Chapter 34: Management of Patients With Hematologic Neoplasms

The nurse is teaching the client about consolidation. What statement should be included in the teaching plan?

"Consolidation therapy is administered to reduce the chance of leukemia recurrence." Explanation: Consolidation therapy is administered to eliminate residual leukemia cells that are not clinically detectable and reduce the chance for recurrence. It is also termed post-remission therapy. It is not a side effect of chemotherapy, but the administration of chemotherapy.

What assessment finding best indicates that the client has recovered from induction therapy?

Neutrophil and platelet counts within normal limits Explanation: Recovery from induction therapy is indicated when the neutrophil and platelet counts have returned to normal and any infection has resolved. Stable vital signs, lack of edema, and absence of pain are not indicative of recovery from induction therapy.

A client with acute myeloid leukemia has a fever. What pathophysiological process does the nurse recognize is the cause of the client's fever?

Neutropenia Explanation: Fever and infection result from a decrease in neutrophils (neutropenia). Decreased red blood cells (anemia) cause weakness, fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, and pallor in AML. Pancytopenia, an overall decrease in all blood components, is not cause of fever in clients with AML. Decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia) causes petechiae and bruising in AML.

The nurse is teaching a client about the development of leukemia. What statement should be included in the teaching plan?

"Chronic leukemia develops slowly." Explanation: Chronic leukemia develops slowly, and the majority of leukocytes produced are mature. Acute leukemia develops quickly and the majority of leukocytes are undifferentiated cells.

A nurse prepares a client for a bone marrow biopsy who is suspected of having acute myeloid leukemia. What results from the bone marrow biopsy does the nurse expect?

Excess of immature leukocytes Explanation: The bone marrow biopsy of a client with acute myeloid leukemia will reveal an excess of immature leukocytes

A nurse cares for a client with multiple myeloma who reports severe back pain that worsens throughout the day. What additional clinical symptoms will the nurse associate with the pathophysiology of the client's disease?

Excessive thirst Explanation: Bone pain in multiple myeloma results from bone breakdown. As a result of the breakdown, ionized calcium is released into the blood causing hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include excessive thirst, dehydration, and constipation.

Which term refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response?

Lymphocyte Explanation: Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. Granulocytes include basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. A thrombocyte is a platelet.

The nurse cares for an older adult client with unprovoked back pain and increased serum protein. Which hematologic neoplasm does the nurse suspect the client has?

Multiple myeloma Explanation: Any older adult with unprovoked or unexplained back pain and increased protein in the serum should be assessed for multiple myeloma. Bone pain occurs because of bone breakdown and the malignant cells of multiple myeloma increase the serum protein levels.

The nurse is teaching a client with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) about therapy. What statement should be included in the plan of care?

"Intrathecal chemotherapy is used primarily as preventive therapy." Explanation: Intrathecal chemotherapy is a key part of the treatment plan to prevent invasion of the central nervous system. The therapy uses multiple drugs, with many side effects. The goal of therapy is remission.

Which patient assessed by the nurse is most likely to develop myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A 72-year-old patient with a history of cancer Explanation: Primary MDS tends to be a disease of people older than 70 years. Because the initial findings are so subtle, the disease may not be diagnosed until later in the illness trajectory, if at all. Thus, the actual incidence of MDS is not known

A client presents with peripheral neuropathy and hypoesthesia of the feet. What is the best nursing intervention?

Assess for signs of injury. Explanation: A client with hypoesthesia of the feet will have decreased sensation and numbness. The nurse should assess for signs of injury. If the client is injured, he or she will not be able to feel it; this could lead to the development of infection. Ambulation will not help the client, and elevating the legs may make the problem worse, as blood flow to the feet would be decreased. Keeping the feet cold will also decrease blood flow.

A client who is undergoing chemotherapy for AML reports pain in the low back. What is the nurse's first action?

Assess renal function. Explanation: Chemotherapy results in the destruction of cells and tumor lysis syndrome. Uric acid and phosphorus concentrations increase, and the client is susceptible to renal failure. The nurse should assess renal function if the client complains of low-back pain, as this could be indicative of kidney stone formation. Heating pads, pain medication, and referrals could be instituted once the cause of the pain is determined. The priority is further assessment to rule out important problems.

A client with AML has pale mucous membranes and bruises on the legs. What is the primary nursing intervention?

Assess the client's hemoglobin and platelets. Explanation: Clients with AML may develop pallor from anemia and a tendency to bleed because of a low platelet count. Assessing the client's hemoglobin and platelets will help to determine whether this is the cause of the symptoms. This would be the priority above assessing pulses, blood pressure, history, or skin.

