Chapter 20🧽🛍🛋
103) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A) blood. B) lymph. C) serum. D) tears. E) interstitial.
D
113) An allergen circulating in the bloodstream affects mast cells throughout the body, dropping blood pressure to dangerously low levels. This response is termed A) allergy. B) hypersensitivity. C) allergic rhinitis. D) anaphylactic shock. E) asthma.
D
125) Describe the drainage of the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. (Module 20.3A) A) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the right side of the body. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the left side of the body. B) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the body inferior to the diaphragm. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the body superior to the diaphragm. C) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the entire body except the head and neck. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the head and neck. D) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the right side of the body superior to the diaphragm. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the body inferior to the diaphragm and the left side superior to the diaphragm. E) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the limbs of the body. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the trunk of the body.
D
135) Which cells maintain the blood thymus barrier? (Module 20.6C) A) T regulatory cells B) natural killer cells C) dendritic cells D) epithelial reticular cells E) memory cells
D
142) Define immune surveillance. (Module 20.11A) A) Immune surveillance the normal filtering of lymph through lymph nodes to detect abnormal cells. B) Immune surveillance is the constant filtering of blood in the kidneys to detect abnormal cells. C) Immune surveillance is the constant circulation of available antibodies to attack pathogens. D) Immune surveillance is the constant monitoring of normal tissues by NK cells sensitive to abnormal antigens on the surfaces of cells. E) Immune surveillance is the constant monitoring of normal tissues by activated cytotoxic T cells.
D
148) A rise in the level of interferons in the body suggests what kind of infection? (Module 20.13C) A) cancer B) parasitic C) bacterial D) viral E) prion
D
153) What types of immunity are stimulated by antigen presentation? (Module 20.15D) A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) cell-mediated immunity C) antibody-mediated immunity D) cell-mediated immunity and antibody-mediated immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity
D
168) Which cells can be activated by direct contact with virus-infected cells? (Module 20.21C) A) helper T and helper B cells B) memory T and memory B cells C) cytotoxic T and memory B cells D) cytotoxic T and natural killer cells E) helper T and plasma cells
D
76) Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following? A) all body cells with a nucleus B) red blood cells C) granulocytes and microphages D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen
D
80) The cells directly responsible for cell-mediated immunity are the ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) NK D) T E) interferon
D
83) Cytotoxic T cells attack target cells by doing what? A) secreting a strong acid B) secreting organic solvent C) secreting free radicals D) activating genes that trigger apoptosis E) secreting mutant proteins
D
85) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time. A) IgM B) Suppressor C) Dendritic D) Memory E) Plasma
D
93) The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their A) asymmetry. B) antigen specificity. C) light-chain variable segments. D) heavy-chain constant segments. E) both light-chain variable segments and heavy-chain constant segments.
D
94) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.
D
99) During a primary response to antigen exposure, all of the following occur except A) the antigen must activate appropriate B cells. B) B cells may take time to develop into plasma cells and memory cells. C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances. E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type.
D
108) When large numbers of antibodies encounter their antigenic targets, they interact to form a three-dimensional structure known as a(n) A) immune complex. B) antigen-presenting cell. C) antigenic determinant site. D) major histocompatibility complex. E) antigen-antibody complex.
A
111) In opsonization, A) a pathogen is coated by proteins to facilitate its destruction by neutrophils and macrophages. B) the cell wall of a pathogen is breached, leading to death of the cell. C) MHC II glycoproteins display a fragment of an alien cell. D) antigens bind to antibodies to become antigen-antibody complexes. E) antibodies tie many antigens together.
A
126) Name the two large lymphatic vessels into which the lymphatic trunks empty. (Module 20.3B) A) right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct B) right lymphatic duct and left lymphatic duct C) thoracic duct and abdominopelvic duct D) left lymphatic duct and thoracic duct E) bronchomediastinal duct and intestinal duct
A
136) Describe red pulp and white pulp found in the spleen. (Module 20.7B) A) Red pulp contains large numbers of red blood cells; white pulp resembles lymphoid nodules and contains lymphocytes. B) Red pulp resembles lymphoid nodules and contains lymphocytes; white pulp contains large numbers of red blood cells. C) Red pulp contains large amounts of red bone marrow; white pulp contains large amounts of yellow bone marrow. D) Red pulp is where red blood cells are stored; white pulp is the primary storage site for triglycerides and other lipids. E) Red pulp is where hemoglobin is produced and stored in the body; white pulp is where T and B lymphocytes are produced and stored in the body.
