Chapter 24 Burns
The patient in the emergent phase of a burn injury is being treated for severe pain. What medication should the nurse anticipate administering to the patient? Subcutaneous (SQ) tetanus toxoid Intravenous (IV) morphine sulfate Intramuscular (IM) hydromorphone Oral oxycodone and acetaminophen
Intravenous (IV) morphine sulfate IV medications are used for burn injuries in the emergent phase to rapidly deliver relief and prevent unpredictable absorption as would occur with the IM route. The PO route is not used because GI function is slowed or impaired because of shock or paralytic ileus, although oxycodone and acetaminophen may be used later in the patient's recovery. Tetanus toxoid may be administered but not for pain.
The charge nurse is assigning semiprivate rooms for new admissions. Which patient could safely be assigned as a roommate for a patient who has acute rejection of an organ transplant? a. A patient who has viral pneumonia b. A patient with second-degree burns c. A patient who is recovering from an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting d. A patient with graft-versus-host disease after a recent bone marrow transplant
A patient who is recovering from an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting There is no increased exposure to infection from a patient who had an anaphylactic reaction. Treatment for a patient with acute rejection includes administration of additional immunosuppressants and the patient should not be exposed to increased risk for infection as would occur from patients with viral pneumonia, graft-versus-host disease, and burns.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute rejection of a kidney transplant. Which intervention will the nurse prepare for this patient? a. Testing for human leukocyte antigen (HLA) match b. Administration of immunosuppressant medications c. Insertion of an arteriovenous graft for hemodialysis d. Placement of the patient on the transplant waiting list
Administration of immunosuppressant medications Acute rejection is treated with the administration of additional immunosuppressant drugs such as corticosteroids. Because acute rejection is potentially reversible, there is no indication that the patient will require another transplant or hemodialysis. There is no indication for repeat HLA testing.
The patient received a cultured epithelial autograft (CEA) to the entire left leg. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this patient? Sit or lie in the position of comfort. Wear a pressure garment for 8 hours each day. Refer the patient to a counselor for psychosocial support. Use the sun to increase the skin color on the healed areas.
Refer the patient to a counselor for psychosocial support. In the rehabilitation phase, the patient will work toward resuming a functional role in society, but frequently there are body image concerns and grieving for the loss of the way the patient looked and functioned before the burn, so continued counseling helps the patient in this phase as well. Putting the leg in the position of comfort is more likely to lead to contractures than to help the patient. If a pressure garment is prescribed, it is used for 24 hours per day for as long as 12 to 18 months. Sunlight should be avoided to prevent injury, and sunscreen should always be worn when the patient is outside.
The nurse teaches a patient about drug therapy after a kidney transplant. Which statement by the patient would indicate a need for further instructions? a. "I need to be monitored closely for development of malignant tumors." b. "After a couple of years I will be able to stop taking the cyclosporine." c. "If I develop acute rejection episode, I will need additional types of drugs." d. "The drugs are combined to inhibit different ways the kidney can be rejected."
"After a couple of years I will be able to stop taking the cyclosporine. Cyclosporine, a calcineurin inhibitor, will need to be continued for life. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no further teaching is necessary about those topics.
When caring for a patient with an electrical burn injury, which order from the health care provider should the nurse question? Mannitol 75 g IV Urine for myoglobulin Lactated Ringer's solution at 25 mL/hr Sodium bicarbonate 24 mEq every 4 hours
Lactated Ringer's solution at 25 mL/hr Electrical injury puts the patient at risk for myoglobinuria, which can lead to acute renal tubular necrosis (ATN). Treatment consists of infusing lactated Ringer's solution at 2 to 4 mL/kg/%TBSA, a rate sufficient to maintain urinary output at 75 to 100 mL/hr. Mannitol can also be used to maintain urine output. Sodium bicarbonate may be given to alkalinize the urine. The urine would also be monitored for the presence of myoglobin. An infusion rate of 25 mL/hr is not sufficient to maintain adequate urine output in prevention and treatment of ATN.
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is in the acute phase of burn care with electrical burns on the left side of the body and a serum glucose level of 485 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention for this patient? Replace the blood lost. Maintain a neutral pH. Maintain fluid balance. Replace serum potassium.