A nurse cares for a client with early Hodgkin lymphoma. While assessing the client, the nurse will most likely find painless enlargement of which lymph node?

Cervical Explanation: Non painful swelling of the cervical lymph nodes is the earliest symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma.

The nurse cares for a client with acute myeloid leukemia with severe bone pain. What pathophysiological concept does the nurse understand is the reason for the client's pain?

Bone marrow expands. Explanation: In acute myeloid leukemia, bone pain is caused when the bone marrow expands.

The nurse suspects that a client has multiple myeloma based on the client's major presenting symptom and the analysis of laboratory results. What classic symptom for multiple myeloma does the nurse assess for

Bone pain in the back of the ribs Explanation: Although patients can have asymptomatic bone involvement, the most common presenting symptom of multiple myeloma is bone pain, usually in the back or ribs. Unlike arthritic pain, the bone pain associated with myeloma increases with movement and decreases with rest; clients may report that they have less pain on awakening but the pain intensity increases during the day.

A client diagnosed with polycythemia vera has come into the clinic because he has developed a nighttime cough, fatigue, and shortness of breath. What complication would you suspect in this client?

Congestive heart failure Explanation: The symptoms exhibited by this client are indicative of congestive heart failure. Complications include hypertension, congestive heart failure, stroke, tissue and organ infarction, and hemorrhage. Stroke would present with headache, aphasia, and/or numbness in extremities. Tissue infarction would involve extremity discoloration or an organ failure. Pulmonary embolism would be associated with chest pain.

A client with multiple myeloma is complaining about pain. What instructions will the nurse give the client to help to reduce pain during activity?

Do not lift more than 10 pounds. Explanation: The client with multiple myeloma needs education about activity instructions, such as lifting no more than 10 pounds and using proper body mechanics. Braces may be needed. The client should be active and would not be instructed to stay in bed or limit activity, as he or she would become very stiff. Limiting fluids would be contraindicated; the client needs to remain well hydrated.

A patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is having hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) with radiation therapy. In which complication do the donor's lymphocytes recognize the patient's body as foreign and set up reactions to attack the foreign host?

Graft-versus-host disease Explanation: Patients who undergo HSCT have a significant risk of infection, graft-versus host disease (in which the donor's lymphocytes [graft] recognize the patient's body as "foreign" and set up reactions to attack the foreign host), and other complications.

A client was admitted to the hospital with a pathologic pelvic fracture. The client informs the nurse that he has been having a strange pain in the pelvic area for a couple of weeks that was getting worse with activity prior to the fracture. What does the nurse suspect may be occurring based on these symptoms?

Multiple myeloma Explanation: The first symptom usually is vague pain in the pelvis, spine, or ribs. As the disease progresses, the pain becomes more severe and localized. The pain intensifies with activity and is relieved by rest. When tumors replace bone marrow, pathologic fractures develop. Hemolytic anemia does not result in pathologic fractures nor does polycythemia vera or leukemia.

The nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. Why would it be important to assess this client for fractures?

Osteoclasts break down bone cells so pathologic fractures occur. Explanation: The abnormal plasma cells proliferate in the bone marrow, where they release osteoclast-activating factor. This, in turn, causes osteoclasts to break down bone cells, resulting in increased blood calcium and pathologic fractures. The plasma cells also form single or multiple osteolytic (bone-destroying) tumors that produce a "punched-out" or "honeycombed" appearance in bones such as the spine, ribs, skull, pelvis, femurs, clavicles, and scapulae. Weakened vertebrae lead to compression of the spine accompanied by significant pain. The other options are distractors for this question.

Which assessment findings support the client's diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia? Select all that apply.

Petechiae Enlarged lymph nodes Weakness and fatigue Bone pain Explanation: Clients with AML may present with petechiae, enlarged lymph nodes, weakness, fatigue, and bone pain. An enlarged heart is not a typical finding with this disorder.

A patient with polycythemia vera has a high red blood cell (RBC) count and is at risk for the development of thrombosis. What treatment is important to reduce blood viscosity and to deplete the patient's iron stores?

Phlebotomy Explanation: The objective of management is to reduce the high RBC count and reduce the risk of thrombosis. Phlebotomy is an important part of therapy (Fig. 34-5). It involves removing enough blood (initially 500 mL once or twice weekly) to reduce blood viscosity and to deplete the patient's iron stores, thereby rendering the patient iron deficient and consequently unable to continue to manufacture hemoglobin excessively.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and observes multiple areas of ecchymosis and petechiae. What laboratory study should the nurse be concerned about?

