client is exhibiting signs of extravasation, which occurs when the medication leaks into the surrounding tissues and causes swelling, burning, or pain at the injection site. Erythema is redness of the skin that results from skin irritation. Flare is a spreading of redness that occurs as a result of drawing a pointed instrument across the skin. Thrombosis is the formation of clot within the vascular system.
The client is receiving a vesicant antineoplastic for treatment of cancer. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to take immediate action? Bone pain Extravasation Stomatitis Nausea and vomiting
Correct response: Extravasation Explanation: The nurse needs to monitor IV administration of antineoplastics (especially vesicants) to prevent tissue necrosis to blood vessels, skin, muscles, and nerves. Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting, and bone pain can be symptoms of the disease process or treatment mode but does not require immediate action.
When caring for an older client who is receiving external beam radiation, which is the key point for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care? Time, distance, and shielding Inspect the skin frequently. The use of disposable utensils and wash cloths Avoid showering or washing over skin markings.
Correct response: Inspect the skin frequently. Explanation: Inspecting the skin frequently will allow early identification and intervention of skin problems associated with external radiation therapy. The external markings should not be removed, but clients may shower and lightly wash over the skin. Time, distance, and shielding are key in the management of sealed, internal radiation therapy and not external beam radiation. The use of disposable utensils and care items would be important when caring for clients following systemic, unsealed, internal radiation therapy.
A nurse is teaching a client about the rationale for administering allopurinol with chemotherapy. Which example would be the best teaching by the nurse? It lowers serum and uric acid levels. It prevents alopecia. It stimulates the immune system against the tumor cells. It treats drug-related anemia.
Correct response: It lowers serum and uric acid levels. Explanation: The use of allopurinol with chemotherapy is to prevent renal toxicity. Tumor lysis syndrome occurrence can be reduced with allopurinol's action of reducing the conversion of nucleic acid byproducts to uric acid, in this way preventing urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Allopurinol does not stimulate the immune system, treat anemia, or prevent alopecia.
A decrease in circulating white blood cells (WBCs) is referred to as Thrombocytopenia Leukopenia Neutropenia Granulocytopenia
Correct response: Leukopenia Explanation: A decrease in circulating WBCs is referred to as leukopenia. Granulocytopenia is a decrease in neutrophils. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in the number of platelets. Neutropenia is an abnormally low absolute neutrophil count.
Which is a growth-based classification of tumors? Sarcoma Leukemia Carcinoma Malignancy
Correct response: Malignancy Explanation: Tumors classified on the basis of growth are described as benign or malignant. Tumors that are classified on the basis of the cell or tissue of origin are carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias.
In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur? G2 phase Mitosis G1 phase S phase
Correct response: Mitosis Explanation: Cell division occurs in mitosis. RNA and protein synthesis occurs in the G1 phase. DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase. DNA synthesis is complete, and the mitotic spindle forms in the G2 phase
A nurse is caring for a client after a bone marrow transplant. What is the nurse's priority in caring for the client? Monitor the client's heart rate. Monitor the client's toilet patterns. Monitor the client to prevent sepsis. Monitor the client's physical condition.
Correct response: Monitor the client to prevent sepsis. Explanation: Until transplanted bone marrow begins to produce blood cells, clients who have undergone a bone marrow transplant have no physiologic means to fight infection, which puts them at high risk for dying from sepsis and bleeding before engraftment. Therefore, a nurse must closely monitor clients and take measures to prevent sepsis. Monitoring client's toilet patterns, physical condition, and heart rate does not prevent the possibility of the client becoming septic.
A patient is taking vincristine, a plant alkaloid for the treatment of cancer. What system should the nurse be sure to assess for symptoms of toxicity? Pulmonary system Nervous system Gastrointestinal system Urinary system
Correct response: Nervous system Explanation: With repeated doses, the taxanes and plant alkaloids, especially vincristine, can cause cumulative peripheral nervous system damage with sensory alterations in the feet and hands.
According to the tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) classification system, T0 means there is No evidence of primary tumor No distant metastasis Distant metastasis No regional lymph node metastasis
Correct response: No evidence of primary tumor Explanation: T0 means that there is no evidence of primary tumor. N0 means that there is no regional lymph node metastasis. M0 means that there is no distant metastasis. M1 means that there is distant metastasis.
Which type of surgery is used in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer? Palliative Salvage Reconstructive Prophylactic
Correct response: Palliative Explanation: Palliative surgery is performed to relieve complications of cancer. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are likely to develop cancer. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery and is carried out in an attempt to improve function or to obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach.
