Chapter 23: Management of Patients with Chest and Lower Respiratory Tract Disorders

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

A client is being evaluated for possible lung cancer. Which client statement most likely indicates lung cancer?

"My cough has changed from a dry cough to one with lots of sputum production." Explanation: A cough that changes in character is one of the hallmark signs of lung cancer. Low-grade fever, hoarseness, and weight loss may be attributed to other disease processes and don't necessarily indicate lung cancer.

The nurse identifies which finding to be most consistent prior to the onset of acute respiratory distress?

Normal lung function Explanation: Acute respiratory failure occurs suddenly in clients who previously had normal lung function.

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected ARDS with a pO2 of 53. The client is placed on oxygen via face mask and the PO2 remains the same. What does the nurse recognize as a key characteristic of ARDS?

Unresponsive arterial hypoxemia Explanation: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) can be thought of as a spectrum of disease, from its milder form (acute lung injury) to its most severe form of fulminate, life-threatening ARDS. This clinical syndrome is characterized by a severe inflammatory process causing diffuse alveolar damage that results in sudden and progressive pulmonary edema, increasing bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, hypoxemia unresponsive to oxygen supplementation regardless of the amount of PEEP, and the absence of an elevated left atrial pressure.

A client who has just had a triple-lumen catheter placed in his right subclavian vein complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is decreased from baseline and, on auscultation of his chest, the nurse notes unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray is immediately ordered by the physician. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

Pneumothorax Explanation: Pneumothorax (air in the pleural space) is a potential complication of all central venous access devices. Signs and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, shoulder or neck pain, irritability, palpitations, light-headedness, hypotension, cyanosis, and unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray reveals the collapse of the affected lung that results from pneumothorax. Triple-lumen catheter insertion through the subclavian vein isn't associated with pulmonary embolism, MI, or heart failure.

Class 1 with regard to TB indicates

exposure and no evidence of infection. Explanation: Class 1 is exposure but no evidence of infection. Class 0 is no exposure and no infection. Class 2 is a latent infection with no disease. Class 4 is disease, but not clinically active.

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder?

"The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal." Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is caused by dysfunction of the exocrine glands with no cystic lesions present in the lungs. Early treatment can improve symptoms and extend the life of clients, but a cure for this disorder is presently not available. Allergens are responsible for allergic asthma and not associated with cystic fibrosis.

A nurse is reviewing a client's X-ray. The X-ray shows an endotracheal (ET) tube placed 3/4" (2 cm) above the carina and reveals nodular lesions and patchy infiltrates in the upper lobe. Which interpretation of the X-ray is accurate?

A disease process is present. Explanation: This X-ray suggests tuberculosis. An ET tube that's 3/4" above the carina is at an adequate level in the trachea. There's no need to advance it or pull it back.

The ICU nurse caring for a 2-year-old near drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome Explanation: Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia. Options A, C and D are incorrect.

A client with severe shortness of breath comes to the emergency department. He tells the emergency department staff that he recently traveled to China for business. Based on his travel history and presentation, the staff suspects severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). Which isolation precautions should the staff institute?

Airborne and contact precautions Explanation: SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. The client should be placed on airborne and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Droplet precautions don't require a negative air pressure room and wouldn't protect the nurse who touches contaminated items in the client's room. Contact precautions alone don't provide adequate protection from airborne particles.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with empyema. Which of the following interventions does a nurse implement for patients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises. Explanation: The nurse teaches the patient with empyema to do breathing exercises as prescribed. The nurse should institute droplet precautions, isolate suspected and confirmed influenza patients in private rooms, or place suspected and confirmed patients together, and not allow visitors with symptoms of respiratory infection to visit the hospital to prevent outbreaks of influenza from occurring in health care settings.

A physician determines that a client has been exposed to someone with tuberculosis. The nurse expects the physician to order which treatment?