A
139) A child falls off her bike and skins her knee. Which form of immunity will be activated immediately? (Module 20.8C) A) Innate immunity B) Adaptive immunity C) Cell-mediated immunity D) Antibody-mediated immunity
A
154) Describe CD markers. (Module 20.16A) A) T cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. B) B cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. C) NK cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. D) T cells contain cloning and division (CD) proteins in the cytoplasm to allow them to activate and clone after an exposure to an antigen. E) B cells contain cloning and division (CD) proteins in the cytoplasm to allow them to activate and clone after an exposure to an antigen.
A
92) B cells prepare for activation by presenting an antigen bound to Class II MHC proteins in a process called A) sensitization. B) apoptosis. C) opsonization. D) differentiation. E) customization.
A
100) All of the following are true of the secondary response to antigen exposure except that it A) depends on memory B cells. B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response. C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers. D) produces more IgG antibodies. E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two.
E
127) Explain lymphedema. (Module 20.3C) A) Lymphedema is the accumulation of lymphocytes in lymphatic vessels during an active infection. B) Lymphedema is the activation of the lymphatic system during an active infection. C) Lymphedema is the dilation of lymphatic vessels that occurs in response to inflammation. D) Lymphedema is the invasion of red blood cells into leaky lymphatic vessels. E) Lymphedema is the accumulation of interstitial fluids that results from blocked lymphatic drainage.
E
134) Describe the gross anatomy of the thymus. (Module 20.6B) A) The thymus is a deep red, elongated organ covered by a capsule. It is soft and contains indentations for the organs surrounding it. B) The thymus is a bean-shaped organ covered by a capsule with multiple afferent vessels and a single efferent vessel delivering lymph to it. C) The thymus is an aggregate of lymphoid tissue without a capsule embedded in the epithelial lining of various organs. D) The thymus is the largest visceral organ. It is a firm and reddish brown organ containing 4 lobes. E) The thymus is a pink, grainy organ covered by a capsule that divides it into two lobes, which divide further into lobules.
E
84) ________ cells provide cell-mediated immunity. A) Memory B B) Cytotoxic T C) Suppressor T D) Helper T E) CD8 T
E
97) Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, which are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.
E
105) The site on an antibody that is specifically tailored to fit a specific antigen is called the A) constant segment. B) variable segment. C) hapten. D) heavy chain. E) bond.
B
128) Identify the three main classes of lymphocytes. (Module 20.4A) A) T cells, B cells, and helper cells B) T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells C) RBCs, WBCs, and platelets D) acute lymphocytes, chronic lymphocytes, and resident lymphocytes E) cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and memory T cells
B
133) Where is the thymus located? (Module 20.6A) A) posterior mediastinum, lateral to the spinal cord B) anterior mediastinum, posterior to the sternum C) along the curving lateral border of the stomach, extending between the 9th and 11th ribs on the left side D) posterior superior wall of the nasopharynx E) inferior to the diaphragm, medial to the liver
B
150) Which type of immunity develops when a child is given the polio vaccine? (Module 20.14B) A) naturally acquired active immunity B) artificially acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) innate immunity
B
155) Identify the three major types of T cells activated by class I MHC proteins. (Module 20.16B) A) plasma T cells, memory T cells, and cytotoxic T cells B) cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells C) memory T cells, regulatory T cells, and plasma T cells D) NK T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and helper T cells E) helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and memory T cells
B
91) T cells release cytokines to stimulate the activation of A) APCs. B) B cells. C) antibodies. D) immunoglobulins. E) plasma cells.
B
96) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and may activate antibody production are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.
B
110) Which of the following is not a method in which antibodies work with features of innate immunity to destroy a pathogen? A) neutralization B) agglutination C) initiate allergic reaction D) complement activation E) phagocyte attraction
C
112) Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are A) immunodeficiency diseases. B) autoimmune diseases. C) allergies. D) the result of stress. E) signs of a weak system.
C
121) What is the function of lymphatic vessels? (Module 20.2A) A) The function of lymphatic vessels is to transport blood throughout peripheral tissues of the body. B) The function of lymphatic vessels is to provide a site for lymphocyte maturation. C) The function of lymphatic vessels is to transport lymph from peripheral tissues to the venous system. D) The function of lymphatic vessels is to detect pathogens before they reach the vital organs of the trunk and to help filter the lymph. E) The function of lymphatic vessels is to produce hormones that help the development of functional T cells.
