Chapter 22: GI function

8. Which is a parasite that causes acute diarrhea? a. Shigella organisms b. Salmonella organisms c. Giardia lamblia d. Escherichia coli

*Giardia lamblia* G. lamblia is a *parasite that represents 10% of non-dysenteric illness* in the United States. Shigella, Salmonella, and E. coli are bacterial pathogens.

A 2-month-old breastfed infant is successfully rehydrated with oral rehydration solutions (ORSs) for acute diarrhea. Instructions to the mother about breastfeeding should include to A. continue breastfeeding. B. stop breastfeeding until breast milk is cultured. C. stop breastfeeding until diarrhea is absent for 24 hours. D. express breast milk and dilute with sterile water before feeding.

A. Breastfeeding should continue even if the infant has acute diarrhea. Culturing the breast milk is not necessary. Breastfeeding can continue with ORS to replace the ongoing fluid loss due to the diarrhea. Breast milk should not be diluted.

Which statement best describes Hirschsprung disease? A. The colon has an aganglionic segment. B. There is a passage of excessive amounts of meconium in the neonate. C. It results in excessive peristaltic movements within the gastrointestinal tract. D. It results in frequent evacuation of solids, liquids, and gas.

A. Hirschsprung disease is a mechanical obstruction caused by a lack of motility of a segment of the intestine as a result of the lack of ganglionic cells; therefore, it is referred to as aganglionic megacolon. Hirschsprung disease is associated with a neonate's inability to pass meconium or an older child's inability to pass feces. There is a lack of peristalsis in the affected segment of the infant or child with Hirschsprung disease. The infant or child with Hirschsprung disease will be seen with constipation or the passage of ribbon-like stools.

The nurse is caring for a child with probable intussusception. The child had diarrhea before admission, but while waiting for administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, the child passed a normal brown stool. What is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Notify the physician. B. Measure the abdominal girth. C. Auscultate for bowel sounds. D. Take vital signs, including blood pressure.

A. Passage of a normal stool indicates that the intussusception has resolved. Notification of the physician is essential to determine whether a change in the treatment plan is indicated. Measurement of the abdominal girth may be indicated, but notifying the physician is the priority. Auscultating for bowel sounds may be indicted, but notifying the physician is the priority. Taking the vital signs, including the blood pressure, may be indicated, but notifying the physician is the priority.

In performing a work up for a school aged child who reports frequent abdominal pain symptoms, what information would be critical to collect in order to make an accurate clinical diagnosis? A. Find out the duration, onset and quality characteristics of the symptoms. B. Ask the child's parents for detailed information. C. Find out if the child has any food allergies or food intolerances. D. Take and document vital signs to establish a clinical baseline.

A. School-age children typically relate recurrent abdominal pain. As such it is critical to obtain factors related to the pain characteristics, onset, duration and symptoms. This will help to correlate with potential organic and non-organic causes. Asking the parents' for detailed information may be needed but not at present to determine what type of pain the child is experiencing. Although it is important to denoted food allergies and food intolerance, the primary concern is abdominal pain presentation. Similarly, vital signs should be recorded but it is not the most critical piece of data that must be collected.

7. Which pathogen is the viral pathogen that frequently causes acute diarrhea in young children? a. Giardia organisms b. Shigella organisms c. Rotavirus d.Salmonella organisms

ANS: C Rotavirus is the most frequent viral pathogen that causes diarrhea in young children. Giardia (parasite) and Salmonella are bacterial pathogens that cause diarrhea. Shigella is a bacterial pathogen that is uncommon in the United States.

Which viral pathogen frequently causes acute diarrhea in young children? a. Giardia organisms b. Shigella organisms c. Rotavirus d. Salmonella organisms

ANS: C Rotavirus is the most frequent viral pathogen that causes diarrhea in young children. The other organisms are bacterial.

13. A mother calls the clinic nurse about her 4-year-old son who has acute diarrhea. She has been giving him the antidiarrheal drug loperamide (Imodium A-D). The nurse's response should be based on what knowledge about this drug? a. Not indicated b. Indicated because it slows intestinal motility c. Indicated because it decreases diarrhea d. Indicated because it decreases fluid and electrolyte losses

ANS: A Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended for the treatment of acute infectious diarrhea. These medications have adverse effects and toxicity, such as worsening of the diarrhea because of slowing of motility and ileus, or a decrease in diarrhea with continuing fluid losses and dehydration. Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended in infants and small children.

12. A young child is brought to the emergency department with severe dehydration secondary to acute diarrhea and vomiting. What should therapeutic management of this child begin with? a. Intravenous (IV) fluids b. ORS c. Clear liquids, 1 to 2 ounces at a time d. Administration of antidiarrheal medication

ANS: A In children with severe dehydration, IV fluids are initiated. ORS is acceptable therapy if the dehydration is not severe. Diarrhea is not managed by using clear liquids by mouth. These fluids have a high carbohydrate content, low electrolyte content, and high osmolality. Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended for the treatment of acute infectious diarrhea.

1. A child has an NG tube to continuous low intermittent suction. The physician's prescription is to replace the previous 4-hour NG output with a normal saline piggyback over a 2-hour period. The NG output for the previous 4 hours totaled 50 ml. What milliliter/hour rate should the nurse administer to replace normal saline piggyback? (Record your answer in a whole number.)

ANS: 25 The previous total 4-hour output was 50 ml. To run the 50 ml over a 2-hour period, the nurse would divide 50 by 2 = 25. The normal saline replacement fluid would be run at 25 ml per hour.

32. A nurse is admitting an infant with biliary atresia. Which is the earliest clinical manifestation of biliary atresia the nurse should expect to assess? a. Jaundice b. Vomiting c. Hepatomegaly d. Absence of stooling

ANS: A Jaundice is the earliest and most striking manifestation of biliary atresia. It is first observed in the sclera and may be present at birth but is usually not apparent until age 2 to 3 weeks. Vomiting is not associated with biliary atresia. Hepatomegaly and abdominal distention are common but occur later. Stools are large and lighter in color than expected because of the lack of bile.

The earliest clinical manifestation of biliary atresia is a. jaundice. b. vomiting. c. hepatomegaly. d. absence of stooling.

ANS: A Jaundice is the earliest and most striking manifestation of biliary atresia. It is first observed in the sclera, may be present at birth, but is usually not apparent until age 2 to 3 weeks. Vomiting is not associated with biliary atresia. Hepatomegaly and abdominal distention are common but occur later. Stools are large and lighter in color than expected because of the lack of bile.

What is an expected outcome for the child with irritable bowel disease? a. Decreasing symptoms b. Adherence to a low-fiber diet c. Increasing milk products in the diet d. Adapting the lifestyle to the lifelong problems

ANS: A Management of irritable bowel disease is aimed at identifying and decreasing exposure to triggers and decreasing bowel spasms, which will decrease symptoms. Management includes maintenance of a healthy, well-balanced, moderate-fiber, lower fat diet. A moderate amount of fiber in the diet is indicated for the child with irritable bowel disease. No modification in dairy products is necessary unless the child is lactose intolerant. Irritable bowel syndrome is typically self-limiting and resolves by age 20 years.

45. The nurse is caring for a boy with probable intussusception. He had diarrhea before admission but, while waiting for administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, he passes a normal brown stool. Which nursing action is the most appropriate? a. Notify practitioner b. Measure abdominal girth c. Auscultate for bowel sounds d. Take vital signs, including blood pressure

ANS: A Passage of a normal brown stool indicates that the intussusception has reduced itself. This is immediately reported to the practitioner, who may choose to alter the diagnostic-therapeutic care plan. The first action would be to report the normal stool to the practitioner.

15. Which is a high-fiber food that the nurse should recommend for a child with chronic constipation? a. Raisins b. Pancakes c. Muffins d. Ripe bananas

ANS: A Raisins are a high-fiber food. Pancakes and muffins do not have significant fiber unless made with fruit or bran. Raw fruits, especially those with skins and seeds, other than ripe bananas, have high fiber.

Which order should the nurse question when caring for a 5-year-old child after surgery for Hirschsprung disease? a. Monitor rectal temperature every 4 hours. b. Assess stools after surgery. c. Keep the child NPO until bowel sounds return. d. Maintain IV fluids at ordered rate.

ANS: A Rectal temperatures should not be taken after this surgery. Rectal temperatures are generally not the route of choice for children because of the route's traumatic nature. The other interventions are all appropriate after this operation.

What food choice by the parent of a 2-year-old child with celiac disease indicates a need for further teaching? a. Oatmeal b. Rice cake c. Corn muffin d. Meat patty

ANS: A The child with celiac disease is unable to fully digest gluten, the protein found in wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Oatmeal contains gluten and is not an appropriate food selection. Rice, corn, and meat are appropriate selections.

28. Why are bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin, and metronidazole prescribed for a child with a peptic ulcer? a. Eradicate Helicobacter pylori b. Coat gastric mucosa c. Treat epigastric pain d. Reduce gastric acid production

ANS: A The drug therapy combination of bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin, and metronidazole is effective in the treatment of H. pylori and is prescribed to eradicate it.