Platelet count of 9,000/mm3 Explanation: Complications of AML include bleeding and infection, which are the major causes of death. The risk of bleeding correlates with the level and duration of platelet deficiency (thrombocytopenia). The low platelet count can cause ecchymoses (bruises) and petechiae. Major hemorrhages also may develop when the platelet count drops to less than 10,000/mm3.

Place the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma in the correct order.

Proliferation of abnormal plasma cells Release of osteoclast-activating factor Break down and removal of bone cells Increased blood calcium levels Explanation: The pathophysiology of multiple myeloma is as follows: Proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, release of osteoclast-activating factor, break down and removal of bone cells, increased blood calcium levels.

The nurse is assisting the client with multiple myeloma to ambulate. What is the most important nursing intervention to help prevent fractures in the client?

Promote safety. Explanation: Safety is paramount because any injury, no matter how slight, can result in a fracture. Mobility, hydration, and nutrition are important, but will not prevent fractures.

A client with multiple myeloma reports severe paresthesia in the feet. When planning care for the client, which priority nursing diagnosis will the nurse choose?

Risk for falls Explanation: A client with paresthesia in the feet is at risk for falls due to impaired sensation. Acute pain, impaired tissue integrity, and sensory-perception disturbance are all nursing diagnoses that are appropriate for the client; however, risk for falls is priority.

A client with polycythemia vera reports severe itching. What triggers does the nurse know can cause this distressing symptom? Select all that apply.

Temperature change Alcohol consumption Exposure to water of any temperature Explanation: Pruritus is very common, occurring in up to 70% of clients with polycythemia vera (Saini, Patnaik & Tefferi, 2010) and is one of the most distressing symptoms of this disease. It is triggered by contact with temperature change, alcohol consumption, or, more typically, exposure to water of any temperature but seems to be worse with exposure to hot water.

The nurse is assessing several clients. Which client does the nurse determine is most likely to have Hodgkin lymphoma?

The client with enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. Explanation: Lymph node enlargement in Hodgkin lymphoma is not painful. The client with enlarged lymph nodes in the neck is most likely to have Hodgkin lymphoma if the enlarged nodes are painless. Sore throat is not a sign for this disorder.

A client with polycythemia vera reports gouty arthritis symptoms in the toes and fingers. What is the nurse's best understanding of the pathophysiological reason for this symptom?

The dead red blood cells release excess uric acid. Explanation: There is a rapid proliferation of red blood cells from the marrow in polycythemia vera. However, these red blood cells die sooner than normal and the dead red blood cells release potassium and uric acid. This build up of uric acid in the blood leads to gouty arthritis symptoms.

Which statement best describes the function of stem cells in the bone marrow?

They produce all blood cells. Explanation: All blood cells are produced from undifferentiated precursors called pluripotent stem cells in the bone marrow. Other cells produced from the pluripotent stem cells help defend against bacterial infection, produce antibodies against foreign antigens, and are active against hypersensitivity reactions.

A nurse is assessing a client with multiple myeloma. Due to this condition, what will this client be at risk for?

pathologic bone fractures. Explanation: Clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for pathologic bone fractures secondary to diffuse osteoporosis and osteolytic lesions. Also, clients are at risk for renal failure secondary to myeloma proteins by causing renal tubular obstruction. Liver failure and heart failure aren't usually sequelae of multiple myeloma. Hypoxemia isn't usually related to multiple myeloma.

A nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. Which laboratory value is the nurse most likely to see?

Hypercalcemia Explanation: Calcium is released when bone is destroyed, causing hypercalcemia. Multiple myeloma doesn't affect potassium, sodium, or magnesium levels.

The nurse is assessing a client admitted with a deep vein thrombosis with an elevated red blood cell count. The admitting diagnosis is polycythemia vera. What is the hallmark clinical sign of PV?

splenomegaly Explanation: Splenomegaly is the hallmark of PV. Patients typically have a ruddy complexion and splenomegaly. Symptoms result from increased blood volume (headache, dizziness, tinnitus, fatigue, weight loss, paresthesias, and blurred vision). Edema, pale body color, and weight gain are not classic symptoms of PV.

Which statement indicates the client understands teaching about induction therapy for leukemia?

"I will be in the hospital for several weeks." Explanation: Induction therapy involves high doses of several medications and the client is usually admitted to the hospital for several weeks. The treatment is started quickly and the goal is to cure or put the disease into remission.