C
123) What structure prevents the backflow of lymph in some lymphatic vessels? (Module 20.2C) A) lacteals B) lymph nodes C) valves D) tight junctions E) desmosomes
C
129) What tissues are involved in lymphopoiesis? (Module 20.4B) A) liver and spleen B) thymus, spleen, and peripheral lymphoid tissues C) thymus, bone marrow, and peripheral lymphoid tissues D) bone marrow and lymph nodes E) bone marrow, spleen, and lymph nodes
C
164) Which chemicals do mast cells and basophils release when stimulated in an allergic reaction? (Module 20.20B) A) interferons B) complement proteins C) histamines, leukotrienes, and other chemicals that cause inflammation D) heparin E) IgE antibodies
C
89) Cells that help regulate the antibody-mediated immune response are ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) NK
C
90) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) helper T cells. D) macrophages. E) plasma cells.
C
95) Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.
C
114) Destruction of antigens or cell lysis can be caused by all of the following except A) helper T cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) antibody actions. D) macrophages. E) complement system.
A
118) ________ will develop when the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues. A) Autoimmune disorders B) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome C) Immunosuppression D) Anaphylaxis E) Allergies
A
119) What is the difference between a lymphocyte and lymph? (Module 20.1A) A) A lymphocyte is the primary cell of the lymphatic system. Lymph is the interstitial fluid that has entered a lymphatic vessel. B) A lymphocyte is the primary cell of the lymphatic system. Lymph is the term for the vessels that transport lymphocytes. C) A lymphocyte is a collection of lymphatic tissue. Lymph is the interstitial fluid that has entered a lymphatic vessel. D) A lymphocyte is a red blood cell that has entered a lymphatic vessel. Lymph is the term for interstitial fluid with red blood cells that has entered a lymphatic vessel. E) A lymphocyte is a stem cell that is the precursor to all red and white blood cells. Lymph is the term for the matrix those stem cells develop in inside the bone marrow and lymphatic organs.
A
132) Trace the path of lymph through a lymph node, beginning at the afferent lymphatics. (Module 20.5C) A) afferent lymphatics � subcapsular space � cortex � paracortex � medullary sinus � efferent lymphatics B) afferent lymphatics � cortex � paracortex � subcapsular space � medullary sinus � efferent lymphatics C) afferent lymphatics � medullary sinus � subcapsular space � paracortex � cortex � efferent lymphatics D) afferent lymphatics � paracortex � medullary sinus � cortex � subcapsular space � efferent lymphatics E) afferent lymphatics � subcapsular space � medullary sinus � cortex � paracortex � efferent lymphatics
A
144) Define interferons. (Module 20.12A) A) Interferons are small proteins released by virus-infected cells that trigger the production of antiviral proteins. B) Interferons are phagocytic white blood cells that attack virus-infected cells. C) Interferons are circulating proteins that assist antibodies in the destruction of pathogens. D) Interferons are chemicals that induce fever to accelerate tissue metabolism and defenses. E) Interferons are circulating proteins that bind specific antigens as part of the adaptive immune response.
A
149) Which two cells coordinate adaptive immunity? (Module 20.14A) A) T cells and B cells B) B cells and natural killer cells C) T cells and natural killer cells D) acute lymphocytes and chronic lymphocytes E) cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells
A
158) If you observed a higher-than-normal number of plasma cells in a sample of lymph, would you expect antibody levels in the blood to be higher or lower than normal? (Module 20.17C) A) Plasma cells produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be higher than normal. B) Plasma cells do not produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be higher than normal. C) Plasma cells produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be lower than normal. D) Plasma cells do not produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be lower than normal.
A
166) Which T cells contain CD8 markers? CD4 markers? (Module 20.21A) A) CD8 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells; CD4 markers are found on all helper T cells. B) CD8 markers are found on all helper T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells. C) CD8 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells; CD4 markers are found on regulatory T cells and helper T cells. D) CD8 markers are found on regulatory T cells and helper T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells and memory cells. E) CD8 markers are found on regulatory T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and memory T cells.
A
169) Define autoimmune disorders. (Module 20.22A) A) Autoimmune disorders are conditions that result from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. B) Autoimmune disorders are an inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. C) Autoimmune disorders are an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response. D) Autoimmune disorders are excessive immune reactions of antibodies to a virus-infected cell. E) Autoimmune disorders are excessive immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction.