A baby is scheduled for abdominal surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and has an NG tube to intermittent suction. When the family asks why the child has the tube, what response by the nurse is best? a. "The nasogastric tube decompresses the abdomen and decreases vomiting." b. "We can keep a more accurate measure of intake and output with the tube." c. "The tube is used to decrease postoperative diarrhea." d. "The nasogastric tube makes the baby more comfortable after surgery."

ANS: A The nasogastric tube provides decompression and decreases vomiting. A nursing responsibility when a patient has a nasogastric tube is measurement of accurate intake and output, but this is not why nasogastric tubes are inserted. Nasogastric tube placement does not decrease diarrhea. The presence of a nasogastric tube can be perceived as a discomfort by the patient.

Which treatment provides the best chance of survival for a child with cirrhosis? a. Liver transplantation b. Treatment with corticosteroids c. Treatment with immune globulin d. Provision of nutritional support

ANS: A The only successful treatment for end-stage liver disease and liver failure may be liver transplantation, which has improved the prognosis for many children with cirrhosis.

31. What offers the best chance of survival for a child with cirrhosis? a. Liver transplantation b. Treatment with corticosteroids c. Treatment with immune globulin d. Provision of nutritional support

ANS: A The only successful treatment for end-stage liver disease and liver failure may be liver transplantation, which has improved the prognosis for many children with cirrhosis. Liver transplantation has revolutionized the approach to cirrhosis. Liver failure and cirrhosis are indications for transplantation. Liver transplantation reflects the failure of other medical and surgical measures to prevent or treat cirrhosis.

The nurse notes on assessment that a 1-year-old child is underweight, with abdominal distention, thin legs and arms, and foul-smelling stools. The nurse suspects failure to thrive is associated with a. Celiac disease b. Intussusception c. Irritable bowel syndrome d. Imperforate anus

ANS: A These are classic symptoms of celiac disease. They are not related to intussusception, irritable bowel syndrome, or an imperforate anus.

Bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin, and metronidazole are prescribed for a child with a peptic ulcer for what purpose? a. Eradicate Helicobacter pylori b. Coat gastric mucosa c. Treat epigastric pain d. Reduce gastric acid production

ANS: A This combination of drug therapy is effective in the treatment of H. pylori, the most common cause of ulcers in children.

The nurse is caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Nursing care should include which of the following? a. Elevating the head but give nothing by mouth b. Elevating the head for feedings c. Feeding glucose water only d. Avoiding suction unless infant is cyanotic

ANS: A When a newborn is suspected of having TEF, the most desirable position is supine with the head elevated on an incline plane of at least 30 degrees. It is imperative that any source of aspiration be removed at once; oral feedings are withheld. Feedings should not be given to infants suspected of having TEF. The oral pharynx should be kept clear of secretion by oral suctioning. This is to avoid cyanosis that is usually the result of laryngospasm caused by overflow of saliva into the larynx.

38. The nurse is caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula. What nursing care should be included? a. Elevate the head but give nothing by mouth. b. Elevate the head for feedings. c. Feed glucose water only. d. Avoid suctioning unless infant is cyanotic.

ANS: A When a newborn is suspected of having a tracheoesophageal fistula, the most desirable position is supine with the head elevated on an inclined plane of at least 30 degrees. It is imperative that any source of aspiration be removed at once; oral feedings are withheld. Feedings should not be given to infants suspected of having tracheoesophageal fistulas. The oral pharynx should be kept clear of secretion by oral suctioning. This is to prevent the cyanosis that is usually the result of laryngospasm caused by overflow of saliva into the larynx.

A nurse is teaching a group of parents about TEF. Which statement made by the nurse is accurate about TEF? a. This defect results from an embryonal failure of the foregut to differentiate into the trachea and esophagus. b. It is a fistula between the esophagus and stomach that results in the oral intake being refluxed and aspirated. c. An extra connection between the esophagus and trachea develops because of genetic abnormalities. d. The defect occurs in the second trimester of pregnancy.

ANS: A When the foregut does not differentiate into the trachea and esophagus during the fourth to fifth week of gestation, a TEF occurs. A TEF is an abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea. There is no connection between the trachea and esophagus in normal fetal development. This defect occurs early in pregnancy during the fourth to fifth week of gestation.

Which nursing interventions are significant for a child with cirrhosis who is at risk for bleeding? (Select all that apply.) a. Guaiac all stools b. Provide a safe environment c. Administer vitamin K d. Inspect skin for pallor and cyanosis e. Monitor serum liver panels

ANS: A, B, C Identification of bleeding includes stool guaiac testing, which can detect if blood is present in the stool; protecting the child from injury by providing a safe environment; administering vitamin K to prevent bleeding episodes; and avoiding injections.

The nurse cares for many children with different types of hepatitis. What information about this disease is correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Hepatitis A can be contracted from contaminated water. b. Only a small percentage of children infected with hepatitis B fully recover. c. People infected with chronic hepatitis C are usually asymptomatic. d. Hepatitis D is the most likely to cause a fulminating illness. e. Hepatitis E is the most common type in children in the United States.

ANS: A, C, D Hepatitis A can be contracted from contaminated food or water. Hepatitis C infections usually are asymptomatic. Hepatitis D is the strain most likely to cause a fulminating illness. Most children with hepatitis B recover fully. Hepatitis E is rate in the United States.

Which interventions should a nurse implement when caring for a child with hepatitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide a well-balanced low-fat diet. b. Schedule playtime in the playroom with other children. c. Teach parents not to administer any over-the-counter medications. d. Arrange for home schooling because the child will not be able to return to school. e. Instruct parents on the importance of good handwashing.

ANS: A, C, E The child with hepatitis should be placed on a well-balanced low-fat diet. Parents should be taught to not give over-the-counter medications because of impaired liver function. Hand hygiene is the most important preventive measure for the spread of hepatitis. The child will be in contact isolation in the hospital so playtime with other hospitalized children is not scheduled. The child will be on contact isolation for a minimum of 1 week after the onset of jaundice. After that period, the child will be allowed to return to school.

Which assessment finding should the nurse expect in an infant with Hirschsprung disease? a. "Currant jelly" stools b. Constipation with passage of foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools c. Foul-smelling, fatty stools d. Diarrhea

ANS: B Constipation results from absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and colon and is present since the neonatal period with passage of frequent foul-smelling, ribbon-like, or pellet-like stools. "Currant jelly" stools are associated with intussusception. Foul-smelling, fatty stools are associated with cystic fibrosis and celiac disease. Diarrhea is not typically associated with Hirschsprung disease but may result from impaction.

23. When caring for a child with probable appendicitis, the nurse should be alert to recognize that which condition or symptom is a sign of perforation? a. Bradycardia b. Anorexia c. Sudden relief from pain d. Decreased abdominal distention

ANS: C Signs of peritonitis, in addition to fever, include sudden relief from pain after perforation. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of peritonitis. Anorexia is already a clinical manifestation of appendicitis. Abdominal distention usually increases.

3. A nurse is planning preoperative care for a newborn with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Positioning with head elevated on a 30-degree plane b. Feedings through a gastrostomy tube c. Nasogastric tube to continuous low wall suction d. Suctioning with a Replogle tube passed orally to the end of the pouch e.Gastrostomy tube to gravity drainage

ANS: A, D, E The most desirable position for a newborn who has TEF is supine (or sometimes prone) with the head elevated on an inclined plane of at least 30 degrees. This positioning minimizes the reflux of gastric secretions at the distal esophagus into the trachea and bronchi, especially when intra-abdominal pressure is elevated. It is imperative to immediately remove any secretions that can be aspirated. Until surgery, the blind pouch is kept empty by intermittent or continuous suction through an indwelling double-lumen or Replogle catheter passed orally or nasally to the end of the pouch. In some cases, a percutaneous gastrostomy tube is inserted and left open so that any air entering the stomach through the fistula can escape, thus minimizing the danger of gastric contents being regurgitated into the trachea. The gastrostomy tube is emptied by gravity drainage. Feedings through the gastrostomy tube and irrigations with fluid are contraindicated before surgery in an infant with a distal TEF. A nasogastric tube to low intermittent suctioning could not be accomplished because the esophagus ends in a blind pouch in TEF.

What is the best response by the nurse to a mother asking about the cause of her infant's bilateral cleft lip? a. "Did you use alcohol during your pregnancy?" b. "Does anyone in your family have a cleft lip or palate?" c. "This defect is associated with intrauterine infection during the second trimester." d. "The prevalent of cleft lip is higher in Caucasians."

ANS: B Cleft lip and palate result from embryonic failure resulting from multiple genetic and environmental factors. A genetic pattern or familial risk seems to exist. Tobacco during pregnancy (not drinking) has been associated with bilateral cleft lip. The defect occurred at approximately 6 to 8 weeks of gestation. Second-trimester intrauterine infection is not a known cause of bilateral cleft lip. The prevalence of cleft lip and palate is higher in Asian and Native American populations.