The nurse is interacting with a family that has been caring for a client with cancer for several months. What are the best interventions to assist in relieving caregiver stress in this family? Select all that apply.

Educate the family about medications and side effects. Allow family members to express feelings. Suggest support for household maintenance. Explanation: Family members benefit from increased education on what to expect. Allowing family members to express their feelings has also been shown to relieve stress. Supporting the caregiver and family with help in household duties will also help the overburdened family. Antianxiety medications and church attendance have not been shown to reduce caregiver stress.

Which precautions should a nurse include in the care plan for a client with leukemia and neutropenia?

Eliminate fresh fruits and vegetables, avoid using enemas, and practice frequent hand washing. Explanation: Neutropenia occurs when the absolute neutrophil count falls below 1,000/mm3, reflecting a severe risk of infection. The nurse should provide a low-bacterial diet, which means eliminating fresh fruits and vegetables, avoiding invasive procedures such as enemas, and practicing frequent hand washing. Using a soft toothbrush, avoiding straight-edged razors and enemas, and monitoring for bleeding are precautions for clients with thrombocytopenia. Putting on a mask, gown, and gloves when entering the client's room are reverse isolation measures. A neutropenic client doesn't need a clear liquid diet or sodium restrictions.

The nurse recognizes the clinical assessment of a patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) includes observing for signs of infection early. What nursing action will most likely help prevent infection?

Practice vigilant handwashing. Explanation: Infection prevention is best handled by vigilant handwashing. Monitoring the client's temperature once a shift is not often enough. The client will take precautions, but precautions are enough to prevent infections. Encouraging increased fluid consumption will not prevent infection.

A nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?

Preventing bone injury Explanation: When caring for a client with multiple myeloma, the nurse should focus on relieving pain, preventing bone injury and infection, and maintaining hydration. Monitoring respiratory status and balancing rest and activity are appropriate interventions for any client. To prevent such complications as pyelonephritis and renal calculi, the nurse should keep the client well hydrated — not restrict fluid intake.

The nursing instructor is discussing disorders of the hematopoietic system with the pre-nursing pathophysiology class. What disease would the instructor list with a primary characteristic of erythrocytosis?

Polycythemia vera Explanation: Polycythemia vera is associated with a rapid proliferation of blood cells produced by the bone marrow. In sickle cell disease, HbS causes RBCs to assume a sickled shape under hypoxic conditions. Aplastic anemia has a deficiency of erythrocytes. The other options do not have the characteristics of erythrocytosis.

The nurse is administering packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusions for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). The patient has had several transfusions and is likely to receive several more. What is a priority for the nurse to monitor related to the transfusions?

Iron levels Explanation: For most patients with MDS, transfusions of RBCs may be required to control the anemia and its symptoms. These patients can develop iron overload from the repeated transfusions; this risk can be diminished with prompt initiation of chelation therapy (see following Nursing Management section).

A client with multiple myeloma presents to the emergency department and reports excessive thirst and constipation. Family members report that the client has been confused for the last day. Which laboratory value is most likely responsible for this client's symptoms?

Serum calcium level 13.8 mg/dl Explanation: Excessive thirst, constipation, dehydration, confusion, and altered mental state are possible signs of hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia is common in multiple myeloma because of the increased bone destruction. A platelet count of 300,000/mm3 is normal and wouldn't cause the client's symptoms. A sodium level of 133 mEq/L is slightly decreased but wouldn't cause confusion and excessive thirst. A hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dl level is slightly low but isn't likely responsible for the client's symptoms.

The hospitalized client is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding with a platelets at 9,000/mm³. The client is receiving prednisone and azathioprine. What action will the nurse take?

Perform a neurologic assessment with vital signs. Explanation: With platelets less than 10,000/mm³ there is a risk for spontaneous bleeding, including within the cranial vault. The nurse performs a neurologic examination to assess for this possibility. Though the client is receiving immunosuppressants, it is not necessary to use contact precautions with this client. Contact precautions are used with clients who have known or suspected transmittable illnesses. Diphenoxylate and atropine can cause constipation and inhibit accurate assessment of the client's gastrointestinal bleeding. If the client strains when having a bowel movement, the client could bleed even more. The client is not to floss vigorously; doing so can cause bleeding.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who will undergo chemotherapy and radiation prior to hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) for acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What statement will the nurse use to describe the purpose of the chemotherapy and radiation?

