Chapter 21: Abdomen, Ch. 25 Anus, Rectum and Prostate, quiz 9

When performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is ventrally positioned. This finding is: a. Called hypospadias. b. A result of phimosis. c. Probably due to a stricture. d. Often associated with aging.

a. Called hypospadias.

A 59-year-old patient has been diagnosed with prostatitis and is being seen at the clinic for complaints of burning and pain during urination. He is experiencing: a. Dysuria. b. Nocturia. c. Polyuria. d. Hematuria.

a. Dysuria.

An older man is concerned about his sexual performance. The nurse knows that in the absence of disease, a withdrawal from sexual activity later in life may be attributable to: a. Side effects of medications. b. Decreased libido with aging. c. Decreased sperm production. d. Decreased pleasure from sexual intercourse.

a. Side effects of medications.

A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the nurse where sperm is produced. The nurse knows that sperm production occurs in the: a. Testes. b. Prostate. c. Epididymis. d. Vas deferens.

a. Testes.

The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a patient. Which statement is most appropriate? a. "A good time to examine your testicles is just before you take a shower." b. "If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider." c. "The testicle is egg shaped and movable. It feels firm and has a lumpy consistency." d. "Perform a testicular examination at least once a week to detect the early stages of testicular cancer."

b. "If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider."

The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the nurse to discuss the recognition of puberty. The nurse should reply by saying: a. "Puberty usually begins around 15 years of age." b. "The first sign of puberty is an enlargement of the testes." c. "The penis size does not increase until about 16 years of age." d. "The development of pubic hair precedes testicular or penis enlargement."

b. "The first sign of puberty is an enlargement of the testes."

When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information, the nurse would: a. Squeeze the glans to check for the presence of discharge. b. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the examination. c. Assess the testicles for the presence of masses or painless lumps. d. Obtain a more detailed history, focusing on any scrotal abnormalities the patient has noticed.

b. Consider this finding as normal, and proceed with the examination.

During an examination of an aging man, the nurse recognizes that normal changes to expect would be: a. Change in scrotal color. b. Decrease in the size of the penis. c. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum. d. Increase in the number of rugae over the scrotal sac.

b. Decrease in the size of the penis.

The external male genital structures include the: a. Testis. b. Scrotum. c. Epididymis. d. Vas deferens.

b. Scrotum.

When assessing the scrotum of a male patient, the nurse notices the presence of multiple firm, nontender, yellow 1-cm nodules. The nurse knows that these nodules are most likely: a. From urethritis. b. Sebaceous cysts. c. Subcutaneous plaques. d. From an inflammation of the epididymis.

b. Sebaceous cysts.

When performing a scrotal assessment, the nurse notices that the scrotal contents show a red glow with transillumination. On the basis of this finding the nurse would: a. Assess the patient for the presence of a hernia. b. Suspect the presence of serous fluid in the scrotum. c. Consider this finding normal, and proceed with the examination. d. Refer the patient for evaluation of a mass in the scrotum.

b. Suspect the presence of serous fluid in the scrotum.

A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with physiologic cryptorchidism. Considering this diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe: a. Testes that are hard and painful to palpation. b. Atrophic scrotum and a bilateral absence of the testis. c. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down. d. Testes that migrate into the abdomen when the child squats or sits cross-legged.

c. Absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down.

During an examination of an aging man, the nurse recognizes that normal changes to expect would be: a. Enlarged scrotal sac. b. Increased pubic hair. c. Decreased penis size. d. Increased rugae over the scrotum.

c. Decreased penis size.

The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer? a. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. b. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration. c. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. d. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.

c. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.

An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the: a. Testis. b. Scrotum. c. Prostate. d. Vas deferens.

c. Prostate.

A 45-year-old mother of two children is seen at the clinic for complaints of "losing my urine when I sneeze." The nurse documents that she is experiencing: a. Urinary frequency. b. Enuresis. c. Stress incontinence. d. Urge incontinence.

c. Stress incontinence.

When the nurse is conducting sexual history from a male adolescent, which statement would be most appropriate to use at the beginning of the interview? a. "Do you use condoms?" b. "You don't masturbate, do you?" c. "Have you had sex in the last 6 months?" d. "Often adolescents your age have questions about sexual activity."

d. "Often adolescents your age have questions about sexual activity."

The nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient and notices urethral drainage. When collecting urethral discharge for microscopic examination and culture, the nurse should: a. Ask the patient to urinate into a sterile cup. b. Ask the patient to obtain a specimen of semen. c. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the urethra. d. Compress the glans between the examiner's thumb and forefinger, and collect any discharge.

d. Compress the glans between the examiner's thumb and forefinger, and collect any discharge.

A 62-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has an "inguinal hernia." He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. The nurse should: a. Tell him not to worry and that most men his age develop hernias. b. Explain that a hernia is often the result of prenatal growth abnormalities. c. Refer him to his physician for additional consultation because the physician made the initial diagnosis. d. Explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles.

d. Explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles.