Maintain fluid balance. This patient is most likely experiencing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). HHS dehydrates a patient rapidly. Thus HHS combined with the massive fluid losses of a burn tremendously increase this patient's risk for hypovolemic shock and serious hypotension. This is clearly the nurse's priority because the nurse must keep up with the patient's fluid requirements to prevent circulatory collapse caused by low intravascular volume. There is no mention of blood loss. Fluid resuscitation will help to correct the pH and serum potassium abnormalities.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with first- and second-degree burns after being involved in a house fire. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to the presence of an inhalation injury (select all that apply.)? Singed nasal hair Generalized pallor Painful swallowing Burns on the upper extremities History of being involved in a large fire
Singed nasal hair Generalized pallor Painful swallowing History of being involved in a large fire Reliable clues to the occurrence of inhalation injury is the presence of facial burns, singed nasal hair, hoarseness, painful swallowing, darkened oral and nasal membranes, carbonaceous sputum, history of being burned in an enclosed space, altered mental status, and "cherry red" skin color
A patient with a burn inhalation injury is receiving albuterol for the treatment of bronchospasm. What is the most important adverse effect of this medication for the nurse to monitor? Tachycardia Restlessness Hypokalemia Gastrointestinal (GI) distress
Tachycardia Albuterol stimulates β-adrenergic receptors in the lungs to cause bronchodilation. However, it is a noncardioselective agent so it also stimulates the β-receptors in the heart to increase the heart rate. Restlessness and GI upset may occur but will decrease with use. Hypokalemia does not occur with albuterol.
The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a deep partial-thickness burn to the anterior chest area during a workplace accident 6 hours ago. Which assessment findings would the nurse identify as congruent with this type of burn? Skin is hard with a dry, waxy white appearance. Skin is shiny and red with clear, fluid-filled blisters. Skin is red and blanches when slight pressure is applied. Skin is leathery with visible muscles, tendons, and bones.
kin is shiny and red with clear, fluid-filled blisters. Deep partial-thickness burns have fluid-filled vesicles that are red and shiny. They may appear wet (if vesicles have ruptured), and mild to moderate edema may be present. Superficial partial-thickness burns are red and blanch with pressure vesicles that appear 24 hours after the burn injury. Full-thickness burns are dry, waxy white, leathery, or hard, and there may be involvement of muscles, tendons, and bones.
The nurse is caring for a 71-kg patient during the first 12 hours after a thermal burn injury. Which outcomes indicate adequate fluid resuscitation (select all that apply.)? Urine output is 46 mL/hr. Heart rate is 94 beats/min. Urine specific gravity is 1.040. Mean arterial pressure is 54 mm Hg. Systolic blood pressure is 88 mm Hg.
Urine output is 46 mL/hr. Heart rate is 94 beats/min Assessment of the adequacy of fluid resuscitation is best made using either urine output or cardiac factors. Urine output should be 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr (or 75 to 100 mL/hr for an electrical burn patient with evidence of hemoglobinuria/myoglobinuria). Cardiac factors include a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg, systolic BP greater than 90 mm Hg, heart rate less than 120 beats/min. Normal range for urine specific gravity is 1.003 to 1.030.
A patient is admitted to the burn unit with second- and third-degree burns covering the face, entire right upper extremity, and right anterior trunk area. Using the rule of nines, what should the nurse calculate the extent of these burns as being? 18% 22.5% 27% 36%
22.5% Using the rule of nines, for these second- and third-degree burns, the face encompasses 4.5% of the body area, the entire right arm encompasses 9% of the body area, and the entire anterior trunk encompasses 18% of the body area. Because the patient has burns on only the right side of the anterior trunk, the nurse would assess that burn as encompassing half of the 18%, or 9%. Therefore, adding the three areas together (4.5 + 9 + 9), the nurse would correctly calculate the extent of this patient's burns to cover approximately 22.5% of the total body surface area.
Which patient should the nurse prepare to transfer to a regional burn center? A 25-yr-old pregnant patient with a carboxyhemoglobin level of 1.5% A 39-yr-old patient with a partial-thickness burn to the right upper arm A 53-yr-old patient with a chemical burn to the anterior chest and neck A 42-yr-old patient who is scheduled for skin grafting of a burn wound
A 53-yr-old patient with a chemical burn to the anterior chest and neck The American Burn Association (ABA) has established referral criteria to determine which burn injuries should be treated in burn centers where specialized facilities and personnel are available to handle this type of trauma. Patients with chemical burns should be referred to a burn center. A normal serum carboxyhemoglobin level for nonsmokers is 0% to 1.5% and for smokers is 4% to 9%. Skin grafting for burn wound management is not a criterion for a referral to a burn center. Partial-thickness burns greater than 10% total body surface area (TBSA) should be referred to a burn center. A burn to the right upper arm is 4% TBSA.
When teaching the patient in the rehabilitation phase of a severe burn about the use of range-of-motion (ROM), what explanations should the nurse give to the patient (select all that apply.)? The exercises are the only way to prevent contractures. Active and passive ROM maintain function of body parts. ROM will show the patient that movement is still possible. Movement facilitates mobilization of leaked exudates back into the vascular bed. Active and passive ROM can only be done while the dressings are being changed.