Daily doses of isoniazid, 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year Explanation: All clients exposed to persons with tuberculosis should receive prophylactic isoniazid in daily doses of 300 mg for 6 months to 1 year to avoid the deleterious effects of the latent mycobacterium. Daily oral doses of isoniazid and rifampin for 6 months to 2 years are appropriate for the client with active tuberculosis. Isolation for 2 to 4 weeks is warranted for a client with active tuberculosis.

For a client with pleural effusion, what does chest percussion over the involved area reveal?

Dullness over the involved area Explanation: Chest percussion reveals dullness over the involved area. The nurse may note diminished or absent breath sounds over the involved area when auscultating the lungs and may also hear a friction rub. Chest radiography and computed tomography show fluid in the involved area.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with pulmonary arterial hypertension. What assessment finding by the nurse is a significant finding for this patient?

Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea, the main symptom of PH, occurs at first with exertion and eventually at rest. Substernal chest pain also is common. Other signs and symptoms include weakness, fatigue, syncope, occasional hemoptysis, and signs of rightsided heart failure (peripheral edema, ascites, distended neck veins, liver engorgement, crackles, heart murmur). Anorexia and abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant may also occur.

The nurse knows the mortality rate is high in lung cancer clients due to which factor?

Few early symptoms Explanation: Because lung cancer produces few early symptoms, its mortality rate is high. Lung cancer has increased in incidence due to an increase in the number of women smokers, a growing aging population, and exposure to pollutants but these are not directly related to the incidence of mortality rate

The occupational nurse is completing routine assessments on the employees where you work. What might be revealed by a chest radiograph for a client with occupational lung diseases?

Fibrotic changes in lungs Explanation: For a client with occupational lung diseases, a chest radiograph may reveal fibrotic changes in the lungs. Hemorrhage, lung contusion, and damage to surrounding tissues are possibly caused by trauma due to chest injuries.

A patient arrives in the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes paradoxical chest movement when removing the patient's shirt. What does the nurse know that this finding indicates?

Flail chest Explanation: During inspiration, as the chest expands, the detached part of the rib segment (flail segment) moves in a paradoxical manner (pendelluft movement) in that it is pulled inward during inspiration, reducing the amount of air that can be drawn into the lungs. On expiration, because the intrathoracic pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure, the flail segment bulges outward, impairing the patient's ability to exhale. The mediastinum then shifts back to the affected side (Fig. 23-8). This paradoxical action results in increased dead space, a reduction in alveolar ventilation, and decreased compliance.

Dyspnea Explanation: Dyspnea, the main symptom of PH, occurs at first with exertion and eventually at rest. Substernal chest pain also is common. Other signs and symptoms include weakness, fatigue, syncope, occasional hemoptysis, and signs of rightsided heart failure (peripheral edema, ascites, distended neck veins, liver engorgement, crackles, heart murmur). Anorexia and abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant may also occur.

Hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia Explanation: The cardinal physiologic abnormalities of acute respiratory failure are hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia. The nurse should focus on resolving these problems.

In a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and respiratory distress, which finding is the earliest sign of reduced oxygenation?

Increased restlessness Explanation: In ALS, an early sign of respiratory distress is increased restlessness, which results from inadequate oxygen flow to the brain. As the body tries to compensate for inadequate oxygenation, the heart rate increases and blood pressure drops. A decreased LOC is a later sign of poor tissue oxygenation in a client with respiratory distress.

A client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is restless and has a low oxygen saturation level. If the client's condition does not improve and the oxygen saturation level continues to decrease, what procedure will the nurse expect to assist with in order to help the client breathe more easily?

Intubate the client and control breathing with mechanical ventilation Explanation: A client with ARDS may need mechanical ventilation to assist with breathing while the underlying cause of the pulmonary edema is corrected. The other options are not appropriate.

You are caring for a client status post lung resection. When assessing your client you find that the bubbling in the water-seal chamber for the chest tubes is more than you expected. What should you check when bubbling in the water-seal chamber is excessive?