When performing a genital assessment on a middle-aged man, the nurse notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower-like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristic of: a. Carcinoma. b. Syphilitic chancres. c. Genital herpes. d. Genital warts.

d. Genital warts.

When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, which action is correct? a. Auscultating for the presence of a bruit over the scrotum b. Palpating for the vertical chain of lymph nodes along the groin, inferior to the inguinal ligament c. Palpating the inguinal canal only if a bulge is present in the inguinal region during inspection d. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg when palpating for a hernia on the right side

d. Having the patient shift his weight onto the left (unexamined) leg when palpating for a hernia on the right side

The nurse knows that a common assessment finding in a boy younger than 2 years old is: a. Inflamed and tender spermatic cord. b. Presence of a hernia in the scrotum. c. Penis that looks large in relation to the scrotum. d. Presence of a hydrocele, or fluid in the scrotum.

d. Presence of a hydrocele, or fluid in the scrotum.

When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The nurse's most appropriate action or response is to: a. Ask the patient if he would like someone else to examine him. b. Continue with the examination as though nothing has happened. c. Stop the examination, leave the room while stating that the examination will resume at a later time. d. Reassure the patient that this is a normal response and continue with the examination.

d. Reassure the patient that this is a normal response and continue with the examination.

The nurse is examining the glans and knows which finding is normal for this area? a. The meatus may have a slight discharge when the glans is compressed. b. Hair is without pest inhabitants. c. The skin is wrinkled and without lesions. d. Smegma may be present under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.

d. Smegma may be present under the foreskin of an uncircumcised male.

Which of these statements is true regarding the penis? a. The urethral meatus is located on the ventral side of the penis. b. The prepuce is the fold of foreskin covering the shaft of the penis. c. The penis is made up of two cylindrical columns of erectile tissue. d. The corpus spongiosum expands into a cone of erectile tissue called the glans.

d. The corpus spongiosum expands into a cone of erectile tissue called the glans.

Which statement concerning the testes is true? a. The lymphatic vessels of the testes drain into the abdominal lymph nodes. b. The vas deferens is located along the inferior portion of each testis. c. The right testis is lower than the left because the right spermatic cord is longer. d. The cremaster muscle contracts in response to cold and draws the testicles closer to the body.

d. The cremaster muscle contracts in response to cold and draws the testicles closer to the body.

A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of "dull pain and pulling" in the scrotal area. On examination, the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This description is consistent with: a. Epididymitis. b. Spermatocele. c. Testicular torsion. d. Varicocele.

d. Varicocele.

During a discussion for a men's health group, the nurse relates that the group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer is: a.Asian Americans. b.Blacks. c.American Indians. d.Hispanics.

B According to the American Cancer Society (2010), black men have a higher rate of prostate cancer than other racial groups.

34. The nurse is reviewing statistics for lactose intolerance. In the United States, the incidence of lactose intolerance is higher in adults of which ethnic group? A) African-Americans B) Hispanics C) Whites D) Asians

ANS: A A recent study found lactose-intolerance prevalence estimates as follows: 19.5% for African-Americans, 10% for Hispanics, and 7.72% for whites

During a health history of a patient who complains of chronic constipation, the patient asks the nurse about high-fiber foods. The nurse relates that an example of a high-fiber food would be: a.Broccoli. b.Hamburger. c.Iceberg lettuce. d.Yogurt.

A High-fiber foods are either soluble type (e.g., beans, prunes, barley, broccoli) or insoluble type (e.g., cereals, wheat germ). The other examples are not considered high-fiber foods.

The mother of a 5-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has noticed her daughter "scratching at her bottom a lot the last few days." During the assessment, the nurse finds redness and raised skin in the anal area. This finding most likely indicates: a.Pinworms. b.Chickenpox. c.Constipation. d.Bacterial infection.

A In children, pinworms are a common cause of intense itching and irritated anal skin. The other options are not correct.

A 70-year-old man is visiting the clinic for difficulty in passing urine. In the health history, he indicates that he has to urinate frequently, especially at night. He has burning when he urinates and has noticed pain in his back. Considering this history, what might the nurse expect to find during the physical assessment? a.Asymmetric, hard, and fixed prostate gland b.Occult blood and perianal pain to palpation c.Symmetrically enlarged, soft prostate gland d.Soft nodule protruding from the rectal mucosa

A Subjective symptoms of carcinoma of the prostate include frequency, nocturia, hematuria, weak stream, hesitancy, pain or burning on urination, and continuous pain in lower back, pelvis, and thighs. Objective symptoms of carcinoma of the prostate include a malignant neoplasm that often starts as a single hard nodule on the posterior surface, producing asymmetry and a change in consistency. As it invades normal tissue, multiple hard nodules appear, or the entire gland feels stone hard and fixed.

A 62-year-old man is experiencing fever, chills, malaise, urinary frequency, and urgency. He also reports urethral discharge and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. These symptoms are most consistent with which condition? a.Prostatitis b.Polyps c.Carcinoma of the prostate d.BPH

A The common presenting symptoms of prostatitis are fever, chills, malaise, and urinary frequency and urgency. The individual may also have dysuria, urethral discharge, and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. These symptoms are not consistent with polyps.