A nurse is receiving a client with a radioactive implant for the treatment of cervical cancer. What is the nurse's best action? Allow visitors to telephone only. Have visitors wear dosimeters for safety. Place the client in a private room. Place a chair next to the bed to allow the spouse to sit.
Correct response: Place the client in a private room. Explanation: Safety precautions are used for the client with a radioactive implant. They include assigning the client to a private room, seeing that visitors maintain a 6-foot distance from the radiation source, prohibiting visits by children, and preventing exposure to those who may be or are pregnant. Staff needs to wear dosimeters. Family may visit for up to 30 minutes per day.
You are a clinic nurse. One of your clients has found she is at high risk for breast cancer. She asks you what can be done to reduce her risk. What is a means of reducing the risk for breast cancer? Reduction surgery Palliative surgery Curative surgery Prophylactic surgery
Correct response: Prophylactic surgery Explanation: Prophylactic or preventive surgery may be done if the client is at considerable risk for cancer. Palliative surgery is done when no curative treatment is available. Curative surgery is performed to cure the disease process. Reduction surgery is a distractor.
A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis? White, cottage cheese-like patches on the tongue Red, open sores on the oral mucosa Yellow tooth discoloration Rust-colored sputum
Correct response: Red, open sores on the oral mucosa Explanation: The tissue-destructive effects of cancer chemotherapy typically cause stomatitis, resulting in ulcers on the oral mucosa that appear as red, open sores. White, cottage cheese-like patches on the tongue suggest a candidal infection, another common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Yellow tooth discoloration may result from antibiotic therapy, not cancer chemotherapy. Rust-colored sputum suggests a respiratory disorder, such as pneumonia.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which assessment finding places the client at the greatest risk for an infection? Temperature of 98.3° F (36.8° C) Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel Ate 75% of all meals during the day White blood cell (WBC) count of 9,000 cells/mm3
Correct response: Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel Explanation: A stage 3 pressure ulcer is a break in the skin's protective barrier, which could lead to infection in a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The WBC count and temperature are within normal limits. Eating 75% of meals is normal and doesn't increase the client's risk for infection. A client who is malnourished is at a greater risk for infection.
A client with a brain tumor is undergoing radiation and chemotherapy for treatment of cancer. The client has recently reported swelling in the gums, tongue, and lips. Which is the most likely cause of these symptoms? Neutropenia Extravasation Stomatitis Nadir
Correct response: Stomatitis Explanation: The symptoms of swelling in gums, tongue, and lips indicate stomatitis. This usually occurs 5 to 10 days after the administration of certain chemotherapeutic agents or radiation therapy to the head and neck. Chemotherapy and radiation produce chemical toxins that lead to the breakdown of cells in the mucosa of the epithelium, connective tissue, and blood vessels in the oral cavity.
The nurse is invited to present a teaching program to parents of school-age children. Which topic would be of greatest value for decreasing cancer risks? Pool and water safety Breast and testicular self-exams Hand washing and infection prevention Sun safety and use of sunscreen
Correct response: Sun safety and use of sunscreen Explanation: Pool and water safety as well as infection prevention are important teaching topics but will not decrease cancer risk. While performing breast and testicular self-exams may identify cancers in the early stage, this teaching is not usually initiated in school-age children. Severe sunburns that occur in young children can place the child at risk for skin cancers later in life. Because children spend much time out of doors, the use of sunscreen and protective clothing/hats can protect the skin and decrease the risk.
A nurse is administering daunorubicin (DaunoXome) to a patient with lung cancer. Which situation requires immediate intervention? The laboratory reports a white blood cell (WBC) count of 1,000/mm3. The client states he is nauseous. The I.V. site is red and swollen. The client begins to shiver.
Correct response: The I.V. site is red and swollen. Explanation: A red, swollen I.V. site indicates possible infiltration. Daunorubicin is a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent and can be very damaging to tissue if it infiltrates. The nurse should immediately stop the medication, apply ice to the site, and notify the physician. Although nausea, WBC count of 1,000/mm3, and shivering require interventions, these findings aren't a high priority at this time.
A 36-year-old man is receiving three different chemotherapeutic agents for Hodgkin's disease. The nurse explains to the client that the three drugs are given over an extended period because: The second and third drugs increase the effectiveness of the first drug. The first two drugs are toxic to cancer cells, and the third drug promotes cell growth. The three drugs have a synergistic effect and act on the cancer cells with different mechanisms. The three drugs can be given at lower doses.
