Chapter 16, Chapter 15, Chapter 14

Erythrocytes A) are granular in appearance when stained. B) function in phagocytosis. C) carry oxygen and carbon dioxide. D) A & B are true.

Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide

Histamine

Chemical stored in mast cells that triggers dilation and increased permeability of capillaries.

All nucleated cells contain

Class 1 MHC

Primary mediators in Type II hypersensitivities include A) IgA, IgG, IgM B) complement, IgG, IgM C) IgE, basophils, mast cells D) T lymphocytes

Complement, IgG, IgM

Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? Diarrhea Rashes Contact dermatitus

Contact dermatitus

Plasma A) contains hundreds of different chemicals produced by the liver, white blood cells, and assorted glands and body systems. B) is nearly 75% water. C) contains 25% additional carbohydrates such as glucose and starch. D) is the clear fluid found in blood with the clotting factors removed.

Contains hundreds of different chemicals produced by the liver, WBC's and assorted glands and body systems.

Signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following EXCEPT A) redness B) heat C) cough D) edema

Cough

A healthy functioning immune system is responsible for all of the following except one. Identify the function that is NOT one of the roles of the immune system. A) surveillance of the body B) recognition of foreign material C) creation of barriers to deter the invasion of microbes D) destruction of entities deemed to be foreign

Creation of barriers to deter invasion of microbes

host versus graft disease

Cytotoxic t-cells of a the host encounter foreign class 1 MHC markers on the grafter cells and release interleukin-2 for general immune mobilization. T-cells bind to the grafted tissue and secrete lymphokines and begin rejection process.

Compare and contrast the three different complement pathways LO

- classical pathway: started by antibodies - lectin pathway: started by lectin protein - alternative pathway: started by factors in the blood

Identify three conditions caused by IgE mediated allergic reactions

- hay fever - asthma - atopic dermatitis/eczema

List four major categories of nonspecific immunity LO

- inflammation - phagocytosis - fever - antimicrobial proteins

List and describe the steps of inflammation LO

- injury - vascular reactions: nervous stimulation, chemical mediators, cytokines - edema and pus formation - resolution/scar formation

Discuss the mechanism of fever and its role in nonspecific immunity LO

- pyrogens act on hypothalamus - muscles increase heat production - peripheral arterioles constrict, decrease heat loss Fever: 1. inhibits growth of temp sensitive microbes 2. cause us to hold on to iron more tightly, starving bacteria 3. speeding up reactions of metabolism and immune system

GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)

-immune response within GI tract -Peyer's patches (lymphoid nodules) in lining of S.I.

Discuss four major functions of immune system markers

1. Attachment to nonself or foreign antigens 2. Binding to cell surface receptors such as MHC. 3. Receiving and transmitting chemical messages to coordinate the response. 4. Aiding in cellular development

List four classes of grafts, and explain how host versus graft and graft versus host diseases develop

1. Autograft. 2. Isograft. 3. Allograft. 4. Xenograft.

What is the mode of action of two strategies for treating type 1 allergic reactions

1. Avoid the allergen 2. Use drugs that block action of lymphocytes/mast cells. 3. Use injections of the allergen in a way that the allergic reaction is short circuited.

List the types of cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells

1. B-lymphocytes 2. Macrophages 3. Dendritic Cells

What are three things macrophages are responsible for

1. Cellular housekeepers / cleaning up messes caused by infection. 2. Processing foreign molecules and presenting them to lymphocytes. 3. Secreting biologically active compunds that assist, mediate and inhibit immune cells/reactions

Identify one example of Type IV hypersensitivity reaction and describe the role of T cells in the pathogenesis of the condition

1. Graft rejection (organ transplants) Most damage that can occur is due to cytotoxic T-cell actions. 2. Contact dermatitis (most common) is another form in which T-cells in subsequent exposures will give off enzymes and inflammatory cytokines causing epidermis damage.

List three conditions that can lead to the development of secondary immunodeficiency

1. Infection. 2. Noninfections metabolic disease. 3. Chemotherapy. 4. Radiation. (aids is a major example)

Discuss the qualities of an effective vaccine

1. Low level of side effects 2. Protect against natural forms of the pathogen 3. Stimulate both antibody (B-cell) and cell (T-cell) mediated immune responses 4. Long-term lasting effects 5. Does not require boosters 6. Inexpensive, relatively long shelf-life, easy to administer

List the four stages of the specific immune response

1. Lymphocyte development and differentiation. 2. The presentation of antigens. 3. The challenge of B and T lymphocytes by antigens. 4. B lymphocyte response (production and activities of antibodies) T-lymphocyte (cell-mediated immunity)

What are two facts about the clonal selection and expansion.

1. Lymphocyte specificity is preprogrammed. 2. Each distinct lymphocyte expresses only a single specificity and can react to only one antigen type.

Name four body compartments to participate in immunity LO

1. Mononuclear phagocyte system 2. The extracellular fluid (ECF) 3. The lymphatic system 4. The blood vascular system

Functions of the lymphatic system LO

1. Provide a route for extracellular fluid recovery. 2. Act as a drain off system for inflammatory response. 3. Provides surveillance, recognition and protection against foreign materials through lymphocytes, phagocytes and antibodies.

List characteristics antigens that optimize their immunogenicity

1. Shape 2. Size- 10,000 Da or greater 3. Foreign-microbes, plant molec, foreign human molec, or animal cells are considered foreign 4. Accessibility-precessed and presented antigen are more immunogenic that non-processed and presented antigen. Your immune sys is alerting the lymphocytes about antigens.