Which statement about Crohn disease is the most accurate? a. The signs and symptoms of Crohn disease are usually present at birth. b. Signs and symptoms of Crohn disease include cramping, diarrhea, and weight loss. c. Edema usually accompanies this disease. d. Symptoms of Crohn disease usually disappear by late adolescence.

ANS: B Common manifestations of Crohn disease include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and weight loss. Signs and symptoms are not usually present at birth. Edema does not accompany this disease. Symptoms do not typically disappear by adolescence.

A child has irritable bowel syndrome. The nurse is teaching the parents about the pathophysiology associated with the symptoms their child is experiencing. Which response indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective? a. "My child has an absence of ganglion cells in the rectum causing alternating diarrhea and constipation." b. "The cause of my child's diarrhea and constipation is disorganized intestinal contractility." c. "My child has an intestinal obstruction; that's why he has abdominal pain." d. "My child has an intolerance to gluten, and this causes him to have abdominal pain."

ANS: B Disorganized contractility and increased mucous production are precipitating factors of irritable bowel disease. The absence of ganglion cells in the rectum is associated with Hirschsprung disease. Intestinal obstruction is associated with pyloric stenosis. Intolerance to gluten is the underlying cause of celiac disease.

An infant with short bowel syndrome will be discharged home on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and gastrostomy feedings. Nursing care should include a. preparing family for impending death. b. teaching family signs of central venous catheter infection. c. teaching family how to calculate caloric needs. d. securing TPN and gastrostomy tubing under the diaper to lessen risk of dislodgment.

ANS: B During TPN therapy, care must be taken to minimize the risk of complications related to the central venous access device, such as catheter infections, occlusions, or accidental removal. This is an important part of family teaching. The prognosis for patients with short bowel syndrome depends in part on the length of residual small intestine. It has improved with advances in TPN. Although parents need to be taught about nutritional needs, the caloric needs and prescribed TPN and rate are the responsibility of the health care team. The tubes should not be placed under the diaper due to risk of infection.

33. A newborn was admitted to the nursery with a complete bilateral cleft lip and palate. The physician explained the plan of therapy and its expected good results. However, the mother refuses to see or hold her baby. What is the initial therapeutic approach for the mother? a. Restating what the physician has told her about plastic surgery. b. Encouraging her to express her feelings. c. Emphasizing the normalcy of her baby and the baby's need for mothering. d. Recognizing that negative feelings toward the child continue throughout childhood

ANS: B For parents, cleft lip and cleft palate deformities are particularly disturbing. The nurse must emphasize not only the infant's physical needs but also the parents' emotional needs. The mother needs to be able to express her feelings before she can accept her child. Although the nurse will restate what the physician has told the mother about plastic surgery, it is not part of the initial therapeutic approach. As the mother expresses her feelings, the nurse's actions should convey to the parents that the infant is a precious human being. The nurse emphasizes the child's normalcy and helps the mother recognize the child's uniqueness.

What is the most important action to prevent the spread of gastroenteritis in a daycare setting? a. Administering prophylactic medications to children and staff b. Frequent handwashing c. Having parents bring food from home d. Directing the staff to wear gloves at all times

ANS: B Handwashing is the most the important measure to prevent the spread of infectious diarrhea. Prophylactic medications are not helpful in preventing gastroenteritis. Bringing food from home will not prevent the spread of infectious diarrhea. Gloves should be worn when changing diapers, soiled clothing, or linens. They do not need to be worn for interactions that do not involve contact with secretions. Handwashing after contact is indicated.

40. What is the best description of pyloric stenosis? a. Dilation of the pylorus b. Hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle c. Hypotonicity of the pyloric muscle d. Reduction of tone in the pyloric muscle

ANS: B Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs when the circumferential muscle of the pyloric sphincter becomes thickened, resulting in elongation and narrowing of the pyloric channel. Dilation of the pylorus, hypotonicity of the pyloric muscle, and reduction of tone in the pyloric muscle are not the definition of pyloric stenosis.

17. Enemas are ordered to empty the bowel preoperatively for a child with Hirschsprung disease. What enema solution should be used? a. Tap water b. Normal saline c. Oil retention d. Phosphate preparation

ANS: B Isotonic solutions should be used in children. Saline is the solution of choice. Plain water is not used. This is a hypotonic solution and can cause rapid fluid shift, resulting in fluid overload. Oil-retention enemas will not achieve the "until clear" result. Phosphate enemas are not advised for children because of the harsh action of the ingredients. The osmotic effects of the phosphate enema can result in diarrhea, which can lead to metabolic acidosis.

What is an expected outcome for the parents of a child with encopresis? a. The parents will give the child an enema daily for 3 to 4 months. b. The family will develop a plan to achieve control over incontinence. c. The parents will have the child launder soiled clothes. d. The parents will supply the child with a low-fiber diet.

ANS: B Parents of the child with encopresis often feel guilty and believe that encopresis is willful on the part of the child. The family functions effectively by openly discussing problems and developing a plan to achieve control over incontinence. Stool softeners or laxatives, along with dietary changes, are typically used to treat encopresis. Enemas are indicated when a fecal impaction is present. This action is a punishment and will increase the child's shame and embarrassment. The child should not be punished for an action that is not willful. Increasing fiber in the diet and fluid intake results in greater bulk in the stool, making it easier to pass.

A 4-month-old infant has gastroesophageal reflux (GER) but is thriving without other complications. What should the nurse suggest to minimize reflux? a. Place in the Trendelenburg position after eating. b. Thicken formula with rice cereal. c. Give continuous nasogastric tube feedings. d. Give larger, less frequent feedings.

ANS: B Small frequent feedings of formula combined with 1 teaspoon to 1 tablespoon of rice cereal per ounce of formula have been recommended. Milk thickening agents have been shown to decrease the number of episodes of vomiting and to increase the caloric density of the formula. This may benefit infants who are underweight as a result of GERD. Placing the child in a Trendelenburg position increases the reflux. Continuous nasogastric feedings are reserved for infants with severe reflux and failure to thrive. Smaller, more frequent feedings are recommended in reflux.

20. A 4-month-old infant has gastroesophageal reflux (GER) but is thriving without other complications. Which should the nurse suggest to minimize reflux? a. Place in Trendelenburg position after eating. b. Thicken formula with rice cereal. c. Give continuous nasogastric tube feedings. d. Give larger, less frequent feedings.

ANS: B Small, frequent feedings of formula combined with 1 teaspoon to 1 tablespoon of rice cereal per ounce of formula have been recommended. Milk-thickening agents have been shown to decrease the number of episodes of vomiting and to increase the caloric density of the formula. This may benefit infants who are underweight as a result of GER disease. Placing the child in a Trendelenburg position would increase the reflux. Continuous nasogastric feedings are reserved for infants with severe reflux and failure to thrive.

24. The nurse is caring for a child admitted with acute abdominal pain and possible appendicitis. Which is appropriate to relieve the abdominal discomfort? a. Place in Trendelenburg position. b. Allow to assume position of comfort. c. Apply moist heat to the abdomen. d. Administer a saline enema to cleanse bowel.

ANS: B The child should be allowed to take a position of comfort, usually with the legs flexed. The Trendelenburg position will not help with the discomfort. In any instance in which appendicitis is a possibility, there is a danger in administering a laxative or enemas or applying heat to the area. Such measures stimulate bowel motility and increase the risk of perforation.

35. A mother who intended to breastfeed has given birth to an infant with a cleft palate. What nursing interventions should be included? a. Giving medication to suppress lactation. b. Encouraging and helping mother to breastfeed. c. Teaching mother to feed breast milk by gavage. d. Recommending use of a breast pump to maintain lactation until infant can suck.

ANS: B The mother who wishes to breastfeed may need encouragement and support because the defect does present some logistical issues. The nipple must be positioned and stabilized well back in the infant's oral cavity so that the tongue action facilitates milk expression. Because breastfeeding is an option, if the mother wishes to breastfeed, medications should not be given to suppress lactation. Because breastfeeding can usually be accomplished, gavage feedings are not indicated. The suction required to stimulate milk, absent initially, may be useful before nursing to stimulate the let-down reflex.

36. The nurse is caring for an infant whose cleft lip was repaired. What important aspects of this infant's postoperative care should be included? a. Arm restraints, postural drainage, mouth irrigations b. Cleansing the suture line, supine and side-lying positions, arm restraints c. Mouth irrigations, prone position, cleansing the suture line d. Supine and side-lying positions, postural drainage, arm restraints

ANS: B The suture line should be cleansed gently after feeding. The child should be positioned on the back, on the side, or in an infant seat. Elbows are restrained to prevent the child from accessing the operative site. Postural drainage is not indicated. This would increase the pressure on the operative site when the child is placed in different positions. There is no reason to perform mouth irrigations, and the child should not be placed in the prone position where injury to the suture site can occur.

30. Which vaccine is now recommended for the immunization of all newborns? a. Hepatitis A vaccine b. Hepatitis B vaccine c. Hepatitis C vaccine d. Hepatitis A, B, and C vaccines \

ANS: B Universal vaccination for hepatitis B is now recommended for all newborns. A vaccine is available for hepatitis A, but it is not yet universally recommended. No vaccine is currently available for hepatitis C. Only hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for newborns.