The nurse is caring for a newborn infant. Thirty hours after birth, the infant passes a dark green meconium stool. The nurse recognizes this is important because the: a.Stool indicates anal patency. b.Dark green color indicates occult blood in the stool. c.Meconium stool can be reflective of distress in the newborn. d.Newborn should have passed the first stool within 12 hours after birth.

A The first stool passed by the newborn is dark green meconium and occurs within 24 to 48 hours of birth, indicating anal patency. The other responses are not correct.

The nurse is preparing to palpate the rectum and should use which of these techniques? The nurse should: a.Flex the finger, and slowly insert it toward the umbilicus. b.First instruct the patient that this procedure will be painful. c.Insert an extended index finger at a right angle to the anus. d.Place the finger directly into the anus to overcome the tight sphincter.

A The nurse should gently place the pad of the index finger against the anal verge. The nurse will feel the sphincter tighten and then relax. As it relaxes, the nurse should flex the tip of the finger and slowly insert it into the anal canal in a direction toward the umbilicus. The nurse should never approach the anus at right angles with the index finger extended; doing so would cause pain. The nurse should instruct the patient that palpation is not painful but may feel like needing to move the bowels.

The nurse is performing a digital examination of a patient's prostate gland and notices that a normal prostate gland includes which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply. a.1 cm protrusion into the rectum b.Heart-shaped with a palpable central groove c.Flat shape with no palpable groove d.Boggy with a soft consistency e.Smooth surface, elastic, and rubbery consistency f.Fixed mobility

A, B, E The size of a normal prostate gland should be 2.5 cm long by 4 cm wide and should not protrude more than 1 cm into the rectum. The prostate should be heart-shaped, with a palpable central groove, a smooth surface, and elastic with a rubbery consistency. Abnormal findings include a flat shape with no palpable groove, boggy with a soft consistency, and fixed mobility.

19. A nurse notices that a patient has ascites, which indicates the presence of: A) fluid. B) feces. C) flatus. D) fibroid tumors.

ANS: A Ascites is free fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and occurs with heart failure, portal hypertension, cirrhosis, hepatitis, pancreatitis, and cancer.

29. Just before going home, a new mother asks the nurse about the infant's umbilical cord. Which of these statements is correct? A) "It should fall off by 10 to 14 days." B) "It will soften before it falls off." C) "It contains two veins and one artery." D) "Skin will cover the area within 1 week."

ANS: A At birth, the umbilical cord is white and contains two umbilical arteries and one vein inside the Wharton jelly. The umbilical stump dries within a week, hardens, and falls off by 10 to 14 days. Skin will cover the area by 3 to 4 weeks.

24. During an assessment of a newborn infant, the nurse recalls that pyloric stenosis would be manifested by: A) projectile vomiting. B) hypoactive bowel activity. C) palpable olive-sized mass in right lower quadrant. D) pronounced peristaltic waves crossing from right to left.

ANS: A Marked peristalsis together with projectile vomiting in the newborn suggests pyloric stenosis. After feeding, pronounced peristaltic waves cross from left to right, leading to projectile vomiting. One can also palpate an olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant

1. The nurse is percussing the seventh right intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the liver. Which sound should the nurse expect to hear? A) Dullness B) Tympany C) Resonance D) Hyperresonance

ANS: A The liver is located in the right upper quadrant and would elicit a dull percussion note

30. Which of these percussion findings would the nurse expect to find in a patient with a large amount of ascites? A) Dullness across the abdomen B) Flatness in the right upper quadrant C) Hyperresonance in the left upper quadrant D) Tympany in the right and left lower quadrants

ANS: A The presence of fluid causes a dull sound to percussion. A large amount of ascitic fluid would produce a dull sound to percussion

33. When palpating the abdomen of a 20-year-old patient, the nurse notices the presence of tenderness in the left upper quadrant with deep palpation. Which of these structures is most likely to be involved? A) Spleen B) Sigmoid colon C) Appendix D) Gallbladder

ANS: A The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. The gallbladder is in the right upper quadrant, the sigmoid colon is in the left lower quadrant, and the appendix is in the right lower quadrant

36. During report, the student nurse hears that a patient has "hepatomegaly" and recognizes that this term refers to: A) an enlarged liver. B) an enlarged spleen. C) distended bowel. D) excessive diarrhea.

ANS: A The term hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver. The term splenomegaly refers to an enlarged spleen. The other responses are not correct.

27. During an abdominal assessment, the nurse is unable to hear bowel sounds in a patient's abdomen. Before reporting this finding as "silent bowel sounds" the nurse should listen for at least: A) 1 minute. B) 5 minutes. C) 10 minutes. D) 2 minutes in each quadrant.

ANS: B Absent bowel sounds are rare. The nurse must listen for 5 minutes before deciding bowel sounds are completely absent.