Correct response: The three drugs have a synergistic effect and act on the cancer cells with different mechanisms. Explanation: Multiple drug regimens are used because the drugs have a synergistic effect. The drugs have different cell-cycle lysis effects, different mechanisms of action, and different toxic adverse effects. They are usually given in combination to enhance therapy. Dosage is not affected by giving the drugs in combination. The second and third drugs do not increase the effectiveness of the first. It is not true that the first two drugs are toxic to cancer cells while the third drug promotes cell growth
The physician is attending to a client with a malignant brain tumor. The physician recommends immediate radiation therapy. What is a reason for the physician's recommendation? To prevent the formation of new cancer cells To destroy marginal tissues To remove the tumor from the brain To analyze the lymph nodes involved
Correct response: To prevent the formation of new cancer cells Explanation: Radiation therapy helps prevent cellular growth. It may be used to cure the cancer or to control malignancy when the tumor cannot be removed or when lymph node involvement is present; also, it can be used prophylactically to prevent spread. Biopsy is used to analyze lymph nodes or to destroy the surrounding tissues around the tumor.
The client is diagnosed with a benign brain tumor. Which of the following features of a benign tumor is of most concern to the nurse? Tumor pressure against normal tissues Random, rapid growth of the tumor Cells colonizing to distant body parts Emission of abnormal proteins
Correct response: Tumor pressure against normal tissues Explanation: Benign tumors grow more slowly than malignant tumors and do not emit tumor-specific antigens or proteins. Benign tumors do not metastasize to distant sites. Benign tumors can compress tissues as it grows, which can result in impaired organ functioning.
Which of the following would be inconsistent as a common side effect of chemotherapy? Fatigue Weight gain Alopecia Myelosuppression
Correct response: Weight gain Explanation: Common side effects seen with chemotherapy include myelosuppression, alopecia, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue.
Carcinogens are factors related to the formation of various malignancies. Which factor has the greatest impact on the development of all cancers? viruses defective genes environmental factors chemical agents
Correct response: chemical agents Explanation: Chemical agents in the environment are believed to account for 75% of all cancers. Environmental factors include prolonged exposures to sunlight, radiation, and pollutants. Although such factors have been linked to cancer, they are not considered its leading cause. Viruses and bacteria are implicated in many cancers, however they do not have the greatest impact on the development of all cancers. It is known that genes play a major role in cancer prevention or development. Defective genes are responsible for diverse cancers, however they do not have the greatest impact on the development of all cancers.
The nurse is evaluating the client's risk for cancer. The nurse should recommend the client change which lifestyle choice? uses the treadmill for 30 minutes on 5 days each week drinks one glass of wine at dinner each night works as a secretary at a medical radiation treatment center eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day
Correct response: eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day Explanation: Dietary substances such as nitrate-containing and red meats appear to increase the risk of cancer. Exercising 30 minutes on 5 days or more is recommended for adults. Measures are taken to protect those people who work around radiation. Alcohol consumption recommendations include drink no more than one drink per day for women or two per day for men.
The nurse is working with a client who has had an allo-hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The nurse notices a diffuse rash and diarrhea. The nurse contacts the physician to report that the client has symptoms of graft-versus-host disease. acute leukopenia. nadir. metastasis.
Correct response: graft-versus-host disease. Explanation: Graft-versus-host disease is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in clients who have had allogeneic transplant. Clinical manifestations of the disease include diffuse rash that progresses to blistering and desquamation, and mucosal inflammation of the eyes and the entire gastrointestinal tract with subsequent diarrhea, abdominal pain, and hepatomegaly.
A nurse caring for a client who has just received chemotherapy infusion is wearing a disposable gown, gloves, and goggles for protection. The nurse knows that accidental exposure to chemotherapy agents can occur through: absorption through the gloves. absorption through the goggles. inhalation of aerosols. absorption through the gown.
Correct response: inhalation of aerosols. Explanation: Aerosol inhalation or absorption through the skin can cause accidental chemotherapy exposure. A nurse must wear a disposable gown and gloves when preparing and administering chemotherapy. She won't absorb chemicals through an intact gown, protective gloves, or goggles.
A patient with uterine cancer is being treated with intracavitary radiation. The patient will emit radiation while the implant is in place. The nurse is aware of the precautions necessary for the provider of care and visitors. Which of the following are appropriate guidelines to follow? Select all that apply. Family members should stand about 6 feet from the patient. Plastic aprons should be worn to buffer the exposure. The nurse can provide direct care for up to 60 minutes per 8-hour shift. Visitors may stay for 30 minutes or less.
Family members should stand about 6 feet from the patient. Visitors may stay for 30 minutes or less. Explanation: Exposure for the nurse, health care provider or visitors should be limited to 30 minutes/8-hour shift. As time increases, exposure to radiation increases. The goal is to deliver safe, efficient care in the shortest amount of time. Lead aprons can provide protection, not plastic aprons.