Active and passive ROM maintain function of body parts. ROM will show the patient that movement is still possible. Active and passive ROM maintains function of body parts and reassures the patient that movement is still possible are the explanations that should be used. Contractures are prevented with ROM as well as splints. Movement facilitates mobilization of fluid in interstitial fluid back into the vascular bed. Although it is good to collaborate with physical therapy to perform ROM during dressing changes because the patient has already taken analgesics, ROM can and should be done throughout the day.
The nurse is providing emergent care for a patient with a possible inhalation injury sustained in a house fire. The patient is anxious and disoriented, and the skin is a cherry red color. What is the priority action by the nurse? Administer 100% humidified oxygen. Teach the patient deep breathing exercises. Encourage the patient to express his feelings. Assist the patient to a high Fowler's position.
Administer 100% humidified oxygen. Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning may occur in house fires. CO displaces oxygen on the hemoglobin molecule resulting in hypoxia. High levels of CO in the blood result in a skin color that is described as cherry red. Hypoxia may cause anxious behaviors and altered mental status. Emergency treatment for inhalation injury and CO poisoning includes the immediate administration of 100% humidified oxygen. The other interventions are appropriate for inhalation injury but are not as urgent as oxygen administration.
In caring for a patient with burns to the back, the nurse knows that the patient is moving out of the emergent phase of burn injury when what is observed? Serum sodium and potassium increase. Serum sodium and potassium decrease. Edema and arterial blood gases improve. Diuresis occurs and hematocrit decreases.
Diuresis occurs and hematocrit decreases In the emergent phase, the immediate, life-threatening problems from the burn, hypovolemic shock and edema, are treated and resolved. Toward the end of the emergent phase, fluid loss and edema formation end. Interstitial fluid returns to the vascular space and diuresis occurs. Urinary output is the most commonly used parameter to assess the adequacy of fluid resuscitation. The hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and thrombosis of burned capillaries also decreases circulating RBCs. When the fluid balance has been restored, dilution causes the hematocrit levels to drop. Initially sodium moves to the interstitial spaces and remains there until edema formation ceases, so sodium levels increase at the end of the emergent phase as the sodium moves back to the vasculature. Initially potassium level increases as it is released from injured cells and hemolyzed RBCs so potassium levels decrease at the end of the emergent phase when fluid levels normalize.
The nurse is planning care for a patient with partial- and full-thickness skin destruction related to burn injury of the lower extremities. Which interventions will the nurse include in this patient's care (select all that apply.)? Escharotomy Administration of diuretics IV and oral pain medications Daily cleansing and debridement Application of topical antimicrobial agent
Escharotomy IV and oral pain medications Daily cleansing and debridement Application of topical antimicrobial agent An escharotomy (a scalpel incision through full-thickness eschar) is frequently required to restore circulation to compromised extremities. Daily cleansing and debridement as well as application of an antimicrobial ointment are expected interventions used to minimize infection and enhance wound healing. Pain control is essential in the care of a patient with a burn injury. With full-thickness burns, myoglobin and hemoglobin released into the bloodstream can occlude renal tubules. Adequate fluid replacement is used to prevent this occlusion.
The nurse is caring for a patient with partial- and full-thickness burns to 65% of the body. When planning nutritional interventions for this patient, what dietary choices should the nurse implement? Full liquids only Whatever the patient requests High-protein and low-sodium foods High-calorie and high-protein foods
High-calorie and high-protein foods hypermetabolic state occurs proportional to the size of the burn area. Massive catabolism can occur and is characterized by protein breakdown and increased gluconeogenesis. Caloric needs are often in the 5000-kcal range. Failure to supply adequate calories and protein leads to malnutrition and delayed healing.
An older adult patient is moving into an independent living facility. What teaching will prevent this patient from being accidently burned in the new home? Cook for her. Stop her from smoking. Install tap water anti-scald devices. Be sure she uses an open space heater.
Install tap water anti-scald devices. Installing tap water anti-scald devices will help prevent accidental scald burns that more easily occur in older people as their skin becomes drier and the dermis thinner. Cooking for her may be needed at times of illness or in the future, but she is moving to an independent living facility, so at this time she should not need this assistance. Stopping her from smoking may be helpful to prevent burns but may not be possible without the requirement by the facility. Using an open space heater would increase her risk of being burned and would not be encouraged.