11. The nurse is watching a new graduate nurse perform auscultation of a patient's abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation precedes percussion and palpation of the abdomen? A) "We need to determine areas of tenderness before using percussion and palpation." B) "It prevents distortion of bowel sounds that might occur after percussion and palpation." C) "It allows the patient more time to relax and therefore be more comfortable with the physical examination." D) "This prevents distortion of vascular sounds such as bruits and hums that might occur after percussion and palpation."

ANS: B Auscultation is performed first (after inspection) because percussion and palpation can increase peristalsis, which would give a false interpretation of bowel sounds.

12. The nurse is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is true of bowel sounds? A) They are usually loud, high-pitched, rushing, tinkling sounds. B) They are usually high-pitched, gurgling, irregular sounds. C) They sound like two pieces of leather being rubbed together. D) They originate from the movement of air and fluid through the large intestine.

ANS: B Bowel sounds are high-pitched, gurgling, cascading sounds that occur irregularly from 5 to 30 times per minute. They originate from the movement of air and fluid through the small intestine.

10. A patient has hypoactive bowel sounds. The nurse knows that a potential cause of hypoactive bowel sounds is: A) diarrhea. B) peritonitis. C) laxative use. D) gastroenteritis.

ANS: B Diminished or absent bowel sounds signal decreased motility from inflammation as seen with peritonitis, with paralytic ileus after abdominal surgery, or with late bowel obstruction

17. An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The nurse knows that this condition could be related to: A) increased gastric acid secretion. B) decreased gastric acid secretion. C) delayed gastrointestinal emptying time. D) increased gastrointestinal emptying time.

ANS: B Gastric acid secretion decreases with aging, and this may cause pernicious anemia (because it interferes with vitamin B12 absorption), iron deficiency anemia, and malabsorption of calcium.

23. The nurse is assessing the abdomen of an aging adult. Which of these statements regarding the aging adult and abdominal assessment is true? A) The abdominal tone is increased. B) The abdominal musculature is thinner. C) Abdominal rigidity with acute abdominal conditions is more common. D) The aging person complains of more pain with an acute abdominal condition than a younger person would.

ANS: B In the aging person, the abdominal musculature is thinner and has less tone than that of the younger adult, and abdominal rigidity with acute abdominal conditions is less common in aging. The aging person often complains less of pain than a younger person would with an acute abdominal condition.

28. A patient is suspected of having inflammation of the gallbladder, or cholecystitis. The nurse should conduct which of these techniques to assess for this condition? A) Obturator test B) Test for Murphy's sign C) Assess for rebound tenderness D) Iliopsoas muscle test

ANS: B Normally, palpating the liver causes no pain. In a person with inflammation of the gallbladder, orcholecystitis, pain occurs as the descending liver pushes the inflamed gallbladder onto the examining hand during inspiration (Murphy's test). The person feels sharp pain and abruptly stops inspiration midway.

15. The nurse is assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman who is complaining of having "acid indigestion" all the time. The nurse knows that esophageal reflux during pregnancy can cause: A) diarrhea. B) pyrosis. C) dysphagia. D) constipation.

ANS: B Pyrosis, or heartburn (not constipation), is caused by esophageal reflux during pregnancy. The other options are not correct

31. A 40-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has a hernia. He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? A) "No need to worry. Most men your age develop hernias." B) "A hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles." C) "This hernia is a result of prenatal growth abnormalities that are just now causing problems." D) "I'll have to have your physician explain this to you."

ANS: B The nurse should explain that a hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through an abnormal opening in the muscle wall

39. The nurse is preparing to examine a patient who has been complaining of right lower quadrant pain. Which technique is correct during the assessment? The nurse should: A) examine the tender area first. B) examine the tender area last. C) avoid palpating the tender area. D) palpate the tender area first and then auscultate for bowel sounds.

ANS: B The nurse should save the examination of any identified tender areas until last. This method avoids pain and the resulting muscle rigidity that would obscure deep palpation later in the examination. Auscultation is done before percussion and palpation because percussion and palpation can increase peristalsis, which would give a false interpretation of bowel sounds

14. During an abdominal assessment, the nurse would consider which of these findings as normal? A) The presence of a bruit in the femoral area B) A tympanic percussion note in the umbilical region C) A palpable spleen between the ninth and eleventh ribs in the left midaxillary line D) A dull percussion note in the left upper quadrant at the midclavicular line

ANS: B Tympany should predominate in all four quadrants of the abdomen because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the person is supine. Vascular bruits are not usually present. Normally the spleen is not palpable. Dullness would not be found in the area of lung resonance (left upper quadrant at the midclavicular line)

20. The nurse knows that during an abdominal assessment, deep palpation is used to determine: A) bowel motility. B) enlarged organs. C) superficial tenderness. D) overall impression of skin surface and superficial musculature.

ANS: B With deep palpation, the nurse should notice the location, size, consistency, and mobility of any palpable organs and the presence of any abnormal enlargement, tenderness, or masses.