A healthy, functioning immune system is responsible for:

1. Surveillance of the body 2. Recognition of foreign material 3. Destruction of entities deemed to be foreign.

What are three notes about blood types

1. They are named after dominant antigens. 2. The RBC's of type O persons have antigen but not A and B antigens. 3. Tissues other than RBC's carry A and B antigens.

purpose of inflammatory response

1. To mobilize and attract immune components to the site of injury. 2. Set in motion mechanisms to repair damage 3. Destroy microbes and block further invasion.

Summarize the steps of phagocytosis and describe the role of PAMPs LO

1. chemotaxis by phagocyte 2. adhesion of bacteria 3. engulfment into phagocytic vacuole 4. Phagosome 5. Phagolysosome formation 6. Killing and destruction of bacterial cells 7. Release of residual debris

Q7:Which of the following is not caused by histamine? (Select all that apply) increased sensitivity to pain construction of smooth muscle (bronchi & intestine) decrease in mast cell activity

Decrease in mast cell activity. Increased sensitivity to pain.

Which event represents the process of releasing chemical mediators? Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils Degranulation

Degranulation

You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. You are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. What does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions? Have an abortion Delivery by cesarean section Put the baby on a high dose of antivirals Round two of optional quiz

Delivery by cesarean section

IgA antibodies

Dimer 13% of serum Abs Half life of 6 days DOes not cross placenta Does not fix complement Function- secretory antibody on mucous memranes binding sites 4

Describe autoimmunity

Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-atigens

Basophils

A circulating leukocyte that produces histamine.

Granulocytes

A group of leukocytes containing granules in their cytoplasm; neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils.

Agranulocytes

A group of leukocytes without granules in their nuclei; lymphocytes, monocytes.

Explain the principle of herd immunity and the risks that unfold when it is not maintained

A microbe requires a certain density of susceptible individuals so the chain of transmission can continue. Individuals who are immune due to vaccination will be a dead for that particular microbe, thus preventing the spread of pathogens. Failure to maintain herd immunity results in the resurfacing of viruses like polio or measles.

What is an epitope

A small site of recognition on an antigen that an antibody recognizes.

Cytotoxic t cells

A type of lymphocyte that kills infected body cells and cancer cells

Q3:Which of the following are human blood genotypes? (Select all that apply) AB, AO, BO, B

AB, AO, BO

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (e.g. the Bubble Boy) is due to A) clinical deficiencies in T-cell expression. B) abnormal immunoglobulin production. C) acquired immunodeficiency. D) absence of lymphatic stem cells.

Absence of lymphatic stem cells

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? Booster Gamma globulin Adjuvant

Adjuvant

Describe the symptoms of anaphylaxis

Airway obstruction and circulatory collapse. The physiological events parallel atop but with a higher concentration of chemical mediators. The immune system will respond with a massive release of chemicals into the tissues and blood.

Hematopoietic stem cells A) are the precursor of new blood cells. B) are maintained in the bone marrow. C) proliferate and differentiate into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. D) are all of the above

All are correct

Platelets A) act in inflammation. B) are not whole cells. C) function in hemostasis. D) all of the above.

All are correct

The chief functions of the inflammatory response include A) bringing immune components to injury via cytokines. B) initiate mechanisms to repair tissue. C) destroy and block invasion of microbes. D) all of the above.

All of the above

Antigens that trigger hypersensitivity reactions are called A) allergens. B) overreactive. C) immunodeficient. D) antibodies.

Allergens

MHC class two genes

Also code for immune regulatory markers, they are found on macrophages dendritic cells and B cells. They are involved in presenting antigens to T cells during cooperative immune reactions.

Monocytes

An agranular leukocyte that is able to migrate into tissues and transform into a macrophage.

Thymus

An immune organ located near the heart. THe thymus is the site of T cell maturation and is larger in children and adolescents.

What is an antigen

An immunogen, is a chemical substance to which the immune response reacts. They stimulate a response by T and B cells.

Q9:Which of the following are correct? (Select all that apply) Anaphylaxis depends on IgE but Serum sickness does not Serum sickness is delayed but anaphylaxis is not Anaphylaxis = tiny dose of antigen; Serum sickness = large Serum sickness is localized, anaphylaxis is not

Anaphylaxis depends on IgE but Serum sickness does not Serum sickness is delayed but anaphylaxis is not Anaphylaxis = tiny dose of antigen; Serum sickness = large

Examples of Type 1 Hypersensitivity Reactions

Anaphylaxis: allergies like hay fever and asthma.

Blood typing tests are performed by taking blood samples and mixing with A) antibodies against O type blood, then observing agglutination. B) complement with antigen, then observing hemolysis. C) Rh antibodies with antigen, then observing hemolysis. D) antibodies against A or B type antigens, then observing agglutination.

Antibodies against A or B type antigens, then observing agglutination

MHC class three genes

Encode proteins involved with the complement system among others.

The majority of white blood cells in circulation include A) neutrophils and lymphocytes. B) eosinophils and basophils. C) macrophages. D) erythrocytes.

Eryhtrocytes

APCs function by binding foreign antigen to their cell surfaces for presentation to neutrophils for phagocytosis. A) True B) False

False

All proteins are enzymes. T/f

False

Allergens can be either exogenous and involve the host's own tissue or endogenous and originate outside the host. A) True B) False

False

Attenuation is any process that kills a virus or bacteria to negate its virulence during vaccine production. A) True B) False

False

Chills indicate a rapidly decreasing temperature. It means the fever is breaking. A) True B) False

False

Each virus is classified into a genus based on its host, target tissue, and type of disease it causes.

