Chapter 28 Assessment of Hematologic Function and Treatment Modalities

A nurse cares for a client with megaloblastic anemia who had a total gastrectomy three years ago. What statement will the nurse include in the client's teaching regarding the condition? - "The condition causes abnormally small red blood cells." - "The condition causes abnormally rigid red blood cells." - "The condition is likely caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency." - "The condition is likely caused by a folate deficiency."

"The condition is likely caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency." Rationale: Vitamin B12 combines with intrinsic factor produced in the stomach. The vitamin B12 -intrinsic factor complex is absorbed in the distal ileum. Clients who have had a partial or total gastrectomy may have limited amounts of intrinsic factor, and the absorption of vitamin B12 may be diminished. Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by a folate deficiency; however, the client's history of gastrectomy indicates the likely cause is a vitamin B12 deficiency. Megaloblastic anemia causes large erythrocytes (RBCs), not small or rigid.

A client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells develops hives and generalized itching. Which actions will the nurse take to help this client? Select all that apply. - Administer diphenhydramine as prescribed - Slow the rate of the transfusion - Apply oxygen via a face mask - Stop the transfusion - Notify the primary health care provider

- Administer diphenhydramine as prescribed - Stop the transfusion - Notify the primary health care provider

A client seeks medical attention for the spontaneous development of bruises over the arms and legs. Which laboratory tests will the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? Select all that apply. - Bilirubin - Complete blood count - Activated partial prothrombin time - International normalized ratio - Blood urea nitrogen

- Complete blood count - Activated partial prothrombin time - International normalized ratio

Which client is not a candidate to be a blood donor according to the American Red Cross? - 26-year-old female with hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL - 18-year-old male weighing 52 kg - 50-year-old female with pulse 95 beats/minute - 86-year-old male with blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg

26-year-old female with hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL Rationale: Clients must meet a number of criteria to be eligible as blood donors, including the following: body weight at least 50 kg; pulse rate regular between 50 and 100 bpm; systolic BP 90-100 to 180 mm Hg and diastolic 50 to 100 mm Hg; hemoglobin level at least 12.5 g/dL. There is no upper age limit to donation.

A client has been diagnosed with a lymphoid stem cell defect. This client has the potential for a problem involving which of the following? A. Plasma cells B. Neutrophils C. Red blood cells D. Platelets

A. Plasma cells Rationale: A defect in a myeloid stem cell can cause problems with erythrocyte, leukocyte, and platelet production. In contrast, a defect in the lymphoid stem cell can cause problems with T or B lymphocytes, plasma cells (a more differentiated form of B lymphocyte), or natural killer (NK) cells.

A client with Hodgkin disease had a bone marrow biopsy yesterday and reports aching at the biopsy site, rated a 5 (on a 1-10 scale). After assessing the biopsy site, which nursing intervention is most appropriate? Reposition the client to a high Fowler position and continue to monitor the pain - Administer acetaminophen 500 mg po, as ordered - Administer aspirin (ASA) 325 mg po, as ordered - Notify the physician

Administer acetaminophen 500 mg po, as ordered Rationale: After a marrow sample is obtained, pressure is applied to the site for several minutes. The site is then covered with a sterile dressing. Most clients have no discomfort after a bone marrow biopsy, but the site of a biopsy may ache for 1 or 2 days. Warm tub baths and a mild analgesic agent (e.g., acetaminophen) may be useful. Aspirin-containing analgesic agents should be avoided it the immediate post-procedure period because they can aggravate or potentiate bleeding.

The nurse is obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having a hematological condition. The nurse notes the client has a history of alcohol abuse. Which clinical presentation is related to alcohol consumption? - Anemia - Thrombocytopenia - Myelodysplastic syndrome - Neutropenia

Anemia Rationale: Individuals with a history of alcohol consumption may have anemia due to nutritional deficiencies. Myelodysplastic syndrome, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia are not common findings in clients who consume or abuse alcohol.

A client's health history reveals daily consumption of two to three bottles of wine. The nurse would consider increased risk for which hematologic disorder when planning assessments and interventions for this client? A. Leukemia B. Anemia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Lymphoma

B. Anemia Rationale: Heavy alcohol use is associated with numerous health problems, including anemia. Leukemia and lymphoma are not associated with alcohol use; Red blood cell levels are typically affected more than platelet levels (i.e., thrombocytopenia).