41. The nurse suspects that a patient has appendicitis. Which of these procedures are appropriate for use when assessing for appendicitis or a perforated appendix? Select all that apply. A. Test for Murphy's sign. B. Test for Blumberg's sign. C. Test for shifting dullness. D. Perform iliopsoas muscle test. E. Test for fluid wave.

ANS: B, D Testing for Blumberg's sign (rebound tenderness) and performing the iliopsoas muscle test should be used to assess for appendicitis. Murphy's sign is used to assess for an inflamed gallbladder or cholecystitis. Testing for a fluid wave and shifting dullness is done to assess for ascites

21. The nurse notices that a patient has had a black, tarry stool and recalls that a possible cause would be: A) gallbladder disease. B) overuse of laxatives. C) gastrointestinal bleeding. D) localized bleeding around the anus.

ANS: C Black stools may be tarry as a result of occult blood (melena) from gastrointestinal bleeding. Redblood in stools occurs with localized bleeding around the anus

3. A patient is having difficulty in swallowing medications and food. The nurse would document that this patient has: A) aphasia. B) dysphasia. C) dysphagia. D) anorexia.

ANS: C Dysphagia is a condition that occurs with disorders of the throat or esophagus and results in difficulty swallowing. Aphasia and dysphasia are speech disorders. Anorexia is a loss of appetite

26. The nurse is reviewing the assessment of an aortic aneurysm. Which of these statements is true regarding an aortic aneurysm? A) A bruit is absent. B) Femoral pulses are increased. C) A pulsating mass is usually present. D) Most are located below the umbilicus.

ANS: C Most aortic aneurysms are palpable during routine examination and feel like a pulsating mass. A bruit will be audible, and femoral pulses are present but decreased. Such aneurysms are located in the upper abdomen just to the left of midline

9. While examining a patient, the nurse observes abdominal pulsations between the xiphoid and umbilicus. The nurse would suspect that these are: A) pulsations of the renal arteries. B) pulsations of the inferior vena cava. C) normal abdominal aortic pulsations. D) increased peristalsis from a bowel obstruction.

ANS: C Normally, one may see the pulsations from the aorta beneath the skin in the epigastric area, particularly in thin persons with good muscle wall relaxation.

40. During a health history, the patient tells the nurse, "I have pain all the time in my stomach. It's worse two hours after I eat, but it gets better if I eat again!" The nurse suspects that the patient has which condition, based on these symptoms? A) Appendicitis B) Gastric ulcer C) Duodenal ulcer D) Cholecystitis

ANS: C Pain associated with duodenal ulcers occurs 2 to 3 hours after a meal, yet it is relieved by more food. Chronic pain associated with gastric ulcers occurs usually on an empty stomach. Severe, acute pain would occur with appendicitis and cholecystitis

16. The nurse is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include: A) flatness, resonance, and dullness. B) resonance, dullness, and tympany. C) tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness. D) resonance, hyperresonance, and flatness.

ANS: C Percussion notes normally heard during the abdominal assessment may include tympany, which should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the person is supine; hyperresonance, which may be present with gaseous distention; and dullness, which may be found over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass.

18. A patient is complaining of a sharp pain along the costovertebral angles. The nurse knows that this symptom is most often indicative of: A) ovary infection. B) liver enlargement. C) kidney inflammation. D) spleen enlargement.

ANS: C Sharp pain along the costovertebral angles occurs with inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area. The other options are not correct

22. During an abdominal assessment, the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The nurse interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures? A) Spleen B) Sigmoid C) Appendix D) Gallbladder

ANS: C The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant, and when the iliopsoas muscle is inflamed (which occurs with an inflamed or perforated appendix), pain is felt in the right lower quadrant

37. During an assessment the nurse notices that a patient's umbilicus is enlarged and everted. It is midline, and there is no change in skin color. The nurse recognizes that the patient may have which condition? A) Intra-abdominal bleeding B) Constipation C) Umbilical hernia D) An abdominal tumor

ANS: C The umbilicus is normally midline and inverted, with no signs of discoloration. With an umbilical hernia, the mass is enlarged and everted. The other responses are incorrect.

7. A patient's abdomen is bulging and stretched in appearance. The nurse should describe this finding as: A) obese. B) herniated. C) scaphoid. D) protuberant.

ANS: D A protuberant abdomen is rounded, bulging, and stretched. See Figure 21-7. A scaphoid abdomencaves inward

13. The physician comments that a patient has abdominal borborygmi. The nurse knows that this term refers to: A) a loud continuous hum. B) a peritoneal friction rub. C) hypoactive bowel sounds. D) hyperactive bowel sounds.

ANS: D Borborygmi is the term used for hyperperistalsis when the person actually feels his or her stomach growling.

8. The nurse is describing a scaphoid abdomen. To the horizontal plane, a scaphoid contour of the abdomen depicts a _____ profile. A) flat B) convex C) bulging D) concave

ANS: D Contour describes the profile of the abdomen from the rib margin to the pubic bone; a scaphoid contour is one that is concave from a horizontal plane. See Figure 21-7.