The nurse has educated the parents of a child with celiac disease on diet modifications. Which food choices by the child's parents indicate understanding of teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Oatmeal b. Steamed rice c. Corn on the cob d. Baked chicken e. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich on wheat bread

ANS: B, C, D Rice, corn, and chicken do not contain gluten and so are appropriate choices. Oatmeal and wheat bread are not.

The nurse is providing home care instructions to the parents of an infant being discharged after repair of a bilateral cleft lip. Which instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) should not be given to your infant. b. Feed your infant in an upright position. c. Place your infant prone for a period of time each day. d. Burp your child frequently during feedings. e. Apply antibiotic ointment to the lip as prescribed.

ANS: B, D, E After cleft lip surgery the parents are taught to feed the infant in an upright position to decrease the chance of choking. The parents are taught to burp the infant frequently during feedings because excess air is often swallowed. Parents are taught to cleanse the suture line area with a cotton swab using a rolling motion and apply antibiotic ointment with the same technique. Tylenol is used for pain, and the child should never be placed prone as this position can damage the suture line.

4. The nurse is preparing to care for an infant returning from pyloromyotomy surgery. Which prescribed orders should the nurse anticipate implementing? (Select all that apply.) a. NPO for 24 hours b. Administration of analgesics for pain c. Ice bag to the incisional area d. IV fluids continued until tolerating PO e. Clear liquids as the first feeding

ANS: B, D, E Feedings are usually instituted soon after a pyloromyotomy surgery, beginning with clear liquids and advancing to formula or breast milk as tolerated. IV fluids are administered until the infant is taking and retaining adequate amounts by mouth. Appropriate analgesics should be given around the clock because pain is continuous. Ice should not be applied to the incisional area as it vasoconstricts and would reduce circulation to the incisional area and impair healing.

Careful handwashing before and after contact can prevent the spread of which condition in daycare and school settings? a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Ulcerative colitis c. Hepatic cirrhosis d. Hepatitis A

ANS: D Hepatitis A is spread person to person, by the fecal-oral route, and through contaminated food or water. Good handwashing is critical in preventing its spread. The virus can survive on contaminated objects for weeks. The other conditions are not contagious.

The nurse caring for a child with suspected appendicitis should question which order from the physician? a. Keep patient NPO. b. Start IV of D5/0.45 normal saline at 60 mL/hr. c. Apply K-pad to abdomen prn for pain. d. Obtain CBC on admission to nursing unit.

ANS: C A K-pad (moist heat device) is contraindicated for suspected appendicitis because it may contribute to the rupture of the appendix. NPO status, an IV, and a CBC are all appropriate for this child.

What maternal assessment is related to an infant's diagnosis of TEF? a. Maternal age more than 40 years b. First term pregnancy for the mother c. Maternal history of polyhydramnios d. Complicated pregnancy

ANS: C A maternal history of polyhydramnios is associated with TEF. Advanced maternal age, first term pregnancy, or complicated pregnancy are not related.

What clinical manifestation should a nurse be alert for when suspecting a diagnosis of esophageal atresia? a. A radiograph in the prenatal period indicates abnormal development. b. It is visually identified at the time of delivery. c. A nasogastric tube fails to pass at birth. d. The infant has a low birth weight.

ANS: C Atresia is suspected when a nasogastric tube fails to pass 10 to 11 cm beyond the gum line. Abdominal radiographs will confirm the diagnosis. Prenatal radiographs do not provide a definitive diagnosis. The defect is not externally visible. Bronchoscopy and endoscopy can be used to identify this defect. Infants with esophageal atresia may have been born prematurely and with a low birth weight, but neither is suggestive of the presence of an esophageal atresia.

25. A nurse is conducting an in-service on childhood gastrointestinal disorders. Which statement is most descriptive of Meckel diverticulum? a. It is more common in females than in males. b. It is acquired during childhood. c. Intestinal bleeding may be mild or profuse. d. Medical interventions are usually sufficient to treat the problem.

ANS: C Bloody stools are often a presenting sign of Meckel diverticulum. It is associated with mild to profuse intestinal bleeding. It is twice as common in males as in females, and complications are more frequent in males. Meckel diverticulum is the most common congenital malformation of the GI tract and is present in 1% to 4% of the general population. The standard therapy is surgical removal of the diverticulum.

What is used to treat moderate to severe inflammatory bowel disease? a. Antacids b. Antibiotics c. Corticosteroids d. Antidiarrheal medications

ANS: C Corticosteroids, such as prednisone and prednisolone, are used in short bursts to suppress the inflammatory response in inflammatory bowel disease. Antacids and antidiarrheals are not used. Antibiotics may be used to treat complications.

A nurse is teaching a student nurse in the pediatric clinic about vomiting in children. The nurse states that getting parents to estimate the amount a child has vomited is quite difficult. What is the best explanation for this problem? a. Parents are too upset by the vomiting to pay close attention. b. Parents don't know how to accurately estimate the amount. c. Descriptions about vomitus are vague and non-specific. d. Infants and small children often swallow the vomitus.

ANS: C Descriptive words used to describe vomitus are often vague and used inconsistently. The astute nurse uses specific questions to elicit the most accurate information. See Nursing Quality Alert Box 43-2 for examples of good questions to ask. Parents may or may not be too upset to pay attention. It is belittling to state that parents don't know how to estimate amounts. Infants and children may swallow some vomitus, but that is not the main problem.

What is a priority concern for a 14-year-old child with inflammatory bowel disease? a. Compliance with antidiarrheal medication therapy b. Long-term complications c. Dealing with the embarrassment and stress of diarrhea d. Home schooling due to extreme absenteeism

ANS: C Embarrassment and stress from chronic diarrhea are real concerns for the adolescent with inflammatory bowel disease. Antidiarrheal medications are not typically ordered for a child with inflammatory bowel disease. Long-term complications are not a priority concern for the adolescent with inflammatory bowel disease. Exacerbations may interfere with school attendance, but home schooling is not a usual consideration for the adolescent with inflammatory bowel disease.

Which parasite causes acute diarrhea? a. Shigella organisms b. Salmonella organisms c. Giardia lamblia d. Escherichia coli

ANS: C Giardiasis a parasite that represents 15% of nondysenteric illness in the United States. The other organisms are bacterial.

Which statement best characterizes hepatitis A? a. Incubation period is 6 weeks to 6 months. b. Principal mode of transmission is through the parenteral route. c. Onset is usually rapid and acute. d. There is a persistent carrier state.

ANS: C Hepatitis A is characterized by a rapid acute onset. The incubation period is approximately 3 weeks for hepatitis A. The principal mode of transmission for hepatitis A is the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis A does not have a carrier state

29. Which statement best characterizes hepatitis A? a. Incubation period is 6 weeks to 6 months. b. Principal mode of transmission is through the parenteral route. c. Onset is usually rapid and acute. d. There is a persistent carrier state.

ANS: C Hepatitis A is the most common form of acute hepatitis in most parts of the world. It is characterized by a rapid and acute onset. The incubation period is approximately 3 weeks for hepatitis A, and the principal mode of transmission for it is the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis A does not have a carrier state.

19. The nurse is explaining to a parent how to care for a school-age child with vomiting associated with a viral illness. Which action should the nurse include? a. Avoid carbohydrate-containing liquids. b. Give nothing by mouth for 24 hours. c. Brush teeth or rinse mouth after vomiting. d. Give plain water until vomiting ceases for at least 24 hours.

ANS: C It is important to emphasize the need for the child to brush the teeth or rinse the mouth after vomiting to dilute the hydrochloric acid that comes in contact with the teeth. Ad libitum administration of glucose-electrolyte solution to an alert child will help restore water and electrolytes satisfactorily. It is important to include carbohydrate to spare body protein and avoid ketosis

The postoperative care plan for an infant with surgical repair of a cleft lip includes a. a clear liquid diet for 72 hours. b. nasogastric feedings until the sutures are removed. c. elbow restraints to keep the infant's fingers away from the mouth. d. rinsing the mouth after every feeding.

ANS: C Keeping the infant's hands away from the incision reduces potential complications at the surgical site. The infant's diet is advanced from clear liquid to soft foods within 48 hours of surgery. After surgery, the infant can resume preoperative feeding techniques. Rinsing the mouth after feeding is an inappropriate intervention. Feeding a small amount of water after feedings will help keep the mouth clean. A cleft lip repair site should be cleansed with a wet sterile cotton swab after feedings.

Therapeutic management of the child with acute diarrhea and dehydration usually begins with a. clear liquids. b. IV solutions while the child is NPO. c. oral rehydration solution (ORS). d. antidiarrheal medications.

ANS: C Orally administered rehydration solution is the first treatment for acute diarrhea. Clear liquids are not recommended because they contain too much sugar, which may contribute to diarrhea. The child might need an IV but would not be NPO. Antidiarrheals are not recommended because they do not get rid of pathogens.