A
75) Which of the following concerning Class I MHC proteins is false? A) bind complement B) allow the body to differentiate its own antigens from foreign antigens C) function in antigen presentation D) display abnormal peptides on the plasma membrane E) are found on all nucleated cells
A
98) Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as mucus, saliva, and tears are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.
A
101) All of the following are true of the primary response to antigen exposure except that A) it depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell. B) it requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells. C) it is delayed by the memory cell stage. D) circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise. E) it peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure.
C
102) An antibody binds to an antigen at a specific area called the A) constant segment. B) light chain. C) antigen binding site. D) hapten. E) antigen-antibody complex.
C
104) A test to measure the antibody level of a blood sample is called a(n) A) primary response. B) secondary response. C) titer. D) anaphylaxis test. E) major histocompatibility complex.
C
109) The process by which antibodies bind to the antigen on the surface of cells, forming large immune complexes, is called A) neutralization. B) opsonization. C) agglutination. D) antigen presentation. E) sensitization.
C
115) Autoantibodies are A) produced by activated T cells. B) produced during an allergic reaction. C) directed against the body's own antigens. D) the first step in immunological competence. E) important in tissue rejection reactions.
C
117) Infection with the HIV virus occurs through A) sharing eating utensils. B) airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes. C) intimate contact with an infected person's body fluids. D) casual contact with an infected individual. E) sharing clothes with an infected individual.
C
131) Name the lymphoid tissue that protects epithelia lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts. (Module 20.5A) A) lymph nodes B) tonsils C) mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue D) interferons E) lacteals
C
137) Beginning at the trabecular arteries, trace the path of blood through the spleen. (Module 20.7C) A) trabecular arteries � reticular tissue of red pulp � central arteries � sinusoids � capillaries � trabecular veins B) trabecular arteries � sinusoids � central arteries � capillaries � reticular tissue of red pulp � trabecular veins C) trabecular arteries � central arteries � capillaries � reticular tissue of red pulp � sinusoids � trabecular veins D) trabecular arteries � capillaries � trabecular veins � sinusoids � central arteries � reticular tissue of red pulp E) trabecular arteries � central arteries � reticular tissue of red pulp � sinusoids � capillaries � trabecular veins
C
141) Define chemotaxis. (Module 20.10B) A) Chemotaxis is the process of a phagocyte leaving a capillary by squeezing between adjacent endothelial cells. B) Chemotaxis is the attachment of the phagocyte to its target. C) Chemotaxis is the phagocyte movement in response to chemical stimuli. D) Chemotaxis is the destruction of the target by the phagocyte. E) Chemotaxis is the release of digestive chemicals by the phagocyte when the target is too large to be engulfed.
C
146) Describe inflammation. (Module 20.13A) A) Inflammation is an increase in body temperature. B) Inflammation is a vascular response to injury to cause vasoconstriction and reduce blood loss. C) Inflammation is a localized response to injury characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. D) Inflammation is the response of chemical messengers that coordinate defense against viral infections. E) Inflammation is the mechanism by which NK cells destroy abnormal cells in peripheral tissues.
C
156) How do abnormal antigens attached to class I MHC proteins initiate an immune response? (Module 20.16C) A) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by regulatory T cells initiates the initial immune response. B) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by CD4 T cells initiates the initial immune response. C) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by CD8 T cells initiates the initial immune response. D) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by plasma cells initiates the initial immune response. E) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by NK cells initiates the initial immune response.
C
161) Define opsonization. (Module 20.19B) A) Opsonization is the process by which antibodies binding superficial sites on the bacteria or toxins make the virus or toxin incapable of attaching itself to a cell. B) Opsonization is the formation of insoluble immune complexes. C) Opsonization is the process by which the coating of pathogens with antibodies and complement proteins makes the pathogens more susceptible to phagocytosis. D) Opsonization is the release of chemicals from basophils and mast cells. E) Opsonization is the binding of antibodies to the surface of the bacteria or virus causing inflammatory reactions.
C
106) The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result from all of the following except A) neutralization of the antigen. B) agglutination or precipitation. C) complement activation. D) opsonization. E) activate T cells.
E
124) Compare lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine with those found elsewhere. (Module 20.2D) A) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue and they contain dividing lymphocytes. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere house mature, non-dividing, lymphocytes. B) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lymph corpuscles and they are involved in the immune response of the body. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are not involved in the immune response of the body. C) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lymph corpuscles and they are not involved in the immune response of the body. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are involved in the immune response of the body. D) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine also absorb nutrients to deliver to the hepatic portal vein and are critical components of the hepatic portal system. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere do not carry any nutrients in the lymph. E) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lacteals and they transport lipids. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are associated with blood capillary networks.