25. To detect diastasis recti, the nurse should have the patient perform which of these maneuvers? A) Relax in the supine position. B) Raise the arms in the left lateral position. C) Raise the arms over the head while supine. D) Raise the head while remaining supine.

ANS: D Diastasis recti is a separation of the abdominal rectus muscles, which can occur congenitally, as a result of pregnancy, or from marked obesity. This is assessed by having the patient raise the head while remaining supine.

4. The nurse suspects that a patient has a distended bladder. How should the nurse assess for this condition? A) Percuss and palpate in the lumbar region. B) Inspect and palpate in the epigastric region. C) Auscultate and percuss in the inguinal region. D) Percuss and palpate the midline area above the suprapubic bone.

ANS: D Dull percussion sounds would be elicited over a distended bladder, and the hypogastric area would seem firm to palpation.

5. The nurse is aware that one change that may occur in the gastrointestinal system of an aging adult is: A) increased salivation. B) increased liver size. C) increased esophageal emptying. D) decreased gastric acid secretion.

ANS: D Gastric acid secretion decreases with aging. As one ages, salivation decreases, esophageal emptying is delayed, and liver size decreases

6. A 22-year-old man comes to the clinic for an examination after falling off his motorcycle and landing on his left side on the handlebars. The nurse suspects that he may have injured his spleen. Which of these statements is true regarding assessment of the spleen in this situation? A) The spleen can be enlarged as a result of trauma. B) The spleen is normally felt upon routine palpation. C) If an enlarged spleen is noticed, then the nurse should palpate thoroughly to determine size. D) An enlarged spleen should not be palpated because it can rupture easily.

ANS: D If an enlarged spleen is felt, then the nurse should refer the person but should not continue to palpate it. An enlarged spleen is friable and can rupture easily with overpalpation

38. During an abdominal assessment, the nurse tests for a fluid wave. A positive fluid wave test occurs with: A) splenomegaly. B) distended bladder. C) constipation. D) ascites.

ANS: D If ascites (fluid in the abdomen) is present, then the examiner will feel a fluid wave when assessing the abdomen. A fluid wave is not present with splenomegaly, a distended bladder, or constipation

35. The nurse is assessing a patient for possible peptic ulcer disease and knows that which condition often causes this problem? A) Hypertension B) Streptococcus infections C) History of constipation and frequent laxative use D) Frequent use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

ANS: D Peptic ulcer disease occurs with frequent use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, alcohol use, smoking, and Helicobacter pylori infection.

32. A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a physical examination. During the abdominal assessment, the nurse percusses the abdomen and notices an area of dullness above the right costal margin of about 10 cm. The nurse should: A) document the presence of hepatomegaly. B) ask additional history questions regarding his alcohol intake. C) describe this as an enlarged liver and refer him to a physician. D) consider this a normal finding and proceed with the examination.

ANS: D The average liver span in the midclavicular line is 6 to 12 cm. Men and taller individuals are at the upper end of this range. Women and shorter individuals are at the lower end of this range. A liver span of 10 cm is within normal limits for this individual

2. Which structure is located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen? A) Liver B) Duodenum C) Gallbladder D) Sigmoid colon

ANS: D The sigmoid colon is located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen.

During a digital examination of the rectum, the nurse notices that the patient has hard feces in the rectum. The patient complains of feeling "full," has a distended abdomen, and states that she has not had a bowel movement "for several days." The nurse suspects which condition? a.Rectal polyp b.Fecal impaction c.Rectal abscess d.Rectal prolapse

B A fecal impaction is a collection of hard, desiccated feces in the rectum. The obstruction often results from decreased bowel motility, in which more water is reabsorbed from the stool.

A 40-year-old black man is in the office for his annual physical examination. Which statement regarding the PSA blood test is true, according to the American Cancer Society? The PSA: a.Should be performed with this visit. b.Should be performed at age 45 years. c.Should be performed at age 50 years. d.Is only necessary if a family history of prostate cancer exists.

B According to the American Cancer Society (2006), the PSA blood test should be performed annually for black men beginning at age 45 years and annually for all other men over age 50 years.

After completing an assessment of a 60-year-old man with a family history of colon cancer, the nurse discusses with him early detection measures for colon cancer. The nurse should mention the need for a(n): a.Annual proctoscopy. b.Colonoscopy every 10 years. c.Fecal test for blood every 6 months. d.DREs every 2 years.

B Early detection measures for colon cancer include a DRE performed annually after age 50 years, an annual fecal occult blood test after age 50 years, a sigmoidoscopic examination every 5 years or a colonoscopy every 10 years after age 50 years, and a PSA blood test annually for men over 50 years old, except beginning at age 45 years for black men

A 30-year-old woman is visiting the clinic because of "pain in my bottom when I have a bowel movement." The nurse should assess for which problem? a.Pinworms b.Hemorrhoids c.Colon cancer d.Fecal incontinence

B Having painful bowel movements, known as dyschezia, may be attributable to a local condition (hemorrhoid or fissure) or constipation. The other responses are not correct.