False

Each virus is classified into a genus based on its host, target tissue, and type of disease it causes. T/f

False

Eosinophils are involved in allergy and defense against large eukaryotic pathogens. A) True B) False

False

In cancer patients we want to increase the number of T-Regulatory Suppressors T/F

False

Plankton are floating communities of helminths.

False

The "hygiene hypothesis" states that a cleaner environment early in life builds a healthy immune system. A) True B) False

False

The adaptive immune system is complex, but it can be summarized in four consecutive stages: i) lymphocyte encounter with an immunogen, ii) development of lymphocyte specificity against that immunogen, iii) 2nd encounter with the immunogen, and iv) development of memory cells. T/f

False

B and T cells provide acquired, short-term protection against specific microbes. A) True B) False

False they provide long term

What are alloantigens

Antigens that differ between members of the same species, such as MHC molecules and ABO red blood cell antigens.

Artificial passive immunity usually involves administration of A) an antigen to stimulate antibody production. B) antiserum. C) an attenuated vaccine. D) a live preparation vaccine.

Antiserum

B lymphocytes A) produce antigens. B) are activated by TH interaction. C) are associated with cell-mediated immunity. D) activate the CMI pathway.

Are activated by TH interaction

Differentiate between the Arthus reaction and serum sickness

Arthus is local / serum is systemic

__ is any chronic local allergy such as hay fever or asthma. A) Atopy B) Anaphylaxis C) Eczema D) Type II hypersensitivity

Atopy

List the three immune components causing cell lysis in Type II hypersensitivity

Attachment of antibodies (IgM and IgG)

B cell receptors differ from T cell receptors in that

B cell receptors are immunoglobulin in nature, whereas T cell receptors are not immunoglobulin molecules.--- B cell receptors have two antigen binding sites, whereas T cell receptors have only one antigen binding site.--- B cell receptor immunoglobulins can be secreted as antibodies, whereas T cell receptors are never secreted.--- B cell receptors are comprised of four polypeptides, whereas T cell receptors have only two polypeptides in their quaternary structure.---

Diagram the steps of B-cell activation and list the types that are produced

B-cell activation by soluble antigen (T-cell independent activation) Soluble antigen- which was processed and released by phaogcytes drains off into lymph fluid. B-cells encounter this antigen in the lymph. Binding of the antigen to the antibodies causes capping in which the bound B-cell receptors (IgD antibodies) are absorbed into the cell and cause B-cell activatoin. The B-cells clone and differentiate making memory and plasma cells. Plasma cells make antibodies that respond to the antigen.

Major roles of B-lymphocytes

B-cells: Mature in bone marrow, contribute to antibody-mediated immunity, when activated the y divide forming special plasma cells which produce antibodies that interlock with antigens and destroy them.

Which of the following is not a target for TC cells? Virus infected cells, bacteria or transplants like pig hearts or human livers.

Bacteria

Name three types of antimicrobial proteins LO

Bacteriocins, defensin, magainins, and protegrins.

Q1:What is the topic featured in the opening of Ch 14?

Blood donation

An example of antibody-mediated hypersensitivity includes A) hay fever and asthma. B) blood group incompatibility. C) rheumatic fever. D) graft rejection.

Blood group incompatibility

Examples of type 2 hypersensitivity reactions

Blood group incompatibility, pernicious anemia and myasthenia gravis.

Compare and contrast Type II and Type III hypersensitivities

Both involve the production of IgG and IgM antibodies after repeat antigen exposure. Type 3 differs in that it's antigens do not attach to the surface of a cell causes immune complex reaction.

Hematopoiesis

formation of blood cells

MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)

found in and beneath the mucous membranes lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts.

Nuetrophils

granulocyte that contains phagocytes that engulf bacteria

Q5:Which of the following are mismatched? (Select all that apply) food allergy - type III hypersensitivity poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity hay fever (seasonal) - type III hypersensitivity serum sickness - type I hypersensitivity

hay fever (seasonal) - type III hypersensitivity serum sickness - type I hypersensitivity food allergy - type III hypersensitivity

Atopy

hypersensitive or allergic state involving an inherited predisposition

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except? multiple sclerosis. rheumatoid arthritis. Graves' disease. Tuberculin reaction

tuberculin reaction.

Type 3 hypersensitivity

immune complex mediated. Circulating IgG complexes deposited in basement membranes of target organs. Ex- Rheumatoid arthritis.

Histamine causes all of the following except relaxation of vascular smooth muscle. wheal and flare reaction in skin. ncreased sensitivity to pain.

increased sensitivity to pain

Antihistamines

inhibit allergic reactions of inflammation, redness, and itching caused by the release of histamine

Escherichia coli infections

involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. are self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration. include EIEC that destroys gut mucosa.

Q4:The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell Ig response include

type I, type II, and type III

Peyers patches

large collections of lymphoid tissue found in the submucosa of the small intestine

Arthus reaction

localized dermal injury due to inflamed blood vessels

The lymphatic system differs from the bloodstream in that A) the bloodstream is a one-direction system. B) the lymph is moved via the help of a pump that pushes the fluid through the vessels. C) the lymph system is a multi-directional system with vessels concentrated at the "dead-end" areas of the hands, feet, and breast. D) lymph flow is dependent on muscle movement.

lymph flow is dependent on muscle movement

List the types of cells that can act as APCs

macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells

Regulatory T cells

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions. Controls inflammatory process. Makes sure immune response does not target normal biota inappropriately.