"These therapies destroy the ability of your body to produce blood cells inside your bone marrow." Explanation: The treatment goal of chemotherapy and radiation therapy is the destruction of hematopoietic function of the client's bone marrow. The client is then "rescued" with the infusion of the donor stem cells to reinitiate blood cell production. AML is a cancer of the blood and does not have a mass effect/tumor that other cancers may cause. Also, these therapies are not used to decrease a client's pain or to decrease the risk of allergic reaction.

When assessing a female client with a disorder of the hematopoietic or the lymphatic system, which assessment is most essential?

Health history, such as bleeding, fatigue, or fainting Explanation: When assessing a client with a disorder of the hematopoietic or the lymphatic system, it is essential to assess the client's health history. An assessment of drug history is essential because some antibiotics and cancer drugs contribute to hematopoietic dysfunction. Aspirin and anticoagulants may contribute to bleeding and interfere with clot formation. Because industrial materials, environmental toxins, and household products may affect blood-forming organs, the nurse needs to explore exposure to these agents. Age, gender, menstrual history, or lifestyle assessments, such as exercise routines and habits, do not directly affect the hematopoietic or lymphatic system.

A patient with AML is having aggressive chemotherapy to attempt to achieve remission. The patient is aware that hospitalization will be necessary for several weeks. What type of therapy will the nurse explain that the patient will receive?

Induction therapy Explanation: Despite advances in understanding of the biology of AML, substantive advances in treatment response rates and survival rates have not occurred for decades, with the exception of advances made in treating APL (see later discussion). Even for patients with subtypes that have not benefited from advances in treatment, cure is still possible. The overall objective of treatment is to achieve complete remission, in which there is no evidence of residual leukemia in the bone marrow. Attempts are made to achieve remission by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy, called induction therapy, which usually requires hospitalization for several weeks.

A client with suspected multiple myeloma is reporting back pain. What is the priority nursing action?

Send the client for a spinal x-ray study. Explanation: The client with myeloma can have bone pain, especially in the back and ribs. The pain will decrease with rest and increase with activity. Lying on a hard surface will not relieve the pain. The priority action is to make certain the client does not have a fractured spine, as the bone destruction in this disease is sufficiently severe to cause vertebral collapse.

For a client with Hodgkin lymphoma, who is at a risk for ineffective airway clearance and impaired gas exchange, the nurse places the client in a high Fowler's position to

increase lung expansion. Explanation: For a client with Hodgkin disease who is at a risk for ineffective airway clearance and impaired gas exchange, the nurse keeps the neck in the midline and places the client in a high Fowler's position if respiratory distress develops. Avoiding unnecessary pressure on the trachea and positioning for increased lung expansion improve air exchange. The nurse administers oxygen, per the physician's orders, to reduce deficits in the blood oxygen concentration. The nurse assesses the client's respiratory status during each shift to detect compromised ventilation. The nurse places an endotracheal tube, a laryngoscope, and a bag-valve mask at the bedside for intubation if the need for the airway management arises.

A nurse is teaching a client with multiple myeloma about the therapeutic benefits of radiation therapy. Which statements will the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply.

"It helps to strengthen the bone." "It helps to decrease bone pain." Explanation: Radiation therapy is useful in strengthening the bone at a specific lesion, particularly a bone at risk for fracture or spinal cord compression. It is also extremely useful in relieving bone pain. Radiation therapy is not effective in decreasing bone malignancy, decreasing excess calcium, or activating an immune response.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with high uric acid levels. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering that will prevent crystallization of uric acid and stone formation?

Allopurinol Explanation: Massive leukemic cell destruction from chemotherapy results in the release of intracellular electrolytes and fluids into the systemic circulation. Increases in uric acid levels, potassium, and phosphate are seen; this process is referred to as tumor lysis (cell destruction) syndrome. The increased uric acid and phosphorus levels make the client vulnerable to renal stone formation and renal colic, which can progress to acute renal failure. Clients require a high fluid intake, and prophylaxis with allopurinol (Zyloprim) to prevent crystallization of uric acid and subsequent stone formation.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma in the hospital and preparing discharge planning education. Knowing that this patient is at risk for the development of a second malignancy, what education would be beneficial to reduce the risk factors? (Select all that apply.)

Reduce exposure to excessive sunlight Smoking cessation Decrease alcohol intake Explanation: The potential development of a second malignancy should be addressed with the patient when initial treatment decisions are made. However, patients should also be told that Hodgkin lymphoma is often curable. The nurse should encourage patients to reduce other factors that increase the risk of developing second cancers, such as use of tobacco and alcohol and exposure to environmental carcinogens and excessive sunlight.