The structure that secretes a thin, milky alkaline fluid to enhance the viability of sperm is the: a.Cowper gland. b.Prostate gland. c.Median sulcus. d.Bulbourethral gland.

B In men, the prostate gland secretes a thin milky alkaline fluid that enhances sperm viability. The Cowper glands (also known as bulbourethral glands) secrete a clear, viscid mucus. The median sulcus is a groove that divides the lobes of the prostate gland and does not secrete fluid.

The nurse is performing an examination of the anus and rectum. Which of these statements is correct and important to remember during this examination? a.The rectum is approximately 8 cm long. b.The anorectal junction cannot be palpated. c.Above the anal canal, the rectum turns anteriorly. d.No sensory nerves are in the anal canal or rectum.

B The anal columns are folds of mucosa that extend vertically down from the rectum and end in the anorectal junction. This junction is not palpable but is visible on proctoscopy. The rectum is 12 cm long; just above the anal canal, the rectum dilates and turns posteriorly.

Which statement concerning the sphincters is correct? a.The internal sphincter is under voluntary control. b.The external sphincter is under voluntary control. c.Both sphincters remain slightly relaxed at all times. d.The internal sphincter surrounds the external sphincter.

B The external sphincter surrounds the internal sphincter but also has a small section overriding the tip of the internal sphincter at the opening. The external sphincter is under voluntary control. Except for the passing of feces and gas, the sphincters keep the anal canal tightly closed.

Which characteristic of the prostate gland would the nurse recognize as an abnormal finding while palpating the prostate gland through the rectum? a.Palpable central groove b.Tenderness to palpation c.Heart shaped d.Elastic and rubbery consistency

B The normal prostate gland should feel smooth, elastic, and rubbery; slightly movable; heart-shaped with a palpable central groove; and not be tender to palpation.

A patient who is visiting the clinic complains of having "stomach pains for 2 weeks" and describes his stools as being "soft and black" for approximately the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. The nurse is aware that these symptoms are mostly indicative of: a.Excessive fat caused by malabsorption. b.Increased iron intake, resulting from a change in diet. c.Occult blood, resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding. d.Absent bile pigment from liver problems.

C Black stools may be tarry as a result of occult blood (melena) from gastrointestinal bleeding or nontarry from ingestion of iron medications (not diet). Excessive fat causes the stool to become frothy. The absence of bile pigment causes clay-colored stools.

The nurse notices that a patient has had a pale, yellow, greasy stool, or steatorrhea, and recalls that this is caused by: a.Occult bleeding. b.Absent bile pigment. c.Increased fat content. d.Ingestion of bismuth preparations.

C Steatorrhea (pale, yellow, greasy stool) is caused by increased fat content in the stools, as in malabsorption syndrome. Occult bleeding and ingestion of bismuth products cause a black stool, and absent bile pigment causes a gray-tan stool.

The nurse is examining only the rectal area of a woman and should place the woman in what position? a.Lithotomy b.Prone c.Left lateral decubitus d.Bending over the table while standing

C The nurse should place the female patient in the lithotomy position if the genitalia are being examined as well. The left lateral decubitus position is used for the rectal area alone.

While assessing a patient who is hospitalized and bedridden, the nurse notices that the patient has been incontinent of stool. The stool is loose and gray-tan in color. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates which of the following? a.Occult blood b.Inflammation c.Absent bile pigment d.Ingestion of iron preparations

C The presence of gray-tan stool indicates absent bile pigment, which can occur with obstructive jaundice. The ingestion of iron preparations and the presence of occult blood turns the stools to a black color. Jellylike mucus shreds mixed in the stool would indicate inflammation.

A 46-year-old man requires an assessment of his sigmoid colon. Which instrument or technique is most appropriate for this examination? a.Proctoscope b.Ultrasound c.Colonoscope d.Rectal examination with an examining finger

C The sigmoid colon is 40 cm long, and the nurse knows that it is accessible to examination only with the colonoscope. The other responses are not appropriate for an examination of the entire sigmoid colon.

During an assessment of the newborn, the nurse expects to see which finding when the anal area is slightly stroked? a.Jerking of the legs b.Flexion of the knees c.Quick contraction of the sphincter d.Relaxation of the external sphincter

C To assess sphincter tone, the nurse should check the anal reflex by gently stroking the anal area and noticing a quick contraction of the sphincter. The other responses are not correct.

While performing a rectal examination, the nurse notices a firm, irregularly shaped mass. What should the nurse do next? a.Continue with the examination, and document the finding in the chart. b.Instruct the patient to return for a repeat assessment in 1 month. c.Tell the patient that a mass was felt, but it is nothing to worry about. d.Report the finding, and refer the patient to a specialist for further examination.

D A firm or hard mass with an irregular shape or rolled edges may signify carcinoma. Any mass that is discovered should be promptly reported for further examination. The other responses are not correct.