DNA vaccines

microbial DNA is inserted into a plasmid vector and inoculated into a recipient

Molecular mimicry theory

microbial antigens bear molecular determinants similar to normal human cells; an infection causes formation of antibodies that cross-react with tissues

Live, attenuated vaccines

nclude the Sabin polio vaccine. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. Correct! All of the choices are correct. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).

Microbial death occurs when there is

no reproduction. no movement.

T cell response to T-dependent antigens requires

typically a protein antigen. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. binding of the T cell to a site on the antigen. binding of the T cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage.

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

on host cells attach to pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

Type III hypersensitivities A) are induced when a profuse amount of antibodies enter the system. B) result in large quantities of antigen formation. C) ultimately form small, insoluble immune complexes that settle in basement membranes. D) all of the above.

ultimately form small, insoluble immune complexes that settle in basement membranes.

The ability of TC cells to initiate apoptosis in virally-infected cells and cancer cells is dependent on their ability to produce ________ and ________; proteins that punch holes in the target cell membrane.

perforin; granzyme

The granules of eosinophils contain ________.

peroxidase

Serum LO

plasma fluid after the blood cells and the clotting proteins have been removed

natural killer cells (NK cells)

play an important role in the killing of cancer cells and cells infected by viruses

Th17 cells

produce IL-17 and contribute to inflammation

Immune complex reaction

produces free floating complexes that are deposited into tissues

pattern recognition receptors

proteins on or in cells that recognize specific compounds unique to microbes or tissue damage, allowing the cells to sense the presence of invading microbes or damage

Perforins

proteins that poke holes in pathogens and allow toxins to enter

The lymphatic system A) provides an auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system proper. B) acts as a "receiving" system for the allergic response. C) renders destruction of foreign bodies through chemical lysing. D) does all of the above.

provides an auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system proper.

A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the ________ dose.

provocative

Class II MHC genes code for

receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.

What are the four symptoms of inflammation

redness, heat, swelling, pain

Whole blood LO

refers to the mixture of both plasma and formed elements (blood cells)

Allergies run in families because

relative production of IgE is inherited

gamma delta T cells

respond to PAMPs and specific antigens, high proportions in gut mucosa

primary immunodeficiency

result of a genetic abnormality

Cytotoxic T cells

secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.

Complement

something that completes or makes up a whole

Agglutinate

stick together to form clumps

What is immunology

study of the immune system

serum sickness

systemic injury initiated by antigen-antibody complexes that circulate in the blood

All of the following are associated with IgE and mast-cell-mediated allergy except ________. anaphylaxis eczema systemic lupus erythematosus

systemic lupus erythematosus

All of the following are characteristics of IgM except

t contains a central J chain. it has 10 antigen binding sites. it is a dimer.

An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a specific substance is to

test for levels of IgE specific for the allergen.

Antigenicity

the ability of the agent to induce antibody production in the host

What is immunocompetence

the ability of the body to react with countless foreign substances. Infants are born with the theoretical ability to react to an extraordianry number of different substances.

Explain ABO blood groups and identify the universal donor and universal recipient

Four groups of blood types which are A, B, AB and O. A universal donor has Type O, while a universal receiver has type AB.

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding host defenses? A) First line of defense blocks portals of entry. B) Second line of defense include inflammation and phagocytosis. C) Third line of defense is lymphocyte-dependent and specific. D) Fourth line of defense provides long-term immunity.

Fourth line of defense provides long-term immunity

Define GAMDE and what each letter stands for

GAMDE stands for the five classes of immunoglobulins, each abbreviation will be along the lines of IG-G or IG-A

Which of the following forms of radiation are in order from the most penetrating to the least penetrating? Gamma, Cathode and x-rays. Beginning of optional quiz.

Gamma, X rays, cathode

graft versus host disease

Graft contains white blood cells from donor called passenger lymphocytes. They can target host tissue bearning MHC markers foreign to the graft. Widely systemic.

List three autoimmune diseases

Graves' disease, type 1 diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis.

What is the role of the major histocompatibility complex.

HMC is a set of gene codes for human cell receptors. It helps produce glycoproteins found on all cells and is used to in self recognition by the immune system. also known as Human leukocyte antigen system.

Subunit vaccines

use antigenic fragments to stimulate an immune response

Which set of organisms is classified by their motility (i.e. means of motion)?

Helminths

Antigen binding cites

Highly variable in shape, they are the ends of forks formed by the light heavy chains which are found on immunoglobulins.

List the two major categories of immune dysfunction

Hypersensitivity (overactivity): - takes the form of allergy and autoimmunity Hyposensitivity or immunodeficiency (underactivity): - immune system is incompletely developed, suppressed, or destroyed

Q8:Which of the following is involved in type I hypersensitivity Ig H Ig E Ig Y

Ig E

The only immunoglobin that is secreted outside of tissues (found in tears, saliva, mucus, and colostrums), secretory is a dimer held together by a J chain. A) IgA B) IgM C) IgD D) IgE

IgA

Primary mediators in Type III hypersensitivities include A) IgA, IgG, IgM B) complement, IgG, IgM C) IgE, basophils, mast cells D) T lymphocytes

IgA, IgG, IgM

Primary mediators in Type I hypersensitivities include A) IgA, IgG, IgM B) complement, IgG, IgM C) IgE, basophils, mast cells D) T lymphocytes

IgE, basophils, mast cells

Immediate hypersensitivity is A) IgE-mediated and involves mast cells, basophils, and allergic mediators. B) IgG, IgM antibodies acting upon cells with complement and resulting in cell lysis. C) antibody-mediated inflammation. D) delayed hypersensitivity and results in cytotoxic reactions in tissues.