E
143) How do NK cells detect cancer cells? (Module 20.11B) A) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the abnormally large size cancerous cells become. B) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the abnormally small size cancerous cells become. C) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the antibodies the cancer cells secrete. D) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the cytokines the cancer cells secrete. E) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the tumor-specific antigens on the plasma membranes of cancer cells.
E
122) What is the function of overlapping endothelial cells in lymphatic capillaries? (Module 20.2B) A) Overlapping endothelial cells strengthen the walls of the lymphatic capillaries so they are not distorted in tissues. B) Overlapping endothelial cells act as one-way valves that permit the entry of fluids and solutes but prevent their return to the intercellular spaces. C) Overlapping endothelial cells act as one-way valves that permit the exit of fluids and solutes but prevent their entry into the capillary. D) Overlapping endothelial cells allow large proteins to enter the lymphatic capillaries to be transported to the venous system. E) Overlapping endothelial cells produce tight junctions that prevent the movement of lymph into or out of the capillary.
B
140) Identify the types of phagocytes in the body, and differentiate between fixed macrophages and free macrophages. (Module 20.10A) A) The body's phagocytes are macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. B) The body's phagocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. C) The body's phagocytes are B cells, T cells, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. D) The body's phagocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages can only respond to one type of pathogen; free macrophages are free to respond to any pathogen. E) The body's phagocytes are B cells, T cells, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages can only respond to one type of pathogen; free macrophages are free to respond to any pathogen.
B
145) What is the effect of histamine release? (Module 20.12C) A) Histamine induces fever to accelerate tissue metabolism and defenses. B) Histamine increases local inflammation, increasing blood flow to the area. C) Histamine increases blood clotting and causes vasoconstriction to restrict blood loss. D) Histamine triggers the production of antiviral proteins in the cytoplasm of normal cells. E) Histamine binds to bacterial surfaces and enhances phagocytosis.
B
147) What effect do pyrogens have in the body? (Module 20.13B) A) Pyrogens decrease body temperature. B) Pyrogens induce fever, an increase in body temperature. C) Pyrogens cause vasodilation during inflammatory reactions. D) Pyrogens cause vasoconstriction during inflammatory reactions. E) Pyrogens induce the production of anti-viral proteins in the cytoplasm of normal cells.
B
160) Which would be more affected by a lack of memory B cells and memory T cells: the primary response or the secondary response? (Module 20.18C) A) The primary response because memory cells are produced during the initial response to an antigen. B) The secondary response because memory cells are produced during the initial response to an antigen.
B
163) Describe hypersensitivities. (Module 20.20A) A) Hypersensitivities are normal immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. B) Hypersensitivities are excessive immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. C) Hypersensitivities is a condition that results from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. D) Hypersensitivities are inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. E) Hypersensitivities are the excessive immune reaction of antibodies to a virus-infected cell.
B
170) Describe immunodeficiency diseases. (Module 20.22B) A) Immunodeficiency diseases are conditions that result from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. B) Immunodeficiency diseases are an inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. C) Immunodeficiency diseases are an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response. D) Immunodeficiency diseases are excessive immune reactions of antibodies to a virus-infected cell. E) Immunodeficiency diseases are excessive immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction.
B
78) The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the ________ cells. A) NK B) B C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T
B
79) Adaptive immunity is the result of the actions of A) NK cells. B) T and B cells. C) mast cells. D) antigen-antibody complexes. E) interferons.
B
86) Helper T cells do all of the following except A) activate sensitized B cells by costimulation. B) destroy target cells using perforins. C) enhance cell-mediated immunity. D) secrete cytokines to stimulate production of plasma cells. E) enhance antibody-mediated immunity.
B
87) When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a(n) ________ cell. A) plasma B) CD4 T C) NK D) suppressor T E) cytotoxic T
B
88) The cells responsible for producing antibody molecules are ________ cells. A) NK B) plasma C) helper T D) thymus E) liver
B
107) Antibodies may bind to superficial sites on bacteria or other toxins, making the toxin incapable of attaching itself to a cell. This mechanism is known as A) opsonization. B) agglutination. C) phagocytosis. D) neutralization. E) costimulation.