See if there are leaks in the system. Explanation: Bubbling in the water-seal chamber occurs in the early postoperative period. If bubbling is excessive, the nurse checks the system for any kind of leaks. Fluctuation of the fluid in the water-seal chamber is initially present with each respiration. Fluctuations cease if the chest tube is clogged or a kink develops in the tubing. If the suction unit malfunctions, the suction control chamber, not the water-seal chamber, will be affected.

The nurse is caring for a patient with pleurisy. What symptoms does the nurse recognize are significant for this patient's diagnosis?

Stabbing pain during respiratory movement Explanation: When the inflamed pleural membranes rub together during respiration (intensified on inspiration), the result is severe, sharp, knifelike pain. The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Pleuritic pain is limited in distribution rather than diffuse; it usually occurs only on one side. The pain may become minimal or absent when the breath is held. It may be localized or radiate to the shoulder or abdomen. Later, as pleural fluid develops, the pain decreases.

The most diagnostic clinical symptom of pleurisy is:

Stabbing pain during respiratory movements. Explanation: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement: taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Pleuritic pain is limited in distribution rather than diffuse; it usually occurs only on one side. The pain may become minimal or absent when the breath is held; leading to rapid shallow breathing. It may be localized or radiate to the shoulder or abdomen. Later, as pleural fluid accumulates, the pain decreases.

A mediastinal shift occurs in which type of chest disorder?

Tension pneumothorax Explanation: A tension pneumothorax causes the lung to collapse and the heart, the great vessels, and the trachea to shift toward the unaffected side of the chest (mediastinal shift). A traumatic pneumothorax occurs when air escapes from a laceration in the lung itself and enters the pleural space or enters the pleural space through a wound in the chest wall. A simple pneumothorax most commonly occurs as air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac.

The patient with a chest tube is being transported to X-ray. Which complication may occur if the chest tube is clamped during transportation?

Tension pneumothorax Explanation: Clamping can result in a tension pneumothorax. The other options would not occur if the chest tube was clamped during transportation.

A client has been hospitalized for treatment of acute bacterial pneumonia. Which outcome indicates an improvement in the client's condition?

The client has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 90 mm Hg or higher. Explanation: As the acute phase of bacterial pneumonia subsides, normal lung function returns and the PaO2typically rises, reaching 85 to 100 mm Hg. A PaCO2 of 65 mm Hg or higher is above normal and indicates CO2 retention — common during the acute phase of pneumonia. Restlessness and confusion indicate hypoxia, not an improvement in the client's condition. Bronchial breath sounds over the affected area occur during the acute phase of pneumonia; later, the affected area should be clear on auscultation.

After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician tells family members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against tuberculosis. The client's daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be taken. What is the usual duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy?

6 to 12 months Explanation: Prophylactic isoniazid therapy must continue for 6 to 12 months at a daily dosage of 300 mg. Taking the drug for less than 6 months may not provide adequate protection against tuberculosis.

A patient has a Mantoux skin test prior to being placed on an immunosuppressant for the treatment of Crohn's disease. What results would the nurse determine is not significant for holding the medication?

0 to 4 mm Explanation: The Mantoux method is used to determine whether a person has been infected with the TB bacillus and is used widely in screening for latent M. tuberculosis infection. The size of the induration determines the significance of the reaction. A reaction of 0 to 4 mm is considered not significant. A reaction of 5 mm or greater may be significant in people who are considered to be at risk.

The nurse is auscultating the patient's lung sounds to determine the presence of pulmonary edema. What adventitious lung sounds are significant for pulmonary edema?

Crackles in the lung bases Explanation: When clinically significant atelectasis develops, it is generally characterized by increased work of breathing and hypoxemia. Decreased breath sounds and crackles are heard over the affected area.

Which technique does the nurse suggest to a client with pleurisy while teaching about splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side. Explanation: The nurse teaches the client to splint the chest wall by turning onto the affected side. The nurse also instructs the client to take analgesic medications as prescribed and to use heat or cold applications to manage pain with inspiration. The client can also splint the chest wall with a pillow when coughing.


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