IgE-mediated and involves mast cells, basophils, and allergic mediators.

In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?

IgG

This immunoglobulin gives long-term immunity and is associated with memory response. A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgD

IgG

List the five types of antibodies

IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE PG 429

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are

IgM and IgD

Type 1 hypersensitivity

Immediate hypersensitivity. IgE mediated, involves mast cells and basophils. Ex- Anaphylaxis

Describe the structure of the B-cell receptor

Immunoglobulins serve as the antigen receptors for B cells, and if they are secreted, as antibodies. It is composed of four polypeptide chains, one pair of heavy chains and one pair of light chains in a Y shape. One light chain to one heavy and the two heavy chains are bonded to one another.

The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ________.

Immunopathology

An immunoglobulin is made up of four polypeptide chains, two heavy and two light. The hypervariable region which binds the antigen lies A) in the FAb B) in the FC C) on the heavy chains D) on the light chains

In the FAb

What are two methods for diagnosing allergies

In-vivo - Patients skin is injected scrathed or pricked with small amount of pure allergen extract. In-vitro - A blood test that measures levels of IgE to specific antigens.

Granulocytes A) function in specific antibody production. B) include neutrophils. C) have a rounded nucleus. D) all of the above.

Include neutrophils

Fever A) is a type of specific immunity. B) is caused only by endogenous pyrogens. C) increases the rapidity of the host immune responses. D) increases the viability of many microbial invaders.

Increases rapidity of the host immune response

examples of type 4 hypersensitivity reactions

Infection reactions, contact dermatitis and graft rejection.

"Undesirable immune reactions" include all the following EXCEPT A) asthma B) rheumatism C) hay fever D) influenza

Influenza

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?

Injectant

Surface protection is classified as A) second line defense. B) innate nonspecific. C) acquired specific. D) third line defense.

Innate nonspecific

The reticulum A) is a support network of skeletal tissue fibers. B) originates in the bone marrow. C) interconnects nearby cells. D) meshes with the massive skeletal tissue network surrounding all organs.

Interconnects nearby cells

_______ are produced by leukocytes and fibroblasts. It inhibits virus replication and cell division and increases the action of certain lymphocytes that kill other cells. A) Cytokines B) Interferons C) Chemokines D) TNF

Interferons

Allergic rhinitis is a seasonal reaction to plant pollen or molds and A) is an acute condition. B) is also called hay fever. C) is caused by ingestants. D) causes vomiting and nausea.

Is also called hay fever

T cell maturation process

Is directed by the thymus and it's hormones. All T lymphocytes will express CD3 markers.

What is clonal selection and expansion

Is the second stage of development, happens after exposure to the correct antigen. This exposure causes a clone to undergo mitotic division and expand into a larger population of lymphocytes all bearing the same specificity, increasing immune response to that particular antigen.

A(n) _______ is grafting between identical twins. A) autograft B) isograft C) allograft D) xenograft

Isograft

Describe the structure of the T-cell receptor

It belongs to the same protein family as the B cell receptor and is similar in it's form via DNA rearrangement. It will have variable and constant regions, as well as a antigen binding site formed from two parallel poplpeptide chains.

Diagram an antibody binding antigen, and list the possible end results of this process

It can be a perfect fit (strong activation) no fit (no activation) or poor fit (weak activation) antibodies require a minimal complimentary fit to bind effectively. Terms associated with binding are agglutinate, neutralization, antitoxin and opsonization.

Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?

It involves production of IgE antibodies.

Describe the structure and function of the human lymphatic system LO

It is a compartmentalized network of vessels cells and specialized accessory organs.

Discuss the role of normal biota in first line of defense LO

It provides microbial antagonism that can block access of pathogens to epithelial surfaces and can created unfavorable environs for pathogens.

Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome? It has a peptide (P) site. It is a 70s holoenzyme. Its small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds.

Its small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds.

Which exoenzymes can the organism Streptococcus pyogenes produce?

Kinase & Hyaluronidase

Macrophage

Large white blood cell that removes bacteria, foreign particles, and dead cells

Anaphylaxis

Life threatening allergic reaction

Plasma LO

Liquid part of blood. yellowish. carries cells and proteins throughout body.

Monocytes leave the marrow via the bloodstream. As they enter tissues, they mature and become A) granulocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) macrophages. D) neutrophils.

Lymphocytes

Draw a diagram illustrating how lymphocytes are capable of responding to nearly any antigen imaginable

Lymphocytes can become either T or b cells. B cells stay in the bone marrow while t cells go to the thymus, where the build unique antigen receptors. Both cell types then migrate to secondary lymphoid tissues which are resupplied with B and T cells.

Nonspecific chemical defenses of the human host include A) myeloperoxidase. B) lysozyme. C) cytokines. D) antibodies.

Lysozyme

Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-presenting cells. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells differ from neutrophils in that they synthesize ________ .

MHC-II receptors

Q2:Review: Human blood types do not involve

Major Histocompatability Complex (MHC) genes

Define marker and discuss its importance in the second and third lines of defense LO

Markers are proteins and or sugar that the immune system can examine almost like facial characteristics to identify whether a new cell poses a threat.