The nurse is planning care for the patient in the acute phase of a burn injury. What nursing action is important for the nurse to perform after the progression from the acute to the emergent phase? Begin IV fluid replacement. Monitor for signs of complications. Assess and manage pain and anxiety. Discuss possible reconstructive surgery.
Monitor for signs of complications. Monitoring for complications (e.g., wound infection, pneumonia, contractures) is needed in the acute phase. Fluid replacement occurs in the emergent phase. Assessing and managing pain and anxiety occurs in the emergent and the acute phases. Discussing possible reconstructive surgeries is done in the rehabilitation phase.
The nurse is planning to change the dressing that covers a deep partial-thickness burn of the right lower leg. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer to the patient 30 minutes before the scheduled dressing change? Morphine Sertraline Zolpidem Enoxaparin
Morphine Deep partial-thickness burns result in severe pain related to nerve injury. The nurse should plan to administer analgesics before the dressing change to promote patient comfort. Morphine is a common opioid used for pain control. Sedative/hypnotics and antidepressant agents also can be given with analgesics to control the anxiety, insomnia, and depression that patients may experience. Zolpidem promotes sleep. Sertraline is an antidepressant. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant.
A patient arrives in the emergency department after sustaining a full-thickness thermal burn to both arms while putting lighter fluid on a grill. What manifestations should the nurse expect? Severe pain, blisters, and blanching with pressure Pain, minimal edema, and blanching with pressure Redness, evidence of inhalation injury, and charred skin No pain, waxy white skin, and no blanching with pressure
No pain, waxy white skin, and no blanching with pressure With full-thickness burns, the nerves and vasculature in the dermis are destroyed so there is no pain, the tissue is dry and waxy-looking or may be charred, and there is no blanching with pressure. Severe pain, blisters, and blanching occur with partial-thickness (deep, second-degree) burns. Pain, minimal edema, blanching, and redness occur with partial-thickness (superficial, first-degree) burns.
A nurse is caring for a patient with second- and third-degree burns to 50% of the body. The nurse prepares fluid resuscitation based on knowledge of the Parkland (Baxter) formula that includes which recommendation? The total 24-hour fluid requirement should be administered in the first 8 hours. One half of the total 24-hour fluid requirement should be administered in the first 4 hours. One half of the total 24-hour fluid requirement should be administered in the first 8 hours. One third of the total 24-hour fluid requirement should be administered in the first 4 hours.
One half of the total 24-hour fluid requirement should be administered in the first 8 hours Fluid resuscitation with the Parkland (Baxter) formula recommends that one half of the total fluid requirement should be administered in the first 8 hours, one quarter of total fluid requirement should be administered in the second 8 hours, and one quarter of total fluid requirement should be administered in the third 8 hours.
The nurse is caring for a patient with superficial partial-thickness burns of the face sustained within the last 12 hours. Upon assessment the nurse would expect to find which manifestation? Blisters Reddening of the skin Destruction of all skin layers Damage to sebaceous glands
Reddening of the skin The clinical appearance of superficial partial-thickness burns includes erythema, blanching with pressure, and pain and minimal swelling with no vesicles or blistering during the first 24 hours.
A nurse has obtained donor tissue typing information about a patient who is waiting for a kidney transplant. Which results should be reported to the transplant surgeon? a. Patient is Rh positive and donor is Rh negative b. Six antigen matches are present in HLA typing c. Results of patient-donor crossmatching are positive d. Panel of reactive antibodies (PRA) percentage is low
Results of patient-donor crossmatching are positive Positive crossmatching is an absolute contraindication to kidney transplantation because a hyperacute rejection will occur after the transplant. The other information indicates that the tissue match between the patient and potential donor is acceptable.
Ten days after receiving a bone marrow transplant, a patient develops a skin rash. What would the nurse suspect is the cause of the rash? a. The donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. b. The patient needs treatment to prevent hyperacute rejection. c. The patient's antibodies are rejecting the donor bone marrow. d. The patient is experiencing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
The donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. The patient's history and symptoms indicate that the patient is experiencing graft-versus-host disease, in which the donated T cells attack the patient's tissues. The history and symptoms are not consistent with rejection or delayed hypersensitivity.
An older adult patient has a prescription for cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which information in the patient's health history has implications for planning patient teaching about the medication at this time? a. The patient restricts salt to 2 grams per day. b. The patient eats green leafy vegetables daily. c. The patient drinks grapefruit juice every day. d. The patient drinks 3 to 4 quarts of fluid each day.
The patient drinks grapefruit juice every day. Grapefruit juice can increase the toxicity of cyclosporine. The patient should be taught to avoid grapefruit juice. Normal fluid and sodium intake or eating green leafy vegetables will not affect cyclosporine levels or renal function.