What is an appropriate statement for the nurse to make to parents of a child who has had a barium enema to correct an intussusception? a. "I will call the physician when the baby passes his first stool." b. "I am going to dilate the anal sphincter with a gloved finger to help the baby pass the barium." c. "Your baby can't have anything to eat or drink until bowel function returns." d. "Add cereal to the baby's formula to help him pass the barium."

ANS: C Post procedure, the child is kept NPO until bowel function returns. The physician does not need to be notified when the infant passes the first stool. Dilating the anal sphincter is not appropriate for the child after a barium enema.

What information should the nurse include when teaching the parents of a 5-week-old infant about pyloromyotomy? a. The infant will be in the hospital for a week. b. The surgical procedure is routine and "no big deal." c. The prognosis for complete correction with surgery is good. d. They will need to ask the physician about home care nursing.

ANS: C Pyloromyotomy is the definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis. Prognosis is good with few complications. These comments reassure parents. The infant will remain in the hospital for a day or two postoperatively. Although the prognosis for surgical correction is good, telling the parents that surgery is "no big deal" minimizes the infant's condition. Home care nursing is not necessary after a pyloromyotomy.

37. During the first few days after surgery for cleft lip, which intervention should the nurse do? a Leave infant in crib at all times to prevent suture strain. b. Keep infant heavily sedated to prevent suture strain. c. Remove restraints periodically to cuddle infant. d. Alternate position from prone to side-lying to supine.

ANS: C Remove restraints periodically, while supervising the infant, to allow him or her to exercise arms and to provide cuddling and tactile stimulation. The infant should not be left in the crib, but should be removed for appropriate holding and stimulation. Analgesia and sedation are administered for pain. Heavy sedation is not indicated. The child should not be placed in the prone position.

What is the most important information to be included in the discharge planning for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux? a. Teach parents to position the infant on the left side. b. Reinforce the parents' knowledge of the infant's developmental needs. c. Teach the parents how to do infant cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). d. Have the parents keep an accurate record of intake and output.

ANS: C Risk of aspiration is a priority nursing diagnosis for the infant with gastroesophageal reflux. The parents must be taught infant CPR. Correct positioning minimizes aspiration. The correct position for the infant is supine for sleeping unless the risk of aspiration is great. Knowledge of developmental needs should be included in discharge planning for all hospitalized infants, but it is not the most important in this case. Keeping a record of intake and output is not a priority and may not be necessary.

What is the major focus of the therapeutic management for a child with lactose intolerance? a. Compliance with the medication regimen b. Providing emotional support to family members c. Teaching dietary modifications d. Administration of daily normal saline enemas

ANS: C Simple dietary modifications are effective in management of lactose intolerance. Symptoms of lactose intolerance are usually relieved after instituting a lactose-free diet. Medications are not typically ordered in the management of lactose intolerance. Providing emotional support to family members is not specific to this medical condition. Diarrhea is a manifestation of lactose intolerance. Enemas are contraindicated for this alteration in bowel elimination.

Which description of a stool is characteristic of intussusception? a. Ribbon-like stools b. Hard stools positive for guaiac c. "Currant jelly" stools d. Loose, foul-smelling stools

ANS: C The characteristic stool of intussusception is described as "currant jelly." Ribbon-like stools are characteristic of Hirschsprung disease. With intussusception, passage of bloody mucous stools occurs. Stools will not be hard. Loose, foul-smelling stools may indicate infectious gastroenteritis.

What goal has the highest priority for a child with malabsorption associated with lactose intolerance? a. The child will experience no abdominal spasms. b. The child will not experience constipation and malabsorption syndrome. c. The child will not experience diarrhea associated with malabsorption syndrome. d. The child will receive adequate nutrition as evidenced by a weight gain of 1 kg/week.

ANS: C The child with lactose intolerance will have diarrhea and malabsorption, so a good goal would be no longer having these manifestations. A child usually has abdominal cramping pain and distention rather than spasms. The child usually has diarrhea, not constipation. One kilogram every week may or may not be appropriate depending on the child's age and how long the goal is in place for.

18. A 3-year-old child with Hirschsprung disease is hospitalized for surgery. A temporary colostomy will be necessary. The nurse should recognize that preparing this child psychologically is: a. not necessary because of child's age. b. not necessary because colostomy is temporary. c. necessary because it will be an adjustment. d. necessary because the child must deal with a negative body image.

ANS: C The child's age dictates the type and extent of psychological preparation. When a colostomy is performed, the child who is at least preschool age is told about the procedure and what to expect in concrete terms, with the use of visual aids. It is necessary to prepare a 3-year-old child for procedures. The preschooler is not yet concerned with body image.

21. A histamine-receptor antagonist such as cimetidine (Tagamet) or ranitidine (Zantac) is ordered for an infant with GER. What is the purpose of this medication? a. Prevent reflux b. Prevent hematemesis c. Reduce gastric acid production d. Increase gastric acid production

ANS: C The mechanism of action of histamine-receptor antagonists is to reduce the amount of acid present in gastric contents and perhaps prevent esophagitis. Preventing reflux or hematemesis and increasing gastric acid production are not the modes of action of histamine-receptor antagonists.

A histamine-receptor antagonist such as cimetidine (Tagamet) or ranitidine (Zantac) is ordered for an infant with GER. What is the purpose of these drugs? a. Prevent reflux b. Prevent hematemesis c. Reduce gastric acid production d. Increase gastric acid production

ANS: C The mechanism of action of histamine-receptor antagonists is to reduce the amount of acid present in gastric contents and to prevent esophagitis.

5. A nurse is conducting dietary teaching on high-fiber foods for parents of a child with constipation. Which foods should the nurse include as being high in fiber? (Select all that apply.) a. White rice b. Avocados c. Whole grain breads d. Bran pancakes e. Raw carrots

ANS: C, D, E High-fiber foods include whole grain breads, bran pancakes, and raw carrots. Unrefined (brown) rice is high in fiber, but white rice is not. Raw fruits, especially those with skins or seeds, other than ripe banana or avocado, are high in fiber.

Which type of hernia has an impaired blood supply to the herniated organ? a. Hiatal hernia b. Incarcerated hernia c. Omphalocele d. Strangulated hernia

ANS: D A strangulated hernia is one in which the blood supply to the herniated organ is impaired. A hiatal hernia is the intrusion of an abdominal structure, usually the stomach, through the esophageal hiatus. An incarcerated hernia is a hernia that cannot be reduced easily. Omphalocele is the protrusion of intraabdominal viscera into the base of the umbilical cord. The sac is covered with peritoneum and not skin.

39. Which type of hernia has an impaired blood supply to the herniated organ? a. Hiatal hernia b. Incarcerated hernia c. Omphalocele d. Strangulated hernia

ANS: D A strangulated hernia is one in which the blood supply to the herniated organ is impaired. Hiatal hernia is the intrusion of an abdominal structure, usually the stomach, through the esophageal hiatus. Incarcerated hernia is a hernia that cannot be reduced easily. Omphalocele is the protrusion of intra-abdominal viscera into the base of the umbilical cord. The sac is covered with peritoneum, not skin.

The child with lactose intolerance is most at risk for which imbalance? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Hyperglycemia d. Hypocalcemia

ANS: D Because high-calcium dairy products containing lactose are restricted from the child's diet, alternative sources such as egg yolk, green leafy vegetables, dried beans, and cauliflower must be provided to prevent hypocalcemia. The child with lactose intolerance is not at risk for hyperkalemia. Lactose intolerance does not affect glucose metabolism. Hyperglycemia does not result from ingestion of a lactose-free diet.

What should the nurse stress in a teaching plan for the mother of an 11-year-old boy with ulcerative colitis? a. Preventing the spread of illness to others b. Nutritional guidance and preventing constipation c. Teaching daily use of enemas d. Coping with stress and avoiding triggers

ANS: D Coping with the stress of chronic illness and the clinical manifestations associated with ulcerative colitis (diarrhea, pain) are important teaching foci. Avoidance of triggers can help minimize the impact of the disease and its effect on the child. Ulcerative colitis is not infectious. Enemas are not used in this disease.

A school-age child with diarrhea has been rehydrated. The nurse is discussing the child's diet with the family. Which statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will keep my child on a clear liquid diet for the next 24 hours." b. "I should encourage my child to drink carbonated drinks but avoid food for the next 24 hours." c. "I will offer my child bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast for the next 48 hours." d. "I should have my child eat a normal diet with easily digested foods for the next 48 hours."

ANS: D Easily digested foods such as cereals, cooked vegetables, and meats should be provided for the child. Early reintroduction of nutrients is desirable. Continued feeding or reintroduction of a regular diet has no adverse effects and actually lessens the severity and duration of the illness. Clear liquids and carbonated drinks have high carbohydrate content and few electrolytes. Caffeinated beverages should be avoided because caffeine is a mild diuretic. The BRAT diet (bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast) is no longer recommended.

Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for the toddler with celiac disease? a. Disturbed Body Image related to chronic constipation b. Risk for Disproportionate Growth related to obesity c. Excess Fluid Volume related to celiac crisis d. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to malabsorption

ANS: D Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because celiac disease causes gluten enteropathy, a malabsorption condition. A psychosocial diagnosis (Disturbed Body Image) would not take priority over a physical diagnosis. Celiac disease causes disproportionate growth and development associated with malnutrition, not obesity. Celiac crisis causes deficient fluid volume.