B cell maturation process

Mature in the bone marrow. They circulate in low numbers through the blood until coming into contact with antigens.

summarize the process of T-cell activation, and list major types of T-cells that are produced

Mature t-cells in lymphoid organs are rady to react with antigens that have been processed and presented with and MHC carrier. T-cells with CD4 receptors recognize peptides presented on MHC-2 and T cells with CD8 receptors recognize peptides on MHC-1. Activated T-cells transform in preperation for mitotic divisions and differentiate into one of the subsects of effector cells and memory cells that quickly respond to subsequent contact.

PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

Molecules associated with groups of pathogens that are recognized by cells of the innate immune system. They serve as sort of red flags for phagocytes.

IgE antibodies

Monomer 0.002% of serum antibodies On mast cells, on basophils, and in blood Function - Allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms Half-life = 2 days Binding sites 2

IgD antibodies

Monomer 1% of total antibodies. does not cross placenta. Does not fix complement Function - receptor on B cells Half-life = 3 days Binding sites 2

IgG antibodies

Monomer 80% of serum antibodies Fix complement In blood, lymph, and intestine Cross placenta Enhance phagocytosis; neutralize toxins and viruses; protects fetus and newborn Half-life = 23 days binding sites 2

Inborn, nonspecific defenses can be divided into physical, chemical, and genetic barriers that impede the entry of not only microbes but any foreign agent, whether living or not. Identify the physical barrier from the list that follows: A) mucous membranes B) species specific immunity C) lysozyme D) phagocytosis

Mucous membranes

Termites are insects that require the protozoan Trichonympha in their gut to synthesize the enzyme cellulase to degrade the cellulose in wood. The protozoan uses the end products of the cellulose breakdown (glucose). This is a(n) ________ relationship.

Mutualistic

___ affects skeletal muscle, progressing from weakness to complete loss of muscle function and death, due to autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors in nerve transmission. A) Myasthenia gravis B) Diabetes mellitus C) Graves disease D) Multiple sclerosis

Myasthenia gravis

Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

Natural killer (NK) cells

List the four categories of acquired immunity

Natural, artificial, active and pasive

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity?

Neutralization

Q7:Which component(s) of blood function primarily as phagocytes?

Neutrophils

Explain the role of the Rh factor in hemolytic disease and how this condition is prevented in newborns

Occurs when Rh- mothers are sensitized to Rh+ rbc's of their unborn babies. The mothers anti-Rh antibodies will cause hemolysis of the newborns RBC's. Prevention can be careful scrutiny of family history and the mother being passively immunized with antiserum containing antibodies against the Rh factor. This prevents the sensitization of the mother's immune system.

Summarize genetic and environmental factors that influence allergy development

Parents may pass on allergens. The hygiene hypothesis says that because we live in a very clean environment nowadays that this is bad for our immune systems. Breast feeding for the first 4 months shows a lowered risk of asthma.

Variable regions

Parts of the antibody that make each cell specific to one antigen

IgM antibodies

Pentamer 5-10% of serum antibodies Fix complement In blood, in lymph, and on B cells Agglutinate microbes; first Ab produced in response to infection Half-life = 5 days binding sites 10

Discuss the anti-vaccine movement and how it may impact public health

People who don't vaccinated for either religious reasons, health reasons, lack of education or the belief that vaccines are dangerous.

Give two examples of the first line of defense LO

Physical: Skin and mucous membranes. Chemical: Tears, saliva and sweat

Complement is found in the A) red blood cells. B) white blood cells. C) platelets. D) plasma.

Plasma

Define severe combined immunodeficiency

the most serious and potentially lethal form of immunodeficiency disease. They involve dysfunction in both lymphocyte systems. B and T.

The anamnestic response to an antigen results from A) a latent period. B) prior antigen exposure. C) TC cell activity. D) antiserum.

Prior antigen exposure

Antigens are more commonly what molecules

Proteins or polysaccharides inside viruses and cells

The reticuloendothelial system (RES) A) is extrinsic to the immune function. B) provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs. C) exists separately from phagocytic cells. D) is heavily endowed with red blood cells called erythrocytes.

Provides passageway within and between tissues and organs

Name six types of blood cells that function in nonspecific immunity LO

RBC - Erythrocytes: transport O2 and CO2 to and from tissues WBCs (leukocytes) - Neutrophils: phagocytosis - Eosinophils: attack large eukaryotic pathogens and are involved in inflammation and allergic reactions - Basophils: same as Eospinophils - Monocytes: processing foreign molecules and presenting them to lymphocytes Platelets: hemostasis and blood clotting

Rh factor

Refers to the presence or absence of the Rh antigen on red blood cells.

IgG blocking antibodies

Remove the allergen from the system before it can bind to IgE and trigger mast cell degranulation

With hemolytic disease of the newborn, the Rh factor is a problem when the mother is _______ and the fetus is ________. A) Rh positive; Rh negative B) Rh positive; Rh positive C) Rh negative; Rh negative D) Rh negative; Rh positive

Rh - and Rh+

Identify the systemic autoimmune disease from the list below. A) Graves disease B) Pernicious anemia C) Type I diabetes D) Rheumatoid arthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Inflammation is characterized by redness, warmth, swelling, and pain. Redness matches the Latin term A) calor. B) tumor. C) dolor. D) rubor.