D
116) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes the disease known as AIDS, selectively infects ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) cytotoxic T D) helper T E) suppressor T
D
120) List the components of the lymphatic system. (Module 20.1B) A) The components of the lymphatic system are the lymph and lymph nodes. B) The components of the lymphatic system are the blood, blood vessels, lymph, and lymphatic vessels. C) The components of the lymphatic system are the red blood cells, lymphocytes, blood plasma, lymph, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. D) The components of the lymphatic system are the lymphocytes, lymph, lymphatic vessels, primary lymphoid tissues and organs, and secondary lymphoid tissues and organs. E) The components of the lymphatic system are the lymphocytes, lymph, lymph nodes, and lymphatic vessels.
D
130) Which cells are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity? (Module 20.4C) A) natural killer cells B) dendritic cells C) epithelial reticular cells D) B cells E) T cells
D
138) Distinguish between innate immunity and adaptive immunity. (Module 20.8A) A) Innate immunity primarily uses T cells to neutralize the threat. Adaptive immunity primarily uses B cells to neutralize the threat. B) Innate immunity primarily uses B cells to neutralize the threat. Adaptive immunity primarily uses T cells to neutralize the threat. C) Innate immunity relies on the activity of cells to neutralize the threat. Adaptive immunity primarily relies on the activity of specific proteins, such as antibodies to neutralize the threat. D) Innate immunity is nonspecific and does not distinguish one type of threat from another. Adaptive immunity is specific and protects against particular threats. E) Innate immunity is specific and protects against particular threats. Adaptive immunity is nonspecific and does not distinguish one type of threat from another.
D
152) Where are class I MHC proteins and class II MHC proteins found? (Module 20.15C) A) Class I MHC proteins are found on B cells and class II MHC proteins are found on T cells. B) Class I MHC proteins are found on T cells and class II MHC proteins are found on B cells. C) Class I MHC proteins are found on all nucleated body cells and class II MHC proteins are found on antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes. D) Class I MHC proteins are found on antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes and class II MHC proteins are found on all nucleated body cells. E) Class I MHC proteins are found on cells of the innate immune response and class II MHC proteins are found on cells of the adaptive immune response.
D
157) Explain the function of cytokines secreted by helper T cells. (Module 20.17A) A) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the innate immunity only. B) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the cell-mediated adaptive immunity only. C) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the antibody-mediated adaptive immunity only. D) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the cell-mediated adaptive immunity and antibody-mediated adaptive immunity. E) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate NK cells only.
D
162) Which cells are involved in inflammation? (Module 20.19C) A) B cells and T cells B) natural killer cells and eosinophils C) eosinophils, neutrophils, and macrophages D) basophils and mast cells E) helper T cells and memory T cells
D
165) What is anaphylaxis? (Module 20.20C) A) Anaphylaxis is a normal immune response to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. B) Anaphylaxis is a condition that results from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. C) Anaphylaxis is an inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. D) Anaphylaxis is an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response. E) Anaphylaxis is the excessive immune reaction of antibodies to a virus-infected cell.
D
81) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells. A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T
D
82) Regulatory T cells act to A) inhibit T and B cell activities. B) erase memory T cells. C) limit antigen proliferation. D) suppress antigens. E) produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity.
D
151) What is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)? (Module 20.15B) A) The major histocompatibility complex is a collection of circulating proteins that bind pathogens and enhance phagocytosis. B) The major histocompatibility complex is a cell membrane barrier that blocks pathogens from entering cells if the MHC barrier is expressed. C) The major histocompatibility complex is the term for the coordinated antibody-mediated response to a pathogen. D) The major histocompatibility complex is a portion of chromosome 12 that contains genes that control the production of anti-viral proteins by normal cells. E) The major histocompatibility complex is a portion of chromosome 6 that contains genes that control the synthesis of membrane glycoproteins.
E
159) Define antigenic determinant site. (Module 20.18B) A) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antibody that contains constant segments. B) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen that is displayed by class I MHC cells. C) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen that is displayed by class II MHC cells. D) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen that constantly mutates to avoid immune system detection. E) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen molecule to which an antibody molecule binds.
E
167) Which cells produce antibodies? (Module 20.21B) A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) natural killer cells D) memory B cells E) plasma cells
E
77) Before specific defenses are activated, most antigens must A) infect cells. B) be processed by a phagocyte. C) either infect cells or be processed by a phagocyte. D) depolarize the lymphocyte. E) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte
E