A client on the medical unit is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Difficult intravenous (IV) access has necessitated a slow infusion rate, and the nurse notes that the infusion began 4 hours ago. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate? A. Apply an icepack to the blood that remains to be infused. B. Discontinue the remainder of the PRBC transfusion, and inform the health care provider. C. Disconnect the bag of PRBCs, cool for 30 minutes, and then administer. D. Administer the remaining PRBCs by the IV direct (IV push) route.

B. Discontinue the remainder of the PRBC transfusion, and inform the health care provider. Rationale: Because of the risk of increased bacterial proliferation in the PRBCs and subsequent infection in the client, a PRBC transfusion should not exceed 4 hours. Remaining blood should not be transfused, even if it is cooled. Blood is not administered by the IV direct route.

A client undergoing a hip replacement has autologous blood on standby if a transfusion is needed. What is the primary advantage of autologous transfusions? A. Safe transfusion for clients with a history of transfusion reactions B. Prevention of viral infections from another person's blood C. Avoidance of complications in clients with alloantibodies D. Prevention of alloimmunization

B. Prevention of viral infections from another person's blood Rationale: The primary benefit of autologous transfusion is that it prevents viral infections from other people's blood. The transfusion of one's own blood is known as autologous transfusion. In addition to the benefits mentioned above, alloimmunization is prevented in this manner, as are unwanted reactions such as allergic, febrile, and graft versus host. When a transfusion is planned for a surgical procedure, autologous blood collection strategies are devised based on the expected blood losses.

Which of the following circumstances would most clearly warrant autologous blood donation? A. The client has type-O blood. B. The client has sickle cell disease or a thalassemia. C. The client has elective surgery pending. D. The client has hepatitis

C. The client has elective surgery pending. Rationale: Autologous blood donation is useful for many elective surgeries where the potential need for transfusion is high. Type-O blood, hepatitis, sickle cell disease, and thalassemia are not clear indications for autologous donation.

A client with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) receives routine blood transfusions. Which treatment will the nurse expect to be prescribed to prevent the development of iron overload? Epoetin alpha - Romiplostim - Eltrombopag - Chelation therapy

Chelation therapy Rationale: Iron overload is a problem for clients with MDS, especially in those who routinely receive PRBC transfusions (transfusion dependent). Surplus iron is deposited in cells within the reticuloendothelial system, and later in parenchymal organs. To prevent or reverse the complications of iron overload, iron chelation therapy is commonly implemented. Romiplostim and eltrombopag are used to stimulate the proliferation and differentiation of megakaryocytes into platelets within the bone marrow. Epoetin alpha may be used to improve anemia and decrease the need for blood transfusions.

A nursing instructor in a BSN program is preparing for a lecture on disorders of the hematopoietic system. Included in the lecture are conditions caused by reduced levels or absence of blood-clotting proteins. Which of the following is the instructor most likely referring to? - Pancytopenia - Sickle cell disease - Aplastic anemia - Coagulopathy

Coagulopathy

The nurse educating a client with anemia is describing the process of red blood cell production. When the client's kidneys sense a low level of oxygen in circulating blood, which physiologic response is initiated? A. Increased stem cell synthesis B. Decreased respiratory rate C. Arterial vasoconstriction D. Increased levels of erythropoietin

D. Increased levels of erythropoietin Rationale: If the kidney detects low levels of oxygen, as occurs when fewer red blood cells are available to bind oxygen (i.e., anemia), erythropoietin levels increase. The body does not compensate with vasoconstriction, decreased respiration, or increased stem cell activity.

A client lives with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease and receives frequent blood transfusions. The nurse should recognize the client's consequent risk of what complication of treatment? A. Hypovolemia B. Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Thrombocytopenia D. Iron overload

D. Iron overload Rationale: Clients with chronic transfusion requirements can quickly acquire more iron than they can use, leading to iron overload. These individuals are not at risk for hypovolemia and there is no consequent risk for low platelet or vitamin B12 levels.

A client's wound has begun to heal and the blood clot which formed is no longer necessary. When a blood clot is no longer needed, the fibrinogen and fibrin will be digested by which of the following? A. Plasminogen B. Thrombin C. Prothrombin D. Plasmin

D. Plasmin Rationale: The substance plasminogen is required to lyse (break down) the fibrin. Plasminogen, which is present in all body fluids, circulates with fibrinogen and is therefore incorporated into the fibrin clot as it forms. When the clot is no longer needed (e.g., after an injured blood vessel has healed), the plasminogen is activated to form plasmin. Plasmin digests the fibrinogen and fibrin. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin, which in turn catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin so a clot can form.