Rubor

Signs and symptoms of inflammation

Rubor (redness) Tumor (swelling) Dolor (pain) Calor (heat)

immunoglobulins

Secreted antibodies that bind with specific antigens.

Q6:The initial encounter with an allergen is called the ____ dose.

Sensitizing

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the ________ dose.

Sensitizing

______ explains that during embryonic growth, some tissues are immunologically privileged. A) The theory of immune deficiency B) Molecular mimicry C) The clonal selection theory D) The sequestered antigen theory

Sequestered antigen theory

Q10:Which of the following are possible origins of autoimmune disease? (Select all that apply)

Sequestered antigens Forbidden clones The bystander effect Molecular mimicry

What are three explanations for the origin of autoimmunity

Sequestered antigens, forbidden clones, molecular mimicry.

You were out in the garage going through boxes when you were bitten by an a spider. You tell the doctor that the spider was tiny and black, causing the doctor to think perhaps that it was a black widow spider The doctor gives you an injection of antibody to the spider venom to give you immediate protection. The antibody is produced in horses by injecting them with small doses of the spider venom, causing the horse's immune system to make large amounts of specific antibody to the antigen. The horse serum is then purified before being given to humans. A week later, you notice a red rash spreading away from the injection spot, where the doctor gave you the anti-venom shot. A few days later, the rash has spread and swelling in also present. You have joint pain as well as sore muscles all over your body. The lymph nodes in the armpit are swollen and painful. Going back to the doctor, he diagnoses you with

Serum sickness

Interferon synthesis A) protects the synthesizing cell from viral attack. B) signals cells nearby to synthesize antiviral proteins. C) blocks viral attachment to nearby cells. D) degrades viral nucleic acids.

Signals nearby cells to synthesize antiviral proteins

Collagense & Coagulase are produced by which organism?

Staphylococcus aureus

Which organism is responsible for causing Toxic Shock Syndrome?

Staphylococcus aureus

Th2 cells

Stimulate antigen-reactive B cells to produce antibodies

Histamine is the most profuse and fast-acting allergic mediator, it A) affects nerve cells primarily. B) increases mast cell proliferation. C) decreases peristalsis. D) stimulates smooth muscle and glands.

Stimulates smooth muscle and glands

Q2:What is the human body's FIRST line of immune defense?

Stratum corneum Mucous (like snot) Barriers that impeded entry

Examples of type 3 hypersensitivity reactions

Systemic lupus erythematosus, rhematoid arthritis, serum sickness and rheumatic fever.

Type 4 hypersensitivity

T cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity Ex- infection reactions, contact dermatitis.

T helper cells

T cells that are stimulated by antigen to provide signals that promote immune responses. Can also stimulate various activities of B cells

Primary mediators in Type IV hypersensitivities include A) IgA, IgG, IgM B) complement, IgG, IgM C) IgE, basophils, mast cells D) T lymphocytes

T lymphocytes

Compare and contrast the process of antigen recognition in t cells and b cells

T- cells: Give rise to one of three types of cells, helper T cells, regulatory t cells and cytotoxic t cells. B- cells: Divide producing plasma cells, which release antibodies into the tissue and blood. These will mark antigens for destruction or neutralization.

Major roles of T-lymphocytes

T- cells: Mature in thymus, engage in cell-mediated immunity in which they modulate immune functions and kill foreign cells.

Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies? A) opsonization B) agglutination C) complement fixation D) T-cell activation

T-cell activation

"Cell mediated immunity" refers to A) B cell activation and plasma cell production. B) monocyte conversion. C) T cell responses to antigen. D) MHC markers on "self" cell surfaces.

T-cell responses to antigen

Identify the specific defense from the list that follows. A) Granulocytes B) T-lymphocytes C) Macrophages D) Dendritic cells

T-lymphocytes

Multiple sclerosis

Targets myelin, is type 2 and 4 hypersensitivity. T-cells and antibodies snesitized to myelin sheath destroy neurons.

Type 1 diabetes

Targets pancreas, is a type 4 hypersensitivity. T-cells attack insulin producing cells.

Graves disease

Targets the thyroid, is a type 3 hypersensitivty. Antibodies target thyroid stimulation hormone receptors.

Type I hypersensitivity reactions A) result from excessive IgE production in response to an exogenous antigen. B) consist of three types. C) tend to be acquired through exposure. D) are not generally be influenced by age, geographic locale, or infection.

Tend to be acquired through exposure

Summarize the first line of defense

The first line is any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry. (physical and chemical barriers)

Describe how the immune system responds to alloantigens and superantigens

The immune system activates T-cells at a rate of 100 times greater than ordinary antigens resulting in overwhelming release of cytokines and cell death.

forbidden clone theory

The immune system of a fetus develops tolerance by eradicating all self-reacting lymphocyte clones while retaining only clones that react to foreign antigens.

Summarize the second line of defense

The second line is the nonspecific line which is an internalized system of protective cells and fluids. (Phagocytosis, inflammation, fever,)

Define immunopathology

The study of disease states associated with overreactivy or underreactivity of the immune response.

Summarize the third line of defense

The third line is acquired on an individual basis and is highly specific. (B-cells and T-cells)

How is the third of line of defense different from the other mechanisms

The third line of defense is differs in that when host barriers and nonespecific defense systems fail, the third line (specific line of immunity) steps in. It is not innate but adaptive, acquired only after contracting an immunizing event such as infection.

Q3:How do sweat glands help with immune defense?