44. What is invagination of one segment of bowel within another called? a. Atresia b. Stenosis c. Herniation d. Intussusception

ANS: D Intussusception occurs when a proximal section of the bowel telescopes into a more distal segment, pulling the mesentery with it. The mesentery is compressed and angled, resulting in lymphatic and venous obstruction. Invagination of one segment of bowel within another is the definition of intussusception, not atresia, stenosis, or herniation.

Therapeutic management of most children with Hirschsprung disease is primarily a. daily enemas. b. low-fiber diet. c. permanent colostomy. d. surgical removal of the affected section of the bowel.

ANS: D Most children with Hirschsprung disease require surgical rather than medical management. Surgery is done to remove the aganglionic portion of the bowel, relieve obstruction, and restore normal bowel motility and function of the internal anal sphincter. Preoperative management may include enemas and a low-fiber, high-calorie, high-protein diet, until the child is physically ready for surgery. The colostomy that is created in Hirschsprung disease is usually temporary.

16. Which therapeutic management treatment is implemented for children with Hirschsprung disease? a. Daily enemas b. Low-fiber diet c. Permanent colostomy d. Surgical removal of affected section of bowel

ANS: D Most children with Hirschsprung disease require surgical rather than medical management. Surgery is done to remove the aganglionic portion of the bowel, relieve obstruction, and restore normal bowel motility and function of the internal anal sphincter. Preoperative management may include enemas and low-fiber, high-calorie, high-protein diet, until the child is physically ready for surgery. The colostomy that is created in Hirschsprung disease is usually temporary.

A stool specimen from a child with diarrhea shows the presence of neutrophils and red blood cells. This is most suggestive of a. protein intolerance. b. parasitic infection. c. fat malabsorption. d. bacterial gastroenteritis.

ANS: D Neutrophils and red blood cells in stool indicate bacterial gastroenteritis. This does not signify protein intolerance, a parasitic infection, or fat malabsorption.

Which intervention should be included in the nurse's plan of care for a 7-year-old child with encopresis who has cleared the initial impaction? a. Have the child sit on the toilet for 30 minutes when he gets up in the morning and at bedtime. b. Increase caffeine in the child's diet to promote bowel elimination. c. Use a Fleet enema daily. d. Give the child a choice of beverage to mix with a laxative.

ANS: D Offering realistic choices is helpful in meeting the school-age child's sense of control. To facilitate bowel elimination, the child should sit on the toilet for 5 to 10 minutes after breakfast and dinner. Caffeine to stimulate the bowels is not recommended. Daily Fleet enemas can result in hypernatremia and hyperphosphatemia and are used only during periods of fecal impaction.

After an infant is born the nurse notices that the child has herniation of abdominal viscera into the base of the umbilical cord. What will the nurse document about this condition? a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Umbilical hernia c. Gastroschisis d. Omphalocele

ANS: D Omphalocele is the herniation of the abdominal viscera into the base of the umbilical cord. This does not describe a diaphragmatic hernia, umbilical hernia, or gastroschisis.

22. Which clinical manifestation would be the most suggestive of acute appendicitis? a. Rebound tenderness b. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding c. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating d. Abdominal pain that is most intense at McBurney point

ANS: D Pain is the cardinal feature. It is initially generalized, usually periumbilical. The pain localizes to the right lower quadrant at McBurney point. Rebound tenderness is not a reliable sign and is extremely painful to the child. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain that is relieved by eating are not signs of acute appendicitis.

34. What should be included in caring for the newborn with a cleft lip and palate before surgical repair? a. Gastrostomy feedings b. Keeping infant in near-horizontal position during feedings c. Allowing little or no sucking d. Providing satisfaction of sucking needs

ANS: D Using special or modified nipples for feeding techniques helps meet the infant's sucking needs. Gastrostomy feedings are usually not indicated. Feeding is best accomplished with the infant's head in an upright position. The child requires both nutritive and nonnutritive sucking.

51. A family wants to begin oral feeding of their 4-year-old son, who is ventilator-dependent and currently tube-fed. They ask the home health nurse to feed him the baby food orally. The nurse recognizes a high risk of aspiration and an already compromised respiratory status. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Refuse to feed him orally because the risk is too high. b. Explain the risks involved, and then let the family decide what should be done. c. Feed him orally because the family has the right to make this decision for their child. d. Acknowledge their request, explain the risks, and explore with the family the available options.

Acknowledge their request, explain the risks, and explore with the family the available options. Parents want to be included in the decision making for their child's care. The nurse should discuss the request with the family to ensure this is the issue of concern, and then they can explore potential options together. Merely refusing to feed the child orally does not determine why the parents wish the oral feedings to begin and does not involve them in the problem solving. The decision to begin or not change feedings should be a collaborative one, made in consultation with the family, nurse, and appropriate member of the health care team.

6. Parents call the clinic and report that their toddler has had acute diarrhea for 24 hours. The nurse should further ask the parents if the toddler has which associated factor that is causing the acute diarrhea? a. Celiac disease b. Antibiotic therapy c. Immunodeficiency d. Protein malnutrition

Antibiotic therapy Acute diarrhea is a sudden increase in frequency and change in consistency of stools and may be associated with antibiotic therapy. Celiac disease is a problem with gluten intolerance and may cause chronic diarrhea if not identified and managed appropriately. Immunodeficiency would occur with chronic diarrhea. Protein malnutrition or kwashiorkor causes chronic diarrhea from lowered resistance to infection.

52. One of the supervisors for a home health agency asks the nurse to give the family a survey evaluating the nurses and other service providers. How should the nurse interpret this request? a. Inappropriate, unless nurses are able to evaluate family. b. Appropriate to improve quality of care. c. Inappropriate, unless nurses and other providers agree to participate. d. Inappropriate, because family lacks knowledge necessary to evaluate professionals.

Appropriate to improve quality of care. Quality assessment and improvement activities are essential for virtually all organizations. Family involvement is essential in evaluating a home care plan and can occur on several levels. The nurse can ask the family open-ended questions at regular intervals to assess their opinion of the effectiveness of care. Families should also be given an opportunity to evaluate the individual home care nurses, the home care agency, and other service providers periodically. The nurse is the care provider. The evaluation is of the provision of care to the patient and family. The nurse's role is not to evaluate the family. Quality-monitoring activities are required by virtually all health care agencies. During the evaluation process, the family is requested to provide their perceptions of care.

You are educating nursing student regarding fluid requirements for pediatric patients who present with comorbidities. Increased need for fluid requirements would be consistent with treatment management for which conditions? (Select all that apply.) A. CHF B. DKA C. SIADH D. DI E. Burns

B, D, E Increased fluid requirements would occur in response to DKA, DI and burns. CHF and SIADH would lead to decreased fluid requirements.

A 4-year-old child has ingested a toxic dose of iron. The parent reports that the child vomited and complained of gastric pain an hour ago but "feels fine" now. The parent is not certain when the child ingested the iron tablets. The most appropriate recommendation by the nurse to the parent is to A. observe the child closely for 2 more hours. B. bring the child to the hospital immediately. C. administer activated charcoal. D. administer ipecac to induce vomiting if the child does not vomit again within 1 hour.

B. The child should be transported to the hospital immediately for assessment and possible gastric lavage. The period of concern for complications of iron toxicity is from 30 minutes to 6 hours. Activated charcoal does not bind iron and, therefore, is not a course of treatment for this child. Ipecac is not recommended for poisonings.

What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in a newborn who has developed necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)? A. Hyperthermia B. Gastric residual and melena C. The passage of ribbon-like stools D. Projectile vomiting

B. The most prominent signs of NEC are abdominal distention, gastric residuals, and blood in the stools (melena). NEC resembles septicemia; the newborn may "not look well," in addition to having nonspecific signs such as lethargy, poor feeding, hypotension, hypothermia, bile-stained vomitus, and oliguria. The newborn with NEC is more likely to be seen with hypothermia, not hyperthermia. The passage of ribbon-like stools is seen in newborns and infants born with Hirschsprung disease. Projectile vomiting is seen in newborns and infants with pyloric stenosis.

Which diet is most appropriate for the child with celiac disease? A. Salt-free diet B. Phenylalanine-free diet C. Low-gluten diet D. High-calorie, low-protein, low-fat diet

C. Celiac disease is characterized by intolerance of gluten, the protein found in wheat, barley, rye, and oats. A low-gluten diet is indicated for life. The diet for a child with celiac disease does not have to be salt free. A low-phenylalanine diet is indicated in phenylketonuria. The diet of a child with celiac disease should be high in calories and protein and low in fat, in addition to the low-gluten requirement.