A nurse is caring for a client who is undergoing preliminary testing for a hematologic disorder. Which sign or symptom of a hematologic disorder is most common? A. Sudden change in level of consciousness (LOC) B. Recurrent infections C. Anaphylaxis D. Severe fatigue

D. Severe fatigue Rationale: The most common indicator of hematologic disease is extreme fatigue. This is more common than changes in LOC, infections, or anaphylaxis.

A client donated two units of blood to be used for transfusion during spinal fusion surgery. The client received one unit of autologous blood during the procedure but the second unit is not needed during the procedure. The nurse knows which action will come after the procedure is completed? - Provide it to the client before discharge. - Release the additional unit for use to the general population. - Discard the additional unit. - Use the unit for platelets and albumin.

Discard the additional unit. Rationale: In autologous donation, the client's own blood is collected for a future transfusion, particularly for an elective surgery where the potential for transfusion is high, such as an orthopedic procedure. If the blood is not used, it is discarded. The blood is not used for its components. The client will not be given the unit of blood unless it is required. The additional unit will not be released to the general population for use.

A client receiving a blood transfusion reports shortness of breath, appears anxious, and has a pulse of 125 beats/minute. What is the best action for the nurse to take after stopping the transfusion and awaiting further instruction from the health care provider? - Place the client in a recumbent position with legs elevated. - Ensure there is an oxygen delivery device at the bedside. - Administer prescribed PRN anti-anxiety agent. - Remove the intravenous line.

Ensure there is an oxygen delivery device at the bedside. Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of circulatory overload. After stopping the transfusion and notifying the healthcare provider, the nurse should place the client in a more upright position with the legs dependent to decrease workload on the heart. The IV line is kept patent in case emergency medications are needed. Oxygen and morphine may be needed to treat severe dyspnea. Administering an anti-anxiety agent is not a priority action over ensuring oxygen is available.

A patient is undergoing platelet pheresis at the outpatient clinic. What does the nurse know is the most likely clinical disorder the patient is being treated for? - Renal transplantation - Extreme leukocytosis - Essential thrombocythemia - Sickle cell anemia

Essential thrombocythemia Rationale: Platelet pheresis is used to remove platelets from the blood in patients with extreme thrombocytosis or essential thrombocythemia (temporary measure)or in a single-donor platelet transfusion.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a unit of whole blood removed every 6 weeks as treatment for polycythemia vera. Which laboratory test will the nurse monitor to determine if the procedure is adversely affecting the client? - Potassium - White blood cell count - Iron - Calcium

Iron Rationale: Therapeutic phlebotomy is the removal of a certain amount of blood under controlled conditions. A client with an elevated hematocrit from polycythemia vera can usually be managed by periodically removing 1 unit (about 500 mL) of whole blood. Over time, this process can produce iron deficiency, Therapeutic phlebotomy does not affect the calcium or potassium levels or the white blood cell count.

A client reports feeling faint after donating blood. What is the nurse's best action? - Place the client in Trendelenburg position. - Assist the client into high-Fowler's position. - Ambulate client with assistance. - Keep client in recumbent position to rest.

Keep client in recumbent position to rest. Rationale: After blood donation, the donor should remain recumbent until he or she feels able to sit up. Donors who experience weakness or faintness should rest for a longer period. High-Fowler's position would not promote blood flow to the brain, and could cause the client to feel light-headed or faint. Ambulating a client who feels faint is not safe due to the high risk of falling. Trendelenburg position is not recommended after blood donation.

The nurse is preparing a patient for a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy from the site of the posterior superior iliac crest. What position will the nurse place the patient in? - Lateral position with one leg flexed - Supine with head of the bed elevated 30 degrees - Jackknife position - Lithotomy position

Lateral position with one leg flexed Rationale: Bone marrow aspiration procedure. The posterior superior iliac crest is the preferred site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy because no vital organs or vessels are nearby. The patient is placed either in the lateral position with one leg flexed or in the prone position.

Albumin is important for the maintenance of fluid balance within the vascular system. Albumin is produced by which of the following? - Liver - Kidney - Pancreas - Large intestine

Liver

Which nursing intervention should be incorporated into the plan of care for a client with impaired liver function and a low albumin concentration? - Apply prolonged pressure to needle sites or other sources of external bleeding - Implement neutropenic precautions - Monitor temperature at least once per shift - Monitor for edema at least once per shift

Monitor for edema at least once per shift Rationale: Albumin in is particularly important for the maintenance of fluid balance within the vascular system. Capillary walls are impermeable to albumin, so its presence in the plasma creates an osmotic force that keeps fluid within the vascular space. Clients with impaired hepatic function may have low concentrations of albumin, with a resultant decrease in osmotic pressure and the development of edema.