They flush out the area

Explain the role of cytotoxic t-cells in apoptosis, and list the potential targets of this process

They induce apoptosis through the actions of perforins and granzymes.

An advantage of attenuated live preparations in vaccines is that A) viable microorganisms can multiply and produce infections and mild cases of the disease. B) they confer short-lasting protection. C) they usually require more doses. D) they usually require fewer boosters.

They require fewer boosters

List the components of the MPS LO

Thymus: white blood cells mature here Lymph nodes, tonsils spleen. Lymphoid tissue in mucos of gut aka GALT.

Q9:Which of the following is NOT lymphoid tissue? Thyroid, galt, spleen

Thyroid

A blood transfusion reaction is a type II hypersensitivity. A) True B) False

True

AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells. T/f

True

An allergic reaction to jewelry is a type IV hypersensitivity. A) True B) False

True

Atopic dermatitis is a skin condition that is intensely itchy and inflammatory and is also known as eczema. A) True B) False

True

Before a type II hypersensitivity can proceed, three immune components must be in place: complement, IgG, and IgM. T/f

True

Complement is a complex defense system that results, by way of a cascade mechanism, in the formation of a membrane attack complex that kills cells by creating holes in their membranes. A) True B) False

True

During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.

True

Fever is a systemic response while inflammation is a localized response. A) True B) False

True

Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives. T/f

True

Q10:The immune system penetrates every cell / every tissue in the entire body.

True

Q4:Lyzosyme is a non-specific immune defense

True

Q8:The liquid part of clotted blood is called plasma.

True

The memory response means that the second exposure to an antigen calls forth a much faster and more vigorous response than the first. A) True B) False

True

The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary response.

True

The two features that most characterize the third line of defense are sensitivity and memory. A) True B) False

True

Vaccination programs seek to protect the individual directly through raising the antibody titer and indirectly through the development of herd immunity. A) True B) False

True

Immunogens are proteins or other complex molecules of high molecular weight that trigger the immune response in the host. A) True B) False

Ture

What is the name of the medication that can stop prostaglandins?

Tylenol

There are four categories of hypersensitivity reactions including A) Type I — IgG and IgM tissue destruction. B) Type II — allergy and anaphylaxis. C) Type III — immune complex reactions. D) Type IV — reaction to vaccines.

Type 3 - immune complex reaction

Active immunization is synonymous with A) natural immunity. B) passive immunity. C) vaccination. D) breastfeeding.

Vaccination

Q5:Which of the following are considered SECOND line of defense? WBCs Markers Hemoglobin

WBC's

List several types of vaccines and discuss how they are utilized today

Whole cell vaccines, (killed or live attenuated vaccines.) subunit vaccines and DNA vaccines

whole cell vaccines

Whole cells or viruses are very effective immunogens, since they are so large and complex. Depending on the vaccine, these are either killed or attenuated.

Q6:Is a fever during pregnancy linked to autism in the unborn baby?

Yes

Hematopoiesis begins early in embryonic development in the A) bone marrow. B) spleen. C) lymphatic organs. D) yolk sac

Yolk sac

An example of natural passive immunity would be

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to

a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.

Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is

a lack of immune tolerance.

A saprobe differs from a parasite in that

a saprobe derive nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals.

What is a hapten

a small molecule that can elicit an immune response only when attached to a large carrier such as a protein

Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against

acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle.

secondary immunodeficiency

acquired later in life.

Ingestants

allergens that enter by mouth

Contactants

allergens that enter through the skin

Immune tolerance

an acquired ability to prevent an unnecessary or harmful immune response to a detected foreign body known not to cause disease

Antitoxin

antibodies against a specific toxin

neurtralization reaction

antibodies fill surface receptors on a virus or active site to prevent it from attaching normally.

Type 2 hypersensitivity

antibody mediated. IgG, IgM antibodies act upon cells with complement and cause cell lysis. Ex- pernicious anemia.

"Self" markers in human cells A) are lipopolysaccharides of the GALT. B) are glycoproteins of the MHC. C) are identical between individuals. D) are clonally selected.

are glycoproteins of the MHC.

Self" markers in human cells A) are lipopolysaccharides of the GALT. B) are glycoproteins of the MHC. C) are identical between individuals. D) are clonally selected.

are glycoproteins of the MHC.

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.

A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered ________.

atopic

Autoimmunity is typically due to

autoantibodies and T cells.

Superantigens

cause an intense immune response due to release of cytokines from host cells

sequestered antigen theory

cellular antigens hidden from the immune system during development become exposed after tissue injury or infection

Opsonization

coating antigen with antibody enhances phagocytosis

MHC class one genes

code for markers that appear on all nucleated cells. Displays unique characteristics of self and allow for recognition of self molecules and the regulation of immune reactions

The most significant cells in graft rejection are

cytotoxic t cells

The population most likely to be affected by catheter-associated urinary tract infections is

elderly women in a nursing home.

The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the ________.

electrons

Granzymes

enzymes that attack proteins of target cells

Allergy

exaggerated immune response that is manifested by inflammation

Eusinophils

fights parasites

The B-lymphocyte A) is thymus derived. B) matures in the thymus gland in all birds and mammals. C) when activated will divide and form specialized plasma cells which produce antibodies. D) engages in a spectrum of immune functions characterized as cell-mediated immunity.

when activated will divide and form specialized plasma cells which produce antibodies.

Leukoycytes

white blood cells -contain a nucleus -largest of blood cells -fight infection -produced by red bone marrow & lymph nodes