What should the nurse include when teaching an adolescent with Crohn disease? A. Preventing the spread of illness to others and nutritional guidance B. Adjusting to chronic illness and preventing the spread of illness to others C. Coping with stress and adjusting to chronic illness D. Nutritional guidance and preventing constipation

C. Crohn disease is a chronic disease with life-altering complications. The nursing interventions include helping the child cope with stress and adjust to the illness. Nutritional guidance is necessary, but Crohn disease is not infectious. Adjustment to chronic illness is necessary, but Crohn disease is not infectious. Nutritional guidance is necessary, but constipation is not an issue.

The care of a newborn with a cleft lip and palate before surgical repair includes A. little to no sucking. B. gastrostomy feedings. C. providing nonnutritive and nutritive sucking. D. positioning infant in near-horizontal for feeding.

C. Infants need nutritive and nonnutritive sucking. Nutritive and nonnutritive sucking is important to the infant. Gastrostomy feedings are not usually required or indicated. The appropriate positioning for the infant is the upright position.

A school-age child with acute diarrhea and mild dehydration is being given oral rehydration solution (ORS). The child's mother calls the clinic nurse because the child is also occasionally vomiting. What should the nurse recommend? A. Bring the child to the hospital for intravenous fluids. B. Alternate giving ORS and carbonated drinks. C. Continue to give ORS frequently in small amounts. D. Institute a nothing by mouth (NPO) status for the child for 8 hours, and resume ORS if vomiting has subsided.

C. Vomiting is not a contraindication to the use of ORS unless it is severe. The mother should continue to give the ORS in small amounts and at frequent intervals. For a school-age child with mild dehydration, rehydration can be safely done at home with oral solutions. Carbonated drinks should not be used. They may have a high carbohydrate content and contain caffeine, which is a diuretic and could exacerbate fluid loss and dehydration. NPO status is not indicated. Small, frequent intake of ORS is recommended.

Which factor predisposes an infant to fluid imbalances? A. Decreased surface area B. Lower metabolic rate C. Immature kidney functioning D. Decreased daily exchange of extracellular fluid

C. Immature kidney functioning The infant's kidneys are unable to concentrate or dilute urine, to conserve or excrete sodium, and to acidify urine. The infant has a proportionately greater body surface area, which allows for greater insensible water loss. The infant has a higher metabolic rate. The infant has an increased amount of extracellular fluid. Approximately 60% of the fluid loss is from the extracellular space.

14. Constipation has recently become a problem for a school-age girl. She is healthy except for seasonal allergies that are being treated with antihistamines. What should the nurse suspect caused the constipation? a. Diet b. Allergies c. Antihistamines d. Emotional factor

Constipation may be associated with drugs such as antihistamines, antacids, diuretics, opioids, antiepileptics, and iron. Because this is the only known change in her habits, the addition of antihistamines is most likely the cause of the diarrhea. With a change in bowel habits, the role of any recently prescribed medications should be assessed.

The nurse assesses a neonate immediately after birth. Clinical sign-symptom of tracheoesophageal fistula is A. jaundice B. bile-stained vomitus C. absence of sucking D. excessive amount of frothy saliva in the mouth

D. Excessive salivation and drooling are indicative of tracheoesophageal fistulas. With a fistula, the child has difficulty managing the secretions, which may cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis. Jaundice is not usually associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula. Bile-stained vomitus is not usually associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula. The infant is able to suck with a tracheoesophageal fistula but is not able to manage the secretions.

A child is exhibiting signs of clinical dehydration. Which laboratory value would support a diagnosis of hypertonic dehydration? A. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/dL B. Plasma osmolality of 275 mOsm/L C. Calculation of loss of body fluid weight at 25 mL/kg D. Serum sodium level of 150 mEq/dL

D. Hypertonic dehydration would result in an increase in serum sodium levels in proportion to fluid loss. Normal serum sodium level ranges between 135 and 145 mEq/dL. Normal plasma osmolality is within the 275 to 295 mOsm/L. Calculation of loss of body fluid weight in terms of moderate loss would be at 50 mL/kg with 100 mL/kg being severe.

When evaluating the extent of an infant's dehydration, the nurse should recognize that the symptoms of severe dehydration (15%) are A. tachycardia, decreased tears, 5% weight loss. B. normal pulse and blood pressure, intense thirst. C. irritability, moderate thirst, normal eyes and fontanels. D. tachycardia, parched mucous membranes, sunken eyes and fontanels.

D. Symptoms of severe dehydration include tachycardia, parched mucous membranes, and sunken eyes and fontanels. In severe dehydration, there is a 15% weight loss in infants, not 5%, although the infant will exhibit tachycardia and decreased tears. Tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension and shock, and intense thirst would be expected in an infant with severe dehydration. The infant would be extremely irritable, with sunken eyes and fontanels, if severely dehydrated.

A child has a nasogastric (NG) tube after surgery for acute appendicitis. What is the purpose of the NG tube? A. Maintain electrolyte balance B. Maintain an accurate record of output C. Prevent the spread of infection D. Prevent abdominal distention

D. The NG tube is used to maintain gastric decompression until intestinal activity returns. The NG tube may adversely affect electrolyte balance by removing stomach secretions. NG drainage is one part of the child's output. The nurse would need to incorporate the NG drainage with other output. There is no relationship between the NG tube and prevention of the spread of infection.

1. Which condition in a child should alert a nurse for increased fluid requirements? a. Fever b. Mechanical ventilation c. Congestive heart failure d. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

Fever ANS: A Fever leads to great insensible fluid loss in young children because of increased body surface area relative to fluid volume. Respiratory rate influences insensible fluid loss and should be monitored in the mechanically ventilated child. Congestive heart failure is a case of fluid overload in children. Increased ICP does not lead to increased fluid requirements in children.

2. Which is true concerning hepatitis B? (Select all that apply.) a. Hepatitis B cannot exist in carrier state. b. Hepatitis B can be prevented by HBV vaccine. c. Hepatitis B can be transferred to an infant of a breastfeeding mother. d. Onset of hepatitis B is insidious. e. Principal mode of transmission for hepatitis B is fecal-oral route. f. Immunity to hepatitis B occurs after one attack.

Hepatitis B can be prevented by HBV vaccine. Hepatitis B can be transferred to an infant of a breastfeeding mother. Onset of hepatitis B is insidious. Immunity to hepatitis B occurs after one attack. The vaccine elicits the formation of an antibody to the hepatitis B surface antigen, which is protective against hepatitis B. Hepatitis B can be transferred to an infant of a breastfeeding mother, especially if the mother's nipples are cracked. The onset of hepatitis B is insidious. Immunity develops after one exposure to hepatitis B. Hepatitis B has a carrier state. The fecal-oral route is the principal mode of transmission for hepatitis A. Hepatitis B is transmitted through the parenteral route.

4. A nurse is admitting an infant with dehydration caused from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. Which type of dehydration is this infant experiencing? a. Isotonic b. Isosmotic c. Hypotonic d. Hypertonic

Hypertonic Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. This is the most dangerous type of dehydration. It is caused by feeding children fluids with high amounts of solute. Isotonic dehydration occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in balanced proportion and is another term for isomotic dehydration. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic.

11. A school-age child with diarrhea has been rehydrated. The nurse is discussing the child's diet with the family. Which statement by the parent would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will keep my child on a clear liquid diet for the next 24 hours." b. "I should encourage my child to drink carbonated drinks but avoid food for the next 24 hours." c. "I will offer my child bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast for the next 48 hours." d. I should have my child eat a normal diet with easily digested foods for the next 48 hours."

I should have my child eat a normal diet with easily digested foods for the next 48 hours." Easily digested foods such as cereals, cooked vegetables, and meats should be provided for the child. Early reintroduction of nutrients is desirable. Continued feeding or reintroduction of a regular diet has no adverse effects and actually lessens the severity and duration of the illness. Clear liquids and carbonated drinks have high carbohydrate content and few electrolytes. Caffeinated beverages should be avoided because caffeine is a mild diuretic. The BRAT diet has little nutritional value and is high in carbohydrates.

3. Which type of dehydration is defined as "dehydration that occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in approximately balanced proportion"? a. Isotonic dehydration b. Hypotonic dehydration c. Hypertonic dehydration d.All types of dehydration in infants and small childre

Isotonic dehydration ANS: A Isotonic dehydration is the correct term for this definition and is the most frequent form of dehydration in children. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic. Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss and is usually caused by a proportionately larger loss of water or a larger intake of electrolytes. This definition is specific to isotonic dehydration.

53. The home care nurse has been visiting an adolescent with recently acquired *tetraplegia*. The teen's mother tells the nurse, "I'm sick of providing all the care while my husband does whatever he wants to, whenever he wants to do it." Which should be the initial action of the nurse? a. Refer mother for counseling. b. Listen and reflect mother's feelings. c. Ask father, in private, why he does not help. d. Suggest ways the mother can get her husband to help.

Listen and reflect mother's feelings. It is appropriate for the nurse to reflect with the mother about her feelings, exploring issues such as an additional home health aide to help care for the child and provide respite for the mother. It is inappropriate for the nurse to agree with the mother that her husband is not helping enough. It is a judgment beyond the role of the nurse and can undermine the family relationship. Counseling is not necessary at this time. A support group for caregivers may be indicated. Asking the father why he does not help and suggesting ways to the mother to get her husband to help are interventions based on the mother's assumption of minimal contribution to the child's care. The father may have a full-time job and other commitments. The parents need to have an involved third person help them through the negotiation of responsibilities for the loss of their normal child and new parenting responsibilities.