A client involved in a motor vehicle accident arrives at the emergency department unconscious and severely hypotensive. The nurse suspects the client has several fractures in the pelvis and legs. Which parenteral fluid is the best choice for the client's current condition? - Packed red blood cells (RBCs) - Normal saline solution - Lactated Ringer's solution - Fresh frozen plasma

Packed red blood cells (RBCs)

One hour after a transfusion of packed red blood cells (RBCs) is started, a client develops redness on the trunk and reports itching. The nurse stops the RBC infusion and administers diphenhydramine 25 mg po, as ordered. Thirty minutes later, the redness and itching are gone. What action should the nurse take next? - Resume the transfusion - Obtain blood and urine samples from the client - Send the blood back to the blood bank - Position the client in an upright position with the feet in a dependent position

Resume the transfusion Rationale: Some clients develop urticaria (hives) or generalized itching during a transfusion. The cause of these reactions is thought to be a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein within the blood component being transfused. Symptoms of an allergic reaction are urticaria, itching, and flushing. The reactions are usually mild and respond to antihistamines. If the symptoms resolve after administration of an antihistamine (e.g., diphenhydramine), the transfusion may be resumed.

The client is to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. What is the nurse's first action? - Check the label on the unit of blood with another registered nurse. - Ensure that the intravenous site has a 20-gauge or larger needle. - Observe for gas bubbles in the unit of packed red blood cells. - Verify that the client has signed a written consent form.

Verify that the client has signed a written consent form. Rationale: All the options are interventions the nurse will do to ensure the blood transfusion is safe. The question asks about the first action of the nurse. The first action would be verifying that the client has signed a written consent form. Then, the nurse would ensure the intravenous site has a 20-gauge or larger needle. The nurse would proceed to obtain the unit of blood, check the blood with another registered nurse, and observe for gas bubbles in the unit of blood.

The physician orders a transfusion with packed red blood cells (RBCs) for a client hospitalized with severe iron deficiency anemia. When blood is administered, what is the most important action the nurse can take to prevent a transfusion reaction? Assess the client 30 minutes after the start of the initial transfusion - Administer the blood as soon as it arrives - Verify the client's identity according to hospital policy - Premedicate the client with acetaminophen

Verify the client's identity according to hospital policy Rationale: Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are preventable. Improper identification is responsible for the majority of hemolytic transfusion reactions. Meticulous attention to detail in labeling blood samples and blood components and accurately identifying the recipient cannot be overemphasized. It is the nurse's responsibility to ensure that the correct blood component is transfused to the correct client. The nurse must assess the client during the initial start of the transfusion and frequently, if the nurses delays the assessment time for 30 minutes the client may have begun to experience acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, this puts the client's safety at risk.

A nurse is reviewing a client's morning laboratory results and notes a left shift in the band cells. Based on this result, the nurse can interpret that the client - may be developing an infection. - has thrombocytopenia. - has leukopenia. - may be developing anemia.

may be developing an infection. Rationale: Less mature granulocytes have a single-lobed, elongated nucleus and are called band cells. Ordinarily, band cells account for only a small percentage of circulating granulocytes, although their percentage can increase greatly under conditions in which neutrophil production increases, such as infection. An increased number of band cells is sometimes called a left shift or shift to the left. Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of white blood cells in circulation. Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

A patient will need a blood transfusion for the replacement of blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract. The patient states, "That stuff isn't safe!" What is the best response from the nurse? - "I agree that you should be concerned with the safety of the blood, but it is important that you have this transfusion." - "You will have to decide if refusing the blood transfusion is worth the risk to your health." - "The blood is carefully screened, so there is no possibility of you contracting any illness or disease from the blood." - "I understand your concern. The blood is carefully screened but is not completely risk free."

"I understand your concern. The blood is carefully screened but is not completely risk free."

A client's most recent blood work reveals low levels of albumin. This assessment finding should suggest the possibility of what nursing diagnosis? A. Risk for imbalanced fluid volume related to low albumin B. Risk for infection related to low albumin C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to low albumin D. Impaired skin integrity related to low albumin

A. Risk for imbalanced fluid volume related to low albumin Rationale: Albumin is particularly important for the maintenance of fluid balance within the vascular system. Deficiencies nearly always manifest as fluid imbalances. Tissue oxygenation and skin integrity are not normally affected. Low albumin does not constitute a risk for infection.

A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports a new onset of slight dyspnea. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals bilateral lung crackles and elevated BP. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client closely. B. Discontinue the transfusion and begin resuscitation. C. Pause the transfusion and administer a 250 mL bolus of normal saline. D. Discontinue the transfusion and administer a beta-blocker, as prescribed.

A. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client closely. Rationale: The client is showing early signs of hypervolemia; the nurse should slow the infusion rate and assess the client closely for any signs of exacerbation. At this stage, discontinuing the transfusion is not necessary. A bolus would worsen the client's fluid overload.

An older adult client is exhibiting many of the characteristic signs and symptoms of iron deficiency. In addition to a complete blood count, what diagnostic assessment should the nurse anticipate? A. Stool for occult blood B. Bone marrow biopsy C. Lumbar puncture D. Urinalysis

A. Stool for occult blood Rationale: Iron deficiency in the adult generally indicates blood loss (e.g., from bleeding in the GI tract or heavy menstrual flow). Bleeding in the GI tract can be preliminarily identified by testing stool for the presence of blood. A bone marrow biopsy would not be undertaken for the sole purpose of investigating an iron deficiency. Lumbar puncture and urinalysis would not be clinically relevant.

The nurse is providing care for a 73-year-old client who has a hematologic disorder. Which change in hematologic function is age-related? A. Bone marrow in older adults produces a smaller proportion of healthy, functional blood cells. B. Older adults are less able to increase blood cell production when demand suddenly increases. C. Stem cells in older adults eventually lose their ability to differentiate. D. The ratio of plasma to erythrocytes and lymphocytes increases with age.

B. Older adults are less able to increase blood cell production when demand suddenly increases. Rationale: Due to a variety of factors, when an older person needs more blood cells, the bone marrow may not be able to increase production of these cells adequately. Stem cell activity continues throughout the lifespan, although at a somewhat decreased rate. The proportion of functional cells does not greatly decrease, and the relative volume of plasma does not change significantly.

A client is scheduled for a splenectomy. During discharge education, which teaching point should the nurse prioritize? A. Adhering to prescribed immunosuppressant therapy B. Reporting any signs or symptoms of infection promptly C. Ensuring adequate folate, iron, and vitamin B12 intake D. Limiting activity postoperatively to prevent hemorrhage

B. Reporting any signs or symptoms of infection promptly Rationale: Clients face an increased risk for infection following splenectomy; therefore, long-term use of antibiotic therapy is indicated. After splenectomy, the client is instructed to seek prompt medical attention if even relatively minor symptoms of infection occur. Often, clients with high platelet counts have even higher counts after splenectomy, which can predispose them to serious thrombotic or hemorrhagic problems. However, this increase is usually transient and therefore often does not warrant additional treatment. Dietary modifications are not normally necessary, and immunosuppressants would be strongly contraindicated.

The nurse caring for a client receiving a transfusion notes that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has begun, the client is having difficulty breathing and reports severe chest tightness. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take? A. Notify the client's health care provider. B. Stop the transfusion immediately. C. Remove the client's IV access. D. Assess the client's chest sounds and vital signs.

B. Stop the transfusion immediately. Rationale: Vascular collapse, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, shock, fever, chills, and jugular vein distension are severe reactions. The nurse should discontinue the transfusion immediately, monitor the client's vital signs, and notify the health care provider. The blood container and tubing should be sent to the blood bank. A blood and urine specimen may be needed if a transfusion reaction or a bacterial infection is suspected. The client's IV access should not be removed.

A client is being treated in the ICU after a medical error resulted in an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. What was the etiology of this client's adverse reaction? A. Antibodies to donor leukocytes remained in the blood. B. The donor blood was incompatible with that of the client. C. The client had a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein in the blood. D. The blood was infused too quickly and overwhelmed the client's circulatory system.

B. The donor blood was incompatible with that of the client. Rationale: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when the donor blood is incompatible with that of the recipient. In the case of a febrile nonhemolytic reaction, antibodies to donor leukocytes remain in the unit of blood or blood component. An allergic reaction is a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein within the blood component. Hypervolemia does not cause an acute hemolytic reaction.

A client has been scheduled for a bone marrow aspiration and admits to the nurse being worried about the pain involved with the procedure. Which statement by the nurse when providing client education would be most accurate? A. "You'll be given painkillers before the test, so there won't likely be any pain." B. "You'll feel some pain when the needle enters your skin, but none during the aspiration." C. "Most people feel some brief, sharp pain when the marrow is aspirated." D. "I'll be there with you, and I'll try to help you keep your mind off the pain."

C. "Most people feel some brief, sharp pain when the marrow is aspirated." Rationale: Clients typically feel a pressure sensation as the needle is advanced into position. The actual aspiration always causes sharp, brief pain, resulting from the suction exerted as the marrow is aspirated into the syringe; the client should be warned about this. Stating, "I'll try to help you keep your mind off the pain" may increase the client's fears of pain, because this does not help the client know what to expect. Although a local anesthetic agent is administered to the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and periosteum of the bone, it is not possible to anesthetize the bone itself, and the client will most likely experience sharp, brief pain during the actual aspiration. Painkillers are not necessarily given before the test and would not likely block all pain from the aspiration.

A client's low hemoglobin level has necessitated transfusion of packed red blood cells. Prior to administration, which action should the nurse perform? A. Have the client identify the blood type in writing. B. Ensure that the client has granted verbal consent for transfusion. C. Assess the client's vital signs to establish baselines. D. Facilitate insertion of a central venous catheter.

C. Assess the client's vital signs to establish baselines. Rationale: Prior to a transfusion, the nurse must take the client's temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure to establish a baseline. Written consent is required, and the client's blood type is determined by type and cross match, not by the client's self-declaration. Peripheral venous access is sufficient for blood transfusion.

Post transfusion, the donor stands up immediately after the needle is withdrawn. The nurse should be alert for which vital sign change? - Decreased pulse. - Decreased respiratory rate. - Decreased blood pressure. - Elevated temperature.

Decreased blood pressure.

A client wants to donate blood before his or her abdominal surgery next week. What should be the nurse's first action? - Provide the client with a list of the nearest donation centers. - Tell the client that 2 units of blood will be needed. - Remind the client to take supplemental iron before donation. - Explain the time frame needed for autologous donation.

Explain the time frame needed for autologous donation. RationLe: Preoperative autologous donations are ideally collected 4 to 6 weeks before surgery. The nurse should first explain that time frame to this client. Surgery is scheduled in one week which means that autologous blood donation may not be an option for this client. A list of donation centers can be provided to the client; and even though iron is recommended and 2 units of blood may be suggested, the first action is to tell the client about the needed time frame for donation.

The nurse caring for a client with acute liver failure should expect which assessment finding? - Elevated blood pressure - Decreased pulse - Generalized edema - Elevated albumin level

Generalized edema Rationale: People with impaired hepatic function may have low concentrations of albumin, with a resultant decreased in osmotic pressure and the development of edema. Albumin is produced by the liver; the level would be decreased, not increased in liver failure. Albumin is important to maintain fluid balance in the vascular system. Its presence in plasma keeps fluid in the vascular space. With impaired hepatic function and low levels of albumin, the client is more likely to suffer hypotension and tachycardia as a result of hypovolemia.

A patient who has long-term packed RBC (PRBC) transfusions has developed symptoms of iron toxicity that affect liver function. What immediate treatment should the nurse anticipate preparing the patient for that can help prevent organ damage? - Therapeutic phlebotomy - Oxygen therapy - Iron chelation therapy - Anticoagulation therapy

Iron chelation therapy

A client in acute renal failure has been prescribed 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). The nurse explains to the client that the blood transfusion is most likely needed for which reason? - Hypervolemia - Lack of erythropoietin - Increases the effectiveness of dialysis - Preparation for likely nephrectomy

Lack of erythropoietin

The nurse learns that a client has a family history of a hematologic condition. Which assessment findings indicate to the nurse that the client needs additional assessment for the condition? Select all that apply. - Peripheral edema - Report of frequent nosebleeds - Scattered bruises - Diffuse mild abdominal pain - Report of fatigue

Scattered bruises* Report of fatigue* Diffuse mild abdominal pain* Report of frequent nosebleeds

A client suffers a leg wound which causes minor blood loss. As a result of bleeding, the process of primary hemostasis is activated. What will occur during this process? A. Severed blood vessels constrict. B. Thromboplastin is released. C. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin. D. Fibrin is lysed.

Severed blood vessels constrict. Rationale: Primary hemostasis involves the severed vessel constricting and platelets collecting at the injury site. Secondary hemostasis occurs when thromboplastin is released, prothrombin converts to thrombin, and fibrin is lysed.