During an assessment of a 20-year-old man, the nurse finds a small palpable lesion with a tuft of hair located directly over the coccyx. The nurse knows that this lesion would most likely be a: a.Rectal polyp. b.Pruritus ani. c.Carcinoma. d.Pilonidal cyst.

D A pilonidal cyst or sinus is a hair-containing cyst or sinus located in the midline over the coccyx or lower sacrum. It often opens as a dimple with a visible tuft of hair and, possibly, an erythematous halo. (See Table 25-1 for more information, and also for the description of a pruritus ani. .)

During an examination, the nurse asks the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver and notices that the patient has a moist, red, doughnut-shaped protrusion from the anus. The nurse knows that this finding is consistent with a: a.Rectal polyp. b.Hemorrhoid. c.Rectal fissure. d.Rectal prolapse.

D In rectal prolapse, the rectal mucous membrane protrudes through the anus, appearing as a moist red doughnut with radiating lines. It occurs after a Valsalva maneuver, such as straining at passing stool or with exercising

Which statement concerning the anal canal is true? The anal canal: a.Is approximately 2 cm long in the adult. b.Slants backward toward the sacrum. c.Contains hair and sebaceous glands. d.Is the outlet for the gastrointestinal tract.

D The anal canal is the outlet for the gastrointestinal tract and is approximately 3.8 cm long in the adult. It is lined with a modified skin that does not contain hair or sebaceous glands, and it slants forward toward the umbilicus.

While performing an assessment of the perianal area of a patient, the nurse notices that the pigmentation of anus is darker than the surrounding skin, the anal opening is closed, and a skin sac that is shiny and blue is noted. The patient mentioned that he has had pain with bowel movements and has occasionally noted some spots of blood. What would this assessment and history most likely indicate? a.Anal fistula b.Pilonidal cyst c.Rectal prolapse d.Thrombosed hemorrhoid

D The anus normally looks moist and hairless, with coarse folded skin that is more pigmented than the perianal skin, and the anal opening is tightly closed. The shiny blue skin sac indicates a thrombosed hemorrhoid.

During the assessment of an 18-month-old infant, the mother expresses concern to the nurse about the infant's inability to toilet train. What would be the nurse's best response? a."Some children are just more difficult to train, so I wouldn't worry about it yet." b."Have you considered reading any of the books on toilet training? They can be very helpful." c."This could mean that there is a problem in your baby's development. We'll watch her closely for the next few months." d."The nerves that will allow your baby to have control over the passing of stools are not developed until at least 18 to 24 months of age."

D The infant passes stools by reflex. Voluntary control of the external anal sphincter cannot occur until the nerves supplying the area have become fully myelinated, usually around 1 to 2 years of age. Toilet training usually starts after the age of 2 years.

A 13-year-old girl is visiting the clinic for a sports physical examination. The nurse should remember to include which of these tests in the examination? a.Testing for occult blood b.Valsalva maneuver c.Internal palpation of the anus d.Inspection of the perianal area

D The perianal region of the school-aged child and adolescent should be inspected during the examination of the genitalia. Internal palpation is not routinely performed at this age. Testing for occult blood and performing the Valsalva maneuver are also not necessary.

A 60-year-old man has just been told that he has benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He has a friend who just died from cancer of the prostate. He is concerned this will happen to him. How should the nurse respond? a."The swelling in your prostate is only temporary and will go away." b."We will treat you with chemotherapy so we can control the cancer." c."It would be very unusual for a man your age to have cancer of the prostate." d."The enlargement of your prostate is caused by hormonal changes, and not cancer."

D The prostate gland commonly starts to enlarge during the middle adult years. BPH is present in 1 in 10 men at the age of 40 years and increases with age. It is believed that the hypertrophy is caused by hormonal imbalance that leads to the proliferation of benign adenomas. The other responses are not appropriate.

During the taking of a health history, the patient states, "It really hurts back there, and sometimes it itches, too. I have even seen blood on the tissue when I have a bowel movement. Is there something there?" The nurse should expect to see which of these upon examination of the anus? a.Rectal prolapse b.Internal hemorrhoid c.External hemorrhoid that has resolved d.External hemorrhoid that is thrombosed

D These symptoms are consistent with an external hemorrhoid. An external hemorrhoid, when thrombosed, contains clotted blood and becomes a painful, swollen, shiny blue mass that itches and bleeds with defecation. When the external hemorrhoid resolves, it leaves a flabby, painless skin sac around the anal orifice. An internal hemorrhoid is not palpable but may appear as a red mucosal mass when the person performs a Valsalva maneuver. A rectal prolapse appears as a moist, red doughnut with radiating lines.

Which of these statements is most appropriate when the nurse is obtaining a genitourinary history from an older man? a. "Do you need to get up at night to urinate?" b. "Do you experience nocturnal emissions, or 'wet dreams'?" c. "Do you know how to perform a testicular self-examination?" d. "Has anyone ever touched your genitals when you did not want them to?"

a. "Do you need to get up at night to urinate?"