43. What are the results of excessive vomiting in an infant with pyloric stenosis? a. Hyperchloremia b. Hypernatremia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

Metabolic alkalosis Infants with excessive vomiting are prone to metabolic alkalosis from the loss of hydrogen ions. Chloride ions and sodium are lost with vomiting. Metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, is likely.

9. A child is admitted with bacterial gastroenteritis. Which lab results of a stool specimen confirm this diagnosis? a. Eosinophils b. Occult blood c. pH less than 6 d. Neutrophils and red blood cells

Neutrophils and red blood cells Neutrophils and red blood cells in stool indicate bacterial gastroenteritis. Protein intolerance and parasitic infections are suspected in the presence of eosinophils. Occult blood may indicate pathogens such as 1. Shigella, 2. Campylobacter, or 3. hemorrhagic Escherichia coli strains. A pH of less than 6 may indicate carbohydrate malabsorption or secondary lactase insufficiency.

10. Which therapeutic management should the nurse prepare to initiate first for a child with acute diarrhea and moderate dehydration? a. Clear liquids b. Adsorbents, such as kaolin and pectin c. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) d. Antidiarrheal medications such as paregoric

Oral rehydration solution (ORS) ANS: C ORS is the first treatment for acute diarrhea. Clear liquids are not recommended because they contain too much sugar, which may contribute to diarrhea. Adsorbents are not recommended. Antidiarrheals are not recommended because they do not get rid of pathogens.

41. Which observation made of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity b. Substernal retraction c. Palpable olive-like mass d. Marked distention of lower abdomen

Palpable olive-like mass The diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is often made after the history and physical examination. The olive-like mass is easily palpated when the stomach is empty, the infant is quiet, and the abdominal muscles are relaxed. Abdominal rigidity and substernal retraction are usually not present. The upper abdomen, not lower abdomen, is distended.

1. A child who has just had *definitive repair of a high rectal malformation* is to be discharged. Which should the nurse address in the discharge preparation of this family? (Select all that apply.) a. Perineal and wound care b. Necessity of firm stools to keep suture line clean c. Bowel training beginning as soon as child returns home d. Reporting any changes in stooling patterns to practitioner e. Use of diet modification to prevent constipation

Perineal and wound care Reporting any changes in stooling patterns to practitioner Use of diet modification to prevent constipation Wound care instruction is necessary in a child who is being discharged after surgery. The parents are taught to notify the practitioner if any signs of an anal stricture or other complications develop. Constipation is avoided, since a firm stool will place strain on the suture line. Fiber and stool softeners are often given to keep stools soft and avoid tension on the suture line. The child needs to recover from the surgical procedure. Then bowel training may begin, depending on the child's developmental and physiologic readiness.

5. An infant is brought to the emergency department with dehydration. Which physical assessment finding does the nurse expect? a. Weight gain b. Bradycardia c.Poor skin turgor d. Brisk capillary refill

Poor skin turgor Clinical manifestations of dehydration include poor skin turgor, weight loss, lethargy, and tachycardia. The infant would have prolonged capillary refill, not brisk.

46. Which is an important nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease? a. Refer to a nutritionist for detailed dietary instructions and education. b. Help child and family understand that diet restrictions are usually only temporary. c. Teach proper hand washing and standard precautions to prevent disease transmission. d. Suggest ways to cope more effectively with stress to minimize symptoms.

Refer to a nutritionist for detailed dietary instructions and education. The main consideration is helping the child adhere to dietary management. Considerable time is spent explaining to the child and parents about the disease process, the specific role of gluten in aggravating the condition, and foods that must be restricted. Referral to a nutritionist would help in this process. The most severe symptoms usually occur in early childhood and adult life. Dietary avoidance of gluten should be lifelong. Celiac disease is not transmissible or stress related.

48. A nurse is receiving report on a newborn admitted yesterday after a gastroschisis repair. In the report, the nurse is told the newborn has a physician's prescription for an NG tube to low intermittent suction. The reporting nurse confirms that the NG tube is to low intermittent suction and draining light green stomach contents. Upon initial assessment, the nurse notes that the newborn has pulled the NG tube out. Which is the priority action the nurse should take? a. Replace the NG tube and continue the low intermittent suction. b. Leave the NG tube out and notify the physician at the end of the shift. c. Leave the NG tube out and monitor for bowel sounds. d. Replace the NG tube, but leave to gravity drainage instead of low wall suction.

Replace the NG tube and continue the low intermittent suction. A newborn with a gastroschisis performed the day before will require bowel decompression with an NG tube to low wall intermittent suction. The nurse's priority action is to replace the NG tube and continue with the low wall intermittent suctioning. The NG tube cannot be left out this soon after surgery. The physician's prescription was to have the NG tube to low wall intermittent suction, so the tube cannot be placed to gravity drainage.

47. An infant with short bowel syndrome will be discharged home on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and gastrostomy feedings. What should be included in the discharge teaching? a. Prepare family for impending death. b. Teach family signs of central venous catheter infection. c. Teach family how to calculate caloric needs. d. Secure TPN and gastrostomy tubing under diaper to lessen risk of dislodgment.

Teach family signs of central venous catheter infection. During TPN therapy, care must be taken to minimize the risk of complications related to the central venous access device, such as catheter infections, occlusions, or accidental removal. This is an important part of family teaching. The prognosis for patients with short bowel syndrome depends in part on the length of residual small intestine. It has improved with advances in TPN. Although parents need to be taught about nutritional needs, the caloric needs and prescribed TPN and rate are the responsibility of the health care team. The tubes should not be placed under the diaper due to risk of infection.

26. A nurse is admitting a child with Crohn disease. Parents ask the nurse, "How is this disease different from ulcerative colitis?" Which statement should the nurse make when answering this question? a. "With Crohn disease the inflammatory process involves the whole GI tract." b. "There is no difference between the two diseases." c. "The inflammation with Crohn disease is limited to the colon and rectum." d. "Ulcerative colitis is characterized by skip lesions."

The chronic inflammatory process of Crohn disease involves any part of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus but most often affects the terminal ileum. Crohn disease involves all layers of the bowel wall in a discontinuous fashion, meaning that between areas of intact mucosa, there are areas of affected mucosa (skip lesions). The inflammation found with ulcerative colitis is limited to the colon and rectum, with the distal colon and rectum the most severely affected. Inflammation affects the mucosa and submucosa and involves continuous segments along the length of the bowel with varying degrees of ulceration, bleeding, and edema.

50. A child has recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) and a dairy-free diet has been prescribed for 2 weeks. Which explanation is the reason for prescribing a dairy-free diet? a. To rule out lactose intolerance b. To rule out celiac disease c. To rule out sensitivity to high sugar content d. To rule out peptic ulcer disease

To rule out lactose intolerance Treatment for RAP involves providing reassurance and reducing or eliminating symptoms. Dietary modifications may include removal of dairy products to rule out lactose intolerance. Fructose is eliminated to rule out sensitivity to high sugar content, and gluten is removed to rule out celiac disease. A dairy-free diet would not rule out peptic ulcer disease.

2. A nurse is conducting an in-service on gastrointestinal disorders. The nurse includes that melena, the passage of black, tarry stools, suggests bleeding from which area? a. Perianal or rectal area b. Hemorrhoids or anal fissures c. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract d. Lower GI tract

Upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract Melena is denatured blood from the upper GI tract or bleeding from the right colon. Blood from the perianal or rectal area, hemorrhoids, or lower GI tract would be bright red.

42. The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation b. Rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds c. Visible peristalsis and weight loss d. Distention of lower abdomen and constipation

Visible peristalsis and weight loss Visible gastric peristaltic waves that move from left to right across the epigastrium and weight loss are observed in pyloric stenosis. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation or a rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds are usually not present. The upper abdomen, not lower abdomen, is distended.

49. Parents of a child undergoing an endoscopy to rule out peptic ulcer disease (PUD) from H. pylori ask the nurse, "If H. pylori is found, will my child need another endoscopy to know that it is gone?" Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Yes, the only way to know the H. pylori has been eradicated is with another endoscopy." b. "We can collect a stool sample and confirm that the H. pylori has been eradicated." c. "A blood test can be done to determine that the H. pylori is no longer present." d. "Your child will always test positive for H. pylori because after treatment it goes into remission but can't be completely eradicated."

We can collect a stool sample and confirm that the H. pylori has been eradicated. An upper endoscopy is the procedure initially performed to diagnose PUD. A biopsy can determine the presence of H. pylori. Polyclonal and monoclonal stool antigen tests are an accurate, noninvasive method to confirm H. pylori has been eradicated after treatment. A blood test can identify the presence of the antigen to this organism, but because H. pylori was already present, it would not be as accurate as a stool sample to determine whether it has been eradicated. H. pylori can be treated and, once the treatment is complete, the stool sample can determine that it